PERFORMANCE

The performance requirements are in CS 25 and CS 23

In 2003 the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) assumed responsibility for regulating airworthiness
within the EU member states from the JAA and many JAR (Joint Airworthiness Requirements) documents
have been transposed into EASA documents. In performance (after year 2003) JAR 25 and JAR 23 have
been re-titled Certification Specification (CS) 25 and CS 23. The requirements are identical in CS and
JAR.

The pre-production aircraft are extensively tested to make sure they meet the certification standards.
Apart from certification standards, they must also be used to supply the data for the performance
section of the flight manual (performance manual). Subsequent aircraft that come off the production line
only require limited testing. Operating Regulations (EU OPS) also ensure that the aircraft is safe to
operate in the public transport role.

Measured Performance: The data produced from pre-production aircraft is known as "measured
performance". This is invariably better than the fleet average. The measured data must be factored to
convert it into data which is more representative of an average aeroplane in service.

Gross Performance: The average performance that a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if
satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual, is the
fleet average performance, called "gross performance". Regarding aircraft performance in a fleet, some
achieve a better than average, some worse but most cluster around the average - the gross
performance.

Net Performance: The gross performance does not provide an adequate safety margin for public
transport operations as half of the fleet will not attain gross performance standards. Once an adequate
safety margin is provided, we get the net performance. Net performance is the gross performance
diminished to allow for various contingencies that cannot be accounted for operationally e.g., variations
in piloting technique, temporary below average performance, etc. It is improbable that the net
performance will not be achieved in operation, provided the aeroplane is flown in accordance with the
recommended techniques.

Higher the safety margin - Higher the cost of air transport. To bring down the cost you have to
compromise on safety. The assessment of acceptable risk involves judgements about the cost of safety
measures balanced against the likely benefits. Risk level considered acceptable in this case is that there
should be roughly a one in a million chance of a system failure, followed by a failure to achieve the
required performance standard.

Likely events have a big safety margin, unlikely events a small one.

If an event is relatively unlikely, for instance an engine failure at an exact point in the take-off run, then
the difference between gross and net performance will be very small. Conversely if an event is highly
likely, a Climb conducted without an engine failure, there will be a larger margin between gross and net
performance.
If an event was unlikely then the improbability of the event is used as part of the safety factor e.g. If the
risk of an engine failure is assessed as 1 in 100,000 then the only extra margin needed to make the
total safety factor of 1 in a million is another 1/10th (1/100,000 x 1/10 = 1/1000,000).

If an event is so unlikely that the probability of it happening is assessed as being already less than one
in a million then the safety margin between net and gross reduces to zero e.g. possibility of a double
engine failure in the cruise on a three or four engine aircraft. The chances of an unrelated double engine
failure are considered so low that, if it did happen, there would only be a 50:50 chance of stabilising with
the required terrain clearance.

Net performance standards keeps the risk of accident to an acceptable and very low level, but does not
reduce it to zero, even if the correct techniques have been followed.

Performance Classes

1) Class A

All multi-engine jets and turboprops with more than nine passenger seats or a maximum take-off mass
greater than 5700 kg e.g. B737 would be certificated under CS 25 or equivalent and operated in
performance Class A.

2) Class B

Small propeller driven aircraft (piston or turboprop) with nine passenger seats or less and a maximum
take-off mass of 5700 kg or less.

and

Propeller driven twin engine aeroplanes in the commuter category with nineteen passenger seats or less
or a maximum take-off mass of 8618 kgs.

The Class includes both singles and twins and would apply to aircraft certificated under CS 23 or
equivalent.

CS 23 describes four sub-categories of normal, utility, acrobatic and commuter.

Apart from the commuter category (which has rules very similar to Class A), this Class does not assume
an engine failure until you enter cloud.

3) Class C

Large piston aircraft with more than 9 seats or those that have a maximum take-off mass of more than
5700 kg. Performance Class C is certified under CS 23.

4) Unclassified Class

For aircraft that cannot comply with the Class A, B or C requirements e.g. seaplanes, concorde.

Operational mass limits for CS 25 aircraft are determined from:

• Take-off field lengths

• Climb limits
• Tyre speed limits

• Brake energy limits

• Net take-off flight path-obstacle limits

• En-route requirements

• Landing climb limit

• Landing field length limit for both destination and alternate

Jet Thrust

Force = mass x acceleration or for jet engine Thrust = mass x acceleration

Since acceleration of gases is related to engine design, the greatest changes in thrust in reference to
performance will be brought by factors that affect the mass.

These factors are speed, altitude and temperature.

Thrust variation with Speed

As the forward speed increases the air at the intaKe is compressed leading to a larger mass per unit
volume. Thus improved mass flow tends to increase thrust with speed.

Air entering the front of the engine is slowed down and loses momentum before it is again accelerated.
This is called intake momentum drag and it decreases overall thrust with increase in speed.

The end result of these opposing effects depends on the engine design.

Thrust on low bypass ratio engines initially reduces due to intake momentum drag and then increases
(slightly but steadily) above M0.4 due to ram effect.

Thrust on high bypass ratio engines reduces steadily as Mach number increases because they do not
benefit from ram effect.

Thrust variation with Altitude

Jet thrust decreases with increase in altitude due to decrease in denisty.

Thrust variation with Temperature

Jet thrust is practically limited by one of two things.

The TGT limit and the RPM limit.

On hot days the air entering the engine is already hotter than normal so the TGT limit is reached before
the RPM limit.

If the outside air is cooler, RPM can be increased before hitting the TGT limit.
Thus a reduction in outside air temperature allowing an increase in RPM causes an increase in thrust
and vice versa.

If the outside air is very cold then RPM limit comes before the TGT limit.

As long as the maximum thrust is regulated by the RPM limit it will be almost constant, independent of
temperature.

Thus at high temperatures thrust varies with temperature but at low temperatures (usually below about
ISA +15), the thrust is constant and the engine is said to be flat rated.

Fuel Flow

An increase of air density leads to an increase of fuel flow and vice versa.

Altitude Effect:

Altitude increases - pressure falls - air density reduces - reduced fuel flow demand

Altitude increases - temperature falls - air density increases - increase fuel flow demand.

Reduction in density with reducing pressure is more significant and therefore fuel flow decreases with
increasing altitude.

Temperature Effect

Low temperature - density increases - mass flow increases - fuel flow increases.

Ram Effect

Speed increases - ram effect increases - air mass increases - compressor needs more power - fuel flow
increases.

Jet Power

Work = Force x Distance

Power = Rate of doing work

so Power = Force x Distance / Time

Since Distance/Time is Speed

Power = Force x Speed

or
Power = Thrust x Speed

Thus power is rate of application of thrust.

Assuming thrust to be constant, power increases with increase in speed.

Anything which deceases thrust (increasing altitude or temperature) will decrease power.

Propeller Thrust

Propeller thrust depends on the blade angle of attack.

At low airspeeds the angle of attacK will be large (near to the stall) and thrust will be at a maximum.

As high airspeed the angle of attack decreases thus thrust reduces.

Thus maximum thrust produced by a propeller driven aircraft also occurs at zero forward airspeed and
reduces with forward speed.

Coarsening the blade angle (on a variable pitch propeller) at higher speeds can help offsetting this
effect to some extent.

Propeller thrust (and power) decreases as altitude or temperature increases.

Speed Stability

Speed Unstable Regime: At speeds less than VMD (minimum drag speed) a loss of airspeed leads to
more drag which slows the aircraft more leading in turn to even more drag. This causes speed instability.

Speed Stable Regime: Above VMD an increase in airspeed leads to more drag but tends to restore the
original airspeed. This causes speed stability.

Jet VMD is higher than propeller driven aircraft.

Effect of Flaps

Lift available is increased with flaps.

Lift delivered remains unchanged (enough to balance weight).

Since lift delivered is unchanged, lift induced drag is hardly changed.

So the main effect of selecting flaps is an increase in the profile drag.

Thus the profile drag curve shifts to the left which reduces VMD and VS.

For Explanation Click Here

This effect reduces VMD from as much as 1.6VS to about 1.4VS on a jet.

The approach speed is about 1.3VS

Jets fly the approach in the speed unstable range (below VMD).

In propeller aircraft, this effect reduces VMD and takes it below the approach speed, thus allowing a
speed stable approach.

Thus flaps reduce VMD and VS, improving speed stability.

Effect of Mass

Greater Mass - Greater lift requirement - Greater lift induced drag.

Profile drag does not change.

Thus induced drag curve shifts to the right which increases VMD and VS.

For Explanation Click Here

Induced drag is proportional to the square of weight change (roughly).

VMD is proportional to the square root of weight change (roughly).

Effect of Speed

At a constant weight:

Profile drag is proportional to V Square (roughly)

Induced drag is proportional to 1/V Square (roughly)

Maximum forward speed in level flight is achieved when maximum thrust equals drag.

Effect of Altitude and Temperature

The drag curve plotted against EAS remains unchanged with altitude and temperature for a given mass
and configuration.

The drag curve does not change with air density.

Best Lift/Drag Ratio

Comparing the ratio of lift to drag against angle of attack, the wing is at its most efficient at 4 deg (i.e.
VMD on the typical airfoil).

Relationship Between EAS, CAS, TAS and Mach

E=EAS, C=CAS, T=TAS and M=Mach

If climbing use -ECTM+

If one of the speeds is kept constant, then the speeds to the right of it are increasing and to the left
decreasing.

If an inversion is involved change over TAS andi Mach.

If an isothermal layer is involved then TAS and Mach are coincident with each other.

Conversely using the same laws in a descent use +ECTM-

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=8758)

A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires a higher angle of attack. An increase in
altitude at constant Mach number means a reduction in EAS which means the angle of attack will be
greater.

Example 1: An aircraft climbs at constant TAS, will the CAS and Mach number increase or decrease?

CAS Decreases, Mach Increases.

Example 2: An aircraft climbs at constant TAS through an inversion, will the CAS and Mach number
increase or decrease?

CAS Decreases, Mach Decreases.

As we climb with increasing temperature the air density will decrease, more than it would if the
temperature were falling. If TAS is constant and density decreases more than it normally does, then CAS
must decrease, more than it normally does.

Mach number = TAS/LSS. LSS increases with increasing temperature, TAS is constant, so Mach number
must decrease, instead of increasing.

Example 3: An aircraft descends through an isothermal layer with constant TAS, what will happen to the
CAS and Mach number?

CAS Increases, Mach Constant.

Dynamic pressure = 1/2 rho V^2, V is constant and density is increasing so the CAS must increase.

Mach number = TAS/LSS, TAS is constant, the LSS is constant as temperature is constant, so Mach
number must be constant.

A turning aircraft uses an element of lift (centripetal force) to keep itself in the turn. A turning aircraft
will therefore have a reduced climb gradient and a reduced rate of climb when compared to an aircraft
in straight flight.

The centripetal force will also increase the g force i.e. the load factor and the stall speed.
The load factor is the ratio of the total lift to the aircraft weight in level flight.

The lift required to stay in a turn can be found by:

1/cos of bank angle

See Lift in a Turn, Load Factor and Stall Speed

When airspeed is close to the stall speed in level flight (just after take-off) bank angles are restricted to
no more than 15 deg.

Icing reduces CLMax

Wing icing increases the stall speed and reduces flight control effectiveness.

Asymmetric icing on ailerons can cause undemanded roll.

Tailplane icing decreases stability. Elevator authority can be affected on landing flare.

Reduction of directional stability can induce dutch roll.

Reduced rudder effectiveness means higher VMC.

Fuel consumption for a jet can be measured in terms of:

1) The mass of fuel burnt for each unit of thrust. This is (thrust) specific fuel consumption (SFC).

Jet SFC = Fuel Flow / Thrust

SFC reduces with altitude up to the tropopause after which it remains constant.

2) Air distance flown for each unit of fuel. This is Specific Air Range (SAR).

SAR = TAS / Fuel Flow

SAR improves with height as the increase in TAS at altitude adds to the benefit of reducing SFC

Fuel consumption for propeller aircarft can be measured in terms of:

1) Fuel burnt for each unit of power. This is SFC of a propeller aircraft.

Prop SFC = Fuel Flow / Power

Turboprop aircraft benefit from the improving SFC with altitude.

2) Air distance flown for each unit of fuel. This is Specific Air Range (SAR).
SAR = TAS / Fuel Flow

Improving TAS with altitude benefits the SAR

However propeller aircraft rarely climb as high as the tropopause due to propeller tip speed limitations.

Piston aircraft also have a reducing SFC with altitude up to full throttle height after which specific fuel
consumption increases.

Piston engines give their best SFC when:

a) Intake pressure is high.

b) RPM low.
c) Throttle wide open.

At low level this will give too much power, but as height increases a point will come when power
required to fly at the best range speed is achieved with the throttle fully open, weak mixture and cruise
RPM. This is "full throttle height" - best piston SAR.

Distance to reach a given height.

Still Air Distance = Height Difference in feet / Gradient x 100

Ground Distance = Still Air Distance x Ground Speed / TAS

Time to Climb = Height Difference in feet / Rate of climb (fpm)

Distance to Climb = Time to climb x Ground speed/60

or

Height difference/Rate of climb (fpm) x Groundspeed/60

Climb Gradient formula in its complete format is:

Climb Gradient = Rate of Climb / TAS x 6000/6080

Rate of climb is in feet/min and TAS is in nautical miles/hour. For exact calculations the units need to be
the same. In order to avoid length conversions, multiplying Rate of Climb/TAS with 6000/6080 solves the
purpose.

Conversion of TAS in nm/hour to feet/min:

TAS/60 x 6080
or
1/TAS x 60/6080

Multiplying by 100 to get the gradient in percentage:

1/TAS x 6000/6080
So ROC/TAS x 6000/6080
or
ROC/TAS x 0.98

For rule of thumb calculations:

Climb Gradient = Rate of Climb / TAS

or

Rate of Climb = Climb Gradient x TAS

% Gradient

% Gradient = Feet/nm x 100

e.g. 500 ft/nm = 500/6080 x 100 = 8.22%

Runway Slope: It is the average slope threshold to threshold.

It is expressed as a percentage taking the height difference from threshold to threshold and the distance
between thresholds.

e.g. Runway 09 has a threshold elevation of 672 ft. TORA is 2600m, TODA 2800m and ASDA 2800m.
Opposing runway 27 has a threshold elevation of 735ft and TORA, TODA and ASDA of 2600m. Determine
the runway gradient on 09?

The distance between the thresholds is: 2600m or (2600 x 3.28 ) = 8528 ft

The difference in threshold elevation is: 735-672 = 63 ft.

The gradient = 63 / 8528 x 100

= 0.74% UP

Airborne: Entirely Supported by Aerodynamic Forces

Load factor: Ratio of a specified load to the total weight of the aircraft. The specified load is
expressed in terms of any of the following:

a) Aerodynamic forces.
b) Inertia forces.
c) Ground or water reactions

Critical Engine: Engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling
qualities of an aircraft.
 Piston Engine:

Take-off Power: Output shaft power identified in the performance data for use during take-off,
discontinued approach and baulked landing and limited in use to a continuous period of not more than 5
minutes.

Maximum Continuous Power: Output shaft power identified in the performance data for use during
periods of unrestricted duration.

Maximum Recommended Cruising Power Conditions: Crankshaft rotational speed, engine manifold
pressure and any other parameters recommended in the engine manuals as appropriate for cruising
operation.

Maximum Best Economy Cruising Power Conditions: Crankshaft rotational speed, engine manifold
pressure and any other parameters recommended in the engine manuals as appropriate for use with
economical cruising mixture strength.

Turbine Engine:

2.5 Minute OEI Power and/or Thrust: Power and/or thrust identified in the performance data for use when
a power-unit has failed or been shut down during take-off, baulked landing or prior to a discontinued
approach and limited in use for a continuous period of not store than 2.5 minutes additional to the 5
minute or 10 minute period at take-off power and/or thrust.

OEI: one engine inoperative

Take-off Power and/or Thrust: Power and/or thrust identified in the performance data for use during take-
off, discontinued approach and baulked landing:

(a) for aeroplanes and helicopters, limited in use to a continuous period of not more than 5 minutes.

(b) for aeroplanes only (when specifically requested), limited in use to a continuous period of not more
than 10 minutes in the event of a power unit having failed or been shut down.

Continuous OEI Power and/or Thrust: Power and/or thrust identified in the performance data for use after
take-off when a power-unit has failed or been shut down, during periods of unrestricted duration.

Maximum Continuous Power and/or Thrust: Power and/or thrust identified in the performance data for
use during periods of unrestricted duration.

Indicated airspeed (IAS): Speed of an aircraft as shown on its pitot static airspeed indicator
calibrated to reflect standard atmosphere adiabatic compressible flow at sea level uncorrected for
airspeed system errors.

Calibrated airspeed (CAS): Indicated airspeed of an aircraft, corrected for position/pressure and
instrument error. CAS is equal to true airspeed in standard atmosphere at sea level.
 Equivalent airspeed (EAS): Calibrated airspeed corrected for adiabatic compressible flow for the
particular altitude. EAS is equal to CAS in standard atmosphere at sea level.

True airspeed (TAS): Airspeed of an aircraft relative to undisturbed air obtained by correcting EAS
for density.

Mach Number (M): Ratio of TAS to the Local Speed of Sound.

Density Altitude: The height above the 1013.2HPa level corrected for actual air density. Roughly
estimated by adding 120 ft for every degree of temperature deviation above ISA to the Pressure Altitude
or subtracting 120 ft for every degree of deviation below ISA.

Critical Altitude (Piston Engines): Maximum altitude at which (in standard atmosphere) it is
possible to maintain (at a specified rotational speed without ram) a specified power or a specified
manifold pressure.

Unless otherwise stated. the critical altitude is the maximum altitude at which it is possible to maintain
(without ram) at the maximum continuous rotational speed, one of the following:

(a) Maximum Continuous Power - in case of engines for which this power rating is the same at sea level
and at the rated altitude.

(b) Maximum Continuous Rated Manifold Pressure - in case of engines the maximum continuous power
of which is governed by a constant manifold pressure.

Restart Altitude: An altitude up to which it has been demonstrated safely and reliably that it is
possible to restart an engine in flight.

Declared Temperature: Average monthly temperature + half its deviation from ISA. It is used by
airlines to take account of temperature for scheduling landings. It requires agreement by the National
Authority.

Total Air Temperature (TAT): Static air temperature + Adiabatic Compression (ram) Rise. It is
indicated on the TAT Indicator and is also called the Indicated Air Temperature.

Outside Air Temperature (OAT): Ambient temperature without any ram effect. Also called Static
Air Temperature (SAT) and Corrected Outside Air Temperature (COAT).

Take-off Weight (TOW or TOM): The gross weight of the aeroplane at the start of the take-off run.

Maximum Take-off Weight (MTOW or MTOM): The maximum weight at which take-off is
permitted by conditions other than available performance.
 Maximum Total Weight Authorised (MTWA or MTOMA): The maximum total weight of the
aeroplane and its contents, at which it may take off anywhere in the world, in the most favourable
circumstances, and in accordance with the certificate of airworthiness in force at the time. Otherwise
known as the Certificate of Airworthiness Limited TOM.

Landing Weight (LW or LM): The weight of the aeroplane at the time of landing, taking into
account the weights of fuel and oil expected to be used on the flight to the aerodrome at which the
landing is to be effected.

Maximum Landing Weight (MLW or MLM): The maximum weight at which landing is permitted
(other than in an emergency) by considerations other than available performance.

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW or MZFM): The weight of the aeroplane, above which all
weight must comprise fuel The limitation is determined by structural airworthiness requirements.

Regulated Take-off Weight (RTOW or RTOM): The maximum permitted take-off weight of the
aeroplane at the start of the take-off run, derived by complying with all the requirements of the weight
and performance regulations appropriate to the flight.

Weight, Altitude, and Temperature (WAT) Limit: A take-off mass limit determined by the
aircraft's ability to make certain minimum specified gradients of climb. Weight, Altitude and
Temperature are three of the major variables affecting climb gradient.

Climb Limit: A modern and more common term for the WAT.

TORA (Take-Off Run Available): The length of the runway itself. The distance from the point on the
surface of the aerodrome at which the aeroplane can commence its take-off run to the nearest point in
the direction of take-off at which the surface of the aerodrome is incapable of bearing the weight of the
aeroplane under normal operating conditions.

Stopway: An area beyond the take-off runway, no less wide than the runway and centred upon the
extended centreline of the runway, able to support the aeroplane during an abortive take-off, without
causing structural damage to the aeroplane, and designated by the airport authorities for use in
decelerating the aeroplane during an abortive take-off.

ASDA (Accelerate Stop Distance Available): The distance from the point on the surface of the
aerodrome at which the aeroplane can commence its take-off run to the nearest point in the direction of
take-off at which the aeroplane cannot roll over the surface of the aerodrome and be brought to rest in
emergency without risk of accident. ASDA = TORA + Stopway.

Clearway: For turbine engine powered aeroplanes certificated after August 29, 1959, an area beyond
the runway, not less than 500 ft wide, centrally located about the extended centreline of the runway,
and under the control of the airport authorities. The clearway is expressed in terms of a clearway plane,
extending from the end of the runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25% above which no object
or terrain protrudes. However, threshold lights may protrude above the plane if their height above the
end of the runway 26 inches or less and if they are located to each side of the runway. It is clear of non-
frangible obstacles. There may or may not be a clearway.

TODA: It is TORA + Clearway up to a maximum of one and a half times the length of TORA. It is
described as either the distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which the aeroplane
can commence its take-off run to the nearest obstacle in the direction of take-off projecting above the
surface of the aerodrome and capable of affecting the safety of the aeroplane or one and one half times
the take-off run available, whichever is the less.

Maximum TODA = 1.5 x TORA (an EU OPS limit)

e.g. with declared distances of TORA 2000m and TODA 3500m would result in a usable TODA of only
3000m.

Balanced Field: If TODA equals ASDA it is known as a balanced field.

Landing Distance Available: Length of runway declared suitable for landing run.

Best Angle of Climb (Vx): Also best angle of climb, single engine, VxsE

Best Rate of Climb (Vy): Also best rate of climb, single engine, VysE. VysE is a blue line speed on a
light twin.

Brake Energy Speed (VMBE): The maximum speed on the ground from which a stop can be
accomplished within the energy capabilities of the brakes.

Rejecting a take-off from a speed greater than VMBE would result in the brakes failing before you stop.

Screen Height: An imaginary screen that is just cleared by the lowest part of the aircraft with
undercarriage extended and in an unbanked attitude when taking off and landing.

Decision Speed (V1): An engine failure being promptly recognised, it is the speed at which the
continued take-off distance and take-off run will not exceed the TODA and TORA, respectively and at
which the accelerate-stop distance will not exceed the ASDA.

Also defined as the maximum speed in the take-off at which the pilot must take the first action to stop
the aeroplane within the accelerate-stop distance, and the minimum speed in the take-off, following a
failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the take-off and achieve the required
height above the take-off surface within the take-off distance.

Engine Failure Speed (VEF): The CAS at which the critical engine is assumed to fail.
 Power Failure Speed Ratio (V1/VR): The ratio of the two defined speeds for a given aeroplane
weight and aerodrome characteristics, introduced into performance assessment for convenience and
used to determine V decision speed.

Rotation Speed (VR): The speed at which the pilot starts to rotate the aeroplane for take-off. It is a
function of aeroplane weight and flap setting but can also vary with pressure altitude and temperature.

Take-Off Safety Speed (V2): The lowest speed at which the aeroplane complies with those
handling criteria associated with the climb after take-off following engine failure. Also, the target speed
to be attained at the screen height and used to the point where acceleration to flap retraction speed is
initiated.

All Engines Screen Speed (V3): The speed at which the aeroplane is assumed to pass through the
screen height with all engines operating on take-off.

Steady Initial Climb Speed (V4): The "all engines operating" take-off climb speed, used to the
point where acceleration to flap retraction speed is initiated. It should be attained by 400ft above
aerodrome level.

Final Take-Off Speed (VFTO): The speed of the aeroplane that exists at the end of the take-off path
in the en-route configuration with one engine inoperative. This is not V2, this is the speed after the take-
off obstacles have been cleared at which point the aircraft will be at around 1500ft.

Flap Extended Speed (VFE): The highest speed permissible with wing-flaps in a prescribed
extended position.

Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE): The maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely
flown with the landing gear extended.

Landing Gear Operating Speed (VLO): The maximum speed at which the landing gear can be
safely extended or retracted.

Lift-off Speed (VLOF): The speed at which the aeroplane first becomes airborne.

Minimum Control Speed in the Air (VMCA): The minimum speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable in flight with a maximum five degrees of bank, when the critical engine becomes
inoperative, with the remaining engines at take-off thrust.

Minimum Control Speed on the Ground (VMCG): The minimum speed on or near the ground at
which the take-off can be continued safely when the critical engine becomes inoperative, with the
remaining engines at take-off thrust.
 Minimum Control Speed on Landing (VMCL): Minimum speed, in an approach or landing
configuration with one engine inoperative, at which it is possible to maintain control of the aeroplane
within defined limits, while applying variations of power.

Minimum Unstick Speed (VMU): The minimum speed at which it is possible to leave the ground
with all engines operating and climb without due hazard. Obtained at the highest nose-up angle and
limited either by the length of the fuselage and the risk of tailscrape or by elevator power.

