GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND PAKISTAN

STUDIES MCQS FOR NTS TEST

IMPORTANT NTS QUESTIONS ASKED IN PREVIOUS PAPERS
NTS MCQS of General Knowledge AND PAKISTAN STUDIES
1. From which country Pakistan purchased Gawader?
(a) Kuwait (c) Oman (b) Iran (d) None of these
2. Which provincial Chief Minister was dismissed on the issue of One Unit?
(a) Chief Minister NWFP (b) Sindh Chief Minister (c) Chief Minister Punjab (d) Chief
Minister Baluchistan
3. Which Radio Station already existed at the time of creation of Pakistan?
(a) Peshawar (b) Karachi (c) Quetta (d) None of these
4. When was the state of Swat included in Pakistan?
(a) 4th April 1969 (b) 28th July 1969 (c) 29th June 1970 (d) None of these
5. Who did accompany the Holy Prophet (SAW) in the migration to Medina?
(a) Hazrat Abu Bakr (RA) (b) Hazrat Omar (RA)) (c) Hazrat Ali (RA) (d) Hazrat Usman
(RA)
6. After the Hijrat to Medina, what was the first important thing the Holy Prophet
(SAW) did’?
(a) Built a Mosque for prayers (b) Built his house (c) Created Bait-ul-Maal (d) Raised an
army
7. Name the angels who are appointed to put questions to the deads in their
graves —–
(a) Munkir and Nakecr (AS) (b) Hazrat Jahraiel (AS) (c) Hazrat liraeel (AS) (d) Hazrat
Kikact (M)
8. Ramadan is the —– month of Islamic Calendar
(a) 7th (b) 9th (c)1st (d) 10th
9. Which is the longest glacier found Pakistan?
(a) Hispar (b) Siachen (c) Tirich (d) Batura
10. K2 is also called—–
(a) Goodwin Austin (c) Sia Kingrl (b) Kalhar Mount (d) None a them
11. In 1859 Sir Syed set up a school where Persian and English was taught
(a) Lucknow (b) Bijnaur (c) Muradabad (d) Aligarh
12. Eiffel Tower is located in —–
(a) France (b) Germany (c) Italy (d) Australia
13. Pentagon is the military headquarter of —–
(a) UK (b) Russia (c) China (d) USA
14. Which of the following is the “Newest Capital of the World”?
(a) Islamabad (b) Sydney (c) London (d) Paris
15. Which continent has no desert?
(a) Europe (b) North America (c) Australia (d) None of these
16. Who painted Mona Lisa?
(a) Leonardo Di Caprio (b) Leanardo Da Vinci (c) Picasso (d) Leonardo Da Henry
17. Which bird is the symbol of peace?
(a) Swan (b) Flamingo (c) Dove (d) Duck
18. How many Zeros are there in one Billion?
(a) 8 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 9
19. Cuba is located in —–
(a) Indian Ocean (b) Atlantic Ocean (c) Pacific Ocean (d) Areic Ocean
20. Islamabad is situated in which Province of Pakistan?
(a) Punjab (b) Azad Kashmir (c) NWFP (d) None of these
21. The oldest religion of the world is —–
(a) Judaism (b) Christianity (c) Buddhism (d) Hinduism
22. Where is the Headquarter of the Amnesty in International located?
(a) Geneva (b) London (c) Paris (d) New York
23. Asian Development Bank (ADB) was established in
(a) 1964 established in: (b) 1966 (c) 1968 (d) None of these
24. Who were the three statesmen who formulated Non-Aligned Movement
(NAM)?
(a) Gandhi, Nasser, Tito (b) Nehru, Nasser, Tito (c) Chou-en-Lai, Bhutto, Nehru (d) Soe
Kamo, Nasser, Tito
25. The Permanent Secretariat of SAARC is established at —-
(a) Dehli (d) Islamabad (c) Kathmandu (b) Dhaka
26. Who was the founder of HAMAS in 1987—–
(a) Sheikh Ahmed Yassin (b) Yasser Arafat (c) Abu Nidal (d) None of these
27. How many official working languages are recognized by UNO?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) None of these
28. In which month does the UN General Assembly usually meet every year?
(a) August (b) September (c) October (d) November
29. The term of office of a judge of the International Court of Justice is?
(a) 5 years (b) 7 years (c) 9 years (d) None of these
30. Which is the largest country in Africa —–
(a) Sudan (b) Nigeria (c) Libya (d) None of these
31. In the ‘composition of Earth, Oxygen is approximately —–
(A) 20 % (C) 46 % (B) 38 % (D) 58 %
32. The recipient of “Nishan-i-Haider” captain Karnal Sher Khan belonged to —–
(A) Punjab Regiment (B) Frontier Force Regiment (C) Sindh Regiment (D) Northern
Light Infantry
33. In term of area, which is the largest Administrative district of Punjab
(A) Bahawalpur (B) D.G. Khan (C) Faisalabad (D) Lahore
34. Who was the first Muslim ruler of Indian Sub-Continent
(A) Muhammad Bin Qasim (B) Mahmood Ghaznavi (C) Muhammad Ghouri (D) Qutab-
ud-Din Aibak
35.Light travels from Sun to Earth is —–
(A) 2 minutes (B) 42 minutes (C) 6 1/2 minutes (D) 8 1/2 minutes
36. The archaeological site of “Kot Diji” is located near the city of
(A) Larkana (B) Thatta (C) Khairpur (D) Swat
37. Which of the following district of occupied Jammu and Kashmir has Buddhist
majority population?
(A) Rajourial (C) (B) Doda C) Leh (D) None of above
38. Identify the musician who composed the National Anthem of Pakistan?
(A) Nisar Bazmi (B) Khalil Ahmed (C) Suhail Rana (D) Abdul Karim Chagla
39. Lake Manchar is the largest lake in Pakistan is situated at —–
(A) Kaghan (B) Swat (C) Dadu (D) Lasbela
40. Velocity of Sound in Air per second is
(A) 250 meters (B) 331 meters (C) 434 meters (D) 561 meters
41. Deficiency of vitamin “C” in human body leads to —–
(A) Eye disease (B) Nerve disease (C) Teeth disease (D) Skin disease
42. Identify largest tribal agency of FATA (Federally Administered Tribal Areas) by
Area
(A) South Waziristan (B) North Waziristan (C) Orakzai (D) Bajaur
43. “Olive Branch” is a symbol of peace while ‘Lotus’ is a symbol of —–
(A) Progress (B) Culture and Civilization (C) Justice (D) Romantic love
44. Approximately how much part of Jammu and Kashmir is under India’s
occupation
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (C) 3/4 (D) 1/2
45. “Elysee Place” is the official residence of —–
(A) King of Denmark (B) German Chancellor (C) President of France (D) Pope of
Vatican
46. “Quaid-i-Azam Jinnah — the story of a nation” is a biography of Quaid-i-Azam
written by?
(A) M.A.H. Isphani (B) G. Allana (C) Khalid Bid Saeed (D) Akbar S.Ahmed
47. At 12 O’clock noon Pakistan Standard time in London (U.K) shall be —–
(A) 4:00 PM (B) 7:00 AM (C) 5:00 PM (D) 4:00 Am
48. Dead sea is lying between —–
(A) Israel and Jordan (B) Turkey and Greece (C) England and France (D) Sudan and
South Yemen
49. Identify Muslim Scientist who is credited with the discovery of sulphuric Acid,
Nitric Acid & Hydrochloric Acid?
(A) Muhammad Bin Zakiria Razi (B) Ibne-al-Hashim (C) Bu All Seena (D) Jabir Bin
Hiyan
50. What do you understand by the term “Brain Drain”?
(A) Mad person (B) Migration of skilled labour to other countries (C) Emigration of
intellectuals (D) Illiteracy and ignorance
51. The length of famous Khyber Pass is —–
(A) 33 KM (B) 53 KM (C) 73 KM (D) 93 KM
52. How many were the writer of the “Wahee.” ?
(A) 31 (B) 35 (C) 40 (D) 42
53. The tenure of Hazrat Ali was —–
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D) None of above
54. When the incident of “Karbala” occurred ?
(A) 58 AN (B) 60 AH (C) 70 AH (D) None of above
55. Pure gold is —– carat gold
(A) 12 carat (B) 14 cara (C) 22 carat (D) 24 carat
56. The largest Island in the world is —-
(A) Australia (B) Japan (C) Green Land (D) Indonesia
57. Which of the following languages is spoken by the largest number of people
in the world?
(A) Chinese (B) English (C) Arabic (D) French
58. When Pakistan adopted decimal system?
(A) 1960 (B) 1961 (C) 1963 (D) 1964
59. Election Commissioner appointed for the period of —–
(A) 3 years (B) 5 years (C) 6 years (D) None of above
60. J.K Rowling is a famous
(A) U.K Dancer (B) US Diplomat (C) French Secretary of State (D) None of these
61. Maria Montessori was an —–
(A) French Educationist (B) Italian Educationist
(C) German Educationist (D) English Scientist
62. Amir Timur invaded India in
(A) 12th Century (B) 13th Century (C) 14th Century (D) None of above
63. Non-Party Elections held in Pakistan —–
(A) 1985 (B) 1995 (C) 2008 (0) None of above
64. When of the following group are considered to be Universal Donars —–
(A) A+ (B) B+ (C)AB+ (D) 0+
65. Sensitive layer of the eye is —-
(A) Choroids (B) Cornea (C) Retina (D) None of these
66. Which is the hardest —-
(A) Carbon (B) Gold (C) Silver (D) None of these
67. Which of one is most elastic —–
(A) Steel (B) Rubber (C) Glass (D) Diamond
68. Earthquakes are caused by —–
(A) Tectonism (B) Denudation (C) The rotation (D) None of these
69. In Roman numerals C stands for —–
(A) 100 (B) 20 (C) 300 (D) 500

