MOTHER TERESA ACADEMY OF MARILAO, BULACAN INC.

#267 Sandico Street, Poblacion II, Marilao, Bulacan

Tel No.: (044) 248 84 63 Email Address: [email protected]
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
SCIENCE 10
Name:_________________________________ Score/Rating:___________________
Section:________________________ _______ Date:__________________________
Teacher: Sir Nikko Carillo Parent’s Signature:
KNOWLEDGE and PROCESS
I. Read the questions carefully and encircle the letter of the best answer. Any ERASURE or
ALTERATION will make the answer invalid.
1. According to plate tectonic theory, earth’s crust and upper mantle are broken into enormous slab
called ______.
a. plate b. plate boundary c. fault d. NOTA
2. This is where two plates meet.
a. plate b. plate boundary c. fault d. NOTA
3. The term used by geologist to refer to the complex system of fractures or deformations in the fault.
a. plate b. plate boundary c. fault d. NOTA
4. Which statement is not true about earth’s crust?
a. It is broken into different major plates.
b. Oceanic crust is thicker than the continental crust.
c. Continental crust is much wider than the oceanic crust.
d. It floats in the mantle due to convection cells.
For nos. 5 to 6

5. What kind of plate boundary is presented on the image?

a. Divergent b. Convergent c. Destructive d. Both b and c
6. What kind of geological features can be form by this plate boundary?
a. mountain b. subduction c. mountain ranges d. rift valley
7. What kinds of crust were involved in this plate boundary?
a. oceanic to oceanic c. oceanic to continental
b. continental to continental d. all of the above
For nos. 8 to 9
8. What kind of plate boundary is presented on the image?
a. Divergent b. Convergent c. Destructive d. Both b and c
9. What kinds of crust were involved in this plate boundary?
a. oceanic to oceanic c. oceanic to continental
b. continental to continental d. all of the above
10. What geological features is formed by this plate movement?
a. mountain b. subduction c. mountain ranges d. rift valley
For nos. 11 to 12

11. What kinds of crust were involved in this plate boundary?

a. oceanic to oceanic c. oceanic to continental
b. continental to continental d. all of the above
12. What geological feature is formed by this plate movement?
a. mountain b. subduction c. mountain ranges d. rift valley
For nos. 13 to 14

13. What kind of fault is presented on the image given?

a. divergent b. convergent c. transform d. NOTA
14. What kind of geological feature is formed in the image?
a. deformed crust b. lake c. mountain d. volcano
For nos. 15 to 18

15. It is the transfer of thermal energy by the movement of heated matter.

a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. NOTA
16. Which of the following is true about the image given?
a. The outer the portion of the earth is hotter.
b. The less dense move down and the more dense moves up.
c. The mantle is semi-liquid.
d. This is the mechanism that enables the plate to move.
17. It is the portion of motion of a tectonic plate that can be accounted for by its subduction.
a. Slab pull b. Ridge push c. All of the above d. NOTA
18. What is the arrangement of the earth’s layer from outer to inner?
a. Asthenosphere, lithosphere, mesosphere, outer core, inner core
b. lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesosphere, inner core, outer core
c. lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesosphere, outer core, inner core
d. mesosphere, outer core, inner core, lithosphere, mesosphere
For nos. 19 to 24