Reference Landing Speed (VREF): Speed of the aeroplane, in a specified landing configuration, at
the point where it descends through the landing screen height in the determination of the landing
distance for manual landings.

Target Threshold Speed (VAT): The speed at which the pilot should aim to cross the runway
threshold to ensure that the scheduled landing field lengths are consistently achieved.

VAT0:: Threshold speed all engines operating.

VAT1: Threshold speed with a critical engine inoperative.

VAT MAX: Maximum Threshold Speed. The speed at the threshold above which the risk of exceeding
the scheduled landing field length is unacceptably high. Go-around action should normally be taken if it
appears that this speed will be exceeded, usually VAT0 + 15KT.

VA: Design manoeuvring speed.

VB: Design speed for maximum gust intensity.

VC: Design cruising speed.

VD/MD: Design diving speed.

VDF/MDF: Demonstrated flight diving speed.

VF: Design flap speed.

 VF1: Design flap speed for procedure flight conditions.

VFC/MFC: Maximum speed for stability characteristics.

VMC: Minimum control speed with the critical engine inoperative.

VMCL: Minimum control speed, approach and landing.

VMO/MMO: Maximum operating limit speed.

VNE: Never-exceed speed.

VRA: Rough airspeed.

VS: Stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.

VS0: Stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

VS1: Stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed with the aeroplane in a configuration
appropriate to the case under consideration.

VS1g: One-g stall speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force (normal to the flight path)
equal to its weight.

VSR: Reference stall speed.

VSR0: Reference stall speed in the landing configuration.

VSR1: Reference stall speed in a specific configuration.

VSW: Speed at which onset of natural or artificial stall warning occurs.

V2MIN: Minimum take-off safety speed.

 The take-off ends as the aircraft passes through the screen height at the end of the runway.

Depending on the Performance Class and runway conditions the screen height can be either 15, 35 or
50 feet.

The take-off ground roll is called the Take-Off Run (TOR) and the whole distance including the airborne
segment is called the Take-Off Distance (TOD).

VR is the point where rotation is initiated however the aircraft leaves the ground a little later at the
lift-off speed, VLOF.

The aircraft climbs and accelerates to make the screen height at not less than the take-off safety
speed, V2.

Larger aircraft consider an engine failure at a point in the take-off roll called VEF, the engine failure
speed.

F = m x a or a = F/m i.e. Acceleration is directly proportional to thrust and inversely proportional to

weight.

Thrust to weight ratio is an indication of thrust efficiency.

High thrust to weight ratio have a high acceleration. The aircraft will also have a high rate of climb.

A thrust to weight ratio greater than one means that the aircraft can accelerate during a sustained
vertical climb.

Thrust to weight ratio will decrease with increasing altitude because thrust decreases with increasing
altitude.

Variation of Thrust with Speed:

Jet engine thrust reduces initially with forward speed because of intake momentum drag (the force of
the air hitting the front of the engine) but then picks up as the ram effect builds up and assists mass
flow.

On low bypass ratio engines the ram benefit is enough to increase the thrust as speed increases above
M0.4, about 250KT at ISA sea level.

On high bypass ratio engines, thrust will steady initially and then continue to decrease.

A propeller driven aircraft produces maximum thrust where forvard speed is zero.
A fixed pitch propeller will reduce thrust linearly as the angle of attack on the blade is reduced and lift
(which in this sense is thrust) is correspondingly reduced.

A variable pitch propeller will coarsen the blade angle as forward speed increases to maintain the thrust
to some extent but, overall, thrust will reduce.

The Variation of Drag with Speed:

The drag acting on the aircraft during the take-off run is a combination of aerodynamic drag and wheel
drag.

The aerodynamic drag will be composed of profile drag and induced drag.

Profile drag increases as the square of the speed.

Induced drag is lift dependant and lift remains fairly small until rotation.

At rotation where a positive angle of attack is established, the total aerodynamic drag increases sharply.

Wheel drag depends on the weight on the wheels and the resistance of the runway surface.

The weight on the wheels reduces as lift increases.

Acceleration During Take-off:

As speed increases during takeoff, thrust decreases and drag increases.

Thus net accelerating force and acceleration rate reduces during the take-off.

Small increase in VR needs larger increase in runway available.

With constant acceleration, an extra 10% on VR would need just over 20% extra runway.

So when acceleration reduces (which is the case during takeoff) it will need even more than that.

Thus to keep runway length manageable, VR speed should be as low as possible.

Rotation:

Rotation should be made at the calculated rotation speed with correct rate and to the correct attitude.

Over rotating to a high angle of attack can lead to a ground stall and possibly a tail scrape. If the aircraft
gets airborne its climb gradient will be below the requirement.

Under rotating will increase TOR and TOD and reduce obstacle clearance.

Early and late rotation will increase the ground run.

Single engine Class B aircraft should have a VR above VS1.

Multi-engine Class B aircraft should have a VR of at least 1.1 VS1.

Class A aircraft have a constraint where VR must be higher than VMU.

VMU itself has to be high enough to allow the aircraft to safely lift off the ground.

The Minimum Control Speed in the Air:

When operating at VMC (after engine failure) up to 5 deg of bank towards the live engine may be used
in addition to rudder.

VLOF should be more than VMC (aircraft must be controllable in the air following an engine failure).

As the aircraft leaves the ground at VLOF, the 5 deg of bank cannot be immediately applied.

VLOF is not a calculated speed - we only calculate VR.

Thus restriction on controllability is applied to VR and a factor is added to allow for the absence of 5 deg
of bank.

i.e. VR must be more than than 1.05 VMCA to enable adequate controllability with the wings level and
an engine out at VLOF.

VMC increases as air density increases and is highest at low pressure altitudes, low temperatures and
low humidity - VMC is highest where the air is cold and dense - because this is where the asymmetric
thrust is greatest.

VMCA and its Testing Criteria

Tyre Speed

Aircraft tyres have speed limitation (usually rated to 210 or 225 mph).

This can put a limit on the maximum take-off mass (MTOM).

This in turn limits VR.

Tyres are limited by ground speed (VR is an airspeed), tyre limit is affected by pressure altitude and
temperature.

Tyre speeds are most likely to be limiting where the TAS is highest and where the groundspeeds are
highest, at high temperatures, high pressure altitudes and with tailwinds.

Tyre speed limits are also affected by flap setting (bigger flap angles allow a lower stalling speed and
consequently a lower VR).

Factors Affecting Take-Off Distance:

Aircraft Mass: Higher mass increases TOD.

A more massive aircraft is more difficult to accelerate and the wheel drag is increased.
Temperature: High temperature increases TOD.

An increase in temperature reduces engine thrust.

High temperature means that IAS required for rotation is a higher TAS and therefore a higher
groundspeed.

Pressure Altitude: High pressure altitude increases TOD.

Increase in pressure altitude means less thrust.

High pressure altitude means a higher TAS is required at VR.

Engine Bleed Air: It will increase the TOD.

Bleed air requirements (packs or anti-ice) will reduce available thrust.

Wind:

In a headwind VR will be reached earlier so the TOD is less.

In a tailwind VR will be reached later so the TOD is more.

For additional safety the rules require only half the headwind and one and a half times the tailwind to be
taken into account.

Runway Slope:

Downhill slope will ease acceleration thus reducing the TOD.

Uphill slope will resist acceleration thus increasing the TOD.

Runway Surface:

With the exception of ice, runway contaminants (Water, slush and snow resist acceleration) increase the
TOD.

Ice does not resist acceleration but does make it difficult to stop.

Flap Setting:

Small flap settings increases the CLMAX allowing to rotate earlier and thus reduces the TOD (extra
increase in aerodynamic drag has a minimal effect on acceleration).

Flap beyond the normal take-off setting causes more drag than lift thus increasing the TOD.

Thus for a given runway length the greatest take-off mass will be with an intermediate flap setting.
 Flap Setting After Take Off:

After airborne the best climb gradient comes from the speed where thrust is more and drag is least, lift
has nothing to do with it.

This means that the best climb angle will be found when the aircraft is flapless.

There are two take-off restrictions that require good climb gradients.

1) Climb Limited TOM: This restriction sets minimum climb gradient after takeoff.

2) Obstacle Limited TOM: Requires the aircraft to adequately clear obstacles.

From the point of view of field length the greatest mass will be with take-off flap set (about 10 to 15
deg).

From the point of view of the climb and clearing obstacles the greatest take-off mass will be with zero
flap setting.

The conflict can be resolved if we graph out the effect on take-off mass of changing the flap setting.

Considering both climb gradient and field length, the optimum setting can be found where the two lines
intersect.

To Summarise:

:arrow:A large flap setting up to the optimum decreases Vs, VR and VLOF and the TOR is reduced.

The Field Length Limited TOM is increased but the CL TOM and the obstacle limited take-off mass are
decreased because of the poor climb gradient.

:arrow:A small flap setting increases Vs, VR and decreases the Field Length Limited TOM. VLOF and TOR
are increased. The Climb limit TOM and Obstacle Limited Take-Off Mass increase because of the
improved climb gradient.

Stop Calculation:

The stop calculation is performed both for all engine and engine out situations.

This is based on a maximum speed limit.

Maximum speed to reject the take-off will vary with aircraft mass.
For a light aircraft the take-off can be abandoned from a relatively high speed.

For a heavy aircraft the max abandon speed must be lower.

Go Calculation:

Issue here is that the aircraft has to accelerate with the reduced thrust (due engine failure) to VR and
continue on to V2 in the TODA.

So this is based on a minimum speed limit and is also mass dependant.

The minimum speed to go is low when the aircraft mass is low (a light aircraft accelerates easily).

For a heavy aircraft, the engine failure can only be accepted near to VR (a heavy aircraft does not
accelerate easily).

Take Off Decision Speed - V1:

If we graph out the Stop and Go Calculations (discussed above) as curves on a graph (with Speed in the
vertical axis and Mass on the horizontal axis), we find that "the two curves intersect each other".

The speed at the intersection of these curves is the Decision Speed V1.

This is the point that relates to "one engine inoperative field length limited take-off mass".

The decision speed is defined as:

"The maximum speed during take-off at which the pilot must take the first action (e g apply brakes.
reduce thrust. deploy speed brakes) to stop the aeroplane within the ASDA It is also the minimum speed
during take-off following failure of the critical engine at VEF. at which the pilot can continue the take-off
and achieve the screen height within the TODA"

In the go case: CS 25 allows a minimum recognition time of one (1) second between the engine failure
speed "VEF" and the decision speed "V1".

In the stop case with an engine failure, three (3) seconds are allowed. One second to recognise the
engine failure and take the first action to stop the aeroplane at V1 (closing the throttles) followed by
another two seconds to cany out the rest of the rejected take-off procedure (i.e. deploying speed brakes
and applying the wheel brakes).

If the take-off mass is less than the Field Length Limit:

- Before the Go Line we must Stop (i.e. too slow to go - we wont be able to accelerate with one engine).

- After the Stop Line we must Go (i.e. too fast to stop - we wont be able to Stop within the ASDA).

- Between the Go and the Stop Lines we have the ability to either stop or go until reaching the stop line.

Thus we have a range of V1 speeds to choose from i.e. from anywhere between the lowest V1min to the
highest V1max.
Making a decision to stop at exactly the stop line will put us on the limits of our stopping ability.

Making a decision to go at exactly the go line will make us scrape our screen height.

So the normal V1 in the middle still remains the best choice as it gives some extra margin in an engine
failure case.

Safety Factors:

In the engine failure case, the distances used are gross distances (the distances used by the average
aircraft without additional safety factors).

Thus if an engine does fail at VEF and the decision to go is made at V1 there is a 50:50 chance of
making the screen height at 35ft (it may be above that or may be below). Similarly, if the decision is
made to stop then there is a 50:50 chance of stopping by the end of the ASDA.

Why safety factor are not applied is because it is extremely unlikely that engine will fail exactly at VEF
on a field length limiting runway.

The failure at this precise time is assessed as having a probability of less than 1:1,000,000

If an event is extremely unlikely in itself then the difference of net and gross reduces to zero.

So no further safety factors are used.

Wet Runway:

Damp Runway - The surface shows a change of colour due to moisture.

Wet Runway - The surface is soaked but there is no standing water.

Water Patches - Significant patches of standing water are visible.

Flooded - Extensive standing water is visible.

Contaminated Runways - Those covered with more than 3mm of standing water, slush or snow. Runways
with less than 3mm of water should be treated as "Wet" unless the Aircraft Performance Manual has
some other definition.

When a wet runway is considered a VEF (about 10kts lower than before) is used with a correspondingly
lower V1, called V1 WET.

The idea of reducing the V1 is to improve the chances of stopping.

However if the decision is to "GO", then reducing the V1 increase the TOD (i.e. accelerating with a failed
engine).

Reduced Screen Height:

To reduce the effect of increase TOD, a lower screen height is used on wet runways.

It is 15ft instead of 35ft.

Speed at screen height has to be something that will allow V2 to be reached at 35ft at some
indeterminate point in the future.

Regarding calculations performed for the stop case:

The distance to accelerate to dry VEF, recognition of the failure, decision, transition to stop and stop on
a dry runway is worked out.

This is then compared to the distance to accelerate to the lower VEF and stop on a wet runway.

The longest net ASDR is compared to the ASDA.

Similarly sort of evaluation is made in the Go case. The longest net TODR is compared to the TODA.

V1 must be less than or equal to VR:

Performance manuals compare V1 WET to VR in the calculation of TOM so V1 WET will never be greater
than VR.

Since V1 DRY is 10 kt more than V1 WET, it is possible that V1 DRy turns out to be greater than VR.

If the calculated V1 is greater than VR then the procedure is to restrict V1 to VR.

This implies that the restricted V1 will make you go through the screen between 15 and 35ft, and not
35ft (it is acceptable).

V1 must be greater than or equal to VMCG:

Rudder effectiveness increases with forward speed so below VMCG the aircraft cannot be controlled.

Crosswind can have a weathercocking effect on the rudder and could reduce its effectiveness (a 10 kt
crosswind can add 8-10 kt to the calculated VMCG).

However CS or FARs do not take account of crosswind for VMCG calculatiion.

Critical Engine Failure at VMCG

If V1 is less than VMCG

For lower TOM a range of decision speeds exists that encompasses the VMCG.

Thus a higher speed can be selected so that V1 becomes equal to or more than VMCG.

For higher TOM the Max V1 speed might be below the VMCG so the range of decision speeds will not
encompass VMCG.

The only way is to reduce the TOM. This will widen out the range of decision speeds to eventually
include VMCG.

Thus V1 will be equal to or more than the VMCG.

In most cases VMCG intrudes only on to the lowest decision speeds of a range. In this case, the speeds
in the range below VMCG cannot be used and V1 min = VMCG.

So a High VMCG might limit the TOM and a lower VMCG might only limit the minimum value of V1.

V1 must be less than VMBE:

Maximum speed to reject the take-off within the energy capacity of the brakes alone is called VMBE
(Max brake energy speed). Brakes convert kinetic energy into heat. Once the limit is reached, the brakes
fade. So above VMBE the brakes will not work. VMBE is most limited by:

- Heavy Mass.
- High Temperatures.
- High Pressure Altitudes
- Downhill Slopes.

VMBE problems can be dealt with like VMCG problems.

If a range of speeds exists and the lowest speed is less than VMBE, use that, otherwise mass will have to
be reduced so that the available range of decision speeds widens out to eventually include VMBE.

Thus a low VMBE might limit the TOM.

All Engine Takeoff:

Since the probability of an all engines takeoff is very high, there is a safety factor involved.

The net distance to 35 ft is 1.15 times the gross distance.

If we compare the distances for engine out takeoff on dry and wet runways and all engine takeoff, then
obvioulsy the gross all engines distance to 35ft will be shorter than the other two.

However after applying the safety factor of 1.15, net distance of an all engine takeoff might actually be
longer and therefore limiting.

For engine out takeoff distance Net = Gross.

Speed at 35ft in the all engines case is V3 (between V2 and V4), defined as not less than V2.

Number of Engines:

Limiting of distances depends mostly on the number of engines.

For a twin engine aircraft - Engine out case is limiting. Loss of an engine means losing half the thrust
which is quite significant. Thus Net=Gross distance for an engine out case will be more than Net=Gross
x 1.15 for all engine case.

For a four engine aircraft - All engine case is likely to be limited. Loss of an engine means losing quarter
of the thrust which may not be quite significant (engine out distance slightly more than all engine
distance). Thus Net=Gross distance for an engine out case is likely to be less than Net=Gross x 1.15 for
all engine case.

Effect of Clearway:

CS consider both the Take-Off Run and the Take-Off Distance.

Requirement is to get the aircraft wheels off the runway by the end of TORA and the ability to make 35ft
in the TODA.

So if a runway has no clearway then by the end of the TORA we must be at 35ft to satisfy TODA.

Thus a short Clearway means a TODA limit.

Changes in TODA will affect Takeoff Mass but changes in TORA will not. If the aircraft is both TORA and
TODA limited, a reduction in either TORA or TODA would reduce the TOM.

As the clearway is increased, the TODA limited TOM increases. Thus the aircraft can get airborne just at
the end of TORA and be at 35ft at the end of TODA.

If the clearway keeps on getting longer then at one point TORA becomes the limiting case.

TORA limited takeoff doubles the complexity of field length calculation.

Manufacturers often impose a maximum allowable clearway limit to simplify the graphs and force a
TODA limiting situation.

Balanced Field V1:

V1 produced where engine failure TODR = ASDR is called a "Balanced Field V1" or a "Balanced V1".

If a balanced V1 is used when the field is unbalanced and no correction has been made for the
additional stopway or clearway then the aircraft will be operating below the maximum FLL TOM.

This means a balanced V1 will give greater than usual safety margins with regard to the field length
requirements.

Takeoff Run Required (TORR):

CS 25 States:

If the take-off distance does not include a clearway then TORR = TODR, forcing a TODA limit.

If there is a clearway (for Class A aircraft) the TORR is the longest of:

• Ground run + Half the distance from VLOF to the 35ft screen height, following an engine failure on a
dry runway.
• Ground run + Airborne distance to 15ft, following an engine failure on a wet runway.

• All Engine Ground run x 1.15 + Half the airborne distance to 35ft.

Note: TORR all engines and engine out with dry V1 includes half the airborne distance to 35ft.

Accelerate Stop Distance Required (ASDR):

BRP = Brake Release Point

• All Engines - Dry Runway:

Distance from BRP to V1 Dry + 2 seconds at which point the thrust has been reduced to idle +
Deceleration distance to a full stop.

• All Engines - Wet Runway:

Distance from BRP to V1 Wet + 2 seconds at which point the thrust has been reduced to idle +
Deceleration distance to a full stop.

• Engines Out - Dry Runway:

Distance from BRP to VEF + 1 second to recognize failure and make the decision to stop at V1 Dry + 2
seconds to close the thrust levers and apply full braking + Deceleration to a full stop.

• Engines Out - Wet Runway:

Distance from BRP to VEF + 1 second to recognize failure and make the decision to stop at V1 Wet + 2
seconds to close the thrust levers and apply full braking + Deceleration to a full stop.

Factors Affecting ASDR:

The ASDR must be calculated for all engines and one engine inoperative.

• Aircraft Mass:

More Mass - Less Acceleration - Increased ASDR. (wheel drag is increased As mass increases).

• Temperature:

High Temperature - Less Thrust - Less Acceleration - Increased ASDR.

High Temperature - High TAS/GS - Less Deceleration - Increased ASDR.

At high temperatures, IAS required for V1 is a higher TAS and therefore a higher groundspeed.

• Engine Bleed Air:

Bleed ON - Less Thrust - Less Acceleration - Increased ASDR.

• Pressure Altitude:

High Pressure Altitude - Less Thrust - Less Acceleration - Increased ASDR.

High Pressure Altitude - High TAS/GS - Less Deceleration - Increased ASDR.

• Wind:

Head Wind - V1 Achieved at a Lower Groundspeed - Decreased ASDR.

Tail Wind - V1 Achieved at a Higher Groundspeed - Increased ASDR.

• Runway Slope:

Downhill Slope - Higher Acceleration - Lower Deceleration - Acceleration Phase has the Greatest Effect -
ASDR Decreases.

Uphill Slope - Lower Acceleration - Higher Deceleration - Acceleration Phase has the Greatest Effect -
ASDR Increases.

• Runway Surface:

Water, Slush and Snow Contamination - Lower Acceleration - Lower Deceleration - Increased ASDR.

Ice Contamination - Lower Deceleration - Increased ASDR.

• Reverse Thrust:

It is not included as an additional means of deceleration when determining the ASD on a dry runway.

It may be included as an additional means of deceleration when determining the ASD on a wet runway.

Unserviceable thrust reverser will incur a weight reduction penalty.

Forces in a Climb

The balance of forces in a steady climb show thrust is acting upwards and an element of weight is
adding to the drag

As the thrust assists the lift, the lift required is less than in level flight. Verify mathematically by the
formula Lift = W.cos gamma

For a steady speed to be maintained the thrust and the two retarding effects of aerodynamic drag and
the weight element must be equal.

If Thrust = T, Drag = D and Weight = W, then as a formula it can be written as:

T = D + W sin gamma
or

Sin gamma = T - D / W

It means that climb angle (Sin gamma) depends on the excess thrust (i.e. thrust less drag) and the
weight.

Tan gamma = Opposite / Adjacent

Opposite = Height gained

Adjacent = Distance covered on ground.

Height gained against distance covered on ground is the climb gradient.

Thus Tan gamma = climb gradient

For small angles Adjacent is nearly the same as Hypotenuse and Opposite/Adjacent = Sin relation.

So we get an approximate formula for climb gradient, which is:

Sin gamma = T – D / Weight

or

Climb gradient = T – D / Weight

Meaning that the greatest climb gradient is obtained when a greatest difference exists between thrust
and drag and the weight is least.

Climb Gradient as Percentage:

Climb gradient = T–D / Weight

Climb gradient % = T–D / Weight x 100

Q.1. A four jet-engine aeroplane with a mass of 150,000 kg is established on climb with all engines
operating.

The L/D ratio is 14.

Each engine has a thrust of 75,000 Newton.

g = 10m/sec square

What is the gradient of climb expressed as a percentage?

Solution:

Climb gradient % = T–D / Weight x 100

Thrust = 4 engines at 75,000 N each = 300,000 N.

Weight = Mass x g = 150,000 x 10 = 1,500,000

L/D = 14 so D = L/14

Assuming the Lift = Weight.

Drag = 1,500,000 / 14 = 107143

Putting the values in the formula:

Climb gradient % = T–D / Weight x 100

Climb gradient = 12.86 %

Q.2. A four engine aeroplane has a thrust of 45,000 N per engine.

Drag is 69,525 N

Minimum acceptable gradient in the second segment of the climb, which is calculated with an engine
out, is 3%.

g = 10m/sec square

Determine the maximum take-off mass limited by the second segment climb gradient?

Solution

Climb gradient % = T–D / Weight x 100

or

Weight = T–D / %gradient x 100

Note: Due to engine out case, thrust will be from 3 engines and not 4 i.e. 45,000 x 3 = 135,000

Weight = (135,000 - 69,525)/3 x 100

Weight = 2,182,500 N

Mass = Weight / g

Mass = 2,182,500 / 10 = 218,250 N

Best Angle of Climb Speed - VX:

Best angle of climb speed will be when the excess thrust is greatest.

Plotting the thrust and drag curve on a graph, we can see that best angle of climb speed (VX) is at a
point where there is a maximum difference between the two curves (i.e. maximum difference between
thrust and drag).

Since the thrust lines differ for jets and propeller aircraft, their VX is different.

Vx for jet aircraft is close to Vmd (minimum drag speed).

Where Vx for propeller aircraft is lower than Vmd, somwhere close to the stalling speed (about 1.1VS).

Factors Affecting Climb Gradient:

In reference to the above figure, anything that reduces the distance between the thrust and drag
curves, reduces the climb gradient and vice-versa.

Altitude and Temperature

The drag for a given EAS (close to IAS) stays the same with variations in temperature and pressure.

However the thrust decreases with low pressure and high temperature.

So High Altitude (i.e. low pressure) or High Temperature decreases the climb gradient.

The reduction in temperature at higher altitudes has the effect of increasing the climb gradient but
reduction in pressure is more significant, so overall as the aircraft climbs, the climb gradient is reduced.

Mass

Increase in mass - Increases in lift - Increase in lift induced drag - Reduction in excess thrust - Reduced
climb gradient.

Flaps

Increase in flap setting - Increases in drag - Reduced climb gradient.

Change of lift produced produces no benefit to climb gradient. Climb gradients are best when the
aircraft is flapless.

Wind

The climb gradient in aerodynamic terms is considered in the air mass and is therefore not affected by
wind. It is an air gradient.

If the gradient is related to ground distance a headwind will increase the flight path climb gradient
whereas a tailwind will decrease it.
In this case the gradient should be referred to as the Flight Path Angle.

Bank Angle

Increase in bank angle - Increase in induced drag - Reduced climb gradient.

Factors Affecting the Value of VX:

Temperature and Pressure:

EAS of VX is unchanged with altitude.

Thrust reduces with increasing temperature or reducing pressure but the drag curve does not change as
an EAS with altitude and temperature.