70. Safety mechanism of blood works under ?

(A) White Blood (B) Red Blood (C) Lymphatic (D) None of these
71. Which Prayer was last prayed Prophet by the (PBUH) —–
(A) Fajir (C) Asr
(B) Zuhar (D) Maghrib
72. Which is city of Mosques—–
(A) Lahore (B) Madina (C) Baghdad (D) Dhakka
73. Which Muslim country is known for cluster of Islands —–
(A) Indonesia (C) Afghanistan
(B) Malaysia (D) Bruni
74. How much percentage Carbon dioxide is in the air
(A) 20 % (C) 60%
(B) 40 °A (D) None of these
75. Day and night are equal on —–
(A) 21st March (B) 21st September (C) 1st October (D) 21st December
76. Big Bang theory pertains to?
(a) Origion of universe (b) Origion of spenes (c) Atom bomb (d) Rock music
77. Hippocratic oath is taken by?
(a) medicine doctors
(b) doctors of law
(c) Greek sculptors
(d) None of above
78.Bears and Bulls:
(a) jangle code (c) price rise and fall
(b) stock rise and fall (d) None of these
79. In Camera meeting means?
(a) open meeting (b) meeting in the chamber of judge (c) not meant for public (d) None
of these
80. Who is Uncle Sam?
(a) France (b) Australia (c) UK (d) USA
81. Casting vote means?
(a) deciding vote (b) Vote in form of tie(c) Both a & b (d) None of these
82. Protocol means —–
(a) a system of rules (b) a formal international agreement (c) specialized computer
langauge (d) All of these
83. Which country is located on the north boarder of Pakistan?
(A) Iran (B) Afghanistan ( (C) China (D) India
84. Natural Gas was discovered at Sui in which Year?
(A) 1950 (B) 1952 (C) 1954 (D) 1958
85. The system of Basic Democracies was introduced by?
(A) Iskandar Mirza (B) Muhammad Ali Bogra (C) Ayub Khan (D) Zia-ul-Haq
86. Who presented poor man budget
(a) Raja Ahmed (b) Liaquat Ali (c) Ch. Muhammad Ali (d) None of these
87. When U.N.O. was formed ?
(a) 1943 (b) 1944 (c) 1945 (d) 1946
88. How many members are in the E.U?
(a) 23 (b) 25 (c) 28 (d) 29
89. Suez Canal Connects two seas —–
(a) Red sea and Black sea
(b) Mediterranean and Red sea
(c) Dead Sea and White sea
(d) Atlantic with Pacific
90.When W.T.O. founded:
(a) 1985 (b) 2002 (c) 2006 (d) None of above
91. How many states are in USA?
(a) 51 (b) 49 (c) 52 (d) None
92. Origion of Species is written by:
(a) Walter Disney (b) Angustus (c) Darwin (d) None of these
93. How many times is the mention of Namaz in the Quran?
(a) 700 (b) 750 (c) 730 (d) 760
94. What is fourth state of matter?
(a) Rocks (b) Plasma (c) Water (d) None these
95. Which acid is used Battery?
(a) NACI (b) HCI (c) HNO3 (d) None these
96. The sun rays reach in the earth in —–time?
(a) 5 minutes (b) 7 minutes (c) 8 minutes (d) 10 minutes
97. Shah Waliullah belongs to Silsila?
(a) Naqshbandia (b) Suharwardia (c) Awisia (d) None of these
98. Who published AI-Halal?
(a) Ali Johar (b) Maulana Abu AI-Kalam Azad (c) Zafar Ali Khan (d) None of these
99. Towards new Pakistan has been written by?
(a) Zahid Ahmed (b) Munir A Khan (c) A.Q. Khan (d) None of these
100. Which is landlocked country?
(a) Iran (b) Mongolia (c) Canada (d) Belgium
PAKISTAN STUDIES And GENERAL KNOWLEDGE MCQS
101. Water lily is symbol of?
(a) Canada (b) China (c) Iran (d) India
102. What is Obama’s number as president?
(a) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (d) 47
103. Panama canal connect two oceans?
(a) Atlantic and Indian (b) Indian and Pacific
(c) Indian and Arabian Sea (d) Pacific and Atlantic
104. Equator passes through?
(a) Brazil (b) Canada (c) Kenya (d) None of these
105. Which is the biggest Agency in FATA —–
(a) Controlled democracy
(a) North Waziristan
(b) Malakand
(c) South Waziristan
(d) None of above
106. What was the first living creature to travel in space ?
(a) a bitch (b) frog (c) eagle (d) cow
107. What does term mantra means?
(a) a word with spiritual power
(b) term in stock exchange
(c) science of lower species
(d) None of above
108. Somnam bulsim means —–
(d) None of above
(b) walk in sleep
(c) science of rock reading
(d) None of above
109. Macro economics means —–
(a) branch of economics that studies changes
(b) fundamental system of mathematical
(c) financial system of provincial level
(d) changes in prices
110. Chauvinism means?
(a) strong belief that your country is important
(b) male dominance in society
(c) politics of non-issues
(d) None of above
111. Bonanza means —–
(a) situation where large profits are made
(b) poor performance
(c) boneless are made meat
(d) None of above
112. Amicus curiae means —–
(a) An American (b) An Australian
(c) A Friend of Court (d) None of these
113. Portmanteau means —–
(a) large box
(b) a wide range of things considered single
(c) Both A & B
(d) None of above
114. Non-de Plume means —-
(a) without teacher (b) anonymous (c) Both a & b (d) None of these
115. Sir creek channel is disputed area between Pakistan and India this is located:
(a) Punjab & Indian Punjab
(b) Punjab and Himchal Pardesh
(c) Sindh and Indian Gujrat
(d) None of above
116. Banana Republic means:
(a) Govt. by easy going
(b) Where banana are cheap
(c) Govt. of corrupt elite
(d) None of above
117. Hegemony means —–
(a) Controlled democracy
(b) Autocracy
(c) Supremacy of Power
(d) Power to control others
118. An anarchist is —-
(a) A person who loves peace
(b) A person who does not like any system
(c) Love of peace
(d) Hates peace
119. Suo moto means—–
(a) An action incited by court itself
(b) An action by civil judge
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of above
120. Opposite of Democracy is —–
(a) Aristocracy (b) Theocracy (c) Dictatorship (d) Monarchy
121. How many Round Table Conferences were held in London between Indian
Political Leaders and with the British Government?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
122. Fiscal year is from —-
(A) June 1 to June 30 (B) June 15 to July 15 (C) July 1 to June 30 (D) July 1 to August 30
123. Peoples Republic of China was founded —–
( (A) 1947 (B) 1948 ( (C) 1949 (D) None
124. The number of Federally Administrated areas in Pakistan is —–
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
125. Most of the electricity in Pakistan is produced by —-
(A) Hydal Power (B) Nuclear Power (C) Solar Power (D) Thermal Power
126. Insulin is secreted by—–
(A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Kidneys (D) Small Intestine
127. “Kyoto Protocol” is an International Treaty for —-
(A) Refugees (B) Human Rights (C) Child Labour (D) Environment Problems
128. Insomnia is related to —–
(A) Sleeplessness (B) Hypertension (C) Fear of Water (D) Rear of Closed Places
129. The substance used in match sticks is —–
(A) Sulphur (B) Acid (C) Zinc (D) Phosphorous
130. The atmosphere has the highest percentage of —–
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Hydrogen (D) Carbon dioxide
131. Pakistan recognized People’s Republic of China on 21 May —–
(A) 1951 (b) 1949(C) 1950 (d) 1948
132. “Tilla Jogian” is —–
(A) Is a peak in the Sulaiman Range
(B) Finds mention in the epic love poem Heer Ranjha of Waris Shah
(C) Is the place where Buddha is said to have spent 40 days In quiet seclusion
(D) All of above
133. Doaba Rachna Is located between the River Chenab and River —–
(A) Ravi (B) Jhelum (C) Indus (D) Beas
134. The name of delta formed by the Indus River is —–
(A) Sapta Sindhu (C) Sunderban Delta
(B) Panjnad (D) Brahmaputra
135. The pass which connects Pakistan with China is known as —–
(A) Khojak Pass (B) Khunjrab Pass (C) Shandur Pass (D) Peiwas Kotal Pass
136. Immediately before the formation of “One Unit” in West Pakistan, Bahawalpur
enjoyed the status of a
(A) Province (B) Division (C) Tehsil (D) District
137. Multan is also affectionately known as —–
(A) “City of Dust” (B) “Sohan Halwa city ” (C) “Mosques city” (D) “City of Saints”
138. Which Bank gave a Rs. 80 million loan to the Government of Pakistan on the
request of Quaid-e-Azam when the Reserve Bank of India failed to deliver Pakistan’s
share?
(A) National Bank of Pakistan (B) Habib Bank Limited (C) United Bank Limited (D) Muslim
Commercial Bank
139. The first Chief Minister of Punjab after creation of Pakistan was —–
(A) Sir Sikandar Hayat Khan
(B) Nawab Iftikhar Hussain Mamdot
(C) Mian Mumtaz Khan Daultana
(D) Nawab Sir Khizar Hayat Tiwana
140. The tune of the national anthem of Pakistan was composed by —–
(A) Khawaja Khurshid Anwar (B) Naushad Ali (C) Sohail Rana (D) Ahmad G. Chagla
141. Hazara Divsion of Khyber – Pakhtunkhwa Province comprises five districts
including Abbottabad, Battagram, Kohistan, Mansehra and —–
(A) Mardan (B) Mingora (C) Haripur (D) Khanpur
 142. 28th May is celebrated each year as “Yaum-e-Takbeer” because of which
incident?
(A) Kargil conflict between India and Pakistan commenced
(B) Nuclear tests were conducted by Pakistan
(C) Ojhri Camp incident took place at Rawalpindi
(D) Uprising erupted in Kashmir against Indian occupation
143. The first Pakistani to hoist the Pakistani flag at the North and South Pole is —-
(A) Nazir Sabir (B) Salma Salim (C) Namira Salim (D) Ashraf Aman
144. The first climber from Pakistan to have called Mt. Everest on May 17, 2000 was
—–
(A) Nazir Sabir (B) Salma Salim (C) Namira Salim (D) Ashraf Aman
145. Who take oath from Governor ?
(A) Chief Minister (B) President (C) Chief Justice (D) Chief Justice of High Court
146. Another name for Vitamin C Is —–
(A) Ascorbic Acid (B) Acetic Acid (C) Citric Acid (D) Lysozyme
147. Gun Powder is —–
(A) Element (C) Mixture
(B) Compound (D) Amalgam
148. The main constituent of Sui Gas is —–
(A) Methane (B) Sui (C) Both A & B (D) None of above
149. Brass is an alloy of coper and
(A) Iron (B) Steel (C) Zinc (D) Silver
150. The most famous genetic disease that is associated with Queen Victoria as well
as circulated among European royalty was —–
(A) Colour Blindness (B) Haemophilia (C) Austrian lip (D) Down’s Syndrome
Answers: 101_a 102_a 103_d 104_c 105_c 106_a 107_a 108_b 109_a 110_b
111_a 112_c 113_a 114_b 115_c 116_c 117_c 118_b 119_a 120_ c
121_c 122_c 123_c 124_c 125_d 126_b 127_d 128_a 129_d 130_a
131_c 132_b 133_a 134_a 135_b 136_a 137_d 138_b 139_b 140_d
141_c 142_b 143_c 144_a 145_d 146_a 147_c 148_a 149_c 150_b

NTS Online Test MCQS of Math Series Questions

1. Which one number will complete the following numbers series?
4, 11, 7, 14, 10, 17,…?
(a) 24 (b) 13 (c) 20 (d) 21
2. Complete the Following Number Series ?
2,6, 12, 20, 30, 42,?
(a) 56 (b) 54 (c) 50 (d) 62
3. Which one number will complete the following number series?
8, 9, 8, 7, 10, 9, 6, 11, 10? 12
(a) 11 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 5
4. Which one number will complete the series?
Series: 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63,?
(a) 123 (b) 125 (c) 127 (d) 129
5. Which one number will complete the series: 8, 13, 10, 15, 12, 17, 14,…?
(a) 19 (b) 22 (c) 16 (d) 20
6. Complete the Following Number Series: 2, 5, 8, 11, 14, …..?
(a) 18 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 16
7. Which one number will complete the series: 2, 5, 12, 23, 38, 57,…?
(a) 69 (b) 76 (c) 80 (d) 84
8. Which number will be come at the sign of interrogation : 3, 6, 15, ?, 123, 366
(a) 34 (b) 59 (c) 42 (d) 60
9. Which number can be placed at the sign of interrogation : 3, 7, 13, ?, 29
(a) 21 (b) 18 (c) 25 (d) 19
10. Which number will replace the question mark?
1, 2, 5, 12, 27, 58, ….?
(a) 121 (b) 136 (c) 135 (d) 174
11. 1, 1, 8, 4, 27, 9 …..?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 16
12. 2, 20, 74, 110 ….?
(a) 115 (b) 132 (c) 114 (d) 182
13. 1, 0, 3, 2, 5, 6 …..?
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 10
14. -1, 0, 3, 8 …..?
(a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 10
15. 1, 2, 2, 5, 3, 10 …..?
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4
16. 5, 3, 6, 2, 7, 1 ….?
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d) 4

17. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 …..?
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 32
18. 6, 3, 12, 6, 24 …..?
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 30 (d) 48
19. 1, 1, 6, 6, 11, 11 …..?
(a) 11 (b) 13 (c) 16 (d) 17
20. 64, 32, 16, 8 …..?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
21. 87, 90, 84, 88, 81 …..?
(a) 85, 93 (b) 86, 98 (c) 86, 78 (d) 86, 86
22. 20, 32, 45, 59, 74 …..?
(a) 95 (b) 90 (c) 85 (d) 79
23. 210, 195, 175, 150, 120 …..?
(a) 75 (b) 80 (c) 85 (d) 90
24. 3, 5, 10, 12, 24, 26 …..?
(a) 52 (b) 30 (c) 28 (d) 48
25. 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9 ….?
(a) 60 (b) 54 (c) 72 (d) 66
26. 2, 3, 5, 6, 9, 10, 11, 13 …..?
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 16
27. 0, 1, 8, 27, 64 ….?
(a) 122 (b) 125 (c) 128 (d) 256
28. 2, 4, 7, 11, 16 ….?
(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 25
29. 5, 14, 27, 44, 65, …..?
(a) 109 (b) 90 (c) 88 (d) 180
30. 1, 4, 10, 22, 46, …..?
(a) 68 (b) 48 (c) 12 (d) 94
31. 3, 6, 8, 16, 19 ….?
(a) 21 (b) 38 (c) 35 (d) 36

