FREE GRE Sample Full-Length Test: Download GRE Practice Test-7

FREE GRE Sample Full-Length Test 2024 is vital for your preparation across verbal, quantitative, and analytical writing sections. Regularly completing the online FREE GRE Sample Full-Length Test enhances your understanding of various question types and improves performance evaluation. The official ETS website offers a range of GRE practice materials, and online courses can further aid in efficient exam preparation.

GeeksforGeeks provides GRE and other FREE GRE Sample Full-Length Tests, expertly crafted to help you excel. Whether you're starting or fine-tuning skills, our GRE Free Practice Tests are essential for acing the exam.

GRE Analytical Writing Section Practice Questions

The 30-minute "Analyze an Issue" task is the Analytical Writing measure. A viewpoint on a matter and guidelines for responding are presented in this task. You must assess the problem, consider its complexities, and develop a case for your position supported by facts and examples.

You'll utilize an ETS-developed simple word processor to type your essay answers. The word processor has the following features: cut-and-paste, undo previous actions, delete text, and insert text. There are no tools provided, such as grammar and spell checkers.

Question 1:

"Technology is creating a generation of people who are more dependent on devices than on critical thinking."

Sample Response: Technology has undoubtedly integrated into every aspect of our lives, from simple daily tasks to complex problem-solving. However, to say that it diminishes critical thinking is an oversimplification. Technology, when used wisely, can enhance our ability to think critically by providing access to vast amounts of information and diverse perspectives. It is not the technology itself, but how we use it, that determines its impact on our cognitive skills. Dependency arises when we allow technology to do the thinking for us, rather than using it as a tool to aid our critical analysis.

Question 2:

"To achieve success, one must prioritize hard work over innate talent."

Sample Response: Success is often viewed as the product of either hard work or innate talent, but in reality, it is the combination of both that leads to outstanding achievements. Hard work is essential in honing and maximizing one's talents. While innate talent provides a foundation, it is the relentless effort, discipline, and persistence that transform potential into success. Those who rely solely on talent may find early success, but without hard work, they may struggle to sustain or build upon it in the long run.

Question 3:

"A nation’s strength lies not in its economic power but in the well-being of its citizens."

Sample Response: The true strength of a nation extends beyond its economic power to the overall well-being of its citizens. Economic metrics alone do not capture the quality of life, social harmony, or the health of a society. A prosperous nation is one where citizens have access to quality healthcare, education, and a fair justice system, and where there is a sense of community and support. While economic power is crucial, it is the well-being of the populace that sustains long-term growth and stability.

Question 4:

"Globalization has done more to homogenize cultures than to celebrate diversity."

Sample Response: Globalization has indeed led to the spread of certain cultural elements worldwide, creating a more homogenized global culture. However, it has also opened doors to the celebration of diversity by making different cultural practices, traditions, and ideas more accessible. The key lies in how societies and individuals embrace globalization—whether they choose to maintain and celebrate their unique cultural identities or conform to a more uniform global culture. Globalization is a double-edged sword that can either diminish or enrich cultural diversity, depending on how it is managed.

Question 5:

"In today’s world, individuals should be more concerned with the environment than with economic growth."

Sample Response: In the face of growing environmental challenges, prioritizing environmental sustainability over unchecked economic growth is imperative. The long-term health of the planet is crucial for the survival and well-being of future generations. While economic growth is important, it should not come at the expense of environmental degradation. Sustainable development, where economic progress is achieved without compromising the environment, is the path forward. A balanced approach ensures that economic activities contribute to a healthy and thriving planet, rather than leading to its decline.

GRE Verbal Reasoning Section Practice Questions

Verbal Reasoning questions appear in several formats, each of which is discussed in detail in the corresponding sections linked to below. About half of the measure requires you to read passages and answer questions on those passages. The other half requires you to read, interpret and complete existing sentences, groups of sentences or paragraphs.

The Verbal Reasoning measure contains three types of questions: Reading Comprehension, Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence.