19. It is form when the hanging wall moves up.

a. Image A b. Image B c. Image C d. NOTA
20. It is form when the hanging wall moves down.
a. Image A b. Image B c. Image C d. NOTA
21. The faults move sideways.
a. Image A b. Image B c. Image C d. NOTA
22. What is the name of Image A, B and C accordingly.
a. convergent, divergent, transform c. normal, reverse, strike slip
b. normal, reverse, transform d. normal, destructive, strike slip
23. It is the line make on Earth’s surface.
a. fault trace b. fault scrap c. hanging wall d. foot wall
24. It is where the fault plane is sloping.
a. fault trace b. fault scrap c. hanging wall d. foot wall
25. Kind of earthquake measuring scale that measures the earthquakes energy.
a. mercalli b. richter c. seismograph d. seismic waves
26. Kind of earthquake measuring scale that measures the earthquakes damage to the structures.
a. mercalli b. richter c. seismograph d. seismic waves
27. A very sensitive instrument that detect and record vibrations sent out by earthquakes.
a. seismic waves b. seismogram c. seismograph d. NOTA
28. It is the recording made by the answer in no. 27.
a. seismic waves b. seismogram c. seismograph d. NOTA
29. It is what the answer in no.27 is measuring.
a. seismic waves b. seismogram c. seismograph d. NOTA
30. Kind of seismic wave that compress and pull rocks in a particular direction along which the waves
are traveling.
a. primary wave b. secondary wave c. surface wave d. all of the above
31. It is the part of the ground where the earthquake came from.
a. epicenter b. focus c. hypocenter d. fault
32. It is the part of the ground where the earthquake is extremely felt.
a. epicenter b. focus c. hypocenter d. fault
33. A hazard of earthquake where it wreak havoc on earth itself and examples or this are land slide
and fault scrap.
a. ground motion b. land soil failure c. soil liquefaction d. tsunami
34. A wave train or series of waves generated by vertical motions of the seafloor of a body of water.
a. ground motion b. land soil failure c. soil liquefaction d. tsunami
th
35. You are at the 4 floor of MTAM when earthquake occurs, what will the best thing to do?
a. Go to the 1st floor so that less debris will fall on you.
b. Go to the plaza or any plane area.
c. Hide yourself in a stable chair or table.
d. Go against a cabinet.
36. You are at the activity area of MTAM when earthquake occurs, what will the best thing to do?
a. Go to the 1st floor so that less debris will fall on you.
b. Go to the plaza or any plane area.
c. Hide yourself in a stable chair or table.
d. Go against a cabinet.
37. Which of the following you should not do before earthquake?
a. Ensure the foundation of your house.
b. Pick a safe place in every place you go.
c. Rehearse “drop, cover and hang on”
d. Keep in mind that fire alerts and sprinklers could go off on earthquake.
38. Which of the following you should do after an earthquake.
a. drop, cover and hang on.
b. expect for aftershocks and falling of debris.
c. Keep an electric lamp or durable shoes near everywhere.
d. Stay away from windows to avoid being harmed by smashed glass.
For nos. 39 to 45
39. It is the particle of light.
a. photon b. electron c. neutron d. proton
40. Which of the following is not true about light?
a. Light has particles and mass.
b. Light can be broken down into sub particles.
c. Light has energy.
d. It is the basic unit of electromagnetic radiation.
41. Which is true about electromagnetic waves?
a. It has electric and magnetic field which are parallel to each other.
b. It is always harmful to human.
c. It travels with a speed of 3,000,000 m/s in vacuum.
d. It is measured in hertz.
42. It is the EM wave with strongest frequency
a. radio wave b. ultraviolet ray c. gamma ray d. NOTA
43. EM wave that is commonly used for communication and measured by hertz.
a. radio wave b. ultraviolet ray c. gamma ray d. NOTA
44. Most damaging and dangerous EM wave.
a. radio wave b. ultraviolet ray c. gamma ray d. NOTA
45. EM wave used in heat radiation and LED lights.
a. radio wave b. ultraviolet ray c. gamma ray d. NOTA
46. Which of the following is not true about law of refraction?
a. The incident angle is equal to reflected angle.
b. The reflection of the line depends on the formation of normal line.
c. Normal line is parallel to the surface.
d. Light is absorbed in the surface and the other part is reflected back.
47. It is an idealized model consisting of a thin beam of light that travels in a straight line.
a. ray b. beam c. wave front d. NOTA
48. It is an imaginary surface that represents points in the wave that vibrate in unison.
a. ray b. beam c. wave front d. NOTA

49. A kind of reflection that produces blurred image and scattered light.
a. specular b. diffused c. both a and b d. NOTA
50. A kind of reflection that produces a clear image.
a. specular b. diffused c. both a and b d. NOTA
51. A kind of reflection on a rough surface.
a. specular b. diffused c. both a and b d. NOTA
52. Which of the following is true about refraction?
a. It is the change in color of light when it passes the interface of one media to another.
b. The light bent towards to the normal line when it travels slower from the original speed.
c. The light bent away from the normal line when it travel from air into water.
d. All of the above
53. It happens as a result of the heating of the road surface by the sun.
a. refraction b. mirage c. rainbow d. halo
54. It is produced by ice crystals creating colored or white arcs and spots in the sky.
a. refraction b. mirage c. rainbow d. halo
55. The change in the direction of light when it passes the interface of one media to another.
a. refraction b. mirage c. rainbow d. NOTA
56. When a white light separates into a spectrum of colors when it passes through a glass prism.
a. refraction b. mirage c. rainbow d. NOTA

57. What is the kind of lens that is shown on the first image?
a. converging b. diverging c. both a and b d. NOTA
58. What is the kind of lens that is shown on the second image?
a. converging b. diverging c. both a and b d. NOTA
59. Kind of lens that make the light scatter in different areas.
a. converging b. diverging c. both a and b d. NOTA
60. Kind of lens that was used by far sighted individuals.
a. converging b. diverging c. both a and b d. NOTA
61. If a bar magnet is brought close to an iron nail itself become a magnet.
a. induction b. neutral point c. magnetic field d. NOTA
62. Which of the following is not true about MRI?
a. It stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging.
b. It uses magnetic properties to produce detailed body image.
c. Contrast agents are used to facilitate the generation of image.
d. It is used for individuals with pacemaker, metal implant or artificial limbs.
63. This word means leading stone.
a. magnet b. loadstone c. magnetite d. iron
For number 19 to 20
I – iron V – paper
II – cobalt VI – nickel
III – wood VII – aluminum
IV – copper VIII - brass
64. Which of the following are examples of magnetic material?
a. I, II, IV, VI b. I, II, VI c. I , II, IV, VII d. I, II, VI, VIII
65. Which of the following are examples of non-magnetic material?
a. II, III, IV, V, VII b. II, III, IV, V, VII c. III, IV, V, VI d. III, IV, V, VII, VIII
66. This region around the magnet where magnetic effects can be detected is called the ______.
a. induction b. neutral point c. magnetic field d. NOTA
67. Which of the following is not a property of magnetic field.
a. Lines of force originate from the north pole to the south pole.
b. If lines are closer to one another, the magnetic field is stronger.
c. Lines never cross each other.
d. If two magnets are closed together, the magnetic force will not change.
68. A part in a combined magnetic field where there is no magnetic effect.
a. induction b. neutral point c. magnetic field d. NOTA
69. It changes electrical signals to audible sound using a coil of fine wire mounted on a paper cone
and placed in a magnetic field.
a. Hard disk b. Electric motor c. Loudspeaker d. NOTA
70. An apparatus that converts electric energy to rotational kinetic energy.
a. Hard disk b. Electric motor c. Loudspeaker d. NOTA
71. It is mainly used for storing computer data.
a. Hard disk b. Electric motor c. Loudspeaker d. NOTA
72. An optical device that transmits and refracts light.
a. lens b. laser c. prism d. NOTA
73. The light is divided into spectrum by this device.
a. lens b. laser c. prism d. NOTA
74. He discovered law of refraction.
a. Rene Descartes b. Willebrord Snellis c. both a and b d. NOTA
75. He said that each transparent material has and index of refraction.
a. Rene Descartes b. Willebrord Snellis c. both a and b d. NOTA
UNDERSTANDING
II. Read and analyze the given carefully and write your correct answer on the space provided.
1. Give 3 effects or results of the movement of the tectonic plates. 3pts
2. Explain the mechanism of convections cells and how does it contribute to the movement of the
mantle? 3pts