NTS General Knowledge Mcqs Part 2

51. If a magnetic needle is freely suspended at the geographic North Pole —–
(a) The needle will remain vertical with its N-Pole downward
(b) The needle will remain almost vertical with its N-Pole downward
(c) The needle will remain vertical with its S-pole downward
(d) The needle will remain almost vertical with its S-pole downwaod
52. South Pole is located in the continent of —–
(a) Africa (b) Australia (c) Asia (d) Antartica
53. The atmospheric pressure at any place is measured by —–
(a) Altimeter (b) Pressure-meter (c)Barometer (d) Thermometer
54. Which mountain system lies between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea?
(a)Appalachians (b) Caucasus (c) Pyrenees (d) Atlas
55. Which of these cities once served as the Capital of Japan?
(a) Kobe (b) Kyoto (c) Okinawa (d) Sendai
56. Which Peninsula lies between the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov?
(a) Crimean (b) Iberian (c) Kamchatka (d) Yucatan
57. On the banks of which river is the city of London located?
(a) Severn (b) Thames (c) Avon (d) Humber
58. Which among the following trees is considered the tallest in the World?
(a) Cedar (b) Redwood (c) Eucalyptus (d) Date Paim
59. Which Country was earlier known as Siam?
(a) Indonesia (b) Somalia (c) Thailand (d) Myanmar
60. Which is the largest Country in the Arabian Peninsula?
(a) Oman (b) Yemen (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Kuwait
61. Which river forms the Grand Canyon in the United States?
(a) Mississippi (b) Hudson (c) Colorado (d) Columbia
62. Which of these cloud forms is found at the highest altitude?
(a) Billow (b) Nacreous (c) Noctilucent (d) Pileus
63. Thickness of atmosphere around the earth is —–
(a) 100 km (b) 130 km (c) 145 km (d) 195 km
64. Atmosphere around the earth maintains its —–
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Density (d) Shape
65. The layers of atmosphere are divided into —–
(a) Two Parts (b) Three parts (c) Four Parts (d) Five parts
66. Above the earth’s surface, troposphere extends to a height of —–
(a) 08 km (b) 12 km (c) 20km (d) 15 km
67. Which next layer is above the troposphere?
(a) Mesosphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Thermo-sphere (d) Space
68. The mesosphere extended above the earth’s surface is up to —–
(a) 60 km (b) 65 km (c) 80 km (d) 85 km
69. Which one the following Phenomena occurs when water vapor condenses around a
particular of Smoke?
(a) Fog (b) Hail (c) Mist (d) Smog
70. Line joining places of the same earthquake intensity are known as —–
(a) Isohyets (b) Isohels (c) Isoseismal lines (d) Isohalines
71. Canola refers to specific type of oil seed mustard varieties bred for human consumption.
The main characteristic of these varieties is that the —–
(a) Seeds have very high oil content
(b) Oil is rich in unsaturated fatty acids
(c) Oil has long shelf-life
(d) Oil has very low Erucic acid content
72. Which one the following lakes forms an international boundary between Tanzania and
Uganda?
(a) Chad (b) Malawi (c) Victoria (d) Zambezi
73. which of the following Countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation?
(a) U.S.A (b) India (c) China (d) Canada
74. Which form of iron has got the highest carbon content?
(a) Mild steel (b) Stainless steel (c) Wrought Iron (d) Cast Iron
75. Rows of the tree grown along the coastal areas to reduce the impact of cyclones are
knows as —-
(a) Wind breaks (b) Protection (c) Mangroves (d) Shelter belts
76. What kind of soil is treated with gypsum to make it suitable for cropping?
(a) Alkaine
(b) Acidic
(c) Waterlogged
(d) Soil with excessive clay content
77. Which one of the following is the smallest ocean of the World?
(a) Pacfic
(b) Indian
(c) Atlantic
(d) Artic
78. Which one of the following is a metamorphic rock?
(a) Granite
(b) Basalt
(c) Marble
(d) Sandstone
79. According to Simon Winchester’s book, how many Tectonic plates are there in the
earth?
(a) 15 (b)29 (c) 32 (d) 36
80. All the following are planetary winds except —–
(a) Trade winds (b) The westerlies (c) Polar winds (d) The monsoon winds
81. Which one of the following parts of cold deserts and continents is correctly matched?
(a) Atacama —South America
(b) Gobi — Asia
(c) Kalahari — Africa
(d) Great Sandy — Australia
82. The production of rubber tree is better adopted to areas where the climate is —–
(a) Warm and humid (b) Warm and dry (c) Cool and moist (d) cool and dry
83. Gulf streams are caused by —–
(a) Cyclones (b) Temperature (c) Ocean pressure (d) Difference in water level
84. All vital atmospheric process leading to various climatic and weather conditions take
place in the —–
(a) Troposphere (b) Ionosphere (c) Exosphere (d) Stratosphere
85. The minimum land area recommended for forest to maintain proper ecological balance
is —–
(a) 25% (b) 33% (c) 43% (d) 53%
86. Which of the following scholars suggested the earth’s origin from gases and dust
particles?
(a) James Jeans (b) Hannes Alfvén (c) F. Hoyle (d) O. Schmidt
87.The theory that refers to an explosion about 10 to 15 billion years age, which most
astronomers believe to be the origin of the universe, is called —–
(a) The Red Shift theorey
(b) Relativity theory
(c) Big Bang theory
(d) Titanic theorey
88. Black holes are stellar objects which —–
(a) Emit black body radiation
(b) Have weak gravitational field
(c) Have intense gravitational field
(d) Have intense magnetic field
89. Select the stranger in the group:
(a) Cardiograms (b) Multiple bars (c) Weather maps (d) Pie diagrams
90. The soil which cracks and shrinks most as it dries is —–
(a) Clayey soil (b) Porous soil (c) Sandy soil (d) Loamy soil
91. East Timur, is now independent Country, before independent it was part of —–
(a) Taiwan (b) Malaysia (c) Thailand (d) Indonesia
92. Kosovo s now independent Country, before independent it was part of which of the
following Countries?
(a) Yugoslavia (b) Albania (c) Romania (d) Bulgaria
93. On the day of the Summer Solstice in the northern hemisphere, the length day-time on
the Antarctic Circle is —–
(a) 12 hours (b) 24 hours (c) zero hour (d) 6 hours
94. Which of the following sequences represents correctly the different atmospheric layers
from the earth’s surface?
(a) Stratosphere, troposphere, tropopause, ionosphere
(b) Ionosphere, tropopause, Stratosphere, ionosphere
(c) Troposphere, tropopause, Stratosphere, ionosphere
(d) Stratosphere, troposphere, ionosphere, tropopause
95. Days and night are of equal duration on March 21 at —–
(a) The Tropic of Cancer alone
(b) The Tropic of Equator alone
(c) The Tropic of Capricorn alone
(d) All parallel of latitude
96. Which of the following is the most porous rock?
(a) Basalt (b) Granite (c) Sandstone (d) Slate
97. Weathering is —–
(a) Breakdown or disintegration of rocks
(b) Formation of soil by fine sand particles
(c) Breaking of the surface of land by flowing water
(d) Wearing down of rock surface
98. Which type of plants are adapted to grow under drought conditions?
(a) Pteridophytes (b) Xerophytes (c) Tropophyes (d) Hygrophytes
99. Which of the following is the oldest rock?
(a) Quartzite (b) Ordovician (c) Carbonatites (d) Cumbrian
100. Which of the following pairs is correct?
City River
(a) Baghdad Tigris
(b) Bonn Danube
(c) Rome Seine
(d) Paris Tiber

1. The first ‘Wahi” was revealed upon the Holy Prophet Muhammad in —–
(A) 570 AD (B) 610 AD (C) 630 AD (D) 590 AD
2. The third battle fought between Muslim of Medina and Quraish of Makkah was —–
(A) Badr (B) Uhad (C) Khandak (D) Khyber
3. Who lead Muslim forces during the “Crusades”?
(A) Harun-ur-Rashid (B) Salah-ud-Din Ayubi (C) Walid-bin-Abdul Malik (D) Ahmad Shah
Qachar
4. In which year Zakat was made obligatory?
(A) 1 A.H. (B) 2 A.H. (C) 3 A.H. (D) 4 A.H.
5. What is the nisab of Zakat for Gold ?
(A) 5% Tola . (B) 6% Tola (C) 7% Tola (D) 8% Tola
6. For how many times, the word ‘Zakat’ has been mentioned in the Holy Quran ?
(A) 22 (B) 12 times (C) 32 times (D) 42 times
7. What was the Kunniyyat of Hazrat Abu Bakr (RA) ?
(A) Abu Sulaiman (B) Abu Jaffer (C) Abu Abdullah (D) Abu Hamza
8. For how many years, the caliphate of Hazrat Abu Bakr (RA) lasted ?
(A) Three years (B) Four years (C) Two years (D) Five years
9. For how long, the caliphate of Hazrat Usman (RA) lasted ?
(A) 6 years (B) 8 years (C) 10 years (D) 12 years
10. Which Swabs of Holy Quran throws light on the Islamic laws regarding marriage
and divorce ?
(A) Al Nisa (B) Al Baqrah (C) At Furqan (D) Al Ankabut
11. What is the Serial Number of Surah Yaasin in the Holy Quran ?
(A) Thirty four (B) Thirty six (C) Thirty five (D) Thirty seven
12. What is the total number of types of Qias?
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five

Click Here For NTS General Knowledge Mcqs

13. Give the total number of Ayaats in the Holy Quran ?
(A) 5445 (C) 4344
(B) 7277 (D) 6236
14. How many times, the word ‘Qul’ has been repeated in the Holy Quran ?
(A) 332 (B) 432 (C) 532 (D) 632
15. What the serial number of the Kalimah Rad-e-Kufr among the 6 Kalimahs ?
(A) Six (B) Four (C) Three (D) Five
16. Which is the alternative of Wuzu when water is not available before saying a
prayer ?
(A) Ghusal (B) Washing of face (C) Tayammum (D) None of these
17. Which Nafli Namaz is most liked by Allah?
(A) lshraq (B) Zawaal (C) Chasht (D) Tahajud
18. What is the time of Nafli Salaa arced Ishraq?
(A) Sunrise till midnight (B) Sunrise till noon (C) Sunrise till quarter of a day (D) Sunrise till
sunset
19. Give the name of the Prophet whose name has been mentioned most in the Holy
Quran?
(A) Hazrat Daud (B) Hazrat Musa (C) Hazrat Ibrahim (D) Hazrat Harum
20. Which Prophet is called ‘Abdul Bashar’?
(A) Hazrat Yaqub (B) Hazrat Musa (C) Hazrat Younas (D) Hazrat Adam
21. Give the name of the prophet who is sone of Hazrat Daus?
(A) Hazrat Hood (B) Hazrat Ishaq (C) Hazrat Sulaiman (D) Hazrat Yousuf
22. During drought, which Namaaz is offered for rain?
(A) Salaat-e-lstasqa (B) Salaat-e-Khisoo (C) Salaat e Kisoof (D) None of these
23. In which Namaz no Sajdah is performed?
(A) Salat e Iskraq (B) Salat e Kisoo (C) Salat e Tahajud (D) Salat e Janaza
24. The distance between Makkah and Medina is about —–
(A) 100 miles (C) 300 miles
(B) 200 miles (D) 400 Miles.
25. The Holy Prophet Muhammad (May Peace Be Upon Him) started preaching Islam
in public in the year —–
(A) 613 A.D (B) 610 A.D (c) 606 A.D (d) 609 A.D
 Answers
1. b 2. c 3. b 4. b 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. d 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. b 21. c 22. a
23. d 24. c 25. a

NTS English MCQS Vocabulary Test 1

1. Abnegate
(a) Confused (b) Hardness (c) Beginning (d) Renounce
2. Abstruse
(a) Vague (b) Deep (c) Agitate (d) Indigenous
3. Accolade
(a) Muddled (b) Native (c) Laurels (d) Trouble
4. Actuary
(a) Agreement (b) Statistician (c) Upset (d) Muzzy
5. Adage
(a) Proverb (b) Impress (c) Assent (d) Crooked
6. Affinity
(a) Formation (b) Kinship (c) Improve (d) Eagerness
7. Altruistic
(a) Mend (b) Aquifer (c) Smartness (d) Unselfish
8. Analogue
(a) Better (b) Linear (c) Briskness (d) Outward
9. Aquifer
(a) Strike (b) Plane (c) Formation (d) Armada
10. Aria
(a) Perturb (b) Vocal (c) Fleet (d) Board
11. Aspersion
(a) Defamation (b) Disapproval (c) Fictitious (d) Vocal
12. Assimilate
(a) Accept (b) Absorb (c) Sidelong (d) Imaginary
13. Attire
(a) Proof (b) Squint-eyed (c) Song (d) Dress
14. Avid
(a) Zealous (b) Slyness (c) Wild (d) Fat
15. Balk
(a) Charm (b) Hesitate (c) Benevolence (d) Presume
16. Bantam
(a) Good (b) Weight (c) Tiny (d) Separated
17. Behest
(a) Generous (b) Catch (c) Uncivilized (d) Command
18. Bifurcated
(a) Separated (b) Leave (c) Will (d) Barefaced
19. Blandish
(a) Branched (b) Flatter (c) Rosiness (d) Brave
20. Blaze
(a) Forked (b) Blush (c) Fearless (d) Glare
NTS English MCQS Vocabulary Test 2
1. Brassy
(a) Troubled (b) Huge (c) Flashy (d) Centenary
2. Burgeoning
(a) Clear (b) Germinating (c) Attention (d) Agitated
3. Cast
(a) Audacity (b) Put (c) Successes (d) Vision
4. Catharsis
(a) Insolence (b) Satisfy (c) Purgation (d) Muddled
5. Chassis
(a) Sayings (b) Frame (c) Assure (d) Brilliant
6. Chicane
(a) Cultural (b) Cheat (c) Improvise (d) Slander
7. Clement
(a) Accurate (b) Cement (c) Slim (d) Temperate
8. Coast
(a) Contract (b) Seashore (c)Definitive (d) External
9. Comely
(a) Coerce (b) Playmate (c) Decent (d) Please
10. Commiserate
(a) Self Denial (b) Co-operate (c) Sympathize (d) Show off
11. Commute
(a) Disrepute (b) Exchange (c) Genuine (d) Apparatus
12. Conciliatory
(a) Reject (b) Seize (c) Flexible (d) Oppose
13. Confound
(a) Belief (b) Sharp_eyed (c) Swindle (d) Perplex
14. Congeal
(a) Thicken (b) Shrink (c) Slight (d) Fatten
15. Contiguous
(a) Terminate (b) Adjacent (c) Assemble (d) Assume
16. Contrive
(a) Design (b) Superficial (c) Strong (d) Bifurcate
17. Coveted
(a) Abusive (b) Desired (c) Soften (d) Behest
18. Cul-de-sac
(a) Open end (b) Dead end (c) Shrewd (d) Barefaced
19. Carven
(a) Affirm (b) Behave (c) Coward (d) Brave
20. Coquetry
(a) Indulge (b) Particle (c) Fearless (d) Flirting

NTS English MCQS Vocabulary Test 3

1. Cynical
(a) Development (b) Misanthropic (c) Offhand (d) General
2. Dappled
(a) Re mindful (b) Damnable (c) Clouded (d) Hallow
3. Decant
(a) Pour (b) Wretched (c) Temporary (d) Auditory
4. Decry
(a) Sharpness (b) Condemn (c) Superficial (d) Virtuosity
5. Defenestration
(a) Discharge (b) Infer (c) Assuage (d) Exlusion
6. Delegate
(a) Disentangle (b) Depute (c) Construct (d) Slightly
7. Demure
(a) Envisage (b) Divulge (c) Overmodest (d) Separate
8. Diffident
(a) Fatal (b) Flattery (c) Definitive (d) Timid
9. Discrepancy
(a) Disastrous (b) Variance (c) false (d) Inept
10. Disdain
(a) Selfish (b) Consequence (c) Contempt (d) Execute
11. Divulge
(a) Strenuous (b) Creeping (c) Reveal (d) Horrify
12. Dulcet
(a) Mendicant (b) Honeyed (c) Bayonet (d) Expose
13. Dunce
(a) Relief (b) Stupid (c) Cheater (d) Disastrous
14. Elicit
(a) Freeze (b) Expend (c) Provoke (d) Fluffy
15. Emblematic
(a) Menace (b) Savage (c) Symbolic (d) Happiness
16. Encumber
(a) Cucumber (b) Constrain (c) Responsibility (d) Bilingual
17. Enhance
(a) Abortive (b) Zymosis (c) Feast (d) Heigten
18. Equipoise
(a) Equine (b) Fantastic (d) Balance (d) Bareheaded
19. Evanescent
(a) Affluence (b) Temporary (c) Wreckage (d) Brilliant
20. Excavate
(a) Include (b) Participate (c) Unearth (d) Flourishing
NTS English MCQS Vocabulary Test Part 1 Answer Keys