Since the drag curve does not change, the speeds stay the same.

Mass:

Increase in mass - Increase in lift induced drag - Drag curves shifts to the right - VS and Vmd Increase -
VX Increases.

Therefore as mass increases, Vx for both the jet and propeller driven aircraft also increase.

Flaps:

Increase in flap setting - Increase in profile drag - Drag curves shifts to the left - VS and Vmd Decrease -
VX Decreases.

Increase in flap setting causes an increase in the lifting ability but actual lift remains the same as it only
balances the weight. Since the actual lift remains the same, lift induced drag also remains the same.

Drag Curve

Take-off Safety Speed, V2:

V2 is the take-off safety speed (takeoff climb speed at 35ft).

For Class B aircraft it is the highest of:

• Vmc and 1.1 Vmc for a twin

• Vs1
• Safe under all reasonable conditions

Class A aircraft use VsR instead of Vs1 and for Class A this speed (V2min) is the highest of:
• 1.13 VsR for two-engine and three-engine turboprop powered aeroplanes and jet aircraft without
provisions for obtaining a significant reduction in the one engine inoperative power-on stall speed.

• 1.08 VsR for turboprop aeroplanes with more than three engines and jet aircraft with provisions for
obtaining a significant reduction inithoeone engine inoperative power-on stall speed.

• 1.10 Vmc

• VR plus the speed increment attained before reaching a height of 35 ft above the take-off surface.

• A speed that provides adequate manoeuvring capability.

See also a post about V2/VS Ratio and VSR

Effect of combining these limits is to produce a V2min that is often constant at light weights.

However it increases with increase in weight.

Since V2min has to be higher that the "speed increment on VR", it can produce high values of V2min at
light weights.

The value of V2 using these criteria will be a low value and will be on the wrong side of the drag curve
(unstable speed).

Since Vx is low on propeller driven aircraft, V2 will be close to Vx.

However in case of jets V2 will be some way below Vx. Thus V2 is not best angle of climb speed on a jet.

So incase of jets, why V2 and not the best climb speed?

The answer is that it would take extra distance to accelerate to the optimum speed.

Economically it is easier to sell jets that can operate to V2 (min standard) from short runways (8,000-
10,000ft) as compared to those that have a better initial climb speed but require longer runways
(11,000-12,000ft).

However, V2 is only the initial target speed in a jet climb if an engine fails on the take-off run. Without
engine failure a jet is usually accelerated to

V2+10 (V4), for a better angle of climb, pitch attitude and incase of an engine failure a better climb
gradient than calculated for the situation where an engine fails at VEF.

Climb Limit:

Net take-off flight path starts at the screen height for the class under consideration.

Screen height for class A is 35ft for a dry runway and 15ft for a wet runway.

Screen height for class B is 50ft.

Take-off flight path (for class A) begins at 35ft above the take-off surface at the end of the take-off
distance (reference zero).
Take-off path ends at a point which is higher of the following:

- A point 1500 ft above the take-off surface.

- A point where transition from take-off to en-route configuration is completed at VFTO.

Take-off flight path is divided into several segments.

There are some minimum climb gradients to be met on take-off (nothing to do with obstacle clearance).

The limiting gradient (usually but not always) is the gradient in segment 2 of the take-off flight path.

Climb gradient in segment 2 may not be less than:

• 2.4% for two-engined aeroplanes.

• 2.7% for three-engined aeroplanes.

• 3.0% for four-engined aeroplanes

Climb gradient is affected by Weight, Altitude and Temperature hence there will be a MTOM limit to
ensures that the most severe climb gradient requirement is achieved.

Climb Segments:

The net take-off flight is the gross take-off flight path reduced by the regulatory requirement of:

• 0.8% for a twin engine aircraft.

• 0.9% for a three engine aircraft.

• 1.0% for a four engine aircraft.

Maximum acceleration height is limited to the time the engines are certified at maximum take-off thrust
(5 or 10 mins depending on type).

Thus segment 3 must be completed by that time limit point and therefore restricts the maximum
acceleration height.

Turns in the Take-off flight path are permitted but avoided whenever possible.

No turns may be made below the height of 50ft or half a wingspan, whichever greater.

Bank angle is limited to 15 deg below 400ft and 25 deg thereafter.

Turning reduces the gradient and increases the stalling speed.

Turns at 25 deg bank angle usually demand an allowance of 10kt on top of minimum speed for 15 deg
bank.

Regulations for Turning Departures

 Best Rate of Climb - Vy

Rate of climb is the height gained per unit of time (feet per minute).

Rate of climb is affected by the TAS and the climb angle (in a steady climb).

Rate of climb increases if:

- Speed increases at a given climb angle.

- Climb angle increases for a given speed.

Rate of climb = TAS x Sin gamma

Sin gamma = T-D/W (as mentioned above)

So Rate of Climb = TAS x (T-D)/W

TAS x thrust = Power Available.

TAS x Drag = Power Required.

So Rate of Climb = (Power Available - Power Required) / Weight

According to the figure, Vy for a jet is quite high and can vary from its optimum without much affecting
the rate of climb.

On the otherhand, Vy for a prop is quite low. Speeds above the optimum do not affect rate of climb
much but speeds below the optimum reduces the climb rate.

Factors that affect Rate of Climb:

Altitude and Temperature

In a climb - Thrust reduces - TAS increases - Product of Thrust x TAS reduces - Power available reduces.

In a climb - Drag constant - TAS increases - Product of Drag x TAS increases - Power required increases.

Power available reduces - Power required increases - Rate of climb decreases.

Thus increase in altitude and increase in temperature reduces the rate of climb.

Mass
Rate of Climb = (Power Available - Power Required) / Weight

Rate of climb is inversely proprtional to mass.

Flaps and Gear

Increase in drag - Increases in power required - Decrease in rate of climb.

Wind

It has no effect.

Rate of Climb Formula:

Rate of climb = TAS x Gradient

Factors Affecting Value of Vy:

Altitude and Temperature

As altitude increases, best rate of climb TAS increases.

Change in air density with altitude means that for a given TAS the EAS and IAS reduce.

Reduction in EAS and IAS is faster than the increase in TAS

Vy is ideally expressed as an IAS.

So Vy (as an IAS) decreases as height increases.

EAS and TAS diverge less in lower temperatures and more in high temperatures.

Thus Vy decreases less with height in low temperatures and more with height in high temperatures.

Mass

Increase in mass - increase in induced drag - left side of drag curve (power required curve) shifts to the
right - VY increases.

Flaps and Gear

Increase in flaps or extending the gear - increase in profile drag - right side of drag curve (power
required curve) shifts to the left - VY decreases.

Flying for range in a jet, it is best to climb wih climb thrust at the recommended speed until the
cruising altitude.
If the climb is continued, a height will come where there is no excess power available.

Vy will reduce to VMD (which is Vx). This will be the absolute ceiling.

Vx is always a lower value than Vy except at the absolute ceiling where Vx = Vy.

Ceiling:

At high subsonic speeds drag created by shock wave formation starts to change the shape of the power
curve at a speed known as McDR (mach critical drag rise).

McDR is above Vy and does not affect the climb.

However as altitude increases, McDR occurs at a reducing EAS.

It eventually drops down to Vy.

If power is still avaialable it is possible to continue climbing at McDR

Ultimately EAS falls to some minimum control speed near the stalling speed.

Holding this EAS - Mmo is reached - Coffin corner is reached.

Service ceiling is lower than the absolute ceiling.

For jets aircraft, it is the height at which the rate of climb falls to 500 ft/min.

A structural limit on the pressure hull may impose a pressurisation ceiling limit.

Piston and Turboprop Climb

As compared to a piston, a turboprop maintains the power output to high speeds due to the intake ram
effect.

Lower intake temperatures increases the engine's thermal efficiency and thus a better turboprop power
output at height.

Ultimately the propeller efficiency is affected (at TAS between 300-400 kts).

Service ceiling for a propeller aircraft is the height where the rate of climb has fallen to 100 ft/min.

Angle of Attack in Climb:

Maximum angle of attack occurs at the stall.

Climb at fixed IAS - Angle of attack is constant.

Climb at fixed Mach number - IAS reduces - Angle of attack Increases.

 Noise Abatement:

NADP 1:

• Climb at V2+10 to V2+20 kt to 3000 ft.

• 800 feet - Thrust reduction.

• 3000 feet - Accelerate to en-route climb speed retracting flaps on schedule.

NADP 2:

• Climb at V2+10 to V2+20 kt.

• 800 feet - Accelerate to VZF (zero flap speed) and retract flaps on schedule.

• Flaps up - Thrust reduce

• Climb at VZF+10 to 3000 feet.

• 3000 feet - Accelerate to en-route climb speed.

NADP A:

• Climb at V2+10 to V2+20 kt to 3000 ft.

• 1500 feet - Thrust reduction.

• 3000 feet - Accelerate to en-route climb speed retracting flaps on schedule.

NADP B:

• Climb at V2+10 to V2+20 kt.

• 1000 feet - Accelerate to VZF (zero flap speed) and retract flaps on schedule.

• Flaps up - Thrust reduce

• Climb at VZF+10 to 3000 feet.

• 3000 feet - Accelerate to en-route climb speed.

Optimum Range:
Specific Air Range (SAR) is the maximum distance covered per unit of fuel.

SAR = TAS / fuel flow

Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC) is fuel consumption per unit of thrust. It is thus thrust-specific (TSFC),
meaning that the fuel consumption is divided by the thrust.

SFC = Fuel flow / Thrust

or

Fuel Flow = SFC x Thrust

Combining the two formulas (by putting the value of Fuel Flow in the SAR formula) we get:

SAR = TAS / (SFC x Thrust)

In a level unaccelerating flight, Thrust = Drag.

So

SAR = TAS / (SFC x Drag)

According to the above formula we can observe two things:

1) SAR is inversely proportional to SFC (i.e. less SFC will give a better SAR)

2) SAR is dependant on TAS/Drag ratio (best TAS to Drag ratio occurs at the tangent to the drag curve,
1.32 VMD)

Drag Curve

Optimum Altitude

In reference to the best SFC, jet engines are designed to be most efficient at around 90% RPM.

Best range speed is at 1.32VMD.

At low level this speed will not be met with 90% thrust.

Thus SFC will not be the best at low level.

However at a higher levels, 1.32 VMD speed can be flown with 90% thrust, thus improving SFC.

The level where this can be done is the optimum altitude.

Cruise Climb:

Flying at the optimum cruise altitude at 1.32VMD with engines at 90% rpm, the fuel burn will reduce
weight.

Weight decreases - Lift requirement decreases - Lift induced drag decreases - VMD deceases.
Thus 90% thrust will accelerate the aircraft beyond 1.32 VMD (because drag reduces and thrust remains
the same).

So to maintain 1.32 VMD (or for that matter any speed in a level flight) thrust needs to be reduced and
the only way to do it without reducing engine RPM is to climb to a higher level.

Thus optimum altitude increases with reduction in mass.

Best option is to put the aircraft into a very Slow climb so that it is always at the optimum altitude where
90% thrust always gives 1.32VMD.

This steady continuous climb is called the cruise climb which is the optimum cruise profile for a jet.

However this may not be possible due to ATC restrictions.

Thus a compromise between a level cruise and a cruise climb is needed.

This compromise is called the Step Climb.

In a step climb you maintain the level and reduce the RPM to maintain the correct speed.

When weight reduces you climb to a higher level and repeat the process.

Fuel Mileage:

The SAR takes no account of wind.

However Gross Fuel Flow (GFF) caters for wind.

GFF = Fuel Flow / Groundspeed

Gross fuel flow (fuel mileage) can be given as kg/nm or nm/kg.

Optimum Endurance:

Endurance is the time that the aircraft can remain airborne.

This depends on fuel flow (SFC x Drag).

Thus optimum endurance is when SFC is lowest and Drag is minimum.

SFC will be lowest with thrust around 90% rpm.

Drag will be minimum at VMD.

Best endurance will be where these two parameters coincide i.e. 90% thrust maintains VMD.

At best range altitude 90% thrust maintains 1.32 VMD.

So for 90% thrust to maintain VMD (lower than 1.32 VMD), level will have to be raied.

Higher level will decrease the thrust (which will reduce speed) for the same (90%) rpm.
Thus best endurance altitude will be higher than the altitude for best range.

Best endurance speed in the AFM may be above VMD to get the advantage of speed stability which
outweighs the reduction in endurance by flying faster.

Reduction in endurance is not much since the jet drag curves are very flat.

Specific Fuel Consumption:

Prop SFC = Fuel Flow / Power.

Turboprop SFC (like jets) decreases with altitude.

Piston SFC decreaes to full throttle height. After this fuel consumption increases.

Optimum Range:

Best SAR for a propeller is when maximum distance is covered for a unit of fuel.

SAR = TAS / Fuel Flow

For a propeller:

SFC = Fuel Flow / Power

or

Fuel Flow = SFC x Power

Combining the two:

SAR = TAS / (SFC x Power)

Power Available = Thrust x TAS

Power Required = Drag x TAS

In an unaccelerating flight, power available must be equal to power required.

So:

SAR = TAS / SFC x (Drag x TAS)

According to the above formula we can observe two things:

1) Best SAR will be found at the best ratio of TAS/Power Required i.e. a tangent on the propeller power
required curve (point of min drag).
2) SAR is inversely proportional to SFC (i.e. less SFC will give a better SAR).

Piston engines give their best SFC with:

- High Intake pressure.

- Low RPM.
- Throttle wide open.

These conditions will give too much power at low levels.

So at higher level there wil be a point where the power required to fly the best range speed is achieved
with full throttle, weak mixture and cruise RPM selected.

This is full throttle height, the point of best SFC and maximum SAR.

Range initially decreases with altitude but starts to increase again at level where full throttle is reached.

Greater ranges are possible with low power settings.

Best SAR will be at medium altitude at the recommended Flight Manual speed for range flying (10 to
20% above VMD).

Turboprop Engines:

Turboprops run at a constant maximum continuous RPM (MCRPM).

Their thermal efficiency improves with lower intake temperatures.

Engine efficiency increases slightly with increasing speed.

Best SAR will be obtained by flying at medium altitude.

From this point on best SAR will be maintained, as weight decreases, in a cruise climb while holding
MCRPM.

Optimum Endurance:

Best endurance is the minimum power required to maintain level flight.

Best endurance speed is the minimum power speed, VMP.

It is the point where the product of speed and drag are at a minimum.

VMP is always less than VMD and therefore speed unstable.

Two identical turbojets are cruising at the same altitude and speed and have the same specific fuel
consumption. Plane A weighs 150,000kg and has a fuel flow of 4000 kg/hr and is flying at VMD. Plane B
weighs 135,000kg. What is its fuel flow?

Solution:
At VMD, profile drag = induced drag

If profile drag = 1 and induced drag = 1, then total drag = 2

SFC = Fuel Flow / Thrust

Plane B is lighter = less induced drag = less total drag = less thrust = less fuel flow.

So if we can find the reduction in drag we get the answer.

Induced drag is proportional to the square of the weight.

The weight has reduced by a factor of 135,000/150,000 = 0.9

Induced drag will reduce by square of 0.9 i.e. 0.9 x 0.9 = 0.81

Profile drag does not change with mass and remains the same.

Induced drag decreases to 0.81 of the original value.

Total drag = 1 + 0.81 = 1.81

Drag reduction = 1.81 / 2 = 0.905

Thus fuel flow should reduce by 0.905

4000 x 0.905 = 3620 kg/hr

Rule of Thumb:

For small changes, the fuel flow changes roughly in proportion to the weight change.

In ref to the above question;

The weight changed by a factor of 135,000/150,000 = 0.9

So fuel flow will reduce by this factor:

4000 x 0.9 = 3600 kg/hr

For Jets maintaining 1.32VMD - 10% Increase in Mass will have the following effects::

- Thrust = +10%

- Fuel Flow = +10%

- Speed = +5%

- SAR = -5%

For Propellers maintaining VMD - 10% Increase in Mass will have the following effects::
- Power = +15%

- Fuel Flow = +15%

- Speed = +5%

- SAR = -9%

Difference is because at VMD the induced drag is half the total drag whereas at 1.32VMD it is about a
quarter of the total drag.

Factors Affecting Cruise Performance

•
by K.Haroon » Mon Apr 09, 2012 3:51 am
The Effect of Wind:

Wind does not affect endurance flying but it can affect range flying.

Theory suggests you should fly slightly slower in a tailwind and slightly faster in a headwind.

Long Range Cruise:

Long Range Cruise (LRC) Speed is 4% above the Max Range Speed.

The reduction in range is only 1%.

However the advantages are:

1) It is a better speed in a headwind than max range speed.

2) Being a higher speed than max range speed, there is a reduction in the flight time. Thus for
slightly higher fuel burn, reduction in engine and airframe time may be more cost effective.

Effect of Weight and Height:

Endurance speed, Max range speed and LRC all reduce as weight reduces.

For the same EAS, Mach number and TAS increases with height, Long Range Cruise Mach number
and TAS also increase with height.

Power Available in the Cruise:

Power Available = Thrust x TAS.

It is affected by the ambient conditions.

Flying from a cold air mass to a warm air mass will reduce power available and increase the
power required.
Increase in temperature reduces thrust and increases the TAS

Power Required in the Cruise:

Power required = Drag x TAS

Increase in total drag (which is proportional to V^2) means the power required is proportional to
V^3.

i.e. if the speed is to be doubled, the power required will need to increase eight times.

Range/Payload:

Regional Aircraft

Regional aircraft are designed to carry maximum payload over short distances.

They often have the fuel capacity to travel greater distances but only at the expense of payload.

Long-Haul Aircraft

Jets designed for long range (intercontinental ranges) can usually carry both full payload and full
fuel loads, performance permitting.

The payload is optimised for range and only decreases at very long ranges to slightly improve
SAR.

Long Range Requirements and ETOPS:

The normal limit for a twin to be away from an adequate aerodrome is 60 minutes.

Under ETOPS (Extended-Range Twin-Engine Operational Performance Standards) the rule can be
extended to as much as 180 minutes.

Long Range Twins Without ETOPS:

Without ETOPS approval a twin engined aeroplane must not be operated further from an adequate
aerodrome than the distances listed:

• Performance Class A Aeroplanes of either 20 or more passenger seats or a MTOM greater than
45,360kg: a distance equivalent to 60 minutes flight time.

• Performance Class A Aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 19 or

less and a MTOM less than than 45,360kg: the distance equivalent to 120 minutes flight time or for jets
and with approval of the Authority, up to 180 minutes.

• Performance Class B or C aeroplanes: the lower of 300 nm or a distance equivalent to 120 minutes
flight time.

The times are based on a one engine inoperative TAS.

 Long Range Twins With ETOPS:

ETOPS can be authorised in the AOC after extended reliability trials of:

- Engines.

- Training systems.

- Operating procedures.

The still air time (rule time) can be extended from 60 to 90 to 120 to 138 and even 180 minutes from a
suitable alternate.

The approval is incremental.

Each increment is based on a track record of successful operation at the shorter time.

A three or four engine aircraft cannot go further than 90 minutes unless it can sustain a double engine
failure at the most critical point and make a landing.

Glide Descent:

Due to similar forces, descent is like a negative climb.

Climb angle was Sin gamma = T-D/W

So Descent Angle becomes:

Sin gamma = D-T/W

Normal descent is flown as a glide (idle throttles).

Since thrust is zero in a glide the formula for glide angle becomes:

Sin gamma = D / Weight

Lift can be taken equal to weight (though it is actually slightly less), the foumula becomes:

Sin gamma = Drag / Lift

Using the co-efficients of drag and lift.

Sin gamma = CD/CL

Thus glide angle is most shallow (best glide angle) where CD/CL is a minimum. The best glide angle
occurs at VMD this will give the best range in a glide.
Glide angle itself is independent of aircraft weight as CD/CL is unchanged with weight, provided the
aircraft is glides at VMD.

However, a heavier aircraft will have a higher value of VMD.

Thus it will be flying faster down the same glide path.

Rate of descent will be higher at the higher weight.

At lower weights VMD will be lower - flying the correct VMD speed - the angle of glide will be the same -
rate of descent will be less.

Glide Angle Calculation:

Q. An aircraft with a lift/drag ratio of 20:1 is gliding at VMD. What ground distance, in nautical miles, will
be covered in 5000ft of descent in still air conditions?

Solution:

Sin gamma (Glide Angle) = CD/CL

= 1:20

i.e. for every 1 feet descent you cover 20 feet on the ground.

for 5000ft descent the aircraft covers 20 x 5000

= 100,000 ft
= 100,000 / 6080
= 16.45 nm

Factors Affecting the Glide Angle:

Glide angle = CD / CL

Increase in Lift = Reduction in glide angle.

Increase in Drag = Increase in glide angle.

Flaps increase Lift + Drag so CD/CL does not improve.

A Speed faster or slower than VMD will lead to steeper glide angles.

Increase in mass will increase VMD. As long as VMD is flown, glide angle remains the same.

Headwind will reduce gliding range. Increasing airspeed will give the best overall result.

In a Tailwind, a reduced speed will give the best result.

Driftdown:
During driftdown the operating engine is at the max continous thrust.

When thrust is involved then it is not the glide angle (thus not independant from weight).

It becomes the Descecnt Angle:

= Drag - Thrust / Weight

As the aircraft descends, the thrust increases and the driftdown angle becomes progressively more
shallow until it reaches zero and the aircraft stabilises.

The effect of weight is to make the driftdown angle steeper at heavier weights and to make the
stabilising altitude lower.

Driftdown is flown at Vx.

For jets Vx is VMD. It is the best (least) angle of descent speed.

For props Vx is about 1.1Vs

Rate of Descent:

It is the opposite of rate of climb.

Rate of Climb = (Power Available - Power Required) / Weight

Rate of Descent = (Power Required - Power Available) / Weight

It increase as speed increases and as drag increases.

Gliding for Endurance:

Minimum power required is found at VMP.

Glide for Endurance = Fly at VMP

Missed Approach:

"Missed Approach" is defined as a go-around from at or above DH with one engine inoperative.

This is also called the "Approach Climb".

Aircraft configuration for the Class A aircraft will be:

• Go-around thrust on remaining engines

• Landing gear retracted

• Approach flap set

Baulked Landing:

"Baulked" or "Balked" landing is a go-around from below DH, possibly in the flare, with all engines
available.

This is also called the "Landing Climb".

The aircraft configuration for the Class A aircraft will be:

• Go-around thrust all engines

• Landing gear down

• Landing flap set

VMCL:

Minimum control speeds with one or two engines inoperative are called VMCL1 or VMCL2.

VMCL is the minimum speed at which it is possible to maintain control of the aeroplane within defined
limits. whilst applying variations in power.

At VMCL (following loss of a critical engine) it should be possible to maintain straight flight with an angle
of bank of not more than 5 deg towards the live engine(s) and there must (in addition) be sufficient
lateral control to roll the aeroplane away from the failed engine(s) through an angle of 20 deg in less
than 5 seconds when starting from a steady straight flight condition.

VMCL is be established with:

• Aeroplane in the most critical configuration (or each configuration) for approach and landing with all
engines operating.

• Most unfavourable centre of gravity.

• Aeroplane trimmed for approach with all engines operating.

• Most unfavourable weight or as a function of weight.

• Propeller of the inoperative engine in the position it achieves without pilot action, assuming the engine
fails while at the power/thrust necessary to maintain a 3 degree approach path angle.

• Go-around power/thrust setting on the operating engine(s).

VMCL will be determined at minimum landing weight.

 Landing:

Landing distance required is split into the Landing Airborne Distance and the Landing Ground Run.

Landing begins from the point where the aircraft crosses the threshold at a screen height of 50 feet at
VREF to the point where it comes to rest.

In steep approaches the screen height may be reduced to 35ft.

Failure of Anti-Skid system can increase the Landing Distance Required by 50%

Failure of Reverse Thrust System can increase the Landing Distance Required by 10%

Reverse thrust is not considered on a dry runway but is considered on a wet or contaminated runway.

CS25 does not consider the use of reverse thrust when schedulinf the Landing Distance Required.

Landing Distances

Factors Affecting Landing Ground Run:

For stopping the aircraft kinetic energy must be dissipated.

Kinetic energy = 1/2 M V^2

M = mass

V = speed

Thus Mass and Speed are the basic two things that affect the landing distance.

Speed

Kinetic energy = V squared

That means a rise in threshold speed, VREF or VAT means a significant increase in kinetic energy and a
consequent increase in LDR.

Speed at touchdown is a true groundspeed and is affected in turn by air density, wind and aircraft
weight.

Maximum increase in VREF (when applying wind corrections) is generally limited to 15-20 kts.

Above this capability of brakes will be exceeded.

Mass

Touchdown speed results from the threshold speed, VREF.

This is based on a function of the stall speed of the aircraft.

1.23 VSRO for Class A

1.3 VSO for Class B

And it should be above VMCL.

So as mass increases - threshold speed increases.

Thus increase in mass = Increases in mass + Speed in the kinetic energy formula = Increases in the
landing distance.

Air Density

Low air density - High TAS for a given IAS - High Ground Speed - Increase in Landing Distance.

Wind:

Headwind = Lower Ground Speed = Decrease in Landing Distance.

Taiwind = Higher Ground Speed = Increase in Landing Distance.