3. Explain how rainbow is formed. 3pts

4. Explain how compass works and its relation to the earth. 3pts

5. Use the image below to explain the law of refraction and give an example of it. 4pts

6. Explain the right hand rule and where the current and magnetic force flow. 4pts

7. Differentiate refraction from reflection. 2pts

8. In you project in science, explain how does the coil of copper wire rotates and its relation to
magnetism. 3pts
 MOTHER TERESA ACADEMY OF MARILAO, BULACAN INC.
#267 Sandico Street, Poblacion II, Marilao, Bulacan
Tel No.: (044) 248 84 63 Email Address: [email protected]
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
PRECALCULUS
Name:_________________________________ Score/Rating:___________________
Section:________________________ _______ Date:__________________________
Teacher: Sir Nikko Carillo Parent’s Signature:
KNOWLEDGE
I. Read the statements carefully and write the correct answer on the space provided using the given
choices below.
Transverse axis Ellipse P Vertices
Asymptotes Hyperbola Axis of symmetry
Vertex Circle Latus rectum
_____________1. The set of all points P in a plane such that the sum of its distances from two fixed
points on a plane is constant.
_____________2. The endpoints of the major axis of an ellipse are called?
_____________3. It looks like two mirrored parabolas whose vertices lie on the same horizontal or
vertical line and with opposite openings of the graphs.
_____________4. The segment that joins the vertices of a hyperbola is called?
_____________5. The two intersecting lines that the hyperbola approaches but never reaches.
_____________6. Conic section that is formed by intersecting a cone with a plane that is
perpendicular to the axis of the cone.
_____________7. The highest or the lowest point of the parabola.
_____________8. The line that passes through the vertex and is perpendicular to the directrix.
_____________9. The length of the chord passing through the focus and perpendicular to the axis of
symmetry of the parabola.
_____________10. The distance from the vertex to the focus of the parabola.
PROCESS
II. Analyze the given equations carefully and compute for what is being asked. Write your complete
solution legibly on the space provided and graph the equation neatly.
1. 4x2 +9y2 -8x -36y +4 = 0
Standard Form:

Center:
a=

b=

c=
2. 36x2 + y2 +216x -4y +292 = 0
Standard Form:

Center:
a=

b=

c=

3. 16x2 -160x + 9y2 +36y + 435 =0

Standard Form:

Center:
a=

b=

c=
4. y2 +8y -9x2 +54x -66 =0
Standard Form:

Center:
a=

b=

c=

5. 3x2 +3y2 -30x -36y -9 =0

Standard form:

Center:
Radius:

6. (x-11)2 + (y-6)2 = 64
General form:

Center:
Radius:
7. y= -2y2 -4y +70

Vertex:
8. y= -2x2 -4x -6

Vertex:

UNDERSTANDING
III. Read the questions carefully and answer it correctly.
1. Find the equation of the circle whose center at (-2,4) and passes through the point (-5,4).