NTS Vocabulary English MCQS Test 4

1. Facilitate
(a) Help (b) Unessential (c) Component (d) Cordial
2. Fateful
(a) Re mindful (b) Fatal (c) Clement (d) Happy
3. Faux
(a) Frustrate (b) Wrenched (c) False (d) Twitch
4. Feasible
(a) Showy (b) Executable (c) Superficial (d) Virulent
5. Felicity
(a) Happiness (b) Inferior (c) Dissuade (d) Inclusion
6. Feral
(a) Entangle (b) Contrived (c) Savage (d) Feast
7. Finagle
(a) Visage (b) Manage (c) Modest (d) Segregration
8. Florid
(a) Flashy (b) Sanguine (c) Trickery (d) Devious
9. Flux
(a) Flow (b) Variety (c) Surface (d) Inert
10. Galvanize
(a) Adornment (b) Startle (c) Contemporary (d) Exercise
11. Gaudy
(a) Adult (b) Creative (c) Flashy (d) Superb
12. Guileless
(a)Transparent (b) Clueless (c) Echo (d) Apostles
13. Hail
(a) Relish (b) Acclaim (c) Swindler (d) Desirous
14. Heinous
(a) Clot (b) Flagitious (c) Measure (d) Preventive
15. Herculean
(a) Mental (b) Powerful (c) Joyous (d) Respite
16. Idealist
(a) Pressure (b) Genius (c) Dreamer (d) Blissful
17. Ilk
(a) Innings (b) Like (c) Arrest (d) Temperature
18. Illicit
(a) Hush (b) Snake (c) Illegitimate (d) Abnormal
19. Impediment
(a) Check (b) Madcap (c) Impassive (d) Brush
20. Impute
(a) Include (b) Assign (c) Police (d) Impolite

NTS Vocabulary English MCQS Test 5

1. Incarnate
(a) Extemporize (b) Hardness (c) Bestial (d) Embody
2. Incisive
(a) Repetition (b) Piercing (c) Agile (d) Indulgent
3. Infidel
(a) Muddle (b) Pagan (c) Lusty (d) Trouble
4. Inherent
(a) Inborn (b) Statistician (c) Upbringing (d) Muzzy
5. Inoculate
(a) Provoke (b) Immunize (c) Essential (d) Crumble
6. Inordinate
(a) Figment (b) Kindle (c) Improvise (d) Undue
7. Itinerant
(a) Amend (b0 Gypsy (c) Smuggle (d) Selfishness
8. Jeopardy
(a) Batter (b) Linear (c) Hazard (d) Wrinkles
9. Jocular
(a) Striking (b) Jesting (c) Flirting (d) Transport
10. Junket
(a) Penetrate (b) Local (c) Fleet (d) Excursion
11. Ken
(a) Sight (b) Disappear (c) Fluent (d) Vocal
12. Laconic
(a) Inept (b) Curt (c) Headlong (d) Refusal
13. Laud
(a) Clear (b) Generous (c) Evident (d) Glorify
14. Ligament
(a) Bond (b) Downwind (c) Polar (d) Fast
15. Lineage
(a) Cherish (b) Ancestry (c) Benevolence (d) Personal
16. Lucidity
(a) Garnish (b) Vinegar (c) Clarity (d) Separated
17. Maneuver
(a) Ravisher (b) Tactics (c) Cultured (d) Commander
18. Manifestation
(a) Demonstration (b) Upward (c) Matric (d) Chamber
19. Melange
(a) Brandish (b) Ragbag (c) Humble (d) Riots
20. Menial
(a) Intend (b) Miserly (c) Humble (d) Souvenir
NTS Vocabulary English MCQS Test 6
1. Mesmerize
(a) Troubled (b) Hurdle (c) Spellbind (d) Centenary
2. Minatory
(a) Meritable (b) Sinister (c) Domestic (d) Agiated
3. Mirth
(a) Audacity (b) Hypnotize (c) Glee (d) Virtuosity
4. Modish
(a) Insolence (b) Latest (c) College (d) Purification
5. Morass
(a) Massive (b) Mire (c) Suspension (d) Uniformity
6. Mote
(a) Erosive (b) Amble (c) Particle (d) Slender
7. Murky
(a) Motive (b) Decoration (c) Clement (d) Cloudy
8. Muse
(a0 Speculate (b)Affirmative (c) Gloomy (d) Master
9. Nuance
(a) subtlety (b) General (c) Victory (d) Recession
10. Obliterate
(a) Self Denial (b) Defiant (c) Efface (d) Submissive
11. Obtuse
(a) Implied (b) Dull (c) Quiver (d) Attention
12. Palaver
(a) Motion (b) Chatter (c) Vibration (d) Area
13. Paragon
(a) Treatment (b) Equivalence (c) Perfection (d) Perplex
14. Parcel
(a) Packet (b) Shrink (c) Pulp (d) Idol
15. Pare
(a) Precarious (b) Peel (c) Assemble (d) Convulsion
16. Pathos
(a) Misdeed (b) Commiseration (c) Discretion (d) Bifurcate
17. Peerless
(a) Misfortune (b) Desired (c) Unrivaled (d) Command
18. Perfidy
(a) Syllable (b) Betrayal (c) Shrewd (d) Confirmation
19. Perfunctory
(a) Punic (b) Projecting (c) Casual (d) Comparison
20. Permeate
(a) Indulge (b) Penetrate (c) Margin (d) Device
 English Vocabulary MCQS NTS Online Test 1
1. Perseverance
(a) Growth (b) Pertinacity (c) Snooty (d) Penetrating
2. Perspicacious
(a) Conceited (b) Damnable (c) Sapient (d) Trivial
3. Placate
(a) Pour (b) Pacify (c) Array (d) Emotion
4. Plague
(a) Inclined (b) Molest (c) Attached (d) Pious
5. Plethora
(a) Embarrassment (b) Philosophy (c) Perfection (d) Thumb
6. Portrary
(a) Engulf (b) Depict (c) Gladstone (d) Necessitate
7. Precis
(a) Precipitate (b) Synopsis (c) Assortment (d) Separate
8. Premise
(a) Epilogue (b) Bishop (c) Introduce (d) Ravening
9. Prevalent
(a) Disastrous (b) Dominant (c) Furnish (d) Obtain
10. Primal
(a) Fundamental (b) Consequence (c) Annoying (d) Execute
11. Prodigious
(a) Exceeding (b) Postponement (c) Exceptional (d) Banish
12. Provident
(a) Offspring (b) Careful (c) Needless (d) Extra
13. Queasy
(a) Mire (b) Corrupt (c) Loathsome (d) Disastrous
14. Radiant
(a) Congeal (b) Beamy (c) Snappy (d) Unruly
15. Reciporcal
(a) Menace (b) Composition (c) Mutual (d) Liberalism
16. Rectify
(a) Opponent (b) Reform (c) Repeat (d) Lingual
17. Redolent
(a) Robotize (b) Evocative (c) Prospectus (d) Reclaim
18. Regnant
(a) Respite (b) Banish (c) Reigning (d) Remote
19. Renovate
(a) Vibrancy (b) Recreate (c) Wreckage (d) Riffle
20. Ruddy
(a) Stitches (b) Discernment (c) Reddish (d) Flourishing
 English Vocabulary MCQS NTS Online Test 2
1. Sanguine
(a) Ruddy (b) Demonstrating (c) Holiness (d) Cordial
2. Satire
(a) Skeptic (b) Swindle (c) Sarcasm (d) Satisfaction
3. Scorned
(a) Frustrate (b) Detested (c) Misgiving (d) Tedious
4. Sedate
(a) Audit (b) Sober (c) Superficial (d) Scamper
5. Segment
(a) Aging (b) Superior (c) Section (d) Inclusion
6. Singe
(a) Abject (b) Contrived (c) Scorch (d) Scorpio
7. Skittish
(a) Motley (b) Nervous (c) Supercilious (d) Segregation
8. Solvent
(a) Flashy (b) Aggregation (c) Solution (d) Temporary
9. Squander
(a) Waste (b) Earn (c) Staunch (d) Inert
10. Stalwart
(a) Adornment (b) Constant (c) Sturdy (d) Inferior
11. Stilted
(a) Adult (b) Artificial (c) Persist (d) Superb
12. Strategem
(a) Dodge (b) Contrived (c) Inactive (d) Apostles
13. Succumb
(a) Redundant (b) Yield (c) Swindler (d) Trivial
14. Supposition
(a) Incongruous (b) Hypothesis (c) Violence (d) Overwhelmed
15. Symbiosis
(a) Unconscious (b) Powerful (c) Mutualism (d) Forbidden
16. Taboo
9a) Flattering (b) Genius (c) Proscribed (d) Blissful
17. Tariff
(a) Jewelery (b) Duty (c) Perception (d) Temperature
18. Temperature
(a) Inexpensive (b) Moderation (c) Illegitimate (d) Abnormal
19. Tessellate
(a) Fit (b) Dogged (c) Armored (d) Brush
20. Therapeutic
(a) Tempering (b) Remedial (c) Abstaining (d) Impolite
 English Vocabulary MCQS NTS Online Test 3
1. Titan
(a) Giant (b) Rascal (c) Bestial (d) Embroil
2. Torpid
(a) Repetition (b) Sluggish (c) Agile (d) Appreciable
3. Traction
(a) Smooth (b) Grip (c) Clumsy (d) Troubling
4. Transient
(a) Short-lived (b) Statistician (c) Translate (d) Music
5. Trifle
(a) Cloying (b) Dally (c) Dread (d) Crumble
6. Tussle
(a) Scuffle (b) Kindle (c) Trivia (d) Outstanding
7. Undulate
(a) Amend (b) Wave (c) Unearth (d) Spellings
8. Unregenerate
(a) Stubborn (b) Intensifier (c) Hazard (d) Sprinkle
9. Urbane
(a) Vegetation (b) Refined (c) Flirting (d) Valley
10. Vanquish
(a) Penetrate (b) Circulate (c) Crush (d) Produce
11. Venerable
(a) Vicious (b)August (c) Fluent (d) Injurious
12. Veracity
(a) Vitality (b) Curtly (c) Truthfulness (d) Refusal
13. Virulent
(a) Criticism (b) Prospect (c) Evident (d) Deadly
14. Veracious
(a) Wolfish (b) Downcast (c) Busy (d) Attractive
15. Wan
(a) Winning (b) Pallid (c) Benevolence (d) Previous
16. Wheedle
(a) Wobble (b) Vinegar (c) Coax (d) Vulcanization
17. Wry
(a) Ravisher (b) Ironic (c) Behest (d) Weft
18. Vortex
(a) Swirl (b) Vote (c) Materialize (d) Clamber
19. Vituperatrive
(a) Fission ability (b) Scathing (c) Greediness (d) Riots
20. Voguism
(a) Confusion 9b) Intention (c) Fission ability (d) Scholarism
 NTS MCQS Sample Papers Pakistan Economic Survey
1. According to the economic survey of Pakistan 2016-17 what is the per capita
income of Pakistan in US Dollars?
(a) $1051.21 (b) $1531.0 (c) $1629 (d) $1372.8
2. According to the economic survey of Pakistan 2016-17 what is the per capita
income of Pakistan in Pakistani Rupee Terms?
(a) Rs. 124100 (b) Rs.169216 (c) Rs. 142800 (d) 212200
3. what is the real GDP growth rate in 2016-17 of Pakistan?
(a) 5.28% (b) 4.71% (c) 3.80% (d) 4.9%
4. What is the agriculture growth rate in 2016-2017?
(a) 2.33% (b) 3.46% (c) -1.2% (d) 2.5%
5. Which sector consists of sub-sectors which include crops, livestock, fisheries, and
forestry?
(a) Industry (b) Mining (c) Manufacturing (d) Agriculture
6. Large-Scale Manufacturing (LSM), Small Scale Manufacturing and Slaughtering
are the three main sub components of which of the following sectors?
(a) Quarrying Sector (b) Industrial sector
(c) Manufacturing Sector (d) Construction sector
7. Mining and Quarrying sector recorded positive growth of —– during the year 2016-
2017?
(a) 2.6 % (b) 1.34 % (c) 3.6% (d) 4%
8. Electricity and gas distribution witnessed a growth of —–during the year 2016-
2017?
(a) 5.2 % (b) 8 % (c) 3.4% (d) 0.2%
9. Services Sector has —–share in GDP and has emerged as the main driver of
economic growth
(a) 27.7 % (b) 37.7 % (c) 47.7% (d) 59.60%
10. Transport, Storage and Communication; wholesale and Retail Trade; Finance and
insurance; Housing Services (ownership of Dwellings); General Government
Services (Public Administration and Defence); and other private services (Social
Services) are sub-sectors of which economic sector?
(a) Social Sector (b) Services Sector (c) Industrial Sector (d) Business Sector
NTS MCQS Sample papers For Pakistan Economic Survey
11. The Services sector has registered a growth rate of —– in 2017-2017?
(a) 5.98 percent (b) 4.75 percent (c) 3.75 percent (d) 6.75 percent
12. Total investment in 2016-17 was —– %?
(a) 15.12 % (b) 16.23% (c) 15.54% (d) 15.78%
13. During 2016-17 Cotton giving portal growth of ?
(a) 4.80 % (b) 5.59% (c) 3.15% (d) 5.68%
14. During 2016-17 fiscal deficit stood at —– percent?
(a) 3.8 % (b) 4.2% (c) 6.6% (d) 5.1%
15. The inflation rate as measured by the changes in Consumer Price Index (CPI) stood
at —–during (July-April) 2016-17?
(a) 9.2 % (b) 8.7% (c) 4.1% (d) 6.2%
16. What is the literacy rate in Pakistan according to Pakistan Social and Living
Standard Measurement (PSLM) survey?
(a) 69.5% (b) 65.3% (c) 45.8% (d) 58%
17. Punjab leads with —–literacy followed by Sindh with 55% Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
with 53% and Balochistan with 41%?
(a) 65% (a) 57% (c) 62% (d) 67%
18. The overall number of educational institutes stood at —– during 2016-17?
(a) 231.2 thousands (b) 252.5 thousands (c) 257.1 thousands (d) 365.2 thousands
19. What is the total population of Pakistan as estimated during the year 2016-17?
(a) 189.21 million (b) 199.71 million (c) 179.43 million (d) 192.65 million
20. What was the Population Growth Rate of Pakistan in 2016-17?
(a) 2.6% (a) 1.86% (c) 3% (d) 2.8%
21. What is the length of Pakistan’s current road network ?
(a) 243,654 KM (b) 256,987 KM (c) 243,775 KM (d) 264,401KM
22. What is the length of NHA road network?
(a) 11,147 KM (b) 16,765 KM (c) 12,131 KM (d) 19,987 KM
23. Government of the Punjab has started a Metro Bus service in February 2013
in Lahore from —– to Shahdara?
(a) Minar-e-Pakistan (b) Gajumata
(c) Raiway Station (d) Model Town
24. Government of the Punjab has started a Metro Bus service in February 2013
in Lahore running on the —– route?
(a) 53 KM (b) 47 KM (c) 27KM (d) 36KM
25. How many passengers are using Metro Buses every day in Lahore?
(a) 1,20,000 (b) 1,30,000 (c) 1,35,000 (d) 1,45,000