For increasing the safety margin (while calculating) use:

- Half of the headwind component.

- One and a half times the tailwind component.

Runway Surface:

Brake effectiveness depends on the friction.

Aquaplaning / Hydroplaning will increase the LDR

EU OPS requires an additional 15% factor to be imposed on the landing distance required when the
runway is wet or contaminated unless Flight Manual information allows a reduction below this.

Slope

Down sloping runway will increase and up sloping runway will decrease LDR.

CS require slopes of less than 2% to be ignored in landing performance calculations.

Landing Safety Factors:

Class A jet aircraft must land and stop within 60% of the Landing Distance Available (LDA).

Class B and Turboprop aircraft must land and stop within 70% of the Landing Distance Available (LDA).
There is no distinction in safety factors between destination and alternate aerodromes.

As factors these are:

For Jets:

Gross Dry LDR = LDA / 1.67

Gross Wet LDR = LDA / 1.92 (1.67 x 1.15)

For Turboprops:

Gross Dry LDR = LDA / 1.43

Gross Wet LDR = LDA / 1.64 (1.43 x 1.15)

Scheduled Landings:

A scheduled landing weight is a weight worked out well in advance of the flight to determine how much
payload can be put on board and is distinct from a landing weight or distance planned once airborne.

Scheduled landings do not allow temperature to be taken into account when determining the Field
Length Limit but require it to be used for the climb limit (WAT).

This is interpreted as a requirement to use ISA deviation zero for scheduled or planned landings.

EU OPS also requires that the most limiting of still air and forecast wind conditions be considered at both
destination and alternate aerodromes.

For a single runway with no slope the most limiting case is always the still air case.

In Class A, slopes of less than 2% are ignored.

So the maximum scheduled landing weight on a single runway would be worked out with:

- Still air.

- ISA deviation zero.

- Ignoring the slope.

Question:

A Class A aircraft is to make a scheduled landing at an airport which has two runways, A and B. The
maximum landing weights have been calculated to find the following information:

FLL weight runway A still air = 174,000 kg

FLL weight runway B still air = 162,000 kg

FLL weight runway A with wind = 186,000 kg

FLL weight runway B with wind = 177,000 kg

WAT limited landing weight = 192,000 kg

Determine the maximum scheduled landing weight?

Solution:

The best (greatest) landing weight in still air is 174,000 kg

The best (greatest) landing weight in forecast wind is 186,000 kg

The more restrictive of the two is 174,000 kg.

The WAT limit is greater at 192,000kg

So the Field Length Limit of 174,000 kg is the max scheduled landing weight.

Note:

Scheduling a landing is based on the following regulation about "Landing Field Length Limits":

a) An operator shall ensure that the landing mass of the aeroplane for the estimated time of landing at
the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome allows a full stop landing from 50 ft above
the threshold.

c) When showing compliance with sub-paragraph (a) above, it must be assumed that:

1) The aeroplane will land on the most favourable runway, in still air

and

2) The aeroplane will land on the runway most likely to be assigned considering the probable wind
speed and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane. and considering other
conditions such as landing aids and terrain. The landing weight must be planned so the aircraft can land
in both still air and forecast wind conditions.

The most favourable runway will be a longest one (allowing maximum payload).

Therefore to solve the question, we start of by selecting the higher weight (which relates to a longer
runway).

It is not about scheduling a landing in a way that all runways can be used for landing, if need be.

Obstacle Clearance
•Q
u K.Haroon » Tue Apr 10, 2012 7:34 am
Pby
oo Class A:
st
e An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles by a vertical
ta)
distance of at least 35 ft or by a horizontal distance of at least 90m plus 0.125 x D, where D is the
horizontal distance the aeroplane has travelled from the end of the take-off distance available or
the end of the take-off distance if a turn is scheduled before the end of the take-off distance
available. For aeroplanes with a wingspan of less than 60m a horizontal obstacle clearance of half
the aeroplane wing span plus 60m, plus 0.125 x D may be used.

c) When showing compliance with subparagraph (a) above for those cases where the intended
flight path does not require track changes of more than 15 deg, an operator need not consider
those obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than 300m, if the pilot is able to maintain
the required navigational accuracy through the obstacle accountability area or 600m, for flights
under all other conditions.

d) When showing compliance with subparagraph (a) above for those cases where the intended
flight path does require track changes of more than 15 deg, an operator need not consider those
obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than 600m, if the pilot is able to maintain the
required navigational accuracy through the obstacle accountability area or 900m for flights under
all other conditions.

Multi-Engine Class B:

Multi-engine Class B aircraft have a requirement to clear obstacles by 50ft from the end of the
TODA up to 1500ft (using net performance) after which the aircraft is considered to be en-route.

a) An operator shall ensure that the take-off flight path of aeroplanes with two or more engines,
determined in accordance with this sub-paragraph, clears all obstacles by a vertical margin of at
least 50 ft, or by a horizontal distance of at least 90m plus 0.125 x D, where D is the horizontal
distance travelled by the aeroplane from the end of the take-off distance available or the end of
the take-off distance if a turn is scheduled before the end of the take-off distance available except
as provided in subparagraphs (b) and c) below. For aeroplanes with a wingspan of less than 60m
a horizontal obstacle clearance of half the aeroplane wingspan plus 60m plus 0.125 x D may be
used.

b) When showing compliance with subparagraph (a) above for those cases where the intended
flight path does not require track changes of more than 15 deg, an operator need not consider
those obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than:

• 300m, if the flight is conducted under conditions allowing visual course guidance navigation, or
if navigational aids are available enabling the pilot to maintain the intended flight path with the
same accuracy or

• 600m, for flights under all other conditions.

c) When showing compliance with sub-paragraph (a) above for those cases where the intended
flight path requires track changes of more than 15 deg, an operator need not consider those
obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than:

• 600m for flights under conditions allowing visual course guidance navigation

• 900m for flights under all other conditions.

Obstacle Domain or Obstacle Accountability Area:

Obstacles are considered if they lie in an area called the "Obstacle Domain" or "Obstacle
Accountability Area"

For aircraft with a wing span of less than 60m

a) Domain starts at the end of TODA with a semi-width of 60m + half wing span.
b) Domain area expands at the rate of 0.125 x D to a maximum semi-width (if a turn is scheduled
before the end of TODA).

D = Horizontal distance travelled from the end of TODA or TOD

c) Maximum Semi-width:

- If the flight path requires a change of track direction between 0 and 15 deg then it is 300m

- If the flight path requires a change of track direction above 15 deg then it is 600m

Maximum limits mentiond above are based on the assumption that aircraft maintains visual
guidance while navigating or its equivalent accuracy if flying on instruments.

If the conditions of visual navigation or its equivalent accuracy on instruments are not fulfilled
then the maximum limits are increased by 300m respectively i.e.

600m for tracks between 0 and 15 deg.

900m for tracks above 15 deg.

Calculating the Domain Half Width

Obstacle Domain Half Width = (0.125 x Distance along the line of flight) + 60m + Half Wing Span

0.125 = 1/8 So 0.125 x Distance or Distance/8 turns out to be the same thing

Calculations are done to determine whether obstacles should be considered or not.

Q. A twin engine aircraft in Performance Class B with a wing span of 18m is to conduct a take-off.
An obstacle is located 342m from the end of TODA and displaced 119m from the centreline.
Should the obstacle be considered?

Solution:

Obstacle Domain Half Width = (0.125 x Distance along the line of flight) + 60m + Half Wing Span

= (0.125 x 342) + 60 + 9

= 111.75

The obstacle is outside the domain (i.e. 119m) and therefore need not be considered.

For aircraft with a wing span of more than 60m

Domain starts at the end of TODA with a semi-width of 90m.

Rest is all the same as above.

Obstacle Calculation:

Q. An aircraft has a climb gradient of 5.2%. What will be the aircraft height assuming the climb
starts at 400ft and the distance travelled during the climb is 4500m ?

Solution:
4500m = 14760 feet

5.2% climb gradient means:

For a distance of 100 feet - 5.2 feet height is gained

For 1 feet - 5.2/100

For 14760 feet - 5.2 x 14760 / 100 = 767 feet

Since the climb started at 400 feet:

The height of the aircraft = 767 + 400 = 1167 feet.

As a formula:

Height Gain = Gradient x Distance in Feet / 100

Reference Zero:

This is the point on the ground just below where the aircraft passes the screen height at the end
of TODR.

Net Take-Off Flight Path - Class B MEP:

This class of aircraft does not assume an engine failure until you enter cloud.

Exception being the commuter category which has rules very similar to Class A

Take-Off Climb:

All engines operating - 4% at the screen height.

One engine inoperative (400ft above the take-off surface) - Positive Gradient

One engine inoperative (1500ft above the take-off surface) - 0.75%

Climb Limits:

The three gradient requirements for the Climb limit consider both all engines and engine out
performance.

The gradient used is the net climb gradient.

Net gradient is calculated by taking 0.77 of the all engines gross gradient + unfactored one
engine gradient.

Flight path is calculated using only 50% of the headwind component or 150% of the tailwind
component.

Net Take-Off Flight Path:

All obstacles shoud be cleared by 50 feet.

• 1st Segment:

From the end of the TODR (where aircraft is at 50ft) to the point at which it enters cloud.

Aircraft is flown on all engines with the gear assumed to be up.

• 2nd Segment:

From the cloudbase (where engine failure is assumed) to 1500 feet.

Aircraft is flown engine out, flaps up and gear up with the remaining engine on full power.

• 3rd Segment:

If the aircraft has not reached 1500 feet before 5 minutes, MCP (Maximum Continuous Power) is
to be set on the remaining engine for the remainder of the climb. This creates the third segment.

Net Take-Off Flight Path - Class A:

Class A aircraft have the same obstacle domain as Class B MEP aircraft but require a clearance of
35ft in straight flight and 50ft in a steady turn.

The performance planning for obstacle clearance is based on net performance.

To get the net performance, Gross performance is reduced by fixed percentages which depends
on the number of engines:

• 0.8% for a twin.

• 0.9% for a three engine aircraft

• 1% for a four engine aircraft.

Net take-off flight path is divided into following segments:

• 1st Segment:

From the end of the TODR (where aircraft is at 35 f) to the point when the gear is up.

• 2nd Segment:

From gear up to the acceleration height (gross level off height).

Gradient requirements in this segment are:

- 2.4% for two-engined aeroplanes:

- 2.7% for three-engined aeroplanes.

- 3.0% for four-engined aeroplanes.

An example of an obstacle limitation case

For a twin with obstacles in the net takeoff path, the minimum gradient is 2.4%
Net takeoff path must clear any obstacle by at least 35ft.

This may impose a second segment gradient greater than 2.4% with the original TOM.

If the avaialble performance cannot achieve this then TOM will have to be reduced to achieve
2.4%.

Net performance is used for obstacle clearance.

• 3rd Segment:

It is a level flap retraction segment ending once the aircraft is clean and has accelerated to the
final segment climb speed.

Gross aircraft is used to determine the height of this segment.

Thus this segment is called the "Gross Level Off Height" or "Acceleration Height (Ha)".

Lowest height for this segment is 400 feet.

Maximum height is restricted by the time allowed at maximum take-off thrust.

Usually 10 minutes are allowed at max takeoff thrust with one engine inoperative.

This means segment 3 must be completed within 10 minutes so that MCT can be set.

Climb gradient requirement is of 1.2%

• 4th Segment:

From the flap retraction height to at least 1500 feet.

Climb gradient requirement is of 1.2%

More on Climb Segments

Turns in the net take-off flight

Turns in the net take-off flight path are permitted but avoided whenever possible.

No turns may be made below the height of 50ft or half a wingspan, whichever greater.

Bank angle is limited to 15 deg below 400ft and 25 deg thereafter.

Turning reduces the gradient and increases the stalling speed.

Turns at 25 deg bank angle usually demand an allowance of 10kt on top of minimum speed for 15
deg bank.

En-Route:

Net takeoff path ends at 1500 feet.

From the 1500 feet point the aircraft is assumed to be en-route until it is 1500 feet above the
landing aerodrome for Class A or 1000 feet above for Class B.

Obstacle clearance has to be considered in the en-route phase.

It depends on Performance Class and number of engines if Class is A.

It is worked out assuming the aircraft has lost an engine (or two engines in some circumstances)
and using net performance data.

Regulations require a minimum of 1,000 feet clearance over any obstacles 5nm either side of
track.

Obstacles can be planned to clear in a level flight or the driftdown.

Drift Down:

If the aircraft has to clear a large range of hills the driftdown will not help, the only option is to
establish terrain clearance when level. When stabilised in a level flight, the minimum clearance
en-route is 1,000 feet with a positive gradient, 5nm either side of track.

If the hills are isolated or are a narrow ridge of mountains then it is acceptable to use the
driftdown to clear them with the requirement that the aircraft should not descend below the
minimum altitude that gives 2,000 feet clearance 5nm either side of track.

Regulations usually impose a performance ceiling which is the greatest height (a maximum limit)
that should be used for the driftdown calculations.

This restriction is for calculation only and not an operating limit.

Takeoff Techniques
•Q
u K.Haroon » Tue Apr 10, 2012 2:53 pm
Pby
oo Increased V2 Technique:
st
e jets V2 lies on the wrong side of the drag curve and does not represent the speed for the best
tOn
angle of climb.

Increasing the V2 can help in obtaining better climb gradients if the extra runway length is
available.

It can benefit to improve:

1) TOM if the aircraft is Climb limited.

2) Climb gradient if obstacle limited.

Propeller aircraft have Vx around 1.1 Vs so this procedure does not apply to them (already at the
best angle of climb speed).

Improving TOM by Increasing V2:

If the aircraft is WAT/Climb limited but not field length limited then there is runway to spare.
Some of the extra runway is used to accelerate to a faster VR and a V2 closer to VMD.

Thus a better climb gradient is the result.

If more payload is added the aircraft becomes heavy.

This reduces the climb gradient back to the previous minimum value but in return improves the
TOM.

Tyre speed limit must be checked as VR will have increased in line with the increased V2.

V1 will be increased so VMBE will have to be re-checked.

Improving the Climb Gradient by Increasing V2:

The speeds can be increased to improve the climb gradient if obstacle limited.

When the aircraft is WAT/Climb limited, all the improved gradient is traded for improved weight.

However in this case only some of the improved gradient is traded off for improved weight.

The aircraft ends up faster and heavier (but not as heavy as it was when climb limited), with an
improved gradient.

Tyre speed limit must be checked as VR will have increased in line with the increased V2.

V1 will be increased so VMBE will have to be re-checked.

Reduced and Derated Thrust Take-Off:

If the aircraft is not Climb limited or Field Length Limited then there is performance to spare.

This means maximum take-off thrust is not necessary.

Thrust setting less than the maximum provides benefits in terms of engine reliability,
maintenance and operating costs.

Reduced thrust take-offs leave the aircraft at or near a performance limited condition.

Two methods are:

1) Reduced thrust take-off

2) Derated thrust take-off

Either of them is heavy on fuel due to increased time to height.

Reduced Thrust Take-off:

Also called "Flexible (FLEX) Take-off: or "Assumed Temperature" take-off.

It is a take-off thrust which is less than the maximum take-off (or derated take-off) thrust.

In this method the thrust for take-off is not considered as a take-off operating limit.

This means that maximum take-off thrust may be applied at any stage of the take-off.
Since maximum thrust can be used, VMCG and VMCA must remain unchanged.

Amount of thrust reduction is done in a way that even with a failed engine there is still adequate
thrust to make the Climb limiting gradient and the 35ft screen height of the field length limit.

Regulators will restrict the amount of thrust reduction to a certain limit e.g. for B737, a maximum
of 25% thrust reduction is allowed.

Limitations:

A reduced thrust take-off is not permitted with:

• Icy or very slippery runways.

• Contaminated runways

• Anti-skid unserviceable

• Reverse thrust unserviceable

• Increased V2 procedure

• PMC Unserviceable (PMC - Power Management Control automatically maintains the required
N1).

• Possible windshear after take-off.

A reduced thrust take-off on wet runways is allowed provided suitable performance accountability
is made for the increased stopping distance.

Derated Thrust Take-Off:

It is a take-off thrust less than the maximum take-off thrust, for which exists in the AFM a set of
separate and independent take-off limitations and performance data that complies with all the
requirements of CS25.

In this case the thrust for take-off is considered as a normal take-off operating limit.

This means that the maximum thrust allowed is the derated thrust.

Thus new reduced VMCG and VMCA speeds may be established.

Reduction in control speeds can lead to an increase in MTOM when operating from short runways.

High thrust settings gives higher VMCG and V1 (since V1 cannot be below VMCG).

On short runways the ASD is often the limiting factor.

A reduction in VMCG can therefore permit a reduction in the ASD for a given take-off mass and
lead to better take-off performance when the MTOM without derate is VMCG limited

Performance data is produced for each derate level down to the maximum allowed reduction of
25% thrust, any runway surface condition and each take-off configuration.

MTOM is determined for dry, wet and contaminated runways.

The data applies to all surface conditions, so derated thrust take-offs are allowed on wet and
contaminated runways.
Limitations:

Take-off thrust or GA thrust must never be selected until the aircraft is airborne and above the
minimum flap retraction speed.

This is because the minimum control speeds are based upon performance data at a lower thrust
setting.

MEL and CDL requirements may impose restrictions.

Wet and Contaminated Runways

•Q
u K.Haroon » Tue Apr 10, 2012 2:55 pm
Pby
oo Wet Runway:
st
e
tLess than 3mm counts as a wet runway. Dry runway includes special grooves or porous surface
which maintain the dry braking action even if moisture is present.

Contaminated Runway:

A runway where more than 25% of the surface area is covered in either:

a) More than 3mm of water or its equivalent in wet snow or slush

b) Compacted snow which will resist further compression and either hold together or break into
lumps when picked up

or

c) Ice

The equivalent water depth can be found either by melting the snow or by multiplying the
contaminant depth by the specific gravity of the contaminant.

E.g. Runway covered in snow with a specific gravity of 0.6 to a depth of 2cm.

Equivalent water depth in millimetres = 20 x 0.6 = 12mm

2cm = 20mm

All contaminants make the braking action less effective and all (except ice) act to resist
acceleration on the take-off run.

Thus contaminated runway takeoffs have a lower TOM, V1 and VR.

Regulations about Wet and Contaminated Runways:

Wet:
(a) An operator shall ensure that when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a
combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be wet, the
landing distance available is at least 115% of the required landing distance.
Contaminated:
(b) An operator shall ensure that when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a
combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be
contaminated, the landing distance available must be at least the landing distance determined in
accordance with sub-paragraph (a) above. or at least 115% of the landing distance determined in
accordance with approved contaminated landing distance data or equivalent, accepted by the
Authority, whichever is greater.

Note: Contaminated runway landing distance calculations do not include the 60% or 70%
factorisation of LDA for jets and turboprops [EU OPS 1.520(e)].

Hydroplaning
•Q
Pbyu K.Haroon » Tue Apr 10, 2012 3:00 pm
o1)o Dynamic Hydroplaning:
st
e a tyre accelerates along a runway with standing water (deeper than tyre tread), a bow wave of
tAs
water builds up in front of the tyre.

At dynamic hydroplane speed, the pressure exerted by the water equals the pressure created by
the forward movement of the tyre.

At this point, a wedge of water slides between tyre and runway surface, lifting the tyre away from
the surface.

From this point on, the resistance to acceleration is minimal.

This is called dynamic hydroplaning.

It can happen in water depths of less than a tenth of an inch (2.5 mm).

The point at which the aircraft starts to plane is called the hydroplaning speed (VP or Vp).

• For a Rotating Wheel:

Hydroplaning Speed (kts) = 9 x Square Root of (P/p)

Where P = tyre pressure in psi and p = specific gravity of contaminant.

If contaminant is water then:

Hydroplaning Speed (kts) = 9 x Square Root of P (since sp gravity of water is 1).

1 bar = 14.5 psi

• For a Non-rotating Wheel:

Hydroplaning Speed (kts) = 7.7 x Square Root of (P/p)

According to some sources, the contaminant must be deeper than the tyre tread for dynamic
hydroplaning to occur.
2) Viscous Hydroplaning:

Viscous hydroplaning occurs at much lower speeds (than dynamic hydroplaning).

It is more likely on a smooth dirt surface, typically the touchdown zones of the runway where a
build up of rubber (black rubber deposit) from landing aircraft occurs.

A thin film of fluid on the smooth dirty runway surface prevents the tyre making contact with the
runway.

3) Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning:

Reverted rubber (steam) hydroplaning typically occurs during heavy braking that results in a
prolonged locked-wheel skid. Only a thin film of water on the runway is required for this type of
hydroplaning. The tyre skidding generates enough heat to cause the rubber in contact with the
runway to revert to its original uncured state. The reverted rubber acts as a seal between the tyre
and the runway, and delays water exit from the tyre footprint area. The water heats and is
converted to steam which supports the tyre off the runway.

Reverted rubber hydroplaning occurs after a skid often on the nosewheel which has neither
braking nor anti-skid protection. This is likely if nosewheel steering is used indiscriminately on a
slippery runway.

Braking Co-Efficients:

Braking action can be described as:

1) A co-efficient of friction (co-efficient 1 = perfect friction. Less than 1 = less than perfect)

2) Verbally as good, medium or poor.

3) Numerically as part of the SNOWTAM or SNOTAM code.

Runways that are wet or contaminated assume braking action poor with a co-efficient of 0.25 or less,
SNOWTAM code 1.

Breaking Co-Efficient ..... Braking Action ............ SNOTAM CODE

0.40 and Higher ............ Good ........................... 5

0.39 - 0.36 ................... Medium to Good ........... 4
0.35 - 0.30 ................... Medium ....................... 3
0.29 - 0.26 ................... Medium to poor ............ 2
0.25 and Below ............. Poor ........................... 1

SEP
Q and MEP Graphs
P
•u
oby
o K.Haroon » Fri Apr 13, 2012 12:55 pm
st
te
 From the "Ref Line" in the last part (right side) of these graphs, if you follow the guide lines
then you'll find the takeoff distance and if you dont follow the guide lines and continue
horizontally to the right then you find the distance for the ground roll.

If the weight is given and field length needs to be found out then make sure to apply the
regulatory factors or factors for various conditions like runway slope, surface etc to the field
length that is derived from the graph.

If the distances are given (e.g. ASDA, TORA, TODA) and the maximum weight limit needs to be
found out (working bacwards) then first apply the regulatory (or other) factors to these distances.
Then select the lowest of all the figures. Use this lowest figure to start of from the right side of the
graph. Remember to go to the condition first and then the reference line when working
backwards on a graph.

For climb gradient and rate of climb graphs you will be needing TAS. Use the computer to
calculate it from IAS for the relevant altitude and temperature.

Finding the Aircraft Ceiling: The aeroplane cannot be assumed to be flying above an altitude
where it can make 300ft/min (the performance ceiling). We can find that altitude by entering from
the right hand side of the graph to end up in the altitude grid. Enter with 300ft/min from the right,
ignoring the gradient section of the graph.

Obstacle Clearance Flaps Up Takeoff (MEP): All the engine out gradients are net gradients and
therefore do not need correction. However "All Engines" gross gradient in the graph should be
reduced by a factor of 0.77 to find the net for planning purposes (this is equivalent to increasing
the distance and time to the cloud base by a factor of 1.3). Ignore this factor unless instructed
otherwise.

Questions on Basic Concepts

•Q
u K.Haroon » Tue Apr 17, 2012 3:36 am
Pby
oo The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by
st
e increasing the angle of attack <-- Correct
ta)
b) increasing the CAS
c) increasing the TAS
d) decreasing the 'nose up' elevator trim setting

Gross performance is: "The average performance which a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if
satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the manual"

Pressure altitude is "The altimeter indication when 1013.25 hPa is set on the sub-scale"

Density altitude is the "Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temperature"
 Density altitude is:

a) The pressure altitude corrected for the prevailing atmospheric density <-- Correct
b) The pressure altitude corrected for ISA atmospheric density

The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:

a) the bank angle only <-- Correct

b) the true airspeed and the bank angle
c) the radius of the turn and the bank angle
d) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane

What percentages of the headwind and tailwind components are taken into account when
calculating the take off field length required? "50% headwind and 150% tailwind"

On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle to attack, configuration and

altitude at higher gross mass:

a) The airspeed and the drag will be increased <-- Correct

b) The lift/drag ratio must be increased

High mass = high lift requirement = high lift induced drag = drag curve shifts to the right =
increase in speed

A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires "a higher coefficient of lift"

To maintain the same angle of attack and altitude at a higher gross weight an aeroplane needs
"more airspeed and more power"

Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for:

a) holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle <-- Correct
b) maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range
c) maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle
d) maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle

Propeller driven aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of "9" or
less and a maximum take off mass of "5700Kg" or less must comply with the requirements of
Performance Class B.

The speed VSR is defined as "reference stall speed and may not be less than 1-g stall speed"

If there is a tailwind: "the minimum drag speed is not affected"

The co-efficient of lift may be increased by lowering the flaps or by:

a) increase angle of attack <-- Correct

b) increase CAS
c) reducing nose up elevator trim
d) increase TAS

Ignoring the effect of compressibility, what would CL do with an increase in altitude? "Remain
the same"

How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects)
"The lift Coefficient is independent of altitude".