2. Give 5 reasons why you fail to answer math questions correctly. 5pts
 MOTHER TERESA ACADEMY OF MARILAO, BULACAN INC.
#267 Sandico Street, Poblacion II, Marilao, Bulacan
Tel No.: (044) 248 84 63 Email Address: [email protected]
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
PRACTICAL RESEARCH 2
Name:_________________________________ Score/Rating:___________________
Section:________________________ _______ Date:__________________________
Teacher: Sir Nikko Carillo Parent’s Signature:
KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING
I. Read the questions carefully and encircle the letter of the best answer. Any ERASURE or
ALTERATION will make the answer invalid.
1. "Students taught first aid by programmed instruction will achieve at a higher level than those
taught first aid by the traditional method." The independent variable in this hypothesis is:
a. Students c. level of achievement
b. programmed instruction d. method of instruction
2.In the example in question 30, the dependent variable is:
a. Students c. level of achievement
b. programmed instruction d. method of instruction
3. Qualitative researchers generally formulate a hypothesis beforehand and then seek to test it.
a. True b. False
4. In formulating the title, all the variables must be identified and included.
a. True b. False
5. Significance of the study includes the beneficiaries and the benefits that they can derive from the
results of the study.
a. True b. False
6. Which should NOT be considered in choosing a topic for research?
a. Personal resources c. relevance of the topic
b. Interest of the research jury d. availability of information
7. Which of the following should NOT be included in the background of the study?
a. Reason why the study is conducted c. discussion about the study variables
b. Statement of the problem d. theory to support the study
8. What initiates the process of research?
a. Problem c. significance of the study
b. Hypothesis d. literature
9. Which part of the research reveals the objectives of the study?
a. Definition of Terms c. Significance of the Study
b. Statement of the Problem d. Delimitation of the Study
10. Which states the how the term is determined in the study?
a. Lexical definition c. Operational Definition
b. Delimitation d. Problem
11. It sets the boundaries of the study or scope?
a. Statement of the problem c. Review of Related Literature
c. Delimitation of the Study d. Significance of the Study
12. Why is research important to life?
 a. Research has the potential for providing quality life.
b. Research assesses individuals or groups plan of actions as basis for accurate inventions and
decisions in life.
c. Research helps professionals deliver quality education services.
d. All of the above
13. Scientific method in research that is gained through direct observation and experimentation.
a. empirical c. conclusion
b. observation d. none of the above
14. Scientific method of research that is related to the awareness of environment to constitute ideas.
a. empirical c. conclusion
b. observation d. none of the above
15. Scientific method in research in which the data are separated into constituent part or elements.
a. empirical c. conclusion
b. observation d. none of the above
16. The process of making inferences involves concrete data to rule out opinion.
a. empirical c. conclusion
b. observation d. none of the above
17. Which of the following is a goal of research?
a. Innovation c. experimentation
b. description d. all of the above
18. Which of the following is an example of construct?
a. height, weight, BMI c. age, gender, civil status
b. small, medium, large d. both a and c
19. It involves the collection of data to either test the hypothesis or describe the variable in the study.
a. experimental c. correlational
b. descriptive d. none of the above
20. It measures the effect of the independent variable to the dependent variable.
a. experimental c. correlational
b. descriptive d. none of the above
21. Variable that is not included in the study but in one way affects the dependent variable.
a. independent c. ordinal
b. nominal d. confounding
22. It is concerned with the names and categories of responses.
a. independent
b. nominal
c. ordinal
d. confounding
23. The process of acknowledging the sources of information that you have used in your manuscript.
a. citation c. bibliography
b. referencing d. none of the above
24. It contains complete listing of conferred with in relation to the study being conducted.
a. citation c. bibliography
b. referencing d. none of the above
25. The process of organizing the written works cited in your text.
a. citation b. referencing
c. bibliography d. none of the above
26. Which of the following is not a reason for citation?
a. To be able to identify and relocate the sources used in the study for verification purposes.
b. To show respect and appreciation to the author of the study and to avoid plagiarism.
c. When you copy any written work in verbatim without indicating your source and claim it as your
own, it is plagiarizing.
d. To present a proof that the topic under study is well accounted in the research work in its
respective field of study.
27. Which of the following is not a reason for referencing?
a. To prove that the study is based on academic works.
b. To locate the sources of the cited texts in the study.
c. To share additional knowledge and information about the topic under study.
d. To rightfully acknowledge the authors of the research materials mentioned in the study.
28. Which of the following is not a way of citing a source material?
a. as a direct quote c. as a summary
b. as a paraphrase d. as a verbatim
29. Patterning is the foundation for reading and math skills. Rhymes, on the other hand, assist
children to learn and memorize the alphabet and numbers (Kenney, 2005).
a. direct quotation c. summarized text
b. paraphrased text d. verbatim
30. In his experiment of Bobo Doll, Bandura (1971) concluded that children learn and imitate
behaviors they have observed in other people. Modeling can be classified into three, namely: a live
model, verbal instructional model and symbolic model.
a. direct quotation c. summarized text
b. paraphrased text d. verbatim
31. Nickerson (in Torrance, 1995 ) explained that “a truly adequate approach to educational
assessment not only will measure accurately what has been learned but will also provide useful
diagnostic information.” (Torrance, 1995, p.45)
a. direct quotation c. summarized text
b. paraphrased text d. verbatim
32. Paul ( in Corinthians, 52 AD) stated that “ everything is permissible but not everything is
beneficial” (Corinthians, 52AD, chapter 10 verse 5)
a. direct quotation c. summarized text
b. paraphrased text d. verbatim
33. It includes full publication detail of all your cited works in your study.
a. citation c. bibliography
b. referencing d. none of the above
34. It includes existing literature, current issues and present problems and circumstances associated
with the study.
a. background of the study c. statement of the problem
b. rationale d. none of the above
35. The section of the introduction concentrates on the issue or problem that the research intends to
investigate.
a. background of the study c. statement of the problem
b. rationale d. none of the above
36. It is confined with a broader explanation behind the reasons for doing study.
a. background of the study c. statement of the problem
b. rationale d. none of the above
37. The importance of doing the investigation to strengthen the beneficial purpose of conducting
researches.
a. background of the study c. statement of the problem
b. rationale d. none of the above
38. “Test anxiety is a situation specific personality trait that occurs before, during and after a testing
session.”
a. definition c. historical
b. cause and effect d. methodology
39. “Test anxiety can be investigated through experimental study. Using this method, the researcher
is tasked to create conditions which could stimulate test anxiety and provide possible treatment to
battle it out.”
a. background of the study c. statement of the problem
b. rationale d. none of the above
40. “Dance originated in the form of rudimentary as early as 1.8million year ago, when the bipedal
anatomy of Homo ergaster can move the body fully which enhanced the communication and body
language.”
a. background of the study c. statement of the problem
b. rationale d. none of the above
41. “Test anxiety has cognitive causes that bring out physiological effects. A person with test anxiety
experiences tension due to fear as manifested by their increase in heart rate, rapidity of breathing
and immobilization.”
a. background of the study c. statement of the problem
b. rationale d. none of the above
42. Which of the following is not an example of background of study.
a. objectives of study c. comparison of ideas
b. problems/issues d. advantages and disadvantages
43. It pertains to a representative of the population from which it was selected.
a. sample b. population c. census d. survey
44. It is the whole group of interest of the researcher.
a. sample b. population c. census d. survey
45. Test done to the sample.
a. sample b. population c. census d. survey
46. Test done to the population.
a. sample b. population c. census d. survey
47. These are tools that measure variables in the study and are designed to obtain data on a topic of
interest from the subjects of research.
a. instrumentation c. research instruments
b. validity d. objectivity
48. It refers to the absence of subjective judgements in the research instrument.
a. instrumentation c. research instruments
b. validity d. objectivity
49. It pertains to the defensibility of the inferences formulated by researchers from the collection of
data through the use of the instrument.
a. instrumentation c. research instruments
b. validity d. objectivity
50. The process of developing an instrument as well as the conditions under which the instrument will
be used.
a. instrumentation c. research instruments
b. validity d. objectivites
PROCESS
II. Read the statements carefully and write the letter of the correct answer on the space provided.
A. If the two statements are both correct
B. If the first statement is correct while the second one is not
C. If the second statement is correct while the first one is not
D. If the two statements are both incorrect
1. I - The research participants must be fully informed about the nature of research, its purposes
and potential risk and benefits.
II – Research must do good and no harm to study participants.
2. I - The rights of the study participants must be well protected and respected.
II – Researcher is free to decide whether to acknowledge or not original work.
3. I – Research must give correct or accurate data.
II – Good research topic is one that .is tested over time.
4. I – Research doesn’t improve your reading and writing skills.
II – Research teaches you to work systematically.
5. I – Qualitative research happens in an artificial setting.
II – Qualitative is instrumental for both positive and negative societal changes.
6. I – Conducting qualitative research is time-consuming.
II – Qualitative research promotes a full understanding of human behavior.
7. I – In qualitative research, the validity or reliability is difficult to know.
II – Qualitative research involves several processes, which results greatly depend on the
researcher’s views or interpretations.
8. I – In quantitative research, the researcher test the hypothesis.
II – Disadvantage of qualitative research is it difficult to conclude.
9. I – The respondent of the research may decline the research procedure anytime within the
research
II- Research must not have any conflict of interest during or before it is done.
10. I- Null hypothesis denotes absence of equality in the variables
II- Null hypothesis uses symbols such as not equal, greater than or less than.