1. Text Completion

For each blank, select one entry from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Question:
Despite the professor's insistence that the theory was complete and without error, a thorough analysis revealed several __________ in the logic, leading to significant revisions before it was finally published.

• A) complexities
• B) flaws
• C) intricacies
• D) ambiguities
• E) advantages

Answer:
B) flaws
Explanation: The sentence suggests that the theory had issues that needed to be revised, so "flaws" is the most appropriate word.

2. Sentence Equivalence

Select the two answer choices that best complete the sentence and produce sentences that are alike in meaning.

Question:
The scientist's theory was ultimately dismissed as __________, despite the initial enthusiasm that greeted it.

• A) innovative
• B) implausible
• C) redundant
• D) improbable
• E) obscure
• F) credible

Answers:
B) implausible and D) improbable
Explanation: Both "implausible" and "improbable" suggest that the theory was not believable, which aligns with the sentence context.

3. Reading Comprehension

Passage:
The industrial revolution brought about significant changes to labor markets worldwide. Factories needed workers, and cities became the epicenters of employment. This rapid urbanization resulted in the exploitation of workers, including long hours, poor working conditions, and minimal wages. As these problems became more apparent, labor unions began to form, advocating for better rights and conditions for workers.

Question:
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the passage?

• A) To explain the benefits of urbanization brought by the industrial revolution.
• B) To describe the changes to labor markets and the rise of labor unions.
• C) To argue that the industrial revolution had a negative impact on workers.
• D) To illustrate the impact of minimal wages on the urban workforce.
• E) To suggest solutions to the exploitation of workers during the industrial revolution.

Answer:
B) To describe the changes to labor markets and the rise of labor unions.
Explanation: The passage primarily discusses how labor markets changed and how labor unions emerged as a response.

4. Critical Reasoning

Question:
Critics argue that the recent decline in voter turnout is a sign of decreasing civic engagement. However, studies show that participation in community service and local organizations has actually increased over the same period. Thus, it is likely that civic engagement has not decreased but has instead shifted to other forms.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

• A) Voter turnout has also declined in other countries with different political systems.
• B) People who participate in community service are often motivated by civic-minded goals.
• C) The percentage of eligible voters has decreased over the past decade.
• D) Participation in online political forums has increased significantly.
• E) Many voters feel that their vote does not make a difference in the election outcome.

Answer:
B) People who participate in community service are often motivated by civic-minded goals.
Explanation: This supports the idea that civic engagement has shifted to community service, reinforcing the argument.

5. Reading Comprehension (Multiple-Answer)

Passage:
Modern art has often been critiqued for its abstraction, which some argue makes it inaccessible to the average viewer. However, proponents of abstract art argue that it allows for greater freedom of interpretation and emotional expression, as it does not confine the viewer to a particular narrative or subject matter.

Question:
According to the passage, which of the following are true of abstract art? Select all that apply.

• A) It is considered inaccessible by some critics.
• B) It provides a specific narrative for viewers to follow.
• C) It allows for emotional expression.
• D) It limits the viewer's interpretation.

Answers:
A) It is considered inaccessible by some critics.
C) It allows for emotional expression.
Explanation: The passage mentions both of these points, making them accurate according to the text.

GRE Quantitative Reasoning Section Practice Questions

The GRE General Test includes a section called GRE Quantitative Reasoning that evaluates your proficiency in basic mathematics as well as your capacity for quantitative reasoning and problem-solving. Students who grasp the four question types in the GRE Quants part will receive a good score of 160+ out of 170, similar to what they will receive in the verbal and analytical writing (awa) sections.

Arithmetic

1. Question : A certain sum of money triples in 5 years with compound interest. If the same amount is invested for 10 years, what will be the factor by which the original amount increases?

A. 6

B. 9

C. 27

D. 81

Answer : C. 27

Explanation : If the money triples in 5 years, then it grows by a factor of 3 every 5 years. In 10 years, it will grow by (3^2 = 9) times, and in 15 years, it will be (3^3 = 27) times.