CL is effectively alpha. When flying at range speed, regardless of altitude, you will be at 1.32Vmd
on the drag curve for a jet where alpha will be about 2 degrees, and at Vmd for the prop where
alpha is about 4 degrees.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=3006)

What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number? "The lift coefficient
increases"

L = CL1/2 rho Vsq S.

1/2 rho V sq = dynamic pressure q,

CL is made up of Reynolds no. Mach no, wing planform and alpha the angle of attack. Rho is the
density, V is the TAS and S is wing area.

The climb is carried out in two phases: the first at a constant IAS and the second at a constant M
after the crossover altitude.

What happens to q in each phase will tell us what needs to happen to CL to maintain lift.

Use ERTM to to find the relationship between the speeds.

In the constant IAS phase of the climb rho is decreasing and V is increasing which maintains q at
a constant and therefore there is no change in CL.

In the constant Mach phase of the climb rho continues to decrease but now TAS is decreasing and
therefore q decreases. To maintain lift we must increase alpha which means CL increases.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=12503)

The speed instability region is:

a) the same as the region of negative gradient of the thrust or power required curve <-- Correct
b) region where the aeroplane can not be flow manually
c) area above the intersection of power required curve and drag curve
d) located in the area below the low speed buffet

or in another question the wording are:

"The same as the region of reversed command"

Heavy rain may temporarily cause:

a) Increased weight
b) Increased stalling speed
c) Reduced forward speed
d) All of the above <-- Correct

Induced drag is caused by:

a) Movement of the aerofoil through the air <-- Correct

b) The shape of the aerofoil
c) Boundary layer effects
d) Increased zero-lift drag

Large flap settings:

a) Reduce stalling speed slightly but increase drag consideration <-- Correct
b) Reduced stalling speed considerably and increase drag

Deployment of flaps "Decreases" CL/CD.

VMD for a jet aeroplane is approximately equal to:

a) 1.6 VS <-- Correct

b) 1.3 VS
c) 1.7 VS
d) 2.1 VS

1.3 VS is for piston engine aircraft.

In a typical piston engine airplane, VMD in the clean configuration is normally at a speed of about
1.3 VS. Flight below VMD on a piston engine airplane is well identified and predictable. In
contrast, in a jet airplane flight in the area of VMD (typically 1.5 – 1.6 VS) does not normally
produce any noticeable changes in flying qualities other than a lack of speed stability—a
condition where a decrease in speed leads to an increase in drag which leads to a further
decrease in speed and hence a speed divergence. A pilot who is not cognizant of a developing
speed divergence may find a serious sink rate developing at a constant power setting, and a pitch
attitude that appears to be normal. The fact that drag increases more rapidly than lift, causing a
sinking flightpath, is one of the most important aspects of jet airplane flying qualities.

Which 3 speeds are effectively the same for a jet aircraft? "Best angle of climb, minimum Drag,
Endurance"

The operational regulations regarding scheduled performance are contained in the following
document:

a) Joint Airworthiness Requirements Operations (JAR-OPS) <-- Correct

b) Joint Airworthiness Requirements (JAR 23)
c) Joint Airworthiness Requirements (JAR 25)
d) Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR 25)

Runway Distances
 What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant
IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass) "The drag remains almost constant"

Climbing at a constant IAS = Decrease in density & Increase in TAS = Angle of attack remians
constant = Drag remains constant.

As altitude increases the stalling speed of an aircraft in terms of (i) IAS (ii) TAS and (iii) Mach
number will:

a) remain constant, increase, increase <-- Correct

b) increase, increase, increase
c) remain constant, increase, decrease
d) increase, decrease, increase

The IAS stalling speed remains constant (constant in the sense that the increase is negligible) at
lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

Lift = 1/2 Rho V(square) x CL x S

1/2 Rho V(square) is the dynamic pressure displayed as IAS.

At low altitude CL max and wing surface area is constant.

Thus the value of IAS is also constant.

At higher altitudes compresibility effects (shock waves) reduces the vaue of CL max.

So the stall speed increases.

How does an increased altitude affect the indicated stalling speed (when compressibility effects
have to be accounted for)?

a) Indicated stalling speed will increase <-- Correct

b) Indicated stalling speed will not change up to 25000 ft, then decreases at higher altitudes
c) Indicated stalling speed will not change up to 25000 ft, then increases at higher altitudes
d) Indicated stalling speed will not change

A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires

a) a higher angle of attack <-- Correct

b) a lower coefficient of drag
c) a lower coefficient of lift
d) a lower angle of attack

Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?

a) SR = True airspeed/Total fuel flow <-- Correct

b) SR = Ground speed/Total fuel flow

(Refer to figure 4.3 in CAP 698) Given:Pressure Altitude: 33000 ftI ndicated Mach Number: 0.87
Indicated TAT: -20oC What is the Temperature Deviation from Standard?

Fig 4.3 shows the ISA TAT (-16.5). Compare it with the actual TAT (-20 given in the question) to
find the deviation of -3.5 deg C.

In relation to runway strength, the ACN:

a) may exceed the PCN by up to 10% <-- Correct

b) may not exceed 90% of the PCN
c) may never exceed the PCN
d) may exceed the PCN by a factor of 2

Overload Operations:

12.4.1 Individual aerodrome authorities are free to decide their own criteria for permitting
overload operations as long as pavements remain safe for use by aircraft. The PCN value does
include a safety factor so that a 10% increase of ACN over PCN is generally acceptable for
pavements that are well consolidated and in good condition (Ref: CAP 168 Licensing of
Aerodromes)

Questions on Takeoff Performance

•Q
u K.Haroon » Tue Apr 17, 2012 3:40 am
Pby
oo What happens to the field limited take off mass with runway slope? "It increases with a downhill
t
sslope"
te

An upward runway slope:

a) increases the take-off distance required <-- Correct

b) decreases the accelerated-stop-distance available

Uphill slope:

a) increases the take off distance more than the accelerate stop distance <-- Correct
b) decreases the accelerate stop distance only
c) decreases the take off distance only
d) increases the allowed take off mass

Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down slope is correct for a balanced take
off? Down slope

a) reduces V1 and reduces take off distance required (TODR) <-- Correct
b) Increases V1 and increases the take off distance required (TODR)
c) increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR)
d) reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR)

What is the effect of a negative runway slope?

a) V1 decreases <-- Correct

b) V1 increases
c) VR decreases
d) VR increases
 Take off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap
10 deg selected:

Runway limit: 5270 kg

Obstacle limit: 4630 kg
Estimated take off mass is 5000 kg

Considering a take-off with flaps at:

a) With 5 deg flap the clearance limit will increase and the field limit will decrease <-- Correct
b) With 15 deg flap both will increase
c) With 5 deg flap both will increase
d) With 15 deg flap the clearance limit will increase and the field limit will decrease

Less flaps means better climb gradient after getting airborne due to less drag but increases the
ground roll due to less lift.

Thus better climb gardient increases the obstacle limit and increased ground roll decreases the
runway limit.

For an aeroplane in Performance Class B the following factors must be applied in determining
the take off distance:

1.2 from dry grass

1.0 from wet pavement

Takeoff Field Length Requirements - SEP and MEP

a) When no stopway or clearway is available the take-off distance when multiplied by 1.25 must
not exceed TORA.

b) When a stopway and/or clearway is available the take-off distance must:

i) not exceed TORA

ii) when multiplied by 1.3, not exceed ASDA

iii) when multiplied by 1.15, not exceed TODA

c) If the runway surface is other than dry and paved the following factors must be used when
determining the take-off distance in a) or b) above:

Dry Grass (on firm soil) up to 20 cm. Long x 1.2

Wet Dry Grass (on firm soil) up to 20 cm. Long x 1.3

Paved Wet x 1.0

d) Take-off distance should be increased by 5% for each 1% upslope. No factorisation is permitted

for downslope.

NOTE: The same surface and slope correction factors should be used when calculating TOR or
ASD..
 For an aeroplane in Performance Class B the net take off flight path begins at a height of "50 ft"
and ends at a height of "1500 ft".

The maximum angle of bank permitted after take off below 50 feet for an aeroplane in
Performance Class B is "0 deg".

What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition?

a) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine
failure <-- Correct
b) For a balanced field length the required take off runway length always equals the available
runway length

The correct formula is:

a) VMCG < = VEF < V1 <-- Correct

b) V2 min < = VEF < = VMU
c) 1.05 VMCA < = VEF < = V1
d) 1.05 VMCG < VEF < = VR

a) VS < VMCA < V2 min <-- Correct

b) VR < VMCA < VLOF
c) VMU < = VMCA < V1
d) V2 min < VMCA < VMU

The minimum value of V2 must exceed air minimum control speed by "10%" (1.1 VMCA)

A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s)
must be maintainable after engine failure?

a) Straight flight <-- Correct

b) Straight flight and altitude
c) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
d) Altitude

Which of the following will decrease V1?

a) Inoperative anti-skid <-- Correct

b) Increased outside air temperature

The take off distance available is:

a) the length of the take off run available plus the length of the clearway available <-- Correct
b) the runway length plus half of the clearway

A BALANCED FIELD LENGTH is said to exist where: "The accelerate stop distance is equal to the
take off distance available"

Given:
RW17 touchdown elevation = 146 feet
TORA = 1400 m
ASDA = 1600 m
TODA = 1800 m

RW 35 touchdown elevation 34 feet

TORA = 1500 m
ASDA = 1700 m
TODA = 1900 m

The slope of RW 35 is: "2.28% up"

146-34 = 112 feet

1500m = 4920 feet

Gradient = 112/4920 x 100 = 2.276%

VMCG is determined during flight testing using aerodynamic controls "but no nose wheel
steering and no crosswind".

On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased:

a) by uphill slope <-- Correct

b) by headwind
c) by low outside air temperature
d) by a lower take off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1

Uphill slope = Slower acceleration. V1 will be reached later. Thus ASD increases.

Note: Slower acceleration outweighs the advantage of braking on an uphill slope

Headwind = V1 being an IAS will be reached sooner. Thus ASD Decreases.

Low OAT = More thrust. V1 will be reached sooner. Thus ASD Decreases.

Lower take-off mass = Higher acceleration. V1 will be reached sooner. Thus ASD Decreases.

Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take off?

a) High field elevation, distance obstacles in the climb out path, long runway and a high ambient
temperature <-- Correct
b) Low field elevation, close in obstacles in the climb out path, long runway and a high ambient
temperature
c) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb out path, low ambient temperature and short
runway
d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb out path, short runway and a low ambient
temperature

High ambient temperature and high elevation is a climb limiting condition whereas obstacles
ahead of the airfield is an obstacle limited condition.

A low flap setting for take-off improves the climb or obstacle limiting performance at the cost of
an increase in the runway distance.

Regarding the question low flap setting would rule out the shorter runways so option "c" and "d"
are out.

Option "b" mentions about close obstacles. For obstacles too close to the field, its better to get
airborne earlier (that would need more flaps). So "b" is out too.

Flap angle and MTOM

Which of the following speeds can be limited by the maximum tyre speed?

a) Lift off groundspeed <-- Correct

b) Lift off TAS

How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude? "VMCA decreases with increasing
pressure altitude"

High pressure altitude = Less thrust = Less asymmteric thrust = less control problems = less
VMCA

Which of the following light twins will get more control difficulties if the left engine stops when
airborne from the runway 36 and there is reported wind from 270/10 kt? "Clockwise rotation
propellers"

The following parameters positively affect the take off ground run:

1) decreasing take off mass

3) increasing density
5) increasing flap setting
8 ) decreasing pressure altitude

2) increasing take off mass

4) decreasing density
6) decreasing flap setting
7) increasing pressure altitude

1,3,5,8 Correct

All factors mentioned here affect takeoff ground run. They either increase it or decrease it.
However positively affecting means to decrease the ground run as that is something positive
whereas increasing the ground run is considered a negative thing.

What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on
required Take off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take off Mass (TOM)? "Decreased
TOD required and increased field length limited TOM"

The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane
with 5o, 15o and 25o flaps angles on take off, leads to the following values, with wind:

Flap angle: 5/15/25 deg

Runway limitation (kg): 66000/69500/71500
Second segment slope limitation: 72200/69000/61800
Wind corrections:
Head wind: +120 kg/kt
Tail wind: -360 kg/kt

Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on
brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:

a) 67700 kg/15 deg <-- Correct

b) 69000 kg/15 deg
c) 72200 kg/5 deg
d) 69700 kg/25 deg

Winds do not affect the climb limited take-off mass so wind correction is required only
for field length limit

Thus reducing 1800Kg from runway limited mass we have:

Runway Limits of 64200 / 67700 / 69700

2nd Segment Limits of 72200 / 69000 / 61800

To meet both the field length limit and climb limit our max takeoff weight will be the lowest value
for each flap configuration.

For flaps 5 takeoff our max take off weight will be 64200 Kg.

For flaps 15 takeoff our max take off weight will be 67700 Kg.

For flaps 25 takeoff our max take off weight will be 61800 Kg.

Thus the maximum mass on brake release with which we can take off is the highest of the above
three values.

It is 67700 and for that weight flaps required will be 15 deg.

Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?

a) the climb limited take off mass <-- Correct

b) the field limited take off mass
c) the obstacle limited take off mass
d) the take off run

If the flap setting is changed from 10 degrees to 20 degrees, V2 min will: "Decrease if not
limited by VMCA"

Due to decrease in stall speed.

The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:

a) 1.2 Vs <-- Correct

b) 1.3 V1
c) 1.2 VMCG
d) 1.05 VLOF
 The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:

a) 1.15 Vs for four engine turbo prop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-engine turbo prop
aeroplanes <-- Correct
b) 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes
c) 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes
d) None of the above

The take off safety speed V2 min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three
engines may not be less than:

a) 1.15 Vs <-- Correct

b) 1.2 Vs
c) 1.3 Vs
d) 1.2 Vs1

V2 MIN may not be less than:

a) 1.08 VSR for 4 engine turbo props and 1.13 VSR for 2 and 3 engined turbo props <-- Correct
b) 1.2 VS for all turbojets
c) 1.2 VSR for all turbo props and 1.15 VSR for all turbojets
d) 1.15 VS for all aeroplanes

the take off safety speed V2min for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three
engines may not be less than:

a) 1.08 VSR <-- Correct

b) 1.2 VSR
c) 1.13 VSR
d) VSR

The lowest take off safety speed (V2 min) is:

a) 1.13 VSR for two and three engine turbo propeller and turbojet aeroplanes <-- Correct
b) 1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes
c) 1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes
d) 1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo propeller aeroplanes

The following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min:

a) VSR, VMCA <-- Correct

b) VSO, VMCA

Takeoff Safety Speed V2

Putting in 16500 litres of fuel with an SG of 780 kg/m3, and writing 16500 kg of fuel on the load
sheet will result in:

a) TOD and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast <-- Correct
b) TOD increasing and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast
c) TOD and ASD remaining constant, if the calculated speeds are used
d) TOD and ASD increasing, if the calculated speeds are used
16500 litres with sp gravity of .780 is

16500 x 0.78 = 12870 Kg

Thus 12870 Kg of fuel is put and 16500 Kg is shown on paper.

So the all the calculations will be for a heavy weight whereas the aircraft will actually be light.

Thus actual TOD and ASD will be less and calculated V2 will be too fast, because calculations
were done for a higher weight.

Reference point zero refers to:

a) point where the aircraft reaches 35 ft <-- Correct

b) point where the aircraft reaches V2

Take off run required for a jet aircraft, with one engine inoperative is:

a) brake release point to midpoint between VLOF and 35 ft <-- Correct

b) the same as for all engines

CS 25 States:

If the take-off distance does not include a clearway then TORR = TODR, forcing a TODA limit.

If there is a clearway (for Class A aircraft) the TORR is the longest of:

• Ground run + Half the distance from VLOF to the 35ft screen height, following an engine failure
on a dry runway.

• Ground run + Airborne distance to 15ft, following an engine failure on a wet runway.

• All Engine Ground run x 1.15 + Half the airborne distance to 35ft.

Note: TORR all engines and engine out with dry V1 includes half the airborne distance to 35ft.

The definition of V3 is: "The aircraft speed on all engines as it passes through the screen
height"

If the take off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would:

a) have no effect on the maximum mass for take off <-- Correct
b) decrease the maximum mass for take off
c) increase the required take off distance

If you see the tyre speed limit graph, there is correction for wind but not for slope.

An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that
runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take off mass, the take off distance available
cannot be greater than: "4500m"

TODA: It is TORA + Clearway up to a maximum of one and a half times the length of TORA. It is
described as either the distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which the
aeroplane can commence its take-off run to the nearest obstacle in the direction of take-off
projecting above the surface of the aerodrome and capable of affecting the safety of the
aeroplane or one and one half times the take-off run available, whichever is the less.

Maximum TODA = 1.5 x TORA (an EU OPS limit)

The maximum clearway that can be used is limited to 50% of the TORA making the TODA
150% of the TORA.

Both ICAO (Annex 14 Volume 1 para 3.5.2) and JAR OPS (1.490 (b)(2)) limit the maximum
clearway to 50% of TORA. Many AFMs have a further limitation on the amount of clearway that
can be used to prevent the take-off calculation becoming TORA limited.

At the same aircraft mass if a higher V1 was used then

a) TODR will decrease and ASDR increase <-- Correct

b) TODR will be unaffected and ASDR will increase
c) TODR and ASDR will increase
d) TODR will increase and ASDR decrease

If I have a range of V1's available and I choose the lowest one of say 100kts and my VR is 110 kts
and being in the GO situation I will have to continue the acceleration with an engine out to VR ,
VLOF and up to the screen height at 35ft. This will give me the TODR for the low V1. Now lets say
I use the max V1 of 105kts. In the GO situation I now only have to make up 5kts with an engine
out before I reach VR. I've retained all my engines for a longer period which shortens the TODR.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=2465)

During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take off runs from
brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at
which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take off surface are:

- 1747 m all engines operating

- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognised at V1, the other factors remaining
unchanged.

Considering both possibilities to determine the take off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?

a) 2009 m <-- Correct

b) 2243 m
c) 2096 m
d) 1950 m

All engine distance is factored so it is 1747 x 1.15 = 2009

Engine Fail Distance is unfactored so it remains 1950.

Considering both possibilities to determine the take off run (TOR), the correct distance will be the
higher of these figures i.e. 2009m

In the engine failure case, the distances used are gross distances (the distances used by the
average aircraft without additional safety factors).

Thus if an engine does fail at VEF and the decision to go is made at V1 there is a 50:50 chance of
making the screen height at 35ft (it may be above that or may be below). Similarly, if the
decision is made to stop then there is a 50:50 chance of stopping by the end of the ASDA.
Why safety factor are not applied is because it is extremely unlikely that engine will fail exactly at
VEF on a field length limiting runway.

The failure at this precise time is assessed as having a probability of less than 1:1,000,000

If an event is extremely unlikely in itself then the difference of net and gross reduces to zero.

So no further safety factors are used.

Since the probability of an all engines takeoff is very high, there is a safety factor involved.

The net distance to 35 ft is 1.15 times the gross distance.

If we compare the distances for engine out takeoff on dry and wet runways and all engine
takeoff, then obvioulsy the gross all engines distance to 35ft will be shorter than the other two.

However after applying the safety factor of 1.15, net distance of an all engine takeoff might
actually be longer and therefore limiting.

With regard to a take off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?

a) The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties <-- Correct
b) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the
runway length
c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used

During aircraft certification, the value of VMCG is found with nose wheel steering inoperative.
This is because:

a) VMCG must be valid in both wet and dry conditions <-- Correct
b) nose wheel steering does not affect VMCG
c) nose wheel steering does not work after an engine failure
d) the aircraft may be operated even if the nose wheel steering in inoperative

Nose wheel steering will give more control, but if it is skidding on a wet runway then it wont.
Since VMC speeds are based on worst case scenarios, nose wheel steering is not used when
determining the VMCG. Only rudder is used.

Reduced take off thrust should normally not be used when:

a) the runway is contaminated <-- Correct

b) the runway is wet
c) obstacles are present close to the end of the runway

The maximum tyre speed limits:

a) VLOF in terms of ground speed <-- Correct

b) V1 in kt ground speed
c) V1 in kt TAS
d) VR or VMU if this is lower than VR

Tyre speed will build up as long as wheels are in contact with ground, till VLOF. Stopping case
reduces tyre speed and involves brake energy (VMBE).
 When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:

a) the actual take off mass equals the field length limited take off mass <-- Correct
b) the balanced take off distance equals 115% of the all engine takeoff distance
c) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point
d) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1

Apart from ambient conditions, field lenght limited takeoff mass is derived from:

- TODA
- TORA
- ASDA

The most restrictive out of these three distances gives the field lenght limit TOM.

So other than TODA even if we are TORA or ASDA limited, the actual TOM will be equal to field
length limit TOM

If the field length limited takeoff mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length
technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow:

a) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1 <-- Correct
b) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1
c) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1
d) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1

The takeoff distance increases due to additional clearway but due to increase in mass V1 has to
be reduced to make some room for stopping.

What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take off?

a) The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest <-- Correct
b) The take off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest
c) The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest
d) The climb limited take off mass is the highest

A balanced V1 is where TODR = ASDR, a balanced field is where TODA=ASDA. If ASDR=ASDA and
TODR=TODA then we have the same result. If we continue to use the balanced V1 when the TOM
is restricted by CLTOM which means we are taking off at less than the FLLTOM then the safety
margin will be the safest for the GO case and the STOP case.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=3341)

Balanced V1 is selected:

a) if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take off distance <-- Correct
b) for a runway length limited take off with a stop way to give the highest mass
c) for a runway length limited take off with a clearway to give the highest mass

It is recommended that the maximum crosswind for takeoff on a contaminated runway surface
is "10 kts"

If the value of V1 is less than Vmcg:

a) V1 is made equal to Vmcg <-- Correct

b) Vmcg is made equal to V1

Can take off be scheduled if V1 < VMCG?

a) No <-- Correct
b) Only if VMCG is decreased to equal V1
c) Yes
d) Only if V1 is decreased to equal VMCG

For lower TOM a range of decision speeds exists that encompasses the VMCG. Thus a higher
speed can be selected so that V1 becomes equal to or more than VMCG.

For higher TOM the Max V1 speed might be below the VMCG so the range of decision speeds will
not encompass VMCG. The only way is to reduce the TOM. This will widen out the range of
decision speeds to eventually include VMCG.

If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, "then V1 must be increased to
at least the value of VMCG"

Which factors might cause V2 to be limited by VMCA?

1) large flap angles

3) high air pressure
6) low aircraft weights

2) small flap angles

4) low air pressure
5) high aircraft weights

1,3 and 6 Correct

VR must be:

a) greater than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1 <-- Correct
b) between 1.05 VMCA and V1
c) greater than VMCA and greater than 1.1 V1
d) no greater than 0.95 VMU

Can the length of a stop way be added to the runway length to determine the take off distance
available?

a) No <-- Correct
b) Yes, but the stop way must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane
c) No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway
d) Yes, but the stop way must have the same width as the runway

Which of the following statements is correct?

a) A stop way means an area beyond the take off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an
aborted take off<--Correct
b) If a clearway or a stop way is used, the lift off point must be attainable at least at the end of
the permanent runway surface
c) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take off
d) An under-run is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take off

Take off run is defined as the: "horizontal distance along the take off path from the start of the
take off to a point equidistance between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at
which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take off surface"

VR for a jet aircraft must be faster than the greater of "1.05 Vmca and V1"

The take off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
"failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off distance"

correct statements about reduced thrust take off:

- Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take off mass is less than the field length limited
take off mass.
- It should not be used when anti skid is unserviceable.
- It should not be used when wind shear is reported on the take off path.

The climb limited take off mass can be increased by: "a lower flap setting for take off and
selecting a higher V2"

The two most important parameters to determine the value of VMCG are "Engine thrust" and
"Rudder Deflection"

A reduction in air density causes:

a) An increase in take off distance <-- Correct

b) A decrease in CL

This CL cant be Climb Limit (weight). Its probably Coefficient of Lift.

Increase in weight increases V1.

An aerodrome has a clearway of 500m and a stop way of 200m. If the stop way is extended to
500m the effect will be: "the maximum take off mass will increase and V1 will increase"

If the weight during take off was higher than expected which speed would be noticeable as
being higher than expected?

a) Vlof <-- Correct

b) V1
c) Vr
d) V2
 If the aircraft rotates earlier and higher than expected what is the likely reason?

2) The stabiliser trim setting has been miscalculated

4) The centre of gravity is too far aft

1) The rotate speed, VR, has been miscalculated

3) The centre of gravity is too far forward
5) The decision speed V1, has been miscalculated

a) 2 or 4 <-- Correct
b) 1, 2 or 4

Maximum abandonment speed is the maximum speed from which the aircraft can:

a) Safely abandon the take off in the event of an engine failure or with all engines operating <--
Correct
b) Safely continue or abandon take off in the event of an engine failure

Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of
the 3rd climb segment?

a) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take off thrust may be
applied <-- Correct
b) The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines
operating

When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance /
climb performance:

a) decreases/remains constant <-- Correct

b) decreases/decreases
c) increases/increases
d) remains constant/remains constant

Our obstacle clearance and climb performance calculations are always based on the assumption
that the critical engine will be seen to fail at V1. This means that we must accelerate from V1 to
V2 with one engine out. When we reduce V1 for a wet runway we do not reduce V2. This means
that we need to do a greater part of our acceleration to V2 with one engine out. This means that
decreasing V1 increases the take-off distance to reach screen height. This in turn means that we
will be lower when we fly over any obstacles in the climb out. So reducing V1 for a wet runway
will reduce our obstacle clearance.