III. Identify the type of research applicable for each question/topic/situation. Choose from the options
below.
 A. Qualitative Research
B. Quantitative Research
1. What is the degree of satisfaction of students towards the Practical Research subject?
2. What are the political influences of “Uga” Festival of Brgy. Dumolog?
3. Is there a significant difference in the strand preference of students when grouped
according to gender?
4. What are the feelings of super typhoon “Yolanda” survivors before, during and after the
phenomenon?
5. What is the academic performance of students in Science?
6. Statistical analysis
7. Narrative report
8. Observation
9. Confirmatory
10. Randomized sampling
IV. Read the research titles carefully and ENCIRCLE the dependent variable and UNDERLINE the
independent variable. Write your own null and alternative hypothesis for each research title.
1. The significance of Mathematical Literacy Enhancement to the Arithmetic Intelligence of Grade 12
HUMSS students of MTAM.
Ho:

Ha:

2. The relationship between the weekly allowances to the academic performance of Grade 10
students of MTAM.
Ho:

Ha:

3. The perception of Junior High School students of MTAM to the approval of Same Sex Marriage Law.
Ho:

Ha:

4. The behavioural effects of War on Drugs to the daily activities of School Age children of Poblacion
II, Marilao.
Ho:

Ha:
5. The efficiency of instructional learning to the problem solving skill of grade 7 students of MTAM.