Pakistan Economic Survey NTS Test

MCQS Part 2
Pakistan Economic Survey NTS Test MCQS Part 2
Pakistan Economic Survey NTS Test MCQS Part 2 is given below. All the question
related to Pakistani Economy for the year 2016 as well as for there year 2017. NTS
MCQS comprise of 25 question and the answer are given at the end. Candidates can
go through these Pakistan Economic Survey NTS Test Sample paper to check their
ability and knowledge about Pakistani Economy.
26. Karachi Port provides safe navigation for vessels up to —– dead-weight.
(a) 87,000 metric tonnes (b) 123,000 metric tonnes
(c) 45,000 metric tonnes (d) 75,000 metric tonnes
27. Port Qasim handled —– of total cargo during the financial year 2016 and 2017
(July-March).
(a) 23 6 million TEU’s (b) 12,6 million TEU’s
(c) 26.667 million TEU’s (d) 14.632 million TEU’s
28. Total mobile subscribers reached —– by the end of March 2015.
(a) 143.34 million (b) 133.56 million (c) 139 11 million (d) 114.51 million
29. The main users in the consumption of petroleum products are transport as
well as for power wised jointly have almost —– percent share in total
consumption.
(a) eighty (b) ninety (c) seventy (d) Sixty
30. Almost 65 percent electricity is generated by —–
(a) nuclear (b) hydal (c) coal (d) thermal
31. At national level, the total number enrollments during 2017 was estimated at ?
(a) 42.1 million (c) 47.8 million
(b) 41.5 million (d) 41.9 million
32. By the end of April 2017 the KSE 100 Index was trading around ?
(a) 48500 (c) 45600
(b) 52000 (d) 50100
33. During the year for 2016 as well as for the year 2017 the GDP growth
accelerated by ?
(a) 5.8% (b) 3.78% (c) 5.10% (d) 6.24%
34. The agriculture sector accounted for —– of GDP in 2016 and 2017.
(a) 28.5% (b) 14.2% (c) 20.9% (d) 19.53%
35. How much in percentage the industrial sector contributes to GDP ?
(a) 25.8% (b) 20.88% (c) 30.5% (d) 19.8%
36. Industrial sector showed how much growth in the year 2016 and 17 ?
(a) 3.62% (b) 5.85% (c) 5.02% (d) 2.95%
37. The share of service sector has reached in the year 2016 and 17?
(a) 62.5% (b) 59.59% (c) 65.43% (d) 55.5%
38. How much in percentage Government of Pakistan is currently spending on
education ?
(a) 2.3 (b) 3.5 (c) 1.8 (d) 4.2
39. At national level the total number of enrollment during 2016-17 increased by
how much percentage as compared to previous ?
(a) 5.2 (b) 3.4 (c) 4.4 (d) 2.9
40. Total number of enrollment on national level during the year 2016-17 ?
(a) 46.4 million (c) 40.8 million
(b) 42.1 million (d) 47.834 million
41. Number of institute during the year 2016-2017 were ?
(a) 252.8 thousands (b) 240.9 thousands (c) 215.8 thousands (d) 235.5 thousands
42. For year 2016-17 a total outlay for health sector was budgeted at —–
(a) 105.2 billion (c) 125.7 billion
(b) 145.97 billion (d) 148.5 billion
43.What is the rate of interest announced by SBP in the year 2016-17 which is the
lowest in last 44years ?
(a) 7% (b) 85% (c) 5.75% (d) 9.45%
44. Foreign exchange reserves reached —– by end of may 2016.
(a) 17.8 billion b) $ 20.93 billion (c) 16.5 billion (d) $ 19.6 billion
45. Pakistan’s estimated population in 2016 is ?
(a) 181.71 million (b) 191.71 million (c) 185.15 million(d) 199.71 million
46. Total length of Pakistan Metro is 226 km out of which how much is elevated
structure and how much is at ground level ?
(a) 8km-14 km (b) 7km-15 km (c) 9km- 13 km (d) 6km- 16 km
47. Agriculture sector accounts for how much of employment in percentage ?
(a) 40.8% (b) 42.3 % (c) 46.9 % (d) 48.8 %
48. In the financial year 2016 & 2017 public sector investment was ?
(a) 1103 (b) 1203 b (c) 2103 (d) 1003
49. In the financial year 2016 and 17 external debts as well as liabilities is
expected to touch ?
a) $85.7 billion(b) $75.7 billion (c) $65.9 billion (d) $62.8 billion
50. At the end of March 2017 the gross public debt stood at ?
(4) 18972 billion(b) 19872 billion (c) 20672 billion (d) 22432 billion

Pakistan Economic Survey NTS Test MCQS Part 2 Answer Keys

Nts Computer Mcqs
A Computer is a great gadget of the latest technology. It is generally a
machine which has capability to store huge amount data value in its
memory. It works using input (like keyboard) and output (like printer)
devices. It is very simple to handle the computer as its functioning is so
common that a 5 year child can handle it. It is a very reliable device which
we can carry with us and use anywhere and anytime. It allows us to make
changes in the already stored data as well as store new data. It has two
type of memory named as RAM and ROM.