The regulations stipulate a screen height of 35ft at the end of TODA. Where the V1 is reduced
because of a wet runway and accepting the engine failure at a lower speed, typically 8-18 kts
slower, the reduced acceleration means on a limiting take-off you will be unable to achieve 35ft.
To prevent performance penalties the regulations reduce the screen height to 15 ft. If this wasn't
allowed then for every wet runway take-off we would have to reduce the TOM.

However climb performance depends on thrust, drag and weight. None of these are affected by
the value of V1. (In effect we can say that the aeroplane is no longer affected by the runway
conditions after it has lifted off) So reducing V1 for a wet runway will not affect climb
performance.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=12753)
 In a turbojet aircraft, if an engine fails in the second segment of the climb at a speed of V2 +
10 kts the correct action would be to: "Maintain V2 + 10 kts"

The requirements with regard to take off flight path and the climb segments are only specified
for:

a) the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engined aeroplane <-- Correct

b) 2 engined aeroplane
c) the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane
d) the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane

Bank angle is limited to 15 deg below 400ft and 25 deg thereafter.

Turns in the net take-off flight path are permitted but avoided whenever possible. No turns may
be made below the height of 50ft or half a wingspan, whichever greater. Bank angle is limited to
15 deg below 400ft and 25 deg thereafter. Turning reduces the gradient and increases the stalling
speed. Turns at 25 deg bank angle usually demand an allowance of 10kt on top of minimum
speed for 15 deg bank.

Increasing the V2 speed has the effect of increasing the TODR and increasing the climb
gradient for a given TOM.

Requirements for the third segment of climb are: "level acceleration with an equivalent
gradient of 1.2%"

Climb Segments

Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:

Thrust = 50000 Newton/Engine

g = 10 m/s2
Drag = 72569 N
Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%
SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust – Drag)/Weight

The maximum take-off mass under second segment conditions is?

a) 101596 kg <-- Correct

SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust – Drag)/Weight

or
Weight = Thrust - Drag/ Sin (angle of climb)

Put in the values and remember to put thrust for 2 engines value as we have to consider one
engine out for the second segment calculations.

Weight = 100,000 - 72569 / 2.7%

Weight = 27431/.027

Weight = 1015962 Newtons

Weight is the force on an object due to gravity and is therefore measured in Newtons.

Weight = m x g
so
Mass = weight/g = 1015962/10 = 101596 Kg

The minimum climb gradient required on the second flight path segment after the take off of a
jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:

1) Gear up
4) Wing flaps in take off position
6) (n-1) engines at the take off thrust
9) Speed over the path equal to V2

2) Gear down
3) Wing flaps retracted
5) N engines at the take off thrust
7) Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt
8 ) Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS
10) At a height of 35 ft above the runway

a) 1, 4, 6, 9 <-- correct
b) 1, 5, 8, 10
c) 2, 3, 6, 9
d) 1, 4, 5, 10

The diminishment to be applied to the gross gradient to obtain the net gradient for a twin
engined Class A aeroplane is: "0.8%"

• 0.8% for a twin engine aircraft.

• 0.9% for a three engine aircraft.
• 1.0% for a four engine aircraft.

When comparing Vx to Vy:

a) Vy will always be greater than or equal to Vx <-- Correct

b) Vy will always be greater than Vx

Climb Performance

A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition (assuming IAS is
constant):

a) has no effect on rate of climb <-- Correct

b) improves angle and rate of climb
c) does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb
d) decreases angle and rate of climb

With increasing altitude, the rate of climb: "decreases because power available decreases and power
required increases"
 The rate of climb:

a) Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100 <-- Correct

The climb gradient is defined as the ratio of:

a) The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage <-- Correct
b) The increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage
c) True airspeed to rate of climb
d) Rate of climb to true airspeed

Equations below expresses approximately the un-accelerated percentage climb gradient for small
climb angles:

Climb Gradient = [(Thrust - Drag)/Weight] x 100

Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb? "Weight,
drag and thrust"

For a given aircraft mass, the climb gradient: "decreases with increasing flap angle and increasing
temperature"

In un-accelerated climb thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the
flight path direction.

What will happen to VX and VY if the landing gear is extended? "VX and VY decrease"

Increase in the profile drag will shift the drag curve to the left.

If the aircraft mass increases, how does the (i) rate of climb, and (ii) rate of climb speed change?

a) decrease; increase

Rate of Climb = (Power Available - Power Required) / Weight

Climb Performance

Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy: "Both will increase"

Compared to Vx and Vy in clean configuration, Vx and Vy in configuration with flaps extended will be:
"Lower"
Profile drag due to flaps shift the drag curve towards left

For a piston engine aircraft the service ceiling corresponds to: "The altitude at which the aircraft is
capable of a climb rate of 100 feet per minute"

The absolute ceiling: "is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb is zero"

On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the
minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt. The best
rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed:

a) equal to 95 kts <-- Correct

b) < 95 kts
c) is between 95 and 125 kts
d) equal to 125 kts

The examiner is trying to tell you something by specifying a powerful aircraft with VP propellers. For this
aircraft In the lower speed ranges you would expect the THP available to be a nearly flat line, although I
admit a constant speed prop would give a flatter trace. If you draw THP available as constant over this
range and superimpose the power required curve you will see that the maximum power surplus occurs
at minimum power speed, Vimp. You have been given this as 95kt.

My whole argument relies on having THP available as roughly constant at these speeds, which is a
special case. It would not necessarily apply in the real world or to a fixed pitch prop. The shape of the
THP available curve (assuming constant EHP) depends on propeller efficiency versus TAS and on your
ordinary bugsmasher rises rapidly from zero TAS and then falls off again

This speed is now your best rate of climb speed, Vy. Your best angle of climb speed, Vx, is where you
have maximum excess thrust over drag and because props give maximum thrust at very low speed to
find Vx you would fly as slowly as possible - minimum control speed is usually quoted

Source: (http://www.pprune.org/professional-pilo ... ost5623939)

Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:

a) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed <-- Correct
b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient
c) The speed for minimum drag
d) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle

Max endurance speed for a prop is Vmp. As quoted by the authority, it is the best rate of climb speed
(Vy) for a prop.

What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed
(IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively? "Maximum range speed increases and
maximum climb angle speed stays constant"
 Climbing to cruise altitude with a head wind will:

a) decrease ground distance covered to climb <-- Correct

b) decreased time to climb

Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:

a) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb <-- Correct
b) decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb
c) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX
d) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY

The only way we can accelerate in the climb at a constant power setting is to lower the nose. The initial
effect then is for the ROC and angle of climb to decrease. Subsequent effects would be an increase in
the angle of climb if the initial speed was below Vx and an increase in ROC if the initial speed was below
Vy. Its the initial effect that the examiner is looking for.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=3549)

For a given power setting in the climb, if the speed is increased:

a) the ROC will increase if the speed is below Vy <-- Correct

b) the ROC will decrease if the speed is below Vy
c) the gradient of climb will increase if the speed is above Vx
d) the gradient of climb will decrease if the speed is below Vx

Speed is increased from which point?

From a point below Vy -- Speed increase towards Vy -- ROC Increases uptil Vy -- After crossing Vy the
ROC will start decreasing. (option "b" is out).

From a point below Vx -- Speed increase towards Vx -- Climb gradient increases uptil Vx -- After crossing
Vx the climb gradient will start decreasing (option "c" and "d" are out).

An aircraft is climbing at VX. If the speed is increased, maintaining the power setting:

a) the climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb increase <-- Correct
b) the climb gradient will decrease and the rate of climb decrease

A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed, no wind, this climb
gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:

CLimb gradient x TAS = Rate of Climb

3.3 x 100 = 330 ft/min

On a segment of the take off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in
order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is
2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass,
at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient.

a) 118455 kg <-- Correct

b) 106425 kg
c) 102150 kg
d) 121310 kg

Sine of the climb angle = Thrust-Drag /Weight

i.e. Sine of the climb angle varies inversely with mass.

A linear relationship can be used.

Reduction of climb angle (2.6/2.8 = 0.928) will increase the weight limit (2.8/2.6 = 1.077)

110,000 kg x 1.077 = 118,470kg.

Closest option is 118455 Kg.

An aircraft with a mass of 110000 kg is capable of maintaining a grad of 2.6%. With all the
atmospheric variables remaining the same, with what mass would it be able to achieve a gradient of
2.4?

a) 119167 kg <-- Correct

Same as above except that the question does not mention the fact that "sine of the climb angle varies
inversely with mass".

110000kg x (2.6/2.4) = 119167kg.

In the climb an aircraft has a thrust to weight ratio of 1:4 and a lift to drag ratio of 12:1. While
ignoring the slight difference between lift and weight in the climb, the climb gradient will be:

Answer: 16.7%

Solution:

Sine of Climb angle = Thrust - Drag / Weight

For small angles Adjacent is nearly the same as Hypotenuse and Opposite/Adjacent = Sin relation.

So we get an approximate formula for climb gradient, which is:

Climb Gradient = Thrust - Drag / Weight

Just put in the values.

L/D is 12/1. Considering lift almost equal to weight. Weight = 12 and Drag = 1

Thrust to Weight ration is 1:4

If weight is 12 then Thrust is 12 x 1/4 = 3

Climb Gradient = 3-1/12 = 1/6 = 16 = 0.166

Climb Gradient % is 0.166 x 100 = 16.66%

Still air gradient of climb: 3.8%, TAS: 100 kts, GS: 130 kts. The wind effective climb gradient is:

a) 2.9% <-- Correct

b) 4.9%
c) 4.2%
d) 3.8%

The climb gradient in aerodynamic terms is considered in the air mass and is therefore not affected by
wind. It is an air gradient. If the gradient is related to ground distance a headwind will increase the flight
path climb gradient whereas a tailwind will decrease it. In this case the gradient should be referred to as
the Flight Path Angle.

(Refer to figure 032_8.4)Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane.
Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for FLAPS DOWN compared to CLEAN configuration?

Figure A is Correct

Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. In which direction does the
curve for FLAPS DOWN move when compared to the CLEAN configuration curve?

a) Left and Down <-- Correct

b) Left and horizontally
c) Right and Up
d) Left and Up

Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?

a) The climb limited take off mass decreases with increasing OAT <-- Correct
b) 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass
c) On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited
d) The climb limited take off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb

An aircraft with a climb gradient of 3.3%, flying at an IAS of 85 kts. At a pressure ALT of 8500 ft with a
temperature of +15 deg C will have a ROC of:

a) 334 ft/min <-- Correct

b) 284 ft/min
c) 623 ft/min
d) 1117 ft/min
Convert IAS into TAS

ROC = TAS x Gradient = 100 x 3.3

Multiply IAS of 85 x 3.3 and you get into the trap set at option (b)

A four jet engined aeroplane (mass = 150000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating.
The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75000 Newtons. The gradient climb is: (given:
g=10m/s?):

Answer: 12.86%

Solution:

Climg gradient = Thrust - Drag / Weight

= (75000 x 4) - Drag / Weight

Weight = m x g = 150,000 x 10 = 150,000,0

L/D = 14 so Drag = L/14

For small angles Lift is almost equal to Weight

So Drag = 150,000,0/14 = 107143

Climb gradient = 300,000 - 107143 / 150,000,0 = 0.128

Climb gradient % = 0.128 x 100 = 12.8%

If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is:

a) lower <-- Correct

b) higher
c) unchanged
d) only affected by the aeroplane gross mass

The Crossosver Altitude is the altitude at which a specified CAS and Mach value represent the same TAS
value.

The curves for constant CAS and constant Mach intersect at this point. Above this altitude the Mach
number is used to reference speeds.

CLimb at constant CAS, TAS increases.

CLimb at constant Mach, TAS decreass.

For M0.74 in the climb the cross over altitude will occur at a lower altitude if the IAS/CAS is increased
from 280 to 290.

Use this Online Calculator to compute the cross over altitude with M0.74 against 280 and 290 kts CAS
and see the results.
 In a climb, at a constant IAS/Mach No. 300 kts/0.78 M., what happens at the change over point
(29500 ft, ISA)?

a) Find that rate of climb would start to increase <-- Correct

b) Accelerate from the IAS to the Mach number, and therefore rate of climb will decrease
c) No change in rate of climb since TAS remains constant
d) Find that rate of climb would start to decrease

You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29200 ft
(OAT = ISA)?

a) The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS climb is replaced by the constant Mach climb <--
Correct
b) During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero
c) The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced
as compared to constant IAS
d) No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA
temperature TAS = 460 kt)

To change from a constant IAS climb to a constant Mach climb you must pitch up at the crossover
altitude to lock on to the Mach no. This gives a temporary increase in the rate of climb, 20 or so seconds
later the ROC will start to decrease again because TAS decreases when flying at a constant Mach
number.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=4320)

A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be
reached?

a) The Maximum operating Mach number <-- Correct

b) The Stalling speed
c) The Minimum control speed air
d) The Mach limit for the Mach trim system

What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?

a) The lift co-efficient increases <-- Correct

b) The '1.3G' altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately
c) The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems
d) IAS stays constant so there will be no problems

Lift = 1/2 Rho V(square) x CL x S

1/2 Rho V(square) is the dynamic pressure displayed as IAS.

At a constant IAS climb Rho decreases and V (TAS) increases.

Thus dynamic pressure remains constant and there is no change in CL.

At a constant Mach climb apart from Rho that was already decreasing, TAS starts decreasing as well.

Thus dynamic pressure decreases.

To maintain lift angle of attack needs to be increased, meaning CL increases.

 A head wind will:

a) increase the climb flight path angle <-- Correct

b) increase the angle of climb

A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle/the
pitch angle change?

a) Reduce/decrease <-- Correct

b) Reduce/remain constant
c) Remain constant/decrease
d) Remain constant/become larger

Increase in altitude = decrease in thrust available = pitch down to maintai constant IAS = reduced climb
angle

(Refer to figure 032_8-9)What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbo jet aeroplane
with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of 75000 kg? Using the following:G = 10 m/s2 1 kt = 100
ft/min SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag)/Weight

Answer: +1267 ft/min

Solution:

Rate of Climb = Gradient x TAS

From the figure:

TAS = 190

Gradient = (Thrust-Drag)/Weight

Max rate of climb is with max difference between thrust available and thrust required.

From the figure Thrust available for all engines = 240

With one engine out thrust available = 240-80 = 160

Thrust required = 110

Weight = m x g = 750000

gradient = 160,000 - 110,000 / 750,000 = 0.066

ROC = gradient x TAS = 0.066 x 190 = 12.66

given 1kt = 100 ft/min

ROC = 12.66 x 100 = 1267 ft/min

If the conversion factor is not given then before multiplying TAS with gradient we need to convert TAS
from nm/hr to ft/min i.e.

190/60 x 6080 = 19253

19253 x 0.066 = 1270 ft/min

An aircraft is climbing in a standard atmosphere above the tropopause at a constant Mach number:

a) the IAS decreases and TAS remain constant <-- Correct

b) the IAS and TAS remain constant
c) the IAS decreases and TAS decreases
d) the IAS remains constant and TAS increases

TAS = 39 x M x Square root of Temperature in Kelvin

Above Tropopause, temperature remains constant. So at constant Mach number TAS remains constant.

An aircraft is climbing at a constant IAS, below the Mach limit. As height increases: "drag remains
constant, but the climb gradient decreases"

(Refer to CAP 698 figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass.
OAT: ISA
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
Factored runway length: 2000 ft
Obstacle height: 50 ft

a) 2900 lbs
b) 3650 lbs
c) 3240 lbs <-- Correct
d) 3000 lbs

The max weight for the required performance has to comply with the regulatory factors.

Runway length given in the question is already factored.

Thus if the right side of the graph is entered with the factored runway length of 2000 then the weight
will be in accordance with regulatory factors.

So enter the right side of teh graph with 2000 feet.

Its all about safety:

Factored Runway "Available" will be "Less".

Factored Runway "Required" will be "More".

e.g. In Ref to the above question:

Factored Runway = 2000 feet

Un-factored (actual) Runway = 2000 x 1.15 = 2300 feet.

If the question gave us the un-factored (actual) runway length (2300) then we would apply the factor
(2300/1.15) to make the available runway less for safety so that our weight complies with the regulatory
factors.

The other side of the coin is the distance required.

If the question was about the required distance, then we would increase the distance derived from the
right side of the graph by multiplying it by 1.15.

Note: MRJT graphs have the regulatory factors built in, so the application of regulatory factors applies to
SEP and MEP graphs

(Refer to figure 2.1) An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced
in the diagram. Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runway.
Actual conditions are:
Pressure Altitude: 1500 ft
Outside Temperature: +18 deg C
Wind component: 4 knots tailwind
For a take-off mass of 1270 kg the take-offdistance will be?

a) 440 m
b) 615 m
c) 525 m <-- Correct
d) 415 m

When considering any of these type of questions look for the word Required

If it says calculate the "Distance Required", only then use the regulatory factors.

Since in this question it only asks for "Takeoff Distance",it will be what comes out on the right side of the
graph (without applying any factors).

(Refer to CAP 698 figure 2.2) With regard to the SOCATA TB 20 take-off performance chart, determine
the maximum allowed take off weight, Given:

OAT: ISA
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft
Weight: 2640 lbs
Headwind Component: 5 kt
Flaps: 10 deg
Runway: 2000 ft length; tarred and
dry Obstacle Height: 50 ft

a) > 3500 lbs

b) 2860 lbs <-- Correct
c) 2400 lbs
d) 3240 lbs
You'll enter the right side of the graph after factoring the runway with 1.15 (2000/1.15) since in the
question it is unfactored.

b) is the closest answer. Beware of option (a) as it indicates > 3500.

(Refer to CAP 698 - figure 2-4)Accounting for the following, what would be the minimum required
head wind component for landing? Use the attached chart:
Factored landing distance: 1300 ft
Temperature at MSL: ISA
Landing mass: 3200 lbs

a) 10 kts <-- Correct

b) 5 kts

Graphical output is 10. If wind is less than 10 knots then the factored distance 0f 1300 is exceeded.

(For this question use CAP 698 figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero in the
following conditions:
OAT at take off: ISA
Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3300lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 5 kts tailwind

a) 16665 ft <-- Correct

b) 18073 ft
c) 18909 ft
d) 20109 ft

Graph will give the climb gradient and rate of climb

ROC comes out around 1080 ft/min

Rate of climb can also be calculated by multiplying climb gradient with TAS

Time to climb will be Height/Rate of climb

Height as given in the question is 1500 feet above ref zero.

Height = 1500-50 = 1450

So 1450/1080 = 1.342

Time calculated above will come in minutes. Convert it in hrs by dividing by 60.

1.342/60 = 0.0223

Distance = Velocity x Time

Multiply time with TAS to get air distance.

TAS will have to be derived from the flight computer. It comes out around 108.
So 108 x 0.0223 = 2.416 air miles

Convert Air distance to Ground distance by:

Air Distance/TAS x Ground Speed

Ground speed = 108 + 5 =113

=0.0223 x 113 = 2.53 ground nautical miles

or convert it into feet:

2.53 x 6080 = 15383 feet.

The closest option is 16665 ft which is marked correct.

If for aeroplane in Performance Class B the intended take-off flight path requires track changes of
more than 15 deg, with the pilot unable to maintain visual navigation accuracy , the clearance of
obstacles within "900m" of track need be considered.

Click Here for Details

Following a take off limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. It will
clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5000m from the 50 ft point
with an obstacle clearance margin of:

a) 105 m <- Correct

b) 90 m

The important point in this simple problem is to cater for the 50 ft point. If you dont you'll end up with
the wrong answer of 90m which is present in the options.

The obstacle is at 5000m or 16400 feet from the 50 ft point and is 160m or 525 ft high.

5% gradient means the aircraft is climbing 5 feet for 100 feet horizontal distance.

Therefore for 16400 ft horizontal distance it will be at a height of:

5/100 x 16400 = 820

Since the starting point was at 50 ft above the ground the correct aircraft height will be 820+50 = 870
feet

The difference between aircraft at 870 feet and obstacle at 525 feet is 345 ft or 105m.

Regarding the obstacle limited take off mass, which of the following statements is correct?

a) A take off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition <-- Correct
b) Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass
b) The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take off mass
c) The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10 deg
 An operator shall ensure that the net take off flight path clears all obstacles. The half width of the
obstacle corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:

a) 90m + 0.125D <-- Correct

b) -90m + 1.125D
c) 90m + D/0 125
d) 0.125 D

Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

a) The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum <-- Correct
b) V2
c) V2 + 10 kt
d) The speed for maximum rate of climb

Graph of "Drag against Speed"

Range speed VMR for the jet is found at the tangent to the drag curve.

The tangent from the origin makes contact at a point ahead of VMD.

Graph of "Power against Speed"

Range speed for the prop is found at the tangent to the power curve.

The bottom of the power curve is Vmp.

The tangent from the origin makes contact at the point of VMD.

For Props: Thats the point for best range.

For Jets: Thats the point for best endurance.

Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston
engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact
(A) determines the speed of "Maximum Specific Range"

The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane,
determines the speed for: "maximum endurance"

The tangent from the origin to the power required curve for a jet aircraft gives:
a) VMD <-- Correct
b) the minimum power speed

The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which "power required" is minimum:

a) is always lower than the minimum drag speed <-- Correct

b) is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the
descent
c) is always higher than the minimum drag speed
d) is the same as the minimum drag speed

The point at the bottom of the curve is Vmp. The velocity for minimum power. It is the minimum speed
for straight and level flight. The tangent to the curve is Vmd. So Vmp is less than Vmd. Since it is
proportional to Vmd so it is always less.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=7702)

The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve:

a) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum <-- Correct
b) is the maximum drag speed
c) is the point where drag coefficient is a minimum
d) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum

The bottom of the thrust required curve, which is the drag curve, is Vmd and where CL:CD is at a
maximum.

The tangent to the thrust required curve,drag curve, is 1.32 Vmd which is max range speed for a jet.

The bottom of the power curve is Vmp.

The tangent to the power curve is Vmd and where CL:CD is at a maximum and the point where the prop
aircraft flies for max range.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=5674)

The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point for:

a) minimum drag <-- Correct

b) maximum endurance
c) maximum specific range
d) minimum specific range

Practically thats the speed for max endurance too though theoretically one comes before the other.
Unfair choice for such a small difference.

How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run? "The thrust decreases slightly while
the aeroplane speed builds up"
 When does THRUST = DRAG?

a) Flying level at a constant IAS <-- Correct

b) Climbing at a constant IAS
c) Decreasing at a constant IAS
d) All of the above

On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack
and configuration the power required:

"Increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage"

With increase in altitude Thrust decreases and TAS increases. Drag remains the same.

Power Required = Drag x TAS

Power Avaialble = Thrust x TAS

Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve with
increasing altitude (H1<H2)?

The curve moves up and to the right.

(Refer to figure 032_8-1)Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows
the movement of the THRUST REQUIRED CURVE? Mass M1 is higher than mass M2.

As speed is reduced from Vmd to Vmp: "power required decreases, drag increases"

In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)?

a) In level flight with constant IAS <-- Correct

b) In a descent with constant TAS
c) In accelerated level flight
d) In a climb with constant IAS

The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at:

a) VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration) <-- Correct

b) VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)

The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is greatest at "THE
LOWEST ACHIEVABLE SPEED IN A GIVEN CONFIGURATION"

When flying an aircraft on the back of the drag curve, maintaining a slower speed (but still faster than
VS) would require:

a) more thrust <-- Correct

b) more flap
c) less thrust due to less parasite drag
d) no change

Maximum Horizontal Speed:

Q.1. The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:

a) The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag <-- Marked Correct
b) The thrust is equal to the maximum drag
c) The thrust is equal to minimum drag
d) The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed

Q.2. With which conditions would the aircraft need to be flown, in order to achieve maximum speed in
horizontal flight?

a) Thrust set for minimum drag

b) Best lift - drag ratio
c) Maximum thrust and maximum drag <-- Marked Correct
d) Maximum thrust and minimum drag

Go for the option that mentions "Total Drag". If "Total Drag" is not mentioned then select the option that
says "Maximum Drag".

See the discussion about this ambiguity here

When flying the Backside of Thrust curve means:

a) a lower airspeed requires more thrust <-- Correct

b) the thrust required is independent of the airspeed
c) a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane
d) a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased

The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is greatest at:

a) the lowest achievable speed in a given configuration <-- Correct

b) VS1

VS1 is the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed with the aeroplane in a configuration
appropriate to the case under consideration.

What condition is found at the intersection of the thrust available and the drag curve?
a) Un-accelerated level flight <-- Correct
b) Un-accelerated flight in a climb

For a piston-engined aeroplane at a constant altitude, angle of attack and configuration, an increased
weight will require: "more power and more speed"

More weight = more lift = more induced drag = drag curve shifts to the right = more speed.