Ho:

Ha:

UNDERSTANDING
V. Read the statements carefully and answer it correctly and completely.
1. Accomplish the following parts of Research Paper. 15pts
A. Topic:
B: Title:

C: Background of the study:

D: Statement of the Problem:

E: Hypothesis:

F: Objectives:
 MOTHER TERESA ACADEMY OF MARILAO, BULACAN INC.
#267 Sandico Street, Poblacion II, Marilao, Bulacan
Tel No.: (044) 248 84 63 Email Address: [email protected]
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
GENERAL PHYSICS I
Name:_________________________________ Score/Rating:___________________
Section:________________________ _______ Date:__________________________
Teacher: Sir Nikko Carillo Parent’s Signature:
KNOWLEDGE
I. Read the questions carefully and encircle the letter of the best answer. Any ERASURE or
ALTERATION will make the answer invalid.
1. Which is not a main branch of science?
a. biological science c. social science
b. natural science d. applied science
2. Which of the following is true about Physics?
a. It has two branches which are old physics and modern physics.
b. It is a sub branch of physical science.
c. It is subject that every student needs to pass.
d. Branch of science that study the force acting on bodies whether rest or in motion.
3. Which of the following is not true?
a. Thermodynamics is the study of relationship between heat and other forms of energy.
b. Optics is the study of light.
c. The study of discrete nature of phenomena at the atomic and subatomic levels is Quantum Physics.
d. Electrostatics is the study of electric particles in motion.
4. Arrange the steps in scientific method using the given below.
I – Test the hypothesis IV – Gather data
II – Make a conclusion V – Analyze the data
III – State the problem VI – Formulate Hypothesis
a. IV, III, I, IV, V, II c. IV, III, V, VI, I, II
b. III, VI, IV, I, V, II d. III, VI, I, IV, V, II
5. How many significant figures are present in 0.000283?
a. 7 c. 3
b. 6 d. none of the above
-23
6. How many significant figures in 9.11 x 10
a. 3 c. 23
b. 24 d. none of the above
7. 9.2 x 108cm – 69 x 106cm =?
a. 8.51 x 107 c. 8.5 x 108
b. 851,000,000 d. none of the above
8. (2.4 x109km) / (0.6 x 103km) =?
a. 4.0 x 106 km c. 0.004 x 109
b. 4,000,000 km d. all of the above
9. Which of the following is not true about precision?
a. A measurement describes how well the results agree with an accepted value.
b. When the dart hit the target three times.
c. When Bryan hit the back board 5 times in a row.
d. The degree of closeness of the magnitude.
10. Which of the following is an example of scalar quantity?
a. Northwest b. 5 minutes c. 40km d. 12m backward
11. Which of the following is true about Newton’s second law of motion?
a. When a motorcycle was bumped into a truck.
b. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
c. When a bird use its wings to fly.
d. Force is inversely proportional to the mass and acceleration of the object.
12. Which of the following statements is not true about Newton’s law of motion?
a. Bryan naturally fell in love for Mira after some flirtship.
b. Mira fell in love with Bryan with no reason.
c. If someone is valuable to Bryan, he will exert great effort for his/her.
d. Byran loss his focus in study because of the transferee student this school year.
13. Which of the following is true about speed?
a. going to school in 10 minutes
b. has a unit of m/s2
c. 2 kilometers jog in 45 minutes
d. speed is directly proportional to distance and time
14. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. An iron ball and a feather will fall on the same time under a vacuum.
b. The acceleration of an object increases as it falls.
c. Mass is related to the gravitational force of a planet.
d. Acceleration is the average speed of an object in a given time.
15. Which of the following is the heaviest?
a. 1.5 x 10-12 Gigagram c. 10 cubic decimeter of water
b. 500ml of water d. 1 pound of meat
16. It acts on a body so that there is a displacement of the point of application in the direction of the
force.
a. Work b. Power c. Potential Energy d. Kinetic Energy
17. It is the energy that is stored in an object.
a. Work b. Power c. Potential Energy d. Kinetic Energy
18. It is the rate of performing work.
a. Work b. Power c. Potential Energy d. Kinetic Energy
19. A kind of collision which do not conserve kinetic energy and some of its energy is lost in some
forms.
a. Elastic c. Perfectly Inelastic
b. Inelastic d. none of the above
20. When the ball drop and it bounce by itself until the rate of bounce reduces and stop.
a. Elastic c. Perfectly Inelastic
b. Inelastic d. none of the above
21. When an egg drop and it was fully crack on the ground.
a. Elastic c. Perfectly Inelastic
b. Inelastic d. none of the above
22. It refers to the force that resists motion whenever two materials or media are in contact.
a. static b. sliding c. friction d. NOTA
23. A type of friction that is associated with the rolling of the wheels.
a. static b. sliding c. friction d. NOTA
24. It includes all cases in which frictional force is enough to prevent relative motion between surface
in contact.
a. static b. sliding c. friction d. NOTA
25. An object thrown with an initial horizontal velocity and acted upon by the earth’s pull of gravity.
a. projectile motion c. trajectory
b. projectile d. none of the above
26. It is the curved path travelled by a projectile.
a. projectile motion c. trajectory
b. projectile d. none of the above
27. When a 500kg of rock is at the top of the mountain.
a. Work c. Potential Energy
b. Power d. none of the above
28. When the wind blows the 500kg rock and it travels with a distance of 150m.
a. Work c. Potential Energy
b. Power d. none of the above
29. When Nikko finish all his work within 6 hours only.
a. Work c. Potential Energy
b. Power d. none of the above
30. The potential energy of the 500kg rock at the top of a 295m high mountain is the same kinetic
energy when the rock falls.
a. True b. False c. Sometimes d. Never