All Types of Nts Computer Mcqs are

Given Below
Multiple Choice Questions of Microsoft Excel
1 A function inside another function is called _______
A. Nested function
B. Round function
C. Sum function
D. Text function
2 Which of the following is not an underline option in the format cells dialog box?
A. Double
B. Single Accounting
C. Double Accounting
D. Single Engineering
3 Formulas in Excel start with
A. %
B. =
C. +
D. –
4 The default header for a worksheet is
A. Username
B. Date and Time
C. Sheet tab Name
D. None
5 Which of the following is not an option of the spelling dialog box?
A. Ignore
B. Ignore all
C. Edit
D. Change
6 Which of the following methods will not enter data in a cell?
A. Pressing the Esc key
B. Pressing an arrow key
C. Pressing the tab key
D. Clicking the enter button to the formula bar
7 The cell reference for cell range of G2 to M12 is _______
A. G2.M12
B. G2;M12
C. G2:M12
D. G2-M12
8 What is the keyboard shortcut for creating a chart from the selected cell range?
A. F2
B. F4
C. F8
D. F11
9 The Software which contains rows and columns is called ______
A. Database
B. Drawing
C. Spreadsheet
D. Word processing
10 You can group noncontiguous worksheets with
A. The alt+enter key
B. The ctrl key and mouse
C. The shift key and the mouse
D. The group button on the standard toolbar
Answers
1 – A / 2 – D / 3 – B / 4 – D / 5 – C / 6 – A / 7 – C / 8 – D / 9 – C / 10 – B
ntsresults.org/
MS Excel MCQs Quiz Set 1
Questions
1. Which of the following is not a valid Zoom percentage in Excel?
A) 10
B) 100
C) 300
D) 500
2. The spelling tool is placed on ______ toolbar
A) Standard
B) Formatting
C) Drawing
D) Reviewing
3. If you need a text to show vertically in a cell. How will you achieve this?
A) Choose Vertical on Text alignment in Format Cells dialog box
B) Choose 90 Degrees in Orientation of Format Cells dialog box
C) Choose Distributed from the Vertical drop down list of Format Cells dialog box
D) Choose Center Across Selection from Horizontal combo box in Format Cells dialog
box
4. Can you set 0.5 inch left indentation for a cell in Excel?
A) Excel does not have indentation feature
B) You can specify indentation only if you turn the rulers on
C) Indentation can be set from Format Cells dialog box
D) The indentation can be specified only when printing
5. You can automatically adjust the size of text in a cell if they do not fit in width by
A) Double clicking on the right border of column header
B) From Format choose Columns and then Autofit Selection
C) From Format Cells dialog box mark Shrink to fit check box
D) All of above
6. Formatting a cell in Currency, you can specify
A) Decimal Places
B) Currency Symbol
C) Both of above
D) None of above
7. Formatting a cell in Number format you can’t set
A) Decimal Places
B) Use 1000 separator
C) Negative numbers
D) Currency Symbol
8. What is entered by the function =today()
A) The date value for the day according to system clock
B) The time value according to system clock
C) Today’s date as Text format
D) All of above
9. Which function will you use to enter current time in a worksheet cell?
A) =today()
B) =now()
C) =time()
D) =currentTime()
10. Special category of Number tab in Format Cells dialog box can be used to apply
formats like
A) Zip Code
B) Phone Number
C) Both of above
D) None of above
11. Merge cells option can be applied from
A) Format Cells dialog box Alignment Tab
B) Formatting toolbar
C) Both of above
D) None of above
12. Pre-made sheet formats like Simple, Classic, Accounting, Colorful etc. can be
applied from
A) from Format >> Cells
B) from Format >> Autoformat
C) from Table >> Autoformat
D) All of above
13. Which of the following format you can decide to apply or not in AutoFormat dialog
box?
A) Number format
B) Border format
C) Font format
D) All of above
14. How can you remove borders applied in cells?
A) Choose None on Border tab of Format cells
B) Open the list on Border tool in Formatting toolbar then choose first tool (no border)
C) Both of above
D) None of above
15. Where can you set the shedding color for a range of cells in Excel?
A) Choose required color form Patterns tab of Format Cells dialog box
B) Choose required color on Fill Color tool in Formatting toolbar
C) Choose required color on Fill Color tool in Drawing toolbar
D) All of above
16. You can set Page Border in Excel from
A) From Border tab in Format Cells dialog box
B) From Border tool in Formatting toolbar
C) From Line Style tool in Drawing toolbar
D) You can not set page border in Excel
17. When all the numbers between 0 and 100 in a range should be displayed in Red
Color, apply
A) Use =if() function to format the required numbers red
B) Apply Conditional Formatting command on Format menu
C) Select the cells that contain number between 0 and 100 then click Red color on Text
Color tool
D) All of above
18. You can check the conditions against __________ when applying conditional
formatting
A) Cell value
B) Formula
C) Both of above
D) None of above
19. Which of the following is not true regarding Conditional Formatting?
A) You can add more than one condition to check
B) You can set condition to look for Bold and apply Italics on them.
C) You can apply Font, border and pattern formats that meets the specified conditions
D) You can delete any condition from Conditional Formatting dialog box if it is not
required
20. Which of the following is invalid statement?
A) Sheet tabs can be colored
B) Some picture can be applied as a background of a sheet
C) You can set the column width automatically fit the amount of text
D) The width of a row and be specified manually or fit automatically
Answers
1-D 2-A 3-B 4-C 5-C 6-C 7-D 8-A 9-B 10-C
11-A 12-B 13-D 14-C 15-D 16-D 17-B 18-C 19-B 20-D
MS Excel MCQ Quiz Set 2
1. You can auto fit the width of column by
A) double clicking on the column name on column header
B) Double click on the cell pointer in worksheet
C) Double clicking on column right border on column header
D) Double clicking on the column left border of column header
2. Long text can be broken down into many lines within a cell. You can do this through
A) Wrap Text in Format >> Cells
B) Justify in Edit >> Cells
C) Text Wraping in Format >> Cells, Layout tab
D) All of above
3. MS Excel provides the default value for step in Fill Series dialog box
A) 0
B) 1
C) 5
D) 10
4. When a row of data is to be converted into columns
A) Copy the cells in row, select the same number of cells in row and paste
B) Copy the cells in column then choose Edit >> Paste Special, then click Transpose
and OK
C) Copy the cells then go to Format >> Cells then on Alignment tab click Transpose
check box and click
OK
D) Select the cells then place the cell pointer on new cell and choose Edit >> Paste
Special, mark
Transpose check box and click OK.
5. Ctrl + D shortcut key in Excel will
A) Open the font dialog box
B) Apply double underline for the active cell
C) Fill down in the selection
D) None of above
6. The short cut key Ctrl + R is used in Excel to
A) Right align the content of cell
B) Remove the cell contents of selected cells
C) Fill the selection with active cells to the right
D) None of above
7. The command Edit >> Fill Across Worksheet is active only when
A) One sheet is selected
B) When many sheets are selected
C) When no sheet is selected
D) None of above
8. Which of the following series type is not valid for Fill Series dialog box?
A) Linear
B) Growth
C) Autofill
D) Time
9. Which of the following you can paste selectively using Paste Special command?
A) Validation
B) Formats
C) Formulas
D) All of above
10. Paste Special allows some operation while you paste to new cell. Which of the
following operation
is valid?
A) Square
B) Percentage
C) Goal Seek
D) Divide
11. Edit >> Delete command
A) Deletes the content of a cell
B) Deletes Formats of cell
C) Deletes the comment of cell
D) Deletes selected cells
12. To remove the content of selected cells you must issue ______ command
A) Edit >> Delete
B) Edit >> Clear >> Contents
C) Edit >> Clear >> All
D) Data >> Delete
13. The Delete key of keyboard is assigned to which command in Excel?
A) Edit >> Clear >> Contents
B) Edit >> Clear >> All
C) Edit >> Delete
D) All of above
14. If you need to remove only the formatting done in a range (numbers and formula
typed there
should not be removed), you must
A) From Edit menu choose Clear and then Formats
B) From Edit menu choose Delete
C) Click on Remove Formatting tool on Standard Toolbar
D) Double click the Format Painter and then press Esc key in keyboard
15. By default Excel provides 3 worksheets. You need only two of them, how will you
delete the third
one?
A) Right click on Sheet Tab of third sheet and choose Delete from the context menu
B) Click on Sheet 3 and from Edit menu choose Delete
C) Both of above
D) None of above
16. Which of the following action removes a sheet from workbook?
A) Select the sheet, then choose Edit >> Delete Sheet
B) Select the sheet then choose Format >> Sheet >> Hide
C) Both of above
D) None of above
17. While Finding and Replacing some data in Excel, which of the following statement is
valid?
A) You can Find and Replace within the sheet or workbook
B) Excel does not have option to match case for find
C) Both are valid
D) None are valid
18. Which of the following is not true about Find and Replace in Excel
A) You can search for bold and replace with italics
B) You can decide whether to look for the whole word or not
C) You can search in formula too
D) You can search by rows or columns or sheets
19. You can move a sheet from one workbook into new book by
A) From Edit menu choose Move or Copy sheet, mark the Create a ccopy and Click OK
B) From Edit menu choose Move of Copy then choose (Move to end) and click OK
C) From Edit menu choose Move or Copy then select (new book) from To Book list and
click OK
D) None of above
20. What is the short cut key to replace a data with another in sheet?
A) Ctrl + R
B) Ctrl + Shift + R
C) Ctrl + H
D) Ctrl + F
Answers
1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D, 5-C, 6-C, 7-B, 8-D, 9-D, 10-D, 11-D, 12-B, 13-A, 14-A, 15-A, 16-A,
17-A, 18-D, 19-C, 20-
C,
.
MS Word
1. Which of the following is not valid version of MS Office?
A) Office XP
B) Office Vista
C) Office 2007
D) None of above
2. You cannot close MS Word application by
A) Choosing File menu then Exit submenu
B) Press Alt+F4
C) Click X button on title bar
D) From File menu choose Close submenu
3. The key F12 opens a
A) Save As dialog box
B) Open dialog box
C) Save dialog box
D) Close dialog box
4. What is the short cut key to open the Open dialog box?
A) F12
B) Shift F12
C) Alt + F12
D) Ctrl + F12
5. A feature of MS Word that saves the document automatically after certain interval is
available on
A) Save tab on Options dialog box
B) Save As dialog box
C) Both of above
D) None of above
6. Where can you find the horizontal split bar on MS Word screen?
A) On the left of horizontal scroll bar
B) On the right of horizontal scroll bar
C) On the top of vertical scroll bar
D) On the bottom of vertical scroll bar
7. Which of the following is not available on the Ruler of MS Word screen?
A) Tab stop box
B) Left Indent
C) Right Indent
D) Center Indent
E) All of them are available on ruler
8. What is place to the left of horizontal scroll bar?
A) Tab stop buttons
B) View buttons
C) Split buttons
D) Indicators
E) None of above
9. Which file starts MS Word?
A) Winword.exe
B) Word.exe
C) Msword.exe
D) Word2003.exe
10. How many ways you can save a document?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
11. If you want to keep track of different editions of a document which features will you
use?
A) Editions
B) Versions
C) Track Change
D) All of above
12. Background color or effects applied on a document is not visible in
A) Web layout view
B) Print Layout view
C) Reading View
D) Print Preview
13. What is a portion of a document in which you set certain page formatting options?
A) Page
B) Document
C) Section
D) Page Setup
14. Borders can be applied to
A) Cells
B) Paragraph
C) Text
D) All of above
15. Which of the following is not a type of page margin?
A) Left
B) Right
C) Center
D) Top
16. What is the default left margin in Word 2003 document?
A) 1″
B) 1.25″
C) 1.5″
D) 2″
17. What is gutter margin?
A) Margin that is added to the left margin when printing
B) Margin that is added to right margin when printing
C) Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing
D) Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing
18. Portrait and Landscape are
A) Page Orientation
B) Paper Size
C) Page Layout
D) All of above
19. If you need to change the typeface of a document, which menu will you choose?
A) Edit
B) View
C) Format
D) Tools
20. Which of the following is not a font style?
A) Bold
B) Italics
C) Regular
D) Superscript
Answers 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-D, 5-A, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-A, 10-A, 11-B, 12-D, 13-C, 14-D, 15-
C, 16-B, 17-C, 18-A,
19-C, 20-D
Internet
1. E-mail addresses separate the user name from the ISP using the __________
symbol.
A) &
B) @
C) %
D) *
2. The mail server as defined in the text uses the __________ protocol.
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) POP
D) SMTP
3. To send email to a large group at one time, a __________ can be use
A) listserv
B) group
C) alias
D) mail server
4. When sending an e-mail, the __________ line describes the contents of the
message.
A) to
B) subject
C) contents
D) CC
5. Unsolicited commercial email is commonly known as __________.
A) junk
B) hoaxes
C) spam
D) hypertext
6. News servers utilize __________ to distribute documents to readers.
A) NNTP
B) NEWS
C) HTTP
D) FTP
7. To search FTP archives for a file, you should use the __________ tool.
A) gopher
B) jughead
C) archie
D) jalopy
8. __________ is often referred to as “the CB of the Internet.”
A) IRC
B) FTP
C) E-mail
D) HTTP
9. Discussion groups may have a __________ who monitors the postings and enforces
the site’s rules.
A) judge
B) sysop
C) narrator
D) censor
10. A message with replies on a newsgroup is often called a __________.
A) post
B) list
C) thread
D) comment
1-B,2-C,3-A,4-B,5-C,6-A,7-B,8-A,9-B,10-C
Power Point Questions Part 1
1. Which tab is not available on left panel when you open a presentation?
A) Outline
B) Slides
C) Notes
D) All of above are available
2. Which of the following statements is not true?
A) You can type text directly into a PowerPoint slide but typing in text box is more
convenient.
B) From Insert menu choose Picture and then From File to insert your images into
slides.
C) You can display a PowerPoint presentation in Normal, Slide Sorter or Slide Show
view.
D) You can show or hide task pane from View >> Toolbars
3. To start Microsoft PowerPoint application
A) Click on Start >> Programs >> All Programs >> Microsoft PowerPoint
B) Hit Ctrl + R then type ppoint.exe and Enter
C) Click Start >> Run then type powerpnt then press Enter
D) All of above
4. Which of the following section does not exist in a slide layout?
A) Titles
B) Lists
C) Charts
D) Animations
5. PowerPoint presentations are widely used as
A) note outlines for teachers
B) project presentations by students
C) communication of planning
D) All of above
6. _______ controls all the main slide control tasks for your presentation.
A) Task Pane
B) Task Bar
C) Control Panel
D) None of above
7. Which of the following cannot be toggled from View >> Toolbars?
A) Control Toolbox
B) Slides
C) Revisions
D) Reviewing
8. Which of the following pane is not available in Task Pane?
A) Getting Started
B) Clip Art
C) Word Art
D) Search Results
9. Which of the following pane is NOT available in Task Pane?
A) Slide Design
B) Master Slide
C) Slide Layout
D) Slide Transition
10. A new presentation can be created from
A) Blank Presentation
B) From Existing Presentation
C) From Design Template
D) All of above
11. In slide layout panel how many layouts are available for text layout by default?
A) 4
B) 7
C) 12
D) None of above
12. Which of the following statement is false?
A) If you choose to select from one of the pre-made slide layouts, you can change the
positioning
B) If you choose to select from the pre-made slide layouts, you cannot delete the
objects in the layout.
C) Blank Slide is at the top of the ‘Content Layouts’ area in the Slide Layout panel.
D) All of above are false statements
13. What lets you to create new presentation by selecting ready-made font color and
graphics effects?
A) Presentation Template
B) Master Slide
C) Design Template
D) Animation Scheme
14. Which command will you use in PowerPoint if you need to change the color of
different objects without
changing content?
A) Design Template
B) Color Scheme
C) Font Color
D) Object Color
15. What PowerPoint feature will you use to apply motion effects to different objects of a
slide?
A) Slide Transition
B) Slide Design
C) Animation Objects
D) Animation Scheme
16. What feature will you use to apply motion effects in between a slide exits and
another enters?
A) Slide Transition
B) Slide Design
C) Animation Objects
D) Animation Scheme
17. The selected design template can be applied
A) to current slide only
B) to all the slides
C) to all the new presentation you create
D) all of above
18. The difference between Slide Design and Auto Content Wizard is
A) Both are same
B) Autocontent Wizard is just the wizard version of Slide Design
C) Slide Design does not provide sample content but Auto Content Wizard provides
sample content too!
D) Slide Design asks your choice in steps but Auto Content Wizard does not let you
make choices
19. In which menu can you find features like Slide Design, Slide Layout etc.?
A) Insert Menu
B) Format Menu
C) Tools Menu
D) Slide Show Menu
0. Which menu provides you options like Animation Scheme, custom Animation, Slide
Transition?
A) Insert Menu
B) Format Menu
C) Tools Menu
D) Slide Show Menu
Answers
1-C 2-A 3-C 4-D 5-D 6-A 7-B 8-C 9-B 10-D
11-A 12-B 13-C 14-B 15-D 16-A 17-D 18-C 19-B 20-D
Power Point Questions Set 2
1. How many steps are there between Start and Finish in AutoContent Wizard?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
2. Which short cut key inserts a new slide in current presentation?
A) Ctrl+N
B) Ctrl+M
C) Ctrl+S
D) All of above
3. What happens if you select first and second slide and then click on New Slide button
on toolbar?
A) A new slide is inserted as first slide in presentation
B) A new slide is inserted as second slide in presentation
C) A new slide is inserted as third slide in presentation
D) None of above
4. Which of the following method can insert a new slide in current presentation?
A) Right click on the Slide panel and choose New Slide
B) From Insert menu choose New Slide
C) Click on New Slide button on toolbar
D) All of above
5. Which of the following is not a part of Slide Design
A) Design Template
B) Color Scheme
C) Animation Scheme
D) Slide Layout
6. What is the best way to create another copy of a slide?
A) Click the slide then press Ctrl+A and paste in new slide
B) From Insert Menu choose Duplicate Slide
C) Redo everything on a new slide that you had done on previous slide
D) None of above
7. From which menu you can access Picture, Test Box, Chart etc?
A) File
B) Edit
C) Insert
D) View
8. If you want to insert some slides from other presentation into current one choose
A) From Insert menu choose Slides from Files
B) From Insert menu choose Slides from Presentation
C) From Insert menu choose Slides
D) None of above
9. What are the three options available in Insert >> Picture menu?
A) Clipart, Pictures, Shapes
B) Clipart, From File, Shapes
C) Clipart, From Files, AutoShapes
D) Clipart, Pictures, AutoShapes
10. To insert slide numbers
A) Insert a text box and select Insert >> Page Number
B) Insert a textbox and select Insert >> Number >> PageNumber
C) Choose Insert >> Slide Number
D) Insert a new text box and select Insert >> slide Number
11. In a PowerPoint presentation
A) Sound clips can be inserted but not movie clips
B) Movie clips can be inserted but not sound clips
C) Both cannot be inserted
D) Both can be inserted
12. to insert a hyperlink in a slide
A) Choose Insert >> Hyperlink
B) Press Ctrl + K
C) Hyperlinks can’t be inserted in slides
D) both a & b
13. List Box and Text box
A) are some other than that in a list box the bullets are enabled
B) are different. List boxes are used to present lists and can’t be created with text
boxes.
C) Both of above
D) None of above
14. Which of the following statement is true
A) You can insert text boxes from drawing toolbar in PowerPoint
B) You cannot insert text boxes from drawing toolbar in PowerPoint
C) Text boxes are provides when you choose a layout and can’t be inserted afterwards
D) None of above
15. When you delete a text box object from a slide in PowerPoint Presentation
A) The object is deleted but text box and the text inside is left on the slide
B) The text box is deleted and the text is pasted on the slide
C) The text box and text both are deleted
D) None of above
16. Which of the following font effect is not available in PowerPoint Font dialog box?
A) Underline
B) Shadow
C) Emboss
D) Strikethrough
17. What happens if you edited an image inserted in PowerPoint
A) The original file that was inserted is not changed
B) The original file that was inserted is changed
C) The original file is changed when you save presentation
D) None of above
18. If you select Insert >> Picture >> From File
A) You can insert pictures and clipart
B) You can insert clipart only
C) you can insert pictures only
D) None of above
19. The effect applied to display when slides changes in slide show view is
A) Slide Animation
B) Custom Animation
C) Custom Transition
D) Slide Transition
20. To start slide show of a presentation
A) Hit F5 key
B) From Slide Show menu choose View Show option
C) From Slide Show menu choose Rehearse timing
D) both a & b
Answers
1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-D 6-B 7-C 8-A 9-C 10-D
11-D 12-D 13-A 14-A 15-C 16-D 17-A 18-C 19-D 20-D
PowerPoint Questions Part3
1. Which file format can be added to a PowerPoint show?
a. .jpg
b. .giv
c. .wav
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: d
2. In Microsoft PowerPoint two kind of sound effects files that can be added to the
presentation are
a. .wav files and .mid files
b. .wav files and .gif files
c. .wav files and .jpg files
d. .jpg files and .gif files
Correct Answer: a
3. Material consisting of text and numbers is best presented as
a. A table slide
b. A bullet slide
c. A title slide
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: a
4. What is a motion path?
a. A type of animation entrance effect
b. A method of advancing slides
c. A method of moving items on a slide
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: c
5. What is a slide-title master pair?
a. The title area and text area of a specific slide
b. a slide master and title master merged into a single slide
c. A slide master and title master for a specific design template
d. All of above
Correct Answer: c
6. Which of the following should you use if you want all the slide in the presentation to
have the same “look”?
a. the slide layout option
b. add a slide option
c. outline view
d. a presentation design template
Correct Answer: d
7. in the context of animations, what is a trigger?
a. An action button that advances to the next slide
b. An item on the slide that performs an action when clicked
c. The name of a motion path
d. All of above
Correct Answer: b
8. If you have a PowerPoint show you created and want to send using email to another
teacher you can add the
show to your email message as a (an)
a. Inclusion
b. Attachment
c. Reply
d. Forward
Correct Answer: b.
9. In order to edit a chart, you can
a. Triple click the chart object
b. Click and drag the chart object
c. Double click the chart object
d. Click the chart object
Correct Answer: c
10. to exit the PowerPoint
a. click the application minimize button
b. click the document close button
c. double click the applications control menu icon
d. double click the document control menu icon
Correct Answer: c
11. to preview a motion path effect using the custom animation task pane, you should
e. click the play button
f. click the show effect button
g. double click the motion path
h. all of above
Correct Answer: a
12. You can create a new presentation by completing all of the following except
a. Clicking the new button on the standard toolbar
b. Clicking file, new
c. Clicking file open
d. Pressing ctrl + N
Correct Answer: c
13. You can embed a MS-Organization Chart in a slide by
a. Clicking the object command on the edit menu
b. Clicking the object command on the edit menu
c. Clicking the insert new slide button the standard toolbar, then double click the
organization chart button on the
Formatting toolbar
d. Clicking the MS-Organization Chart button on the standard toolbar
Correct Answer: b
14. To select one hyperlink after another during a slide presentation, what do you
press?
a. Tab
b. Ctrl + K
c. Ctrl + h
d. All of above
Correct Answer: a
15. Special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called
a. effects
b. custom animations
c. transitions
d. present animations
Correct Answer: c
16. You can edit an embedded organization chart object by
a. Clicking edit object
b. Double clicking the organization chart object
c. Right clicking the chart object, then clicking edit MS-Organizaiton Chart object
d. b and c both
Correct Answer: d
17. What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and more the
mouse around the slide?
a. Highlighting
b. Dragging
c. Selecting
d. Moving
Correct Answer: b
18. Which of the following toolbars provide different options in various master views?
a. Common tasks toolbar
b. Drawing toolbar
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Standard toolbar
Correct Answer: a
19. How can you create a uniform appearance by adding a background image to all
slides?
a. Create a template
b. Edit the slide master
c. Use the autocorrect wizard
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: b
20. How do you create speaker note pages that show the slides, related notes, and your
company logo on each
page?
a. Edit the notes master and add your company logy
b. Edit the slide master and insert your company logo and notes pane
c. Edit the handout master to include your company logo and one slide per page with
additional note space
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: a