Power Required = Drag x TAS. More drag = More power.

Profile drag is:

a) directly proportional to the square of the EAS <-- Correct

b) directly proportional to the square root of the EAS
c) inversely proportional to the square root of the EAS
d) inversely proportional to the square of the EAS

Be careful its "Square" not "Square Root"

All other factors being equal minimum drag speed is

a) proportional to weight <-- Correct

b) a function of pressure altitude
c) a function of density altitude
d) proportional to temperature

The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM:

a) increases in proportion to the airspeed <-- Correct

b) is inversely proportional to the airspeed
c) does not change with changing altitude
d) is independent of the airspeed

Gas Turbine Engines and Jet Thrust

The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane:
"in un-accelerated level flight"

Region of REVERSED COMMAND means: "a lower airspeed requires more thrust"

Which of the following variables will not affect the shape or position of the drag vs. IAS curve, for
speeds below Mcrit:

a) altitude <-- Correct

b) configuration
c) weight
d) aspect ratio
 In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane only depends on: "altitude,
speed, mass and fuel on board"

What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?

a) No affect <-- Correct

b) Tailwind only effects holding speed
c) The IAS will be increased
d) The IAS will be decreased

Optimum altitude can be defined as: "the altitude at which an aeroplane attains the maximum
specific air range"

Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant:
"both will increase with increasing altitude"

To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be "higher compared
to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind"

Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?

a) The traffic load can be limited by the desired range <-- Correct
b) The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity

Which of the following statements is true regarding the performance of an aeroplane in level flight?

a) The maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum
power available from the engine <-- Correct
b) The maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the minimum power required equals the
power available from the engine
c) The maximum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the minimum power
available from the engine
d) The minimum level flight speed will be obtained when the power required equals the maximum
power available from the engine

For maximum speed power available should be maximum, so "b" and "c" is out.

For minimum speed power available cannot be maximum, so "d" is out.

The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:

a) The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane <-- Correct

b) The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane
c) The maximum range for a jet aeroplane
d) The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane

max endurance for a prop is Vmp

max range for a jet is 1.32 Vmd
max angle of climb for a prop is 1.1 Vs

A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In
order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:

a) the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift/drag ratio <-- Correct
b) the long range speed
c) the speed corresponding to the minimum value of lift/drag ratio
d) the speed at the maximum lift

Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:

a) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed <-- Correct
b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient
c) The speed for minimum drag
d) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle

Max endurance speed for a prop is Vmp. As quoted by the authority, it is the best rate of climb speed
(Vy) for a prop.

The best EAST/Drag ratio is approximately: "1.32 VMD"

Typo: Its TAS/Drag

The long range cruise speed is a speed that gives: "gives 99% of best cruise range, with an increase
in IAS".

The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75%. The
75% power setting in relation to the 65% results in:

a) an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance <-- Correct

b) an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour

Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the Buffet Onset Boundary
graph?

a) Aerodynamics <-- Correct

b) Theoretical ceiling
c) Service ceiling
d) Economy

The optimum altitude for a turbojet is: "when specific range is a maximum"
 During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed the
IAS and drag will "decrease".

Fuel burn = less weight = less induced and thus total drag.

For a turbojet flying at maximum range speed the angle of attack:

a) will be less than that for the maximum L/D ratio <-- Correct
b) will be more than that for the maximum L/D ratio

Max range speed for a jet will be higher than max L/D ratio speed.

With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:

a) lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance <-- Correct
b) equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio

Buffet Onset Boundar Chart:

Q.1. The buffet onset boundary chart tells the pilot:

a) Mach number for low speed stall and shock stall for various masses and altitudes <-- Correct
b) values for low speed stall and mach buffet onset for various masses and altitudes
c) maximum operating MMO for various masses and altitudes
d) critical mach number for various masses and altitudes

Q.2. Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?

a) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and
altitudes <-- Correct
b) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shock stall occur at various weights and
altitudes
c) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings
d) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes

The chart gives the values in mach numbers so "Mach Number" has to be present in the answer. For
Q.1. only option (a) says "Mach number" whereas in Q.2. both options (a) and (b) mentions "Mach
Number". The correct answer for Q.2. is the one that mentions "masses and altitudes" and not "weight
and altitudes" apart from mentioning "Mach Number".

For a given flight level the speed range determined by the buffet onset boundary will decrease with:

a) with a more forward centre of gravity <-- Correct

b) with increased temperature

See the graph there is no mention of temperature. Only mach numbers are given. An aircraft at M 0.5
with an OAT of +15 C is subjected to the same effects as an aircraft at M 0.5 with an OAT of -15 C. The
true speeds and local speeds of sound will be different but the effects will be the same.
 The aerodynamic ceiling: "is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed
buffet are the same"

If a flight is performed with a higher 'Cost Index' at a given mass which of the following will occur? "A
higher cruise mach number"

The pilots of a jet aircraft wish to reach the destination with minimum use of fuel. They should fly at:

a) Max Range Cruise Speed <-- Correct

b) Best L/D Speed
c) Long Range Cruise Speed
d) Minimum Power Speed

Flying at Vmd does give you minimum fuel burn for a jet but it doesn't get you anywhere quickly. ie. Fly
LHR-JFK at Vmd will take around 11 hours but fly it at Vmr jet, 1.32Vmd, it will take around 8 hours. The
shorter flight time makes the overall fuel consumption less.
Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=9487)

The key point is "wish to reach the destination". If you dont wish to reach a destination like in a holding
then best L/D would be the right choice.

For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range
speed?

a) Minimum specific fuel consumption <-- Correct

b) Minimum fuel flow
c) Longest flight duration
d) Minimum drag

Maximum endurance: "is achieved in un-accelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption"

How does the long range cruise speed change?

a) LRC Mach number decreases with decreasing altitude <-- Correct

b) LRC Mach number decreases with increasing altitude
c) LRC True airspeed decreases with increasing altitude
d) LRC Indicated airspeed increases with increasing altitude

Below the optimum cruise altitude:

a) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude <-- Correct
b) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
c) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
d) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude

LRC is flown as a Mach number so be careful. Another one like this is:

When descending below the optimum altitude at the long range cruise speed:
a) Mach No. decreases <-- Correct
b) TAS increases
c) Mach No. remains constant
d) Mach No. increases

When a jet aircraft descends at the maximum range speed:

a) Mach No. decreases <-- Correct

b) IAS increases
c) CAS increases
d) Mach No. increases

How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying with the
speed for maximum range?

a) First increases then decreases <-- Correct

b) Increases only if there is not wind
c) Decreases
d) Does not change

What happens to the cost index when flying above the optimum Long Range cruise speed?

a) Cost index will increase with increased speed <-- Correct

b) Cost index is not affected by speed
c) Cost index will decrease with increased speed
d) It all depends on how much the speed is changed by

For an aircraft flying at the Long Range cruise speed, (i) Specific Range and (ii) Fuel to time ratio:

a) (i) Decreases (ii) Increases <-- Correct

b) (i) Increases (ii) Decreases

LRC speed is about 4% above the Max Range speed at the cost of 1% loss in range. So this answer is in
comparison to Max range.

When flying at the optimum range altitude, over time the:

a) Fuel consumption gradually decreases <-- Marked Correct

b) Fuel consumption gradually increases
c) Fuel consumption initially decreases then gradually increases
d) Fuel consumption remains constant

It will decrease provided one keeps climbing to be all the time at the optimum altitude.

Regarding the best angle and best rate of descent speeds, "A heavier aircraft must descend at a
faster airspeed in order to maintain the same slope as a similar lighter aircraft"

How does an increase in aircraft mass affect the gliding range? "No Effect"
 What factors affect the descent angle in a glide?

a) Configuration and angle of attack <-- Correct

b) Configuration and altitude
c) Mass and altitude
d) Mass and configuration

An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is
kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass on Rate of descent, glide angle and CL/CD ratio?

Rate of descent - Increases

Glide angle - Increases
CL/CD ratio - Decreases

Lower mass = Less lift requirement = Less induced drag = Drag curves moves left = Lower Vmd

But if a higher Vmd is maintained then drag increases.

Descent Angle is Sin gamma = D-T/W

Normal descent is flown as a glide (idle throttles).

Thrust being zero in a glide the formula for glide angle becomes:

Sin gamma = D / Weight

Lift can be taken equal to weight (though it is actually slightly less), the foumula becomes:

Sin gamma = Drag / Lift

Using the co-efficients of drag and lift.

Sin gamma = CD/CL

With more drag:

CD/CL increases = Glide angle increases = Rate of descent increases.

CL/CD decreases for obvious reasons.

Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following
statements correctly describes their descent characteristics?

a) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier
aeroplane <-- Correct
b) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes
c) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane
d) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane

Two identical aircraft, one with a light load and one with a heavy load are in an idle power descent,
from the same height. Both experiencing the exact same atmospheric conditions. The heavy aircraft
will:

a) need to use a faster speed in order to achieve the same descent angle as the light aircraft <-- Correct
b) have the same descent range and endurance but using a faster speed

Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore
compressibility effects).

a) Configuration and angle of attack <-- Correct

b) Mass and altitude
c) Altitude and configuration
d) Configuration and mass

With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed
corresponding to:

a) the minimum power required <-- Correct

b) the minimum angle of descent
c) the maximum lift

Vmp is the point where the product of speed and drag are equal and is less than Vmd. Glider pilots try
and stay airborne for as long as possible and this is the speed they would attempt to fly but it is very
speed unstable. We call it gliding for endurance. Basically we are trying to keep the forward speed to a
minimum and the ROD to a minimum, its done at Vmp.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=4596)

Which of the following would give the greatest gliding endurance?

a) Flight close to CL MAX <-- Correct

b) Flight at the best CL/CD ratio
c) Flight at VMD
d) Flight at 1.32 VMD

The speed used during the descent is the rate of movement of the aeroplane along the descent path "V"
and can be divided into two components: horizontal and vertical. The horizontal component is the
aeroplane's forward movement across the ground, its groundspeed, and the vertical component is its
rate of descent.

It is essential to reduce the vertical component to a minimum to produce the maximum endurance. This
means that the descent speed of the aeroplane and the rate of descent must be as low as possible
throughout the descent. The distance travelled during the descent is of no consequence. Therefore, the
speed to fly is less than VMD at VMP.

V in the figure is the descent TAS in feet per minute and the rate of descent in fpm is V x sine gamma,
where gamma is the glide angle. Therefore the glide angle must be the minimum possible.

The power required is the product of the TAS and the drag. Therefore, the lowest rate of descent is
attained at the speed for which the least power is required, which is close to CLMax. For any given mass
this speed occurs at the lowest point on the power-required curve that may be determined by the point
at which a horizontal line is tangential to the curve.

What gives one the greatest gliding time?

a) Lower mass <-- Correct

b) A head wind
c) A tail wind

The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: "obstacle clearance after engine
failure"

In the drift down for an aeroplane in Performance Class B the net gradient of descent is assumed to
be gross gradient of descent "Increased" by "0.5%"

If the TAS is 100 kts on the glide slope of 3 deg, what is the Rate of Descent?

Ans: 500 ft/min

Based on trigonometry

Tan of angle = Opposite / Adjacent

Tan of angle = Rate of Descent / Horizontal Distance

Rate of Descent = Tan of angle x Horizontal Distance

Tan of Angle = Glide sLope Angle

Horizontal Distance = Ground Speed

Since we want Rate of Descent in feet per minute, we will have to convert Ground Speed from nm/hr to
ft/min by divinding it by 60 and multiplying by 6080.

Rate of Descent (ft/min) = Tan of glide slope angle x GS/60 x 6080

A Rule of Thumb for 3 deg glide slope

Multiply your GS by 5 and that will give a rough rate of descent.

or

Half the speed and add a Zero

e.g. If GS is 140 then

140/2 = 70 and add a zero (i.e. multiplying by 10) to make it 700 ft/min.

If glide slope is not 3 deg

For every 0.25 of a degree difference above or below the standard 3 deg glide slope, add or subtract
respectively 10kts to your Ground speed before using it in the rule of thumb calculation.

e.g. If the GS is 140 and glide slope is 3.5 deg then GS to be used for rule of thumb calculation is 140 +
20 = 160.

With respect to en-route diversions (using drift down graph), if you believe that you will not clear an
obstacle do you must:

a) assess remaining fuel requirements, then jettison fuel as soon as possible <-- Correct
b) jettison fuel from the beginning of the drift down

(Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-24)Why does the curve for an equivalent weight of 35000 kg, only start 4
mins after engine failure?

a) At that weight the aircraft takes longer to slowdown to the optimum drift down speed <-- Correct
b) At that weight the aircraft has a higher TAS and therefore more momentum
c) At that altitude the engine takes longer to spool down after failure

When in a gliding manoeuvre, in order to achieve maximum endurance the aircraft should be flown
at:

a) the speed for min. power <-- Correct

b) the speed for max. lift
c) the speed for min. drag
d) the speed for max. lift/drag

In a twin engined jet aircraft with six passenger seats, and a maximum certified take off mass of 5650
kg. What is the required en-route obstacle clearance, with one engine inoperative during drift down
towards the alternate airport?

a) 2000 ft <-- Correct

b) 1000 ft

When stabilised in a level flight, the minimum clearance en-route is 1,000 feet with a positive gradient,
5nm either side of track. Regarding clearance during the drift down the requirement is that the aircraft
should not descend below the minimum altitude that gives 2,000 feet clearance 5nm either side of
track.

An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to
FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270. How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the
second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility
effects.

"Increases in the first part; is constant in the second"

Descent angle = D - T / W
With idle thrust and Lift almost equal to weight

Descent angle = D / L

Thus Increase in Drag will increase the descent angle

At constant mach descent IAS and TAS are increasing which inceases the total drag (due to profile drag)

So in the first part angle increases.

In the second part we are descending at constant IAS, so the drag remains whatever it is unless we
increase speed.

So in the second part angle remains the same as long as IAS is held constant.

During a descent at constant Mach number, the margin to low speed buffet will:

a) increase, because the lift coefficient decreases <-- Correct

b) increase, because the lift coefficient increases

Air speed increases - AoA decreases - CL decreases (see the next question)

The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the:

a) IAS increases <-- Correct

b) glide angle increases
c) aircraft mass decreases
d) TAS decreases

When gliding into a headwind airspeed should be: "higher than the max. range glide speed in still air"

During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:

a) decrease <-- Correct

b) increase at first and decrease later on
c) increase
d) remain constant

Pitch angle (Theta) is the angle between the aircraft's longitudinal axis and the horizontal. An element of
that pitch angle is alpha. As we descend at a constant Mach the IAS increases which means alpha must
be decreased, therefore a more nose down attitude, which means the angle between the longitudinal
axis and the horizontal has increased- an increase in pitch angle.

Now the interpretation. If we start from the cruise pitch attitude of say 2-3 degrees and enter the
descent we put the nose down decreasing the pitch. As the nose passes through the horizon the pitch
angle starts to increase again so we've gone from decreasing to increasing.

It can be decreasing in a sense that going from e.g. +2 to -4 is a Decrease.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=9057)
 Which of the following will not increase the minimum glide angle relative to the ground:

a) increased weight <-- Correct

b) lowering the landing gear
c) increased flap angle
d) increased headwind

Headwind will increase the angle "relative to the ground" not otherwise.

Landing Field Length Requirements - SEP and MEP

a) The landing distance, from a screen height of 50 ft, must not exceed 70% of the landing distance
available, i.e. a factor of 1.43.

b) If the landing surface is grass up to 20 cm long on firm soil, the landing distance should be multiplied
by a factor of 1.15.

c) If the METAR or TAF or combination of both indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated
time of arrival, the landing distance should be multiplied by a factor of 1.15.

d) The landing distance should be increased by 5% for each 1% downslope. No allowance is permitted
for upslope.

The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, "30%" margins
above stall speed in landing configuration.

VREF for a Class B aircraft is defined by 1.3 VS

What landing distance requirements must be met at an alternate airfield compared to a destination
airfield for a turbo prop? "Same as destination"

For a turbo prob powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected
to be wet. The dry runway landing distance, should not exceed:

a) 1339m <-- Correct

Factor for dry runway = 1.43

Factor for wet runway = 1.43 x 1.15 = 1.64

For reducing the runway length: 2200 / 1.64 = 1341m

When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what technique should the pilot
adapt? "Positive touch down, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible"
 If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing
distance must be increased by: 15%

Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires

a) an increase in approach speed <-- Correct

b) an increase in VREF

If a turbo prop aircraft has a wet LDA of 2200m, what would the equivalent dry landing distance
allowed be?

a) 1339 m <-- Correct

b) 1540 m
c) 1148 m
d) 1913 m

The wording of the question is not correct. A similar question with the proper wording is:

"For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to
be "wet". The "dry runway" landing distance, should not exceed?"

2200/1.64 = 1341m

In wet conditions what extra percentage over the calculated (gross) landing distance must be
available for a turbojet?

a) 92% <-- Correct

b) 15%
c) 67%
d) 43%

The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve: "minimum
climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative"

A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of
2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing distance for a dry runway?

a) 1440m <-- Correct

Jets are supposed to used 60% of LDA to cater for safety margins. So the factor is 60/100 = 0.6

2400 x 0.6 = 1440

In dry conditions, when landing at an alternate airport in a turbojet by what factor should the landing
distance available changed to give landing distance?

a) 0.6 <-- Correct

b) 1.0
c) 1.67
d) 1.43

LDA x 0.6 or LDA/1.67 is the same thing so option (c) is also correct unless the question specifies
whether multiplication or division is to be used.

Perhaps there is a typographical error in this question becuase another similar question is more clear
about this as it states:

"By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be
multiplied to find the landing distance required?"

The answer for that is 0.6

What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF? "1.30 VSO"

The landing reference speed VREF may not be less than: "1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down
to 50 ft height"

Be careful about VSO and VSR. e.g. one question states:

At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 kt in the landing
configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is?

Since the question mentions Reference Speed VSR and not VSO the amswer is:

100 x 1.23 = 123 kts (and not 100 x 1.3)

The maximum mass for landing could be limited by:

a) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration <-- Correct
b) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration

In addition to other requirements, the approach climb requirement is based on: "one engine out, flaps
APPROACH and gear UP"

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the approach to landing climb
requirements?

a) Fuel dumping may be necessary in emergency situation <-- Correct

b) These requirements are based on the following configuration; flaps in landing position and landing
gear retracted
c) These requirements are more easily accomplished with two engine aeroplane than with a four engine
aeroplane
d) These requirements cannot be accomplished with masses higher than maximum approved landing
masses

For a turbo jet aircraft planning to land on a wet runway, the landing distance available:

a) may be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance if the flight manual gives specific data
for a wet runway<--Correct
b) must always be at least 15% greater than the dry landing distance
c) may be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance if permission is obtained from the
relevant aerodrome authority
d) may be less than 15% greater than the dry landing distance if all reverse thrust systems are
operative

The estimated braking action for a runway having a friction coefficient of 0.35 would be: "Medium"

(For this question use figure 032_6.2)

Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow
(lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given:

OAT: 13 deg C

Pressure altitude: 8000 ft

RPM: 2300

Answer: 160 kt and 69.3 lbs/hr

The tables provided are for ISA and ISA+20, whereas we are at ISA +14

This involves interpolation.

At ISA, Fuel flow at 8000 feet is 71.1

At ISA+20, Fuel flow at 8000 feet is 68.5

For a difference of 20 (ISA to ISA+20) the difference in fuel flow is 2.6 (71.1-68.5)

For ISA+1 the change in fuel flow is 2.6/20 = 0.13

For ISA+14 ---- 14 x 0.13 = 1.82

The fuel flow is reducing from ISA to ISA+20 (from 71.1 to 68.5)

Thus 71.1 - 1.82 = 69.28

69.3 pph will be the fuel flow at ISA+14

TAS does not require interpolation

(Refer to CAP 598 or figure 032_ 3-2)Given:OAT: 25oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 26L Wind:
310o/20 kts Take off mass: 4400 lbs Heavy duty brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the
header of the chart Find the Accelerate-Stop distance:

a) 3550 ft <-- Correct

b) 3800 ft

Due to Heavy duty brakes installed the the ASD that comes out from the graph has to be reduced by 7%
as mentioned in the note on the graph.

(Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-1)Given:OAT: 24oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 080o/12 kts Take
off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the ground roll?

a) 1050 ft
b) 1700 ft
c) 1350 ft <-- Correct
d) 1150 ft

Straight Forward. However Runway direction is missing in the question. It is RWY 12.

(Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-1)Given:OAT: 24oC Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 30R Wind:
060o/4 kts Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.What is the
take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle?

a) 2150 ft
b) 1670 ft
c) 1550 ft
d) 2000 ft <-- Correct

In my workout it comes close to 2030

For the same data the Ground roll is?

a) 2150 ft
b) 2000 ft
c) 1780 ft
d) 1670 ft <-- Correct

In my workout it comes close to 1700

Straight forward BUT!! -- YOU REALLY HAVE TO BE PRECISE IN THIS ONE as the wrong answers are
very close.

(Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7) Given:OAT: 0 deg C Pressure Altitude: 18000 ft Gross Mass: 3750
lbs Mixture: leaned to 25oF G rich of peak EGT. Other conditions as associated in the header of the
graph What is the two engine rate of climb?

a) 1050 ft/min <-- Correct

b) 870 ft/min
c) 1370 ft/min
d) 550 ft/min

The above mentioned part of the graph is the trick.

There are 3 weights mentioned in the graph 3500, 4000 and 4750 lbs and 6 lines.
Each weight has two lines and each weight is written between its two lines.

For e.g. 3550lb has two lines (yellow ones). The long one is for a rich mixture and the short one for a
lean mixture.

In the question the weight is 3750 and the mixture is lean.

So interpolation is required bewteen short lines (which represent lean mixture).

The first short line is 3500 (yellow) and the next short line is 4000 (blue).

So 3750 will be between them.

It is by chance the the long 3500 lb line coincides with our interpolated 3750lb line.

Drop down to get the answer.

Note: The lines are not coloured in the actual graph

How does the slush thickness affect the V1 reduction required?

a) Smaller reduction if thicker <-- Correct

b) Greater reduction if thicker
c) No affect if mass is reduced
d) No affect at all

Thick Contamination - More reduction in mass and smaller V1 reduction

Thin Contamination - Less reduction in mass and more V1 reduction

Water equivalent depth is:

a) the contaminant depth x specific gravity <-- Correct

b) the depth of water in the contaminant
c) the contaminant depth x 0.5
d) the measured depth of the contaminant

The equivalent water depth can be found either by melting the snow or by multiplying the contaminant
depth by the specific gravity of the contaminant.

E.g. Runway covered in snow with a specific gravity of 0.6 to a depth of 2cm.

Equivalent water depth in millimetres = 20 x 0.6 = 12mm

2cm = 20mm

The effect of a runway contaminated with 0.5 cm of slush on take off calculations would be to
decrease the TOM: "decrease V1 and decrease VR"
 For a take off from a contaminated runway: "The performance data for take of must be determined in
general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests"

Which statement related to a take off from a wet runway is correct?

a) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties <-- Correct
b) The use of a reduced VR is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway
c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used
d) Screen height reduction cannot be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance

During a take off from a runway contaminated by slush the drag caused by the slush will:

a) increase then decrease <-- Correct

b) increase then remain constant
c) increase with increasing speed
d) increase up to VP then increase at a greater rate

In the early stages of the take-off run, slush and water builds up as a bow wave in front of the wheel
adding to the drag. Once a certain speed is reached the bow wave disappears. Wheel rotation slows or
stops and the tyre slithers or starts to plane on the contaminant layer. From this point on, the resistance
to acceleration is minimal. This is called dynamic hydroplaning. It can happen in water depths of less
than a tenth of an inch (2.5 mm). The point at which the aircraft starts to plane is called the
hydroplaning speed (VP or Vp).

ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is
within an area of: "60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed"

An aircraft with 180 minutes ETOPS approval must be:

a) no more than 180 minutes from a suitable alternate, still air, at the one engine inoperative TAS <--
Correct
b) no more than 180 minutes from a suitable alternate in the prevailing conditions and using the one
engine inoperative TAS

At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines
specific consumption remains unchanged, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by: "5%"

The rule of thumb is that for small changes, the fuel flow changes roughly in proportion to the weight
change.

Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are
at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel
consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption
is:

Ans: 3804 Kg/hr

The rule of thumb is that for small changes, the fuel flow changes roughly in proportion to the weight
change.

When the aircraft is light the fuel consumtion will be less.

The reduction factor = 115000 / 130000 = 0.885

So 4300 x 0.884 = 3805 Kg/hr

Click here for the detailed mathematical procedure

A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of
thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the
same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel
consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:

Ans: 8.17 kg/NM

With old engines SFC was 0.06

With new engines SFC is 0.035

Thus aircraft's fuel consumption has improved. That means the fuel mileage will be better (less) than 14
Kg per nautical mile.