PROCESS
II. Solve for the final displacement and direction of the given vectors using component method. Write
your complete solution.16pts.
x y
V1 = 7 miles north
V2 = 12 miles SE
V3 = 9 miles 35° W of S
V4 = 12 miles 40° E of S

UNDERSTANDING
III. Read the questions carefully and answer it correctly. Show your complete solution and box your
final answer.
1. An 500kg car is going 15m/s along a level highway. How much force is needed to stop the card in a
distance of 75m? 4pts

3. A 50 gram bullet was fired and has an final velocity of 250m/s after it covered a distance of 1.5
kilometers. Find the force acting on the bullet. 4pts

4. Wade throws the basketball ball vertically upward when they finally won the championship and it
fell on the ground after 5 seconds. 4pts
a. Find the initial velocity of the ball.
b. Find the highest distance covered by the ball.
5. 7,000J of work is used to raise an object to a height of 15m. What is the mass of the object? 3pts

6. Find the work done in carrying 50kg sack of rice for 2km around Divisoria. 3pts

7. A swimmer develops an average power of 225J/s as he covers 210m in 65s. What is the resistive
force exerted by water on her? 3pts

8. A constant force of 2kN pulls a crate along a level floor a distance of 1km in 5minutes. What is the
power used? 3pts

9. Calculate the kinetic energy of an 70kg motorbike moving at 12m/s. What is the kinetic energy of
the car if the speed is doubled? 3pts

10. A 1500kg bus from Laguna moves at 20m/s to Makati. What is the momentum of the bus? 3pts

11. An 8kg bowling ball moves at a speed of 3.5m/s and hits the 200g basketball ball with a speed of
5m/s. After the collision the bowling ball moves at 0.5m/s, what is the speed of the basketball ball
after the collision? 4pts
12. A 0.2kg arrow with a velocity of 35m/s to the West strikes and pierced the 0.3kg apple. What is
the final velocity of the combined mass? 4pts

13. A 250kg of fruits if being pulled by a truck at an inclined surface of 35° from the horizontal. Find
the force of friction if the force exerted by the truck is 150N and coefficient of friction is 0.4. 4pts

14. Bryan throws a ball horizontally from a 300m high building and landed 25m from the base of the
building. Find the velocity of the ball when it was thrown. 4pts