MS PowerPoint MCQ Questions

1. Which tab is not available on left panel when you open a presentation?
a. Outline
b. Slides
c. Notes
d. All of above are available
2. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. You can type text directly into a PowerPoint slide but typing in text box is more
convenient.
b. From Insert menu choose Picture and then File to insert your images into slides.
c. You can view a PowerPoint presentation in Normal, Slide Sorter or Slide Show view.
d. You can show or hide task pane from View >> Toolbars
3. To start Microsoft PowerPoint application
a. Click on Start >> Programs >> All Programs >> Microsoft PowerPoint
b. Hit Ctrl + R then type ppoint.exe and Enter
c. Click Start >> Run then type powerpnt then press Enter
d. All of above
4. Which of the following section does not exist in a slide layout?
a. Titles
b. Lists
c. Charts
d. Animations
5. PowerPoint presentations are widely used as
a. note outlines for teachers
b. project presentations by students
c. communication of planning
d. All of above

6. _______ controls all the main slide control tasks for your presentation.
a. Task Pane
b. Task Bar
c. Control Panel
d. None of above
7. Which of the following cannot be toggled from View >> Toolbars?
a. Control Toolbox
b. Slides
c. Revisions
d. Reviewing
8. Which of the following pane is not available in Task Pane?
a. Getting Started
b. Clip Art
c. Word Art
d. Search Results
9. Which of the following pane is NOT available in Task Pane?
a. Slide Design
b. Master Slide
c. Slide Layout
d. Slide Transition
10. A new presentation can be created from
a. Blank Presentation
b. From Existing Presentation
c. From Design Template
d. All of abovw
11. In slide layout panel how many layouts are available for text layout by default?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 12
d. None of above
12. Which of the following statement is false?
a. If you choose to select from one of the pre-made slide layouts, you can change the
positioningntsresults.org

b. If you choose to select from the pre-made slide layouts, you cannot delete the objects in
the layout.
c. Blank Slide is at the top of the ‘Content Layouts’ area in the Slide Layout panel.
d. All of above are false statements
Enjoy preparing your competitive exams with these MS PowerPoint MCQ Questions with
answers!
13. What lets you to create new presentation by selecting ready-made font color and
graphics effects?
a. Presentation Template
b. Master Slide
c. Design Template
d. Animation Scheme
14. Which command will you use in PowerPoint if you need to change the color of
different objects without changing content?
a. Design Template
b. Color Scheme
c. Font Color
d. Object Color
15. What PowerPoint feature will you use to apply motion effects to different objects
of a slide?
a. Slide Transition
b. Slide Design
c. Animation Objects
d. Animation Scheme
16. What feature will you use to apply motion effects in between a slide exits and
another enters?
a. Slide Transition
b. Slide Design
c. Animation Objects
d. Animation Scheme ntsresults.org

17. The selected design template can be applied

a. to current slide only
b. to all the slides
c. to all the new presentation you create
d. all of above
18. The difference between Slide Design and Auto Content Wizard is
a. Both are same
b. AutoContent Wizard is just the wizard version of Slide Design
c. Slide Design does not provide sample content but Auto Content Wizard provides sample
content too!
d. Slide Design asks your choice in steps but Auto Content Wizard does not let you make
choices
19. In which menu can you find features like Slide Design, Slide Layout etc.?
a. Insert Menu
b. Format Menu
c. Tools Menu
d. Slide Show Menu
20. Which menu provides you options like Animation Scheme, custom Animation,
Slide Transition?
a. Insert Menu
b. Format Menu
c. Tools Menu
d. Slide Show Menu
21. How many steps are there between Start and Finish in AutoContent Wizard?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6 ntsresults.org

22. Which short cut key inserts a new slide in current presentation?
a. Ctrl+N
b. Ctrl+M
c. Ctrl+S
d. All of above
23. What happens if you select first and second slide and then click on New Slide
button on toolbar?
a. A new slide is inserted as first slide in presentation
b. A new slide is inserted as second slide in presentation
c. A new slide is inserted as third slide in presentation
d. None of above
24. Which of the following method can insert a new slide in current presentation?
a. Right click on the Slide panel and choose New Slide
b. From Insert menu choose New Slide
c. Click on New Slide button on toolbar
d. All of above
25. Which of the following is not a part of Slide Design
a. Design Template
b. Color Scheme
c. Animation Scheme
d. Slide Layout
Enjoy preparing your competitive exams with these MS PowerPoint MCQ Questions with
answers!
26. What is the best way to create another copy of a slide?
a. Click the slide then press Ctrl+A and paste in new slide
b. From Insert Menu choose Duplicate Slide
c. Redo everything on a new slide that you had done on previous slide
d. None of above
27. From which menu you can access Picture, Test Box, Chart etc? ntsresults.org

a. File
b. Edit
c. Insert
d. View
28. If you want to insert some slides from other presentation into current one choose
a. From Insert menu choose Slides from Files
b. From Insert menu choose Slides from Presentation
c. From Insert menu choose Slides
d. None of above
29. What are the three options available in Insert >> Picture menu?
a. Clipart, Pictures, Shapes
b. Clipart, From File, Shapes
c. Clipart, From Files, AutoShapes
d. Clipart, Pictures, AutoShapes
30. To insert slide numbers
a. Insert a text box and select Insert >> Page Number
b. Insert a textbox and select Insert >> Number >> PageNumber
c. Choose Insert >> Slide Number
d. Insert a new text box and select Insert >> slide Number
31. In a PowerPoint presentation
a. Sound clips can be inserted but not movie clips
b. Movie clips can be inserted but not sound clips
c. Both cannot be inserted
d. Both can be inserted
32. to insert a hyperlink in a slide
a. Choose Insert >> Hyperlink
b. Press Ctrl + K
c. Hyperlinks can’t be inserted in slides
d. both a & b ntsresults.org

33. List Box and Text box

a. are some other than that in a list box the bullets are enabled
b. are different. List boxes are used to present lists and can’t be created with text boxes.
c. Both of above
d. None of above
34. Which of the following statement is true
a. You can insert text boxes from drawing toolbar in PowerPoint
b. You cannot insert text boxes from drawing toolbar in PowerPoint
c. Text boxes are provides when you choose a layout and can’t be inserted afterwards
d. None of above
35. When you delete a text box object from a slide in PowerPoint Presentation
a. The object is deleted but text box and the text inside is left on the slide
b. The text box is deleted and the text is pasted on the slide
c. The text box and text both are deleted
d. None of above
36. Which of the following font effect is not available in PowerPoint Font dialog box?
a. Underline
b. Shadow
c. Emboss
d. Strikethrough
37. What happens if you edited an image inserted in PowerPoint
a. The original file that was inserted is not changed
b. The original file that was inserted is changed
c. The original file is changed when you save presentation
d. None of above
38. If you select Insert >> Picture >> From File
a. You can insert pictures and clipart
b. You can insert clipart only ntsresults.org

c. you can insert pictures only

d. None of above
39. The effect applied to display when slides changes in slide show view is
a. Slide Animation
b. Custom Animation
c. Custom Transition
d. Slide Transition
40. To start slide show of a presentation
a. Hit F5 key
b. From Slide Show menu choose View Show option
c. From Slide Show menu choose Rehearse timing
d. both a & b
41. Which file format can be added to a PowerPoint show?
a. .jpg
b. .gif
c. .wav
d. All of the above
Enjoy preparing your competitive exams with these MS PowerPoint MCQ Questions with
answers!
42. In Microsoft PowerPoint, two kinds of sound effects files that can be added to the
presentation are
a. .wav files and .mid files
b. .wav files and .gif files
c. .wav files and .jpg files
d. .jpg files and .gif files
43. Material consisting of text and numbers is best presented as
a. A table slide
b. A bullet slide
c. A title slide ntsresults.org

d. All of the above

44. What is a motion path?
a. A type of animation entrance effect
b. A method of advancing slides
c. A method of moving items on a slide
d. All of the above
45. What is a slide-title master pair?
a. The title area and text area of a specific slide
b. a slide master and title master merged into a single slide
c. A slide master and title master for a specific design template
d. All of above
46. Which of the following should you use if you want all the slides in the
presentation to have the same ‘look’?
a. the slide layout option
b. add a slide option
c. outline view
d. a presentation design template
47. in the context of animations, what is a trigger?
a. An action button that advances to the next slide
b. An item on the slide that performs an action when clicked
c. The name of a motion path
d. All of above
48. If you have a PowerPoint show you created and want to send using email to
another teacher you can add the show to your email message as a (an)
a. Inclusion
b. Attachment
c. Reply ntsresults.org

d. Forward
49. In order to edit a chart, you can
a. Triple click the chart object
b. Click and drag the chart object
c. Double click the chart object
d. Click the chart object
50. To exit the PowerPoint
a. click the application minimize button
b. click the document close button
c. double click the applications control menu icon
d. double click the document control menu icon
51. To preview a motion path effect using the custom animation task pane, you
should
a. click the play button
b. click the show effect button
c. double click the motion path
d. all of above
52. You can create a new presentation by completing all of the following except
a. Clicking the new button on the standard toolbar
b. Clicking file, new
c. Clicking file open
d. Pressing ctrl + N
53. You can embed a MS-Organization Chart in a slide by
a. Clicking the object command on the edit menu
b. Clicking the object command on the edit menu
c. Clicking the insert new slide button the standard toolbar, then double click the
organization chart button on the formatting toolbar
d. Clicking the MS-Organization Chart button on the standard toolbar ntsresults.org