The reduction factor = 0.035/.06 = 0.583

14 x 0.583 = 8.16

At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine: increase/decrease in
proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature

With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air temperature expressed in
degrees K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant
Mach number and zero headwind, is as follows:

a) proportional to T <-- Correct

b) proportional to 1/T^2
c) proportional to 1/T
d) independent from

At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine:

a) increases slightly with increasing airspeed <-- Correct

b) increases with decreasing OAT
c) is independent of the airspeed
d) decreases slightly with increasing airspeed

Fuel burn will reduce mass. Induced drag decreases. Thrust is the same so speed increases.

Increase in speed increases the ram effect which increases the compressor's workload. This slightly
increases the fuel flow.
 For a given aircraft mass, flying with a cost index set at greater than zero will result in: "cruise at a
faster Mach No than the Mach No giving best NM/kg ratio for a given altitude"

(For this Question use CAP 698 figure 4.28 ) What is the minimum field length required for the worst
wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Given:

Elevation: 2000 ft
QNH: 1013 hPa
Landing mass: 50000 kg
Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance
Runway condition: dry
Wind:
Maximum allowable tail wind: 15 kt
Maximum allowable head wind: 50 kt

Ans: 3100 m

Thats the graphical output.

MRJT graphs have the regulatory factors built in, so the application of regulatory factors applies ONLY to
SEP and MEP graphs.

What is meant by "Equivalent Weight" in figure 4.27 of CAP 698?

"The weight compensated for temperature greater than ISA+10 degrees"

(For this question use CAP 698 figure 4.5)With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet
aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30oC and pressure
altitude 0 ft?
" The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature
limited "

(Refer to CAP 698 figure 4-5) Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit
chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart?

a) The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air <-- Correct
b) There is a built-in safety measure
c) The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart
d) There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground

Given

RW17 touchdown elevation = 146 feet

TORA = 1400 m
ASDA = 1600 m
TODA = 1800 m

RW 35 touchdown elevation 34 feet

TORA = 1500 m
ASDA = 1700 m
TODA = 1900 m

The slope of RW 35 is: "2.28% up"

146-34 = 112 feet

1500m = 4920 feet

Gradient = 112/4920 x 100 = 2.276%

 The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5o,
15o and 25o flaps angles on take off, leads to the following values, with wind:

Flap angle: 5/15/25 deg

Runway limitation (kg): 66000/69500/71500
Second segment slope limitation: 72200/69000/61800

Wind corrections:
Head wind: +120 kg/kt
Tail wind: -360 kg/kt

Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on
brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:

a) 67700 kg/15 deg <-- Correct

b) 69000 kg/15 deg
c) 72200 kg/5 deg
d) 69700 kg/25 deg

Winds do not affect the climb limited take-off mass so wind correction is required only for field length
limit

Thus reducing 1800Kg from runway limited mass we have:

Runway Limits of 64200 / 67700 / 69700

2nd Segment Limits of 72200 / 69000 / 61800

To meet both the field length limit and climb limit our max takeoff weight will be the lowest value for
each flap configuration.

For flaps 5 takeoff our max take off weight will be 64200 Kg.

For flaps 15 takeoff our max take off weight will be 67700 Kg.

For flaps 25 takeoff our max take off weight will be 61800 Kg.

Thus the maximum mass on brake release with which we can take off is the highest of the above three
values.

It is 67700 and for that weight flaps required will be 15 deg.

Putting in 16500 litres of fuel with an SG of 780 kg/m3, and writing 16500 kg of fuel on the load sheet
will result in:

a) TOD and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast <-- Correct
b) TOD increasing and ASD decreasing, and the calculated V2 being too fast
c) TOD and ASD remaining constant, if the calculated speeds are used
d) TOD and ASD increasing, if the calculated speeds are used

16500 litres with sp gravity of .780 is

16500 x 0.78 = 12870 Kg

Thus 12870 Kg of fuel is put and 16500 Kg is shown on paper.

So the all the calculations will be for a heavy weight whereas the aircraft will actually be light.

Thus actual TOD and ASD will be less and calculated V2 will be too fast, because calculations were done
for a higher weight.

During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take off runs from brake
release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the
aeroplane is 35 feet above the take off surface are:

- 1747 m all engines operating

- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognised at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.

Considering both possibilities to determine the take off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?

a) 2009 m <-- Correct

b) 2243 m
c) 2096 m
d) 1950 m

All engine distance is factored so it is 1747 x 1.15 = 2009

Engine Fail Distance is unfactored so it remains 1950.

Considering both possibilities to determine the take off run (TOR), the correct distance will be the higher
of these figures i.e. 2009m

In the engine failure case, the distances used are gross distances (the distances used by the average
aircraft without additional safety factors).

Thus if an engine does fail at VEF and the decision to go is made at V1 there is a 50:50 chance of
making the screen height at 35ft (it may be above that or may be below). Similarly, if the decision is
made to stop then there is a 50:50 chance of stopping by the end of the ASDA.

Why safety factor are not applied is because it is extremely unlikely that engine will fail exactly at VEF
on a field length limiting runway.

The failure at this precise time is assessed as having a probability of less than 1:1,000,000

If an event is extremely unlikely in itself then the difference of net and gross reduces to zero.

So no further safety factors are used.

Since the probability of an all engines takeoff is very high, there is a safety factor involved.

The net distance to 35 ft is 1.15 times the gross distance.

If we compare the distances for engine out takeoff on dry and wet runways and all engine takeoff, then
obvioulsy the gross all engines distance to 35ft will be shorter than the other two.

However after applying the safety factor of 1.15, net distance of an all engine takeoff might actually be
longer and therefore limiting.

Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:
Thrust = 50000 Newton/Engine
g = 10 m/s2
Drag = 72569 N
Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%
SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust – Drag)/Weight

The maximum take-off mass under second segment conditions is?

a) 101596 kg <-- Correct

SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust – Drag)/Weight

or
Weight = Thrust - Drag/ Sin (angle of climb)

Put in the values and remember to put thrust for 2 engines value as we have to consider one engine out
for the second segment calculations.

Weight = 100,000 - 72569 / 2.7%

Weight = 27431/.027

Weight = 1015962 Newtons

Weight is the force on an object due to gravity and is therefore measured in Newtons.

Weight = m x g
so
Mass = weight/g = 1015962/10 = 101596 Kg

A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed, no wind, this climb
gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:

CLimb gradient x TAS = Rate of Climb

3.3 x 100 = 330 ft/min

On a segment of the take off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in
order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is
2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass,
at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient.

a) 118455 kg <-- Correct

b) 106425 kg
c) 102150 kg
d) 121310 kg

Sine of the climb angle = Thrust-Drag /Weight

i.e. Sine of the climb angle varies inversely with mass.

A linear relationship can be used.

Reduction of climb angle (2.6/2.8 = 0.928) will increase the weight limit (2.8/2.6 = 1.077)
110,000 kg x 1.077 = 118,470kg.

Closest option is 118455 Kg.

An aircraft with a mass of 110000 kg is capable of maintaining a grad of 2.6%. With all the
atmospheric variables remaining the same, with what mass would it be able to achieve a gradient of
2.4?

a) 119167 kg <-- Correct

Same as above except that the question does not mention the fact that "sine of the climb angle varies
inversely with mass".

110000kg x (2.6/2.4) = 119167kg.

In the climb an aircraft has a thrust to weight ratio of 1:4 and a lift to drag ratio of 12:1. While
ignoring the slight difference between lift and weight in the climb, the climb gradient will be:

Answer: 16.7%

Solution:

Sine of Climb angle = Thrust - Drag / Weight

For small angles Adjacent is nearly the same as Hypotenuse and Opposite/Adjacent = Sin relation.

So we get an approximate formula for climb gradient, which is:

Climb Gradient = Thrust - Drag / Weight

Just put in the values.

L/D is 12/1. Considering lift almost equal to weight. Weight = 12 and Drag = 1

Thrust to Weight ration is 1:4

If weight is 12 then Thrust is 12 x 1/4 = 3

Climb Gradient = 3-1/12 = 1/6 = 16 = 0.166

Climb Gradient % is 0.166 x 100 = 16.66%

An aircraft with a climb gradient of 3.3%, flying at an IAS of 85 kts. At a pressure ALT of 8500 ft with a
temperature of +15 deg C will have a ROC of:

a) 334 ft/min <-- Correct

b) 284 ft/min
c) 623 ft/min
d) 1117 ft/min

Convert IAS into TAS

ROC = TAS x Gradient = 100 x 3.3

Multiply IAS of 85 x 3.3 and you get into the trap set at option (b)

A four jet engined aeroplane (mass = 150000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating.
The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75000 Newtons. The gradient climb is: (given:
g=10m/s?):

Answer: 12.86%

Solution:

Climg gradient = Thrust - Drag / Weight

= (75000 x 4) - Drag / Weight

Weight = m x g = 150,000 x 10 = 150,000,0

L/D = 14 so Drag = L/14

For small angles Lift is almost equal to Weight

So Drag = 150,000,0/14 = 107143

Climb gradient = 300,000 - 107143 / 150,000,0 = 0.128

Climb gradient % = 0.128 x 100 = 12.8%

(Refer to figure 032_8-9)What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbo jet aeroplane
with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of 75000 kg? Using the following:G = 10 m/s2 1 kt = 100
ft/min SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust - Drag)/Weight

Answer: +1267 ft/min

Solution:

Rate of Climb = Gradient x TAS

From the figure:

TAS = 190

Gradient = (Thrust-Drag)/Weight

Max rate of climb is with max difference between thrust available and thrust required.

From the figure Thrust available for all engines = 240

With one engine out thrust available = 240-80 = 160

Thrust required = 110

Weight = m x g = 750000

gradient = 160,000 - 110,000 / 750,000 = 0.066

ROC = gradient x TAS = 0.066 x 190 = 12.66

given 1kt = 100 ft/min

ROC = 12.66 x 100 = 1267 ft/min

If the conversion factor is not given then before multiplying TAS with gradient we need to convert TAS
from nm/hr to ft/min i.e.

190/60 x 6080 = 19253

19253 x 0.066 = 1270 ft/min

Following a take off limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. It will
clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5000m from the 50 ft point
with an obstacle clearance margin of:

a) 105 m <- Correct

b) 90 m

The important point in this simple problem is to cater for the 50 ft point. If you dont you'll end up with
the wrong answer of 90m which is present in the options.

The obstacle is at 5000m or 16400 feet from the 50 ft point and is 160m or 525 ft high.

5% gradient means the aircraft is climbing 5 feet for 100 feet horizontal distance.

Therefore for 16400 ft horizontal distance it will be at a height of:

5/100 x 16400 = 820

Since the starting point was at 50 ft above the ground the correct aircraft height will be 820+50 = 870
feet

The difference between aircraft at 870 feet and obstacle at 525 feet is 345 ft or 105m.

If the TAS is 100 kts on the glide slope of 3 deg, what is the Rate of Descent?

Ans: 500 ft/min

Based on trigonometry

Tan of angle = Opposite / Adjacent

Tan of angle = Rate of Descent / Horizontal Distance

Rate of Descent = Tan of angle x Horizontal Distance

Tan of Angle = Glide sLope Angle

Horizontal Distance = Ground Speed

Since we want Rate of Descent in feet per minute, we will have to convert Ground Speed from nm/hr to
ft/min by divinding it by 60 and multiplying by 6080.

Rate of Descent (ft/min) = Tan of glide slope angle x GS/60 x 6080

A Rule of Thumb for 3 deg glide slope

Multiply your GS by 5 and that will give a rough rate of descent.

or

Half the speed and add a Zero

e.g. If GS is 140 then

140/2 = 70 and add a zero (i.e. multiplying by 10) to make it 700 ft/min.

If glide slope is not 3 deg

For every 0.25 of a degree difference above or below the standard 3 deg glide slope, add or subtract
respectively 10kts to your Ground speed before using it in the rule of thumb calculation.

e.g. If the GS is 140 and glide slope is 3.5 deg then GS to be used for rule of thumb calculation is 140 +
20 = 160.

(For this question use figure 032_6.2) Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following
conditions: Given:

OAT: 13 deg C

Pressure altitude: 8000 ft

RPM: 2300

Answer: 160 kt and 69.3 lbs/hr

The tables provided are for ISA and ISA+20, whereas we are at ISA +14

This involves interpolation.

At ISA, Fuel flow at 8000 feet is 71.1

At ISA+20, Fuel flow at 8000 feet is 68.5

For a difference of 20 (ISA to ISA+20) the difference in fuel flow is 2.6 (71.1-68.5)

For ISA+1 the change in fuel flow is 2.6/20 = 0.13

For ISA+14 ---- 14 x 0.13 = 1.82

The fuel flow is reducing from ISA to ISA+20 (from 71.1 to 68.5)

Thus 71.1 - 1.82 = 69.28

69.3 pph will be the fuel flow at ISA+14

TAS does not require interpolation

Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are
at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130000 kg and its hourly fuel
consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption
is:

Ans: 3804 Kg/hr

The rule of thumb is that for small changes, the fuel flow changes roughly in proportion to the weight
change.

When the aircraft is light the fuel consumtion will be less.

The reduction factor = 115000 / 130000 = 0.885

So 4300 x 0.884 = 3805 Kg/hr

A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of
thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the
same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel
consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:

Ans: 8.17 kg/NM

With old engines SFC was 0.06

With new engines SFC is 0.035

Thus aircraft's fuel consumption has improved. That means the fuel mileage will be better (less) than 14
Kg per nautical mile.

The reduction factor = 0.035/.06 = 0.583

14 x 0.583 = 8.16

(For this question use CAP 698 figure 2-2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single
engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given:

OAT: 30oC
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt
Flaps: up
Runway: tarred and dry

a) 2470 feet
b) 1440 feet
c) 2200 feet
d) 2800 feet

a) marked correct. The applicable graph for flaps up is 2-1 and not 2-2 which is for takeoff distance with
approach flaps. (a) is correct with graph 2-1.

(Refer to CAP 698 figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft. Given:

OAT: ISA+15 deg C

Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs
Tailwind component: 10 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down)
Runway: Tarred and Dry

a) approximately: 1300 feet

b) approximately: 950 feet
c) approximately: 1400 feet
d) approximately: 750 feet

a) marked correct. However the correct answer is not present here.

(For this Question use CAP 698 Figure 2.4) Using the Landing diagram, for single engine aeroplane
determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions.
Given:

Pressure altitude: 4000 ft

OAT: 5oC
Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs
Headwind component: 15 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
Runway: tarred and dry
Landing gear: down

a) 1020 ft
b) 1550 ft
c) 1400 ft
d) 880 ft

c) is marked correct but that is the actual distance whch is not factored (actual figure that comes out
from the graph is 1360). Since the question asks for "Landing Distance Required", regulatory factor
needs to be applied. So the correct answer should be 1400 (or 1360) x 1.43 = 2002 (or 1944).
 (For this question use CAP 698 figure 2.4)

With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind component required
in order to land at Helgoland airport? Given:

Runway length: 1300 ft

Runway elevation: MSL
Weather: assume ISA conditions
Mass: 3200 lbs
Obstacle height: 50 ft

a) 10 kt.
b) No wind.
c) 5 kt.
d) 15 kt.

a) marked correct. It will only be correct if the question mentions Runway Length of 1300 ft is factored
but it doesnt thus all answers are wrong. Another question with similar data (but without the airport
name) mentions that 1300 feet is factored thus for that question 10 knots is the correct answer.

If a TOD of 800m is calculated at sea level, on a level, dry runway, with standard conditions and with
no wind, what would the TOD be for the conditions listed below?

Airfield elevation: 2000 ft

QNH: 1013.25 mb
Temperature: 21 deg C
Wind: 5 kts tailwind
Dry runway with a 2% up slope

Assuming: ±20m/100 ft elevation,

+10m/1 kt of reported tailwind,
±5m/1 deg C ISA deviation
and the standard slope adjustments.

a) 836 m
b) 940 m
c) 1034 m
d) 1095 m

c) marked correct whereas none of the options is correct.

The adjustment for airfield elevation alone would take the TOD to 1200m. Rest of the factors like above
ISA temp, tailwind and upslope will further increase the TOD.

(For this question use CAP 698 figure 2-3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions:Given:OAT
at take off: ISA Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane mass: 3450 lbsSpeed: 100 KIAS

a) 1310 ft/min and 11.3%

b) 1170 ft/min and 9.9%
c) 1120 ft/min and 9.3%
d) 1030 ft/min and 8.4%

c) marked correct wheras it is wrong. TAS = Rate of Climb / Gradient. If (C) was the correct answer then
1120/9.3 = 120.4 whereas TAS at 3000 feet with a temperature of 9 comes out around 104.6. Thus at
1120 the gradient should be 1120 x 105 = 10.6%
This question was based on the old CAP 698 where the gradient scale was incorrect and you got
1120fpm/9.3%. New CAP698 introduced in June 2006 corrected the scale error hence the new answer is
10.5%

Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to
reach a height of 000 ft above the reference zero in the following conditions.

Given:
OAT, at take off: 25oC
Airport pressure altitude: 1000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3600 lbs
Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 15 kts headwind

a) 18347 ft
b) 24637 ft
c) 21505 ft
d) 18832 ft

a) marked correct. The height to climb is not given in the question. It seems to be 2000 but the correct
answer is not given. The correct answer should be around 15500 feet after converting air distance to
ground distance. 18347 feet is the air distance.

How does a headwind affect the speed to fly at in a descent?

a) The speed is not affected

b) The TAS should be decreased
c) The TAS should be increased
d) The speed only increases with weight

Both b and c marked correct whereas c seems to be correct

As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb:

a) VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude

b) VX is always above VY
c) VY is always above VMO
d) VX is always below VY

c marked correct whereas d is the correct answer.

The speed VLO is defined as

a) design low operating speed

b) landing gear operating speed
c) long distance operating speed
d) lift off speed

a) marked correct whereas (b) is the correct answer.

Other questions with similar wording and correct answers are as under. See the difference to spot the
wrong one in the exam.

If the first choice is "Design Low Operating Speed" then thats the wrong one!

Q.1. The speed VLO is defined as:

a) the minimum speed in the landing configuration with one engine inoperative at which it is possible to
maintain control of the aeroplane within defined limits whilst applying varying power
b) the stall speed in the landing configuration
c) the speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground, not more than V2 and not less than VR
d) the maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear <-- Correct

Q.2. VLO is defined as:

a) Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground
b) Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground
c) The maximum speed for landing gear operation <-- Correct
d) The long range cruise speed

Q.3. The abbreviation VLO means:

a) maximum operating limit speed
b) maximum speed with landing gear extended
c) maximum landing gear operating speed <-- correct
d) maximum lift-off speed

Q.4. What is the abbreviation for the term Maximum landing gear operating speed?
a) VGO
b) VLE
c) VLO <-- Correct
d) VLG

Which conditions are most suited to a selection of low flap for take off?

a) Low airfield elevation, close obstacles, long runway, high temperature

b) Low airfield elevation, no obstacles, short runway, low temperature
c) High elevation, no obstacles short runway, low temperature
d) High airfield elevations, distant obstacles, long runway, high ambient temperature

a) is marked correct whereas (d) is actually correct, as also marked correct in another similar question
mentioned below:

Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take off?

a) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb out path, low ambient temperature and short runway
b) Low field elevation, close in obstacles in the climb out path, long runway and a high ambient
temperature
c) High field elevation, distance obstacles in the climb out path, long runway and a high ambient
temperature <-- Correct
d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature

For the exam if the question comes with word "Suited" then its the first choice.

With a true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about:

a) 3 deg <-- Correct

b) 3%
c) 5 deg
d) 8%

Climb Gradient = Rate of Climb / TAS x 6000/6080

1000/194 x 0.98 = 5.05%

However 5% gradient is not there in the options.

But if we calculate the climb angle:

Sin of climb angle = 5.05/100

Climb angle = Inv sin of 5.05/100 = 2.89 degrees (option "a")

Perhaps the question was about climb angle and not gradient.

For the exam if 5% is not mentioned in the answers then its about climb angle and answer is 3 degrees

(Refer to CAP 698 figure 2-1)Given: Flaps: UP Aerodrome pressure altitude: 6000 ft Ambient
temperature: +20oC Take off weight: 3400 lb Headwind component: 10 kt Runway: 1% downhill; wet
grass What is the TOD?

a) 1700 feet
b) 2210 feet
c) 1615 feet
d) 3120 feet

b) marked correct. Without wet grass factor TOD comes around 3150.

(Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7) Given:OAT: -20 deg C Pressure Altitude: 18000 ft Gross Mass:
3750 lbs Mixture: leaned to 25oF G rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the
graph What is the rate of climb?

a) 870 ft/min
b) 1370 ft/min
c) 1050 ft/min
d) 550 ft/min

c) Marked Correct. This answer is correct with OAT of 0 deg C not -20. The correct OAT in the question
(as compared with other databases) is 0 deg C.

With -20 C the answer is around 1200.

Also the wording "two engine" rate of climb is missing.

(Refer to CAP 698 or figure 032_3-7)Given:OAT: 0 deg C Pressure Altitude: 16000 ft Gross Mass: 3750
lbs Mixture: leaned to 25oF rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph
What is the twoengine rate of climb?

a) 500 ft/min
b) 870 ft/min
c) 1200 ft/min
d) 1050 ft/min
d) marked correct whereas (c) is correct. However with rich mixture the answer is 1050.

For identification in the exam this is probably the only question regarding fig 3-7 that has a pressure
altitude of 16,000 feet and has a wrong answer marked. The answer marked as correct is calculated
with rich mixture.

Which of the following answers is true?

a) V1 < VMCG
b) V1 < VR
c) V1 < VR
d) V1 < Vlof

c) marked correct. There is typographical error as b and c are the same.

Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship?

a) VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR

b) VMCA and V1 should not exceed V2
c) VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR
d) V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG

c) marked correct, whereas (b) is also correct. However the main relation of V1 is with VMCG and VR, not
V2 so dont select the "V1 should not exceed V2" option in the exam.

If the anti skid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?

a) The accelerate stop distance increases

b) The accelerate stop distance decreases
c) It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance
d) Take off with anti skid inoperative is not permitted

a) and (d) both marked correct in the database, whereas only (a) is correct

Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in
a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel
consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105000 kg, its hourly fuel
consumption is:

a) 3426 kg/h
b) 3602 kg/h
c) 3787 kg/h
d) 3259 kg/h

d) is marked correct whereas a) is correct

105000/95000 = 1.105 x 3100 = 3426

Click here for the solution in detail

This is probably the only question in the database where the second aircraft is heavier than the first
one. That's the clue to identify it if it turns up in the exam. In this case then the second closest option is
the answer that is marked correct.

Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed
remain unchanged):

a) increases the power required

b) decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required
c) affects neither drag nor power required
d) increases the induced drag

d) marked correct whereas (b) is correct

At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine:

a) increases with increasing altitude

b) are independent of outside air temperature (OAT)
c) increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature
d) decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature

d) marked correct whereas (c) is also correct. Both mean the same thing.

What is a COST INDEX?

a) a number denoting the cost per nautical mile

b) A number denoting the ratio of direct operating costs to speed
c) Requires increased thrust and decreased corresponding speeds
d) Leads to increased coefficient of drag

c) marked correct

When would an aircraft fly considerably below the optimum altitude?

a) When there is a marked decrease in head wind or increase in tail wind

b) When there is a marked increase in head wind or decrease in tail wind
c) When there is a high level inversion
d) In the later stages of a flight when fuel has been consumed

a) marked correct whereas (b) seems to be correct

With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed
corresponding to:

a) the minimum angle of descent

b) the critical Mach number
c) the minimum drag
d) the maximum lift

c) marked correct whereas the answer should be speed for minimum power as mentioned in another
question:
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed
corresponding to:

a) the minimum power required <-- Correct

b) the minimum angle of descent
c) the maximum lift

Vmp is the point where the product of speed and drag are equal and is less than Vmd. Glider pilots try
and stay airborne for as long as possible and this is the speed they would attempt to fly but it is very
speed unstable. We call it gliding for endurance. Basically we are trying to keep the forward speed to a
minimum and the ROD to a minimum, its done at Vmp.

Source: (http://www.atpforum.eu/showthread.php?t=4596)

Given a constant cruising altitude and constant angle of attack (assuming no compressibility effects)
higher gross mass:

a) Requires increased thrust and increased corresponding speeds

b) No increase in thrust is required, but increases corresponding speeds
c) Requires increased thrust and decreased corresponding speeds
d) Leads to increased coefficient of drag

d) Marked correct whereas (a) seems to be correct.

The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is:

a) The point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve
b) The lowest point of the drag curve
c) At stalling speed (VS)
d) On the 'back side' of the drag curve

a) marked correct whereas (b) is correct. Tangent from the origin will touch the drag curve ahead of the
min drag point.

If the aircraft takes off at the wet V1 instead of the dry V1, what is the effect on (i) TODR (ii) climb
performance?

a) (i) TODR increases; (ii) Climb performance degraded

b) (i) TODR increases; (ii) Climb performance improved
c) (i) TODR decreases; (ii) Climb performance degraded
d) (i) TODR decreases; (ii) Climb performance improved

a) marked correct whereas the correct answer doesnt seem to be present here. TODR will increase but
climb performance will remain constant as confirmed by another question mentioned below:

When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb
performance:

a) decreases/remains constant <-- Marked Correct

b) decreases/decreases
c) increases/increases
d) remains constant/remains constant