2. Question : If ( a ) and ( b ) are positive integers such that ( \frac{a}{b} = 2.5 ) and ( a + b = 20 ), what is the value of ( a )?

A. 12

B. 15

C. 10

D. 18

Answer: B. 15

Explanation ( \frac{a}{b} = 2.5 ) implies ( a = 2.5b ). Substituting ( a = 2.5b ) into ( a + b = 20 ), we get ( 2.5b + b = 20 ), or ( 3.5b = 20 ). Thus, ( b = \frac{20}{3.5} = 5.71 ), and ( a = 2.5 \times 5.71 = 15 ).

Algebra

3. Question : If ( 3x - 5 = 2x + 7 ), what is the value of ( x )?

A. 1

B. 5

C. 12

D. 15

Answer: B. 12

Explanation: Solving ( 3x - 5 = 2x + 7 ), we get ( x = 12 ).

4. Question: The roots of the quadratic equation ( x^2 - kx + 12 = 0 ) are consecutive integers. What is the value of ( k )?

A. 9

B. 10

C. 11

D. 12

Answer : B. 10

Explanation : If the roots are consecutive integers, let them be ( n ) and ( n+1 ). The sum of the roots is ( n + (n + 1) = 2n + 1 ). Thus, ( k = 2n + 1 ). The product of the roots is ( n(n + 1) = 12 ). Solving ( n^2 + n - 12 = 0 ), the roots are ( 3 ) and ( 4 ), so ( k = 7 + 3 = 10 ).

Geometry

5. Question : The area of a circle is ( 36\pi \). What is the length of the radius of the circle?

A. 6

B. 12

C. 18

D. 24

Answer : A. 6

Explanation: The area of a circle is given by ( \pi r^2 ). If ( \pi r^2 = 36\pi ), then ( r^2 = 36 ) and ( r = \sqrt{36} = 6 ).

6. Question: In a triangle, one angle is ( 90^\circ ) and another angle is ( 45^\circ ). What is the length of the hypotenuse if one of the other sides is 5 units?

A. 5(\sqrt{2})

B. 10

C. 5

D. ( 5\sqrt{3} )

Answer : A. 5\(\sqrt{2})

Explanation : In a (45^\circ-45^\circ-90^\circ) triangle, the sides are in the ratio (1:1:\sqrt{2}). Thus, if one side is 5, the hypotenuse is (5 \times \sqrt{2}).

Data Analysis

7. Question : The average (mean) of five numbers is 20. If four of the numbers are 15, 22, 18, and 25, what is the fifth number?

A. 20

B. 25

C. 27

D. 30

Answer : C. 27

Explanation : The sum of the five numbers is ( 5 \times 20 = 100 ). The sum of the given four numbers is \( 15 + 22 + 18 + 25 = 80 ). Therefore, the fifth number is ( 100 - 80 = 20 ).

8. Question : In a dataset with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5, what is the z-score of a data point with a value of 60?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 10

Answer : B. 2

Explanation : The z-score is calculated as ( \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma} ), where ( X = 60 ), ( \mu = 50 ), and ( \sigma = 5 ). So, the z-score is ( \frac{60 - 50}{5} = 2 ).

9. Question : A box contains 3 red balls, 2 green balls, and 5 blue balls. If a ball is randomly selected, what is the probability that it is either green or blue?

A. ( \frac{7}{10} )

B. ( \frac{5}{10} )

C. ( \frac{2}{5} )

D. ( \frac{1}{2} )

Answer : A. ( \frac{7}{10} )

Explanation : The total number of balls is ( 3 + 2 + 5 = 10 ). The number of green or blue balls is ( 2 + 5 = 7 ). The probability is ( \frac{7}{10} ).

10. Question : If the median of a dataset consisting of 7 numbers is 14, and the numbers are arranged in ascending order, what is the value of the 4th number?

A. 14

B. 12

C. 16

D. 15

Answer: A. 14
Explanation: For a dataset with an odd number of elements, the median is the middle value. Thus, in a dataset of 7 numbers, the 4th number is the median, which is 14.

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