54. To select one hyperlink after another during a slide presentation, what do you
press?
a. Tab
b. Ctrl + K
c. Ctrl + h
d. All of above
55. special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called
a. effects
b. custom animations
c. transitions
d. present animations
56. You can edit an embedded organization chart object by
a. Clicking edit object
b. Double clicking the organization chart object
c. Right clicking the chart object, then clicking edit MS-Organization Chart object
d. b and c both
57. What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and more the
mouse around the slide?
a. Highlighting
b. Dragging
c. Selecting
d. Moving
58. Which of the following toolbars provide different options in various master
views?
a. Common tasks toolbar
b. Drawing toolbar
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Standard toolbar
Enjoy preparing your competitive exams with these MS PowerPoint MCQ Questions with
answers!ntsresults.org

59. How can you create a uniform appearance by adding a background image to all
slides?
a. Create a template
b. Edit the slide master
c. Use the autocorrect wizard
d. All of the above
60. How do you create speaker note pages that show the slides, related notes, and
your company logo on each page?
a. Edit the notes master and add your company logy
b. Edit the slide master and insert your company logo and notes pane
c. Edit the handout master to include your company logo and one slide per page with
additional note space
d. All of the above
61. Which option on the custom animation task pane allows you to apply a preset or
custom motion path?
a. Add effect
b. Emphasis
c. Animate now
d. All of the above
62. What is the term used when a clip art image changes the direction of faces?
a. Group
b. Flip
c. Rotate
d. All of the above
63. The slide that is used to introduce a topic and set the tone for the presentation is
called the
a. table slide
b. graph slide
c. bullet slide ntsresults.org

d. title slide
64. Which of the following features should you use when typing in the notes text
box?
a. Slide show
b. Insert
c. Slide maser
d. Zoom
65. Which option allows you to select line, curve, freeform or scribble tools?
a. Create effect
b. Insert motion path
c. Draw custom path
d. All of the above
66. Which of the following should be used when you want to add a slide to an
existing presentation?
a. File, add a new slide
b. Insert, New slide
c. File Open
d. File, New
67. The size of the organization chart object
a. Is determined by the presentation design and cannot be changed
b. Is determined by the presentation design but can be changed in PowerPoint
c. Is dependent on the amount of text within the organization chart
d. b and c
68. Which of the following is the default page setup orientation of slide in PowerPoint
a. Vertical
b. Landscape
c. Portrait
d. None of above ntsresults.org

69. Want a PowerPoint photo album slide show to play continuously?

a. Use random slide transitions
b. Launch an online broadcast
c. Loop continuously
d. All of the above
70. what is defined by the handout master?
a. Slide formatting
b. Layout of audience handout notes
c. Handout content formatting for Microsoft word export
d. All of above
71. Which of the following tool enables you to add text to a slide without using the
standard placeholders?
a. Text tool box
b. Line tool
c. Drawing tool
d. Auto shapes tool
72. In notes master view, how do you modify the font size of text for all hte4 notes of
a presentation?
a. Modify the slide design
b. Modify the notes master layout
c. Modify the text within the body placeholder
d. All of the above
73. Want your logo in the same position on every slide, automatically? Insert it on the
a. Handout master
b. Notes master
c. Slide master
d. All of the above ntsresults.org

74. Which of the following views is the best view to use when setting transition
effects for all slides in a presentation?
a. Slide sorter view
b. Notes pages view
c. Slide view
d. Outline view
75. Objects on the slide that hold text are called
a. Placeholders
b. Object holders
c. Auto layouts
d. Text holders
76. Which of the following provides a means of printing out feature notes with a
miniature slide on a printed page?
a. Slide with animation
b. Outline view
c. Notes page
d. Audience handout
77. Which command brings you to the first slide in your presentation?
a. Next slide button
b. Page up
c. Ctrl + Home
d. Ctrl + End
Enjoy preparing your competitive exams with these MS PowerPoint MCQ Questions with
answers!
78. In normal view, how can you quickly change to handout master view?
a. Click the outline tab and select handout master view
b. Press the shift key and click the handout master view button
c. On the view menu, click slide sorter, and click handouts.
d. All of above ntsresults.org

79. How can you quickly reinstate a deleted footer placeholder in master view?
a. Create a new slide master
b. Re-apply the footer placeholder
c. Re-apply the slide layout
d. All of the above
80. Which of the following can you use to add times to the slides in a presentation?
a. Slide show menu
b. Rehearse timings button
c. Slide transition button
d. All of the above
81. To select all of the boxes of an organization chart
a. Clicking and edit and select all
b. Right click the chart background and then click select all
c. Press and hold the SHIFT key and click each box
d. All of above
82. You can show the shortcut menu during the slide show by
a. Clicking the shortcut button on the formatting toolbar
b. Right clicking the current slide
c. Clicking an icon on the current slide
d. a and b
83. Auto clipart is a feature that
a. Automatically places clipart in your presentation
b. Scans your presentation for incorrect spelling in your words on each slide
c. Scans your presentation for incorrect spelling in Word Arts objects
d. All of above
84. to edit the text within the boxes of an organization chart, you
a. select the box and text, then make changes
b. select the box, then make the changes ntsresults.org

c. highlight the text, them make the changes

d. a and b both
85. Which of the following allow you to select more than one slide in a presentation?
a. Alt + Click each slide
b. Shift + drag each slide
c. Shift + Click each slide
d. Ctrl + Click each slide
86. The view that displays the slides on a presentation as miniature representations
of the slides is called
a. slide show
b. slide sorter view
c. notes page view
d. outline view
87. The PowerPoint view that displays only text (title and bullets) is
a. Slide show
b. Slide sorter view
c. Notes page view
d. Outline view
88. In Microsoft PowerPoint the entry effect as one slide replaces another in a show
is called a (an)
a. animation
b. slide transition
c. custom animation
d. preset animation
89. Which of the following presentation elements can you modify using the slide
master?
a. Slide comments
b. Slide transitions
c. Speaker note font and color ntsresults.org

d. All of above
90. Which of the following provides a printed copy of your presentation?
a. Outline
b. Speaker notes
c. Audience handouts
d. All of the above
91. Slide show options available to the presenter include all of the following except
a. Transitions command
b. Speaker notes command
c. Meeting reminder command
d. Navigation commands
92. Presentation designs regulate the formatting and layout for the slide and are
commonly called
a. Design plates
b. Templates
c. Placeholders
d. Blueprints
93. Which of the following bypasses the print dialog box when printing individual
slides or an entire presentation?
a. File, print, preview
b. The print button
c. File, print
d. Ctrl + p
94. To add a header or footer to your handout, you can use
a. The title master
b. The slide master
c. The handout master
d. All of above ntsresults.org

95. Which of the following will not advance the slides in a slide show view?
a. Esc key
b. The spacebar
c. The Enter key
d. The mouse button
96. What are lines, curve, freeform, and scribble?
a. Emphasis effects that can be applied to animations
b. Types of custom motion paths
c. Predefined entrance and exit effects
d. All of the above
97. Comments on a presentation can record who wrote them and when they were
addeWhat’s the automatic way in PowerPoint 2002?
a. Use online collaboration
b. Use comments
c. Use the notes page
d. All of the above
98. When using PowerPoint, to play a PowerPoint show for previewing the show,
select
a. View, slide sorter
b. View, slide
c. View, slide show
d. View outline
Enjoy preparing your competitive exams with these MS PowerPoint MCQ Questions with
answers!
99. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to see all the slides on one screen use
a. view, slide sorter
b. view, slide
c. view, master
d. view, slide show ntsresults.org

100. What’s the best place to find animated images for your PowerPoint 2002
presentation?
a. Microsoft online
b. Word clipart
c. PowerPoint tools and ins

1–C 2–A 3–C 4–D 5–D 6–A 7–B 8–C 9–B 10 – D

11 – A 12 – B 13 – C 14 – B 15 – D 16 – A 17 – D 18 – C 19 – B 20 – D

21 – A 22 – B 23 – C 24 – D 25 – D 26 – B 27 – C 28 – A 29 – C 30 – D

31 – D 32 – D 33 – A 34 – A 35 – C 36 – D 37 – A 38 – C 39 – D 40 – D

41 – D 42 – A 43 – A 44 – C 45 – C 46 – D 47 – B 48 – B 49 – C 50 – C

51 – A 52 – C 53 – B 54 – A 55 – C 56 – D 57 – B 58 – A 59 – B 60 – A

61 – A 62 – C 63 – D 64 – D 65 – C 66 – B 67 – D 68 – B 69 – A 70 – B

71 – A 72 – C 73 – C 74 – A 75 – A 76 – D 77 – C 78 – B 79 – B 80 – B

81 – D 82 – B 83 – D 84 – A 85 – C 86 – B 87 – D 88 – B 89 – B 90 – C

91 – A 92 – B 93 – B 94 – C 95 – A 96 – B 97 – B 98 – C 99 – A 100 – B

Mechanical Engineering Mcqs and

Answers List
Thermodynamics Questions and Answers
1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Ans: d
2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’law
(c) Gay-Lussac law
(d) all of the above
(e) Joule’s law.
Ans: d
3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
(a) Centigrade
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.
Ans: d
4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) gram
(c) tonne
(d) quintal
(e) newton.
Ans: a
5. The unit of time in S.I. units is
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) year.
Ans: a
ntsresults.org
6. The unit of length in S.I. units is
(a) meter
(b) centimeter
(c) kilometer
(d) millimeter.
Ans: a
7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
(a) watt
(b) joule
(c) joule/s
(d) joule/m
(e) joule m.
Ans: b
8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass
varies directly as
(a)
temperature
(b)
absolute
(c) absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(d) volume, if temperature is kept constant
(e) remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.
Ans: c
9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies
(a)
more volume
(b)
less volume
(c) same volume
(d) unpredictable behaviour
(e) no such correlation.
Ans: a
10. General gas equation is
(a) PV=nRT
(b) PV=mRT
(d) PV = C
(c) PV=KiRT
(e) Cp-Cv = Wj
Ans: b
11. According to Dalton’s law, the total pres sure of the mixture of gases is equal to
(a) greater of the partial pressures of all
(b) average of the partial pressures of all
(c) sum of the partial pressures of all
(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight
(e) atmospheric pressure.
Ans: c
12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable,
within the commonly encountered temperature limits.
(a) 02, N2, steam, C02
(b) Oz, N2, water vapour
(c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
(d) 02, N2, H2, air
(e) steam vapours, H2, C02.
Ans: d
13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is
(a) kg/cm2
(b) mm of water column
(c) pascal
(d) dynes per square cm
(e) bars
Ans: c
14. A closed system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
Ans: a
15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to
(a) its heating value
(b) kinetic energy of molecules
(c) repulsion of molecules
(d) attraction of molecules
(e) surface tension of molecules.
Ans: b
16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained
when
(a) volume of the gas is zero
(b) pressure of the gas is zero
(c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(d) specific heat of gas is zero
(e) mass is zero.
Ans: c
17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) partly elastic
(d) partly inelastic
(e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.
Ans: a
http://ntsresults.org
18. The pressure ‘of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
(a) E/3
(b) E/2
(c) 3E/4
(d)2E/3
(e) 5E/4.
Ans: d
19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is
proportional to
(a) T
(b) j
(c) J2
(d) Vr
(e) 1/Vr.
Ans: a
20. Superheated vapour behaves
(a) exactly as gas
(b) as steam
(c) as ordinary vapour
(d) approximately as a gas
(e) as average of gas and vapour.
Ans: d
21. Absolute zero pressure will occur
(a) at sea level
(b) at the center of the earth
(c) when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
(d) under vacuum conditions
(e) at a temperature of – 273 °K
Ans: c

22. No liquid can exist as liquid at

(a) – 273 °K
(b) vacuum
(c) zero pressure
(d) centre of earth
(e) in space.
Ans: c
23. The unit of power in S.I. units is
(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) erg
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: d
24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at
(a) a temperature of – 273.16°C
(b) a temperature of 0°C
(c) a temperature of 273 °K
(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
(e) can’t be attained.
Ans: a
25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value
(a) depends on the mass of the system, like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) remains constant.
Ans: b
26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.24
(d) 1.0
(e) 1.41
Ans: c
27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to
(a) C/Cv
(b) Cv/Cp
(c) Cp – Cv
(d) Cp + Cv
(e) Cp x Cv
Ans: c
28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by
(a) 1 law
(b) 2 laws
(c) 3 laws
(d) 4 laws
Ans: d
29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.24
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.41
(e) 2.71.
Ans: d
30. Boyle’s law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under
(a) all ranges of pressures
(b) only small range of pressures
(c) high range of pressures
(d) steady change of pressures
(e) atmospheric conditions.
Ans: b
http://ntsresults.org/sample-papers-nts/
31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature
(a) Charles’ law
(b) Joule’s law
(c) Regnault’s law
(d) Boyle’s law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: b
32. The same volume of all gases would represent their
(a) densities
(b) specific weights
(c) molecular weights
(d) gas characteristic constants
(e) specific gravities.
Ans: c
33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all
temperatures and pressures
(a) Charles’ Law
(b) Joule’s Law
(c) Regnault’s Law
(d) Boyle’s Law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: c
34. An open system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Ans: c
35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their
original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure remains
constant
(a) Joule’s law
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) Regnault’s law
(d) Gay-Lussac law
(e) Charles’ law.
Ans: e
36. Gases have
(a) only one value of specific heat
(b) two values of specific heat