15. An arrow is fired at a 30° angle from the horizontal with a velocity of 25m/s. Calculate the
maximum height of flight, total time of flight and horizontal displacement. 6pts
 MOTHER TERESA ACADEMY OF MARILAO, BULACAN INC.
#267 Sandico Street, Poblacion II, Marilao, Bulacan
Tel No.: (044) 248 84 63 Email Address: [email protected]
FIRST SUMMATIVE EXAMINATION FOR THE
FIRST GRADING PERIOD
GENERAL CHEMISTRY I
Name:_________________________________ Score/Rating:___________________
Section:________________________ _______ Date:__________________________
Teacher: Sir Nikko Carillo Parent’s Signature:
KNOWLEDGE
I. Read the questions carefully and encircle the letter of the best answer. Any ERASURE or
ALTERATION will make the answer invalid.
1. It is the simpliest form matter.
a. element b. atom c. pure substance d. all of the above
2. A matter that has definite composition and distinct properties.
a. element b. atom c. pure substance d. all of the above
3. A pure substance containing two or more kinds of atom chemically combined in a definite
proportion.
a. element c. mixture
b. compound d. none of the above
4. It is composed of two or more substances combined physically in variable proportions.
a. element c. mixture
b. compound d. none of the above
For number 5 to 7, used the following given.
I – definite shape V – no definite volume
II – no definite shape VI – very close particles
III – take the shape of the container VII – neither close nor far particles
IV – definite volume
VIII- particles are far apart
5. Which of the following is characteristic of solid? Select all that apply.
a. I, IV, VII b. I, III, VI c. I, V, VII d. I, IV
5. Which of the following is characteristic of gas? Select all that apply.
a. II, IV, III, VIII b. II, IV, VII c. II, V, III, VII d. II, V, VIII
6. Which of the following is characteristic of liquid? Select all that apply.
a. III, II, VII b. III, IV, VI c. III, V, VII d. III, IV, VI
7. Which of the following is not a pure substance?
a. ice b. salt c. Naphthalene d. gasoline
8. Which of the following is homogeneous mixture?
a. milk b. ketchup c. paint d. vinegar
9. Which of the following is a colloid?
a. vinegar b. milk c. soft drinks d. amalgam
10. It is a change in phase of matter where it is converted from solid to liquid.
a. Evaporation c. Sublimation
b. Melting d. None of the above
11. It is a change in phase of matter where it is converted from solid to gas.
a. Evaporation c. Sublimation
b. Melting d. None of the above
12. It is a change in phase of matter where it is converted from liquid to gas.
a. Evaporation c. Sublimation
b. Melting d. None of the above
13. Way of separating mixture where solid particles are allowed to settle first at the bottom.
a. decantation c. distillation
b. centrifugation d. None of the above
14. Way of separating homogeneous mixture composed of two substances with different boiling
points.
a. decantation c. distillation
b. centrifugation d. None of the above
15. Method of separating mixture which use an adsorbent chromatogram paper.
a. decantation c. distillation
b. centrifugation d. None of the above
16. Which of the following are intensive physical properties of matter?
a. melting point, boiling point, mass, viscosity
b. viscosity, toxicity, mass, solubility
c. mass, volume, length, shape
d. density, malleability, luster, color
17. Which of the following are chemical properties of matter?
a. ionization, relative activity, stability, toxicity
b. solubility, combustibility, reactivity, toxicity
c. viscosity, luster, melting point, boiling point
d. mass, length, volume, shape
For numbers 18 to 19, use the following given:
I- fermentation V - breathing
II – cutting of paper VI – baking of cake
III – Tarnishing of silver ware VII- magnetizing metal
IV – Rusting of iron VIII – dissolving of salt in water
18. Which of the following are examples of physical change? Select all that apply.
a. I, III, V, VII b. II, VII, VIII c. II, III, VII, VIII d. II, III, VI, VII, VIII
19. Which of the following are examples of chemical change? Select all that apply.
a. I, III, VI, V b. I, II, IV, VIII c. III, IV, VI, VII d. I, IV, VIII
20. Which of the following is not true about Dalton Atomic Theory?
a. Atoms retain their identity during chemical reaction.
b. Atom has mass and length.
c. Atoms are smallest particles of matter.
d. Atoms have the same number of proton, electron and neutron.
21. Which of the following is an example of conservation of mass?
a. Different samples of the same compound always contain their constituent element in the same
proportion and mass.
b. The same atoms before and after chemical reaction.
c. Two elements form more than one compound; the various masses of one element combining with
a fixed mass of another element are related by small whole number ratios.
d. All of the above.
22. There are same number of proton and neutron in an atom.
a. True b. False c. Always d. Sometimes
23. Proton and neutron are in the nucleus of an atom.
a. True b. False c. Maybe d. Parang bullet!
24. He discovered electron.
A. Eugen Goldstein c. John Thomson
b. James Chadwick d. Ernest Rutherford
25. Isotope used in tracing gas leaks.
a. Iodine -123 b. Sodium -24 c. Carbon -14 d. Tritium
26. It is the same mass in grams of one mole of a substance.
a. molar mass c. mole
b. atomic mass d. relative atomic mass
27. The ratio of the average atomic mass of an atom to one atomic mass unit.
a. molar mass c. mole
b. atomic mass d. relative atomic mass
28. It is measured in atomic mass unit (amu or u), a relative unit based on the value exactly 12 for the
C-12 isotope.
a. molar mass c. mole
b. atomic mass d. relative atomic mass
29. The amount of substance containing the same numbers of particles as there are atoms.
a. molar mass c. mole
b. atomic mass d. relative atomic mass
30. It gives the relative ratio between the number of atoms of different elements present.
a. empirical formula c. both b and c
b. molecular formula d. none of the above
31. It shows the exact number of atoms of each element per molecule.
a. empirical formula c. both b and c
b. molecular formula d. none of the above
32. H2O is an example of?
a. empirical formula c. both b and c
b. molecular formula d. none of the above
33. It is the substances that enter into chemical reaction.
a. chemical reaction c. product
b. reactants d. none of the above
34. It is the substance formed from the reaction.
a. empirical formula c. both b and c
b. molecular formula d. none of the above
35. A process in which at least one substance is produced as a result of chemical change.
a. empirical formula b. molecular formula
c. both b and c d. none of the above
PROCESS
II. Balance the chemical equation and identify the chemical reaction. Rewrite and box the balanced
equation. 3pts each
1. C3H8 + O2 = CO2 + H2O

2. AuCl3 + H2C2O4 = Au + CO2 + HCl

3. Ba(HCO3)2 = BaO + CO2 + H2O

4. HCl + Mg(OH)2 = MgCl2 + H2O

II. Complete the table with the correct answers.

Element Symbol Electron Atomic # Neutron Atomic Mass Electron Configuration
Bromine
Mn
Gold
Ba

Cation Anion Compound Name of Compound

Ca(BrO4)2
Ferric Chloride
CuSO3
Magnesium Phosphite
Mg3N2
Ammonium Acetate
Molecular Compound
CO
N4H2
Hydrofluoric Acid
HCl
Acetic Acid
HNO3
 UNDERSTANDING
III. Read the questions carefully and answer it correctly. Write your complete solution on the space
provided and box your final answer.
1. What is the molar mass of the compound (NH4)2C2O4? 3pts

2. How many molecules of galactose are present in 350 g of galactose ( C 6H12O6)? 4pts

3. How many atoms of H are present in 95g of ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3)? 5pts

4. How many moles are present in 36g of methane (CH4)? 4pts

5. What is the mass percentage of each element in the compound (NH4)2C2O4? 3pts

6. What is the empirical and molecular formula of Nicotine if it has 74% C, 8.65% H, 37.85% O and
17.35% N and molar mass of 162g/mol? 5pts
7. If fluoroaapatite contains 39.68% Ca, 18.45% P, 38.1% O and 3.77% F, and its molar mass is 1 008
g/mol. Find the empirical and molecular formula of the compound. 4pts

8. Convert 125 meter to feet.

9. Convert 15 miles per hour to meter per second

10. Convert 18 pounds to cubic centimer.