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3rd Quarter g10 Exam

The document contains a 40 question science exam covering topics in biology including the nervous system, endocrine system, DNA and RNA, cell processes, genetics, and evolution. The questions are multiple choice testing knowledge of the parts of the brain and nervous system, hormones and glands, cell structures and functions, chromosomal abnormalities, principles of evolution, and distinguishing between analogous and homologous structures.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
548 views5 pages

3rd Quarter g10 Exam

The document contains a 40 question science exam covering topics in biology including the nervous system, endocrine system, DNA and RNA, cell processes, genetics, and evolution. The questions are multiple choice testing knowledge of the parts of the brain and nervous system, hormones and glands, cell structures and functions, chromosomal abnormalities, principles of evolution, and distinguishing between analogous and homologous structures.

Uploaded by

LeizylAlcantara
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SAN FRANCISCO NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

Sudipen, La Union

THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION IN SCIENCE 10


SY 2018 – 2019
Direction: Analyze the following questions carefully. Choose the letter that gives the best
answer. Write your answer on the space provided.
_____1. What part of the brain controls the activity of walking without falling?
A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. medulla
_____2. Which part of the brain controls the involuntary physiologic activities in the body such
as digestion, breathing and heart beat?
A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. medulla
_____3. The nervous system is assisted by the five senses. Which part of the brain controls the
senses?
A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. medulla
_____4. This part of the brain controls our emotion, balance and coordination.
A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. medulla
_____5. Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive degenerative disease affecting the memory.
Which part of the brain is affected?
A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. medulla
_____6. A nerve impulse is a high-speed signal that passes along the axon. Which part of the
neuron is the point of entry of a nerve impulse?
A. Axon terminal B. dendrite C. nucleus D. Schwann cell
_____7. Derick is playing chess with a brother. Which part of his brain is working while thinking
of his next move?
A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. medulla
_____8. Faye has finally learned to play the guitar. Which part of the brain controls the learning
of new skills?
A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. medulla
_____9. Which of the following is/ are the correct description/s of a nerve impulse?
I. A nerve impulse can jump from one neuron to another.
II. A nerve impulse from one neuron is stimulated to start in the next dendrite because
of neurotransmitter that crosses the synapse.
III. A nerve impulse is flow of electricity.
IV. A nerve impulse is a combination of an electrical charge and a chemical reaction.
A. I & II B. II & III C. III & IV D. II & IV
____10. This refers to the length of time between application of a stimulus and detection of a
response.
A. Reaction time B. nervous system C. stimulus time
D. response time
____11. This type of neuron transmit impulses from the brain to muscles or glands.
A. Motor neuron B. sensory neuron C. axon neuron
D. neuron
____12. The space between neurons is called---
A. Synapse B. neurotransmitter C. nerve impulse D. dendrite
____13. It is a condition of a person that has an excessive secretion of growth hormones by the
pituitary gland.
A. Dwarfism B. diabetes C. hypothyroidism D. gigantism
____14 .Which organ of the body is not functioning well when blood sugar becomes unstable?
A. gall bladder Liver B.liver C.Pancreas D.thyroid gland
____15. The following hormones are secreted by the pituitary gland EXCEPT for one:
A. ACTH B. glucagon C. prolactin D. vasopressin
____16. The thymus gland secretes a hormone that enables the body to produce certain
antibodies against diseases. What hormone is responsible for this?
A. adrenaline B. androgen C. thymosin D. thyroxin
____17. Menstrual cycle greatly varies among women usually ranging from 21-35 days. What is
the average length of the cycle?
A. 26days B. 27 days C. 28 days D. 29 days
____18. Faye skipped her breakfast for the day. How will the hormones from the pancreas help
her body to cope when her blood sugar levels drop below normal?
A. Insulin is released in response to an increase in blood glucose level.
B. Parathyromone is released to control calcium level in the body.
C. Calcitonin is released to regulate body metabolism.
D. Glucagon is released in response to low blood glucose level due to skipped meal.
____19. Which hormone secreted by the pituitary gland rises in level at the onset of labor
causing regular uterine contractions?
A. estrogen B.oxytocin C. progesterone D. prolactin
____20. The Endocrine System is composed of glands that secrete different types of hormones
that affect almost every cell, organ, and function of our body. It performs the following
function/s:
A. Regulates growth & development C. regulates metabolism
B. Regulates reproductive processes D. all of the above
____21. What gland is in function when the athletes burn up calories during exercise?
A. adrenal gland B. pancreas C. thyroid gland D. thymus
gland
____22. Male reproductive glands are responsible for providing liquid for the sperm’s motility.
Which gland secretes a slightly alkaline milky fluid that is discharged as part of the
semen?
A. Prostate gland B. seminal vesicle C. bulbourethral gland D. testis
____23. To achieve homeostasis, the nervous and endocrine systems maintain a normal range
of the following variables:
I. Body temperature IV. Blood calcium level
II. Amount of water in the body V. hormones in the blood
III. Amount of metabolic wastes in the cell
A. I,II,III B. II,III,IV C. I,II,III,IV D. I,II,III,IV,V
____24. The following are the components of nucleotide , the basic building of DNA, except –
A. Base B. phosphate C. sugar D. RNA
____25. What nitrogenous base is found in RNA but not in DNA?
A. Adenine B. cytosine C. guanine D. uracil
____26. Identify the complementary sequence of bases in the other strand of DNA during
replication. A A C C C T G A G T C T
A. TTGGGACTCAGA B. TTGGGCCTCAGA C. TTGGGACCCAGA D. TTGGGACTTAGA
____27. This RNA brings information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
A. mRNA B. rRNA C. tRNA D. codon
____28. It supplies amino acids to the ribosome to be assembled as protein.
A. mRNA B. rRNA C. tRNA D. codon
(For items 29-30)The following is the base sequence on one strand of a DNA molecule:
AATGCCAGTGGT
____29. If this strand is replicated, which of the following is the complementary strand
produced?
A. TCGTCCGTCTAG B. AGCAGGCAGGGT
C. TTACGGTCACCA D. UCGUCCUCUAGA
____30. If transcribed into an mRNA, what would be the resulting strand?
A. UUACGGUCACCA B. AGCAGGAGAT
C. AGCAGGCAGAUC D. TCGTCCGTCTAG
____31. During the step in DNA replication, an enzyme breaks the bond between nitrogenous
bases then the two strands of DNA slit. What enzyme is this?
____32. The process of converting the information in mRNA into a sequence of amino acids
that make a protein is known as translation. What is the role of tRNA?
A. Brings amino acids in the cytoplasm to the ribosomes to make proteins.
B. Forms peptide bond.
C. Carries information in DNA to the ribosomes found in the cytoplasm.
D. Binds and opens the DNA molecule that will be transcribed.
____33. It serves as the site for attachment of mRNA and tRNA and for protein synthesis.
A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. DNA
____34. What is the building blocks of a protein molecule?
A. Chromosome B. amino acid C. anticodon
____35. Abnormalities in chromosomal structure may occur during meiosis. This chromosomal
abnormality is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21.
A. Edward’s syndrome B. Turner’s syndrome C. “cri du chat” D.
Down’s syndrome
____36. Which of the following statements does not describe evolution?
A. Evolution is continuous. C. The world is stable and
unchanging.
B. Evolution refers to change. D. If there is mutation, there is
evolution.
____37. Which is a more definite characteristic to show relatedness of two organisms?
A. Similarity in development. C. Similarity in structure.
B. Similarity courting behavior. D. Similarity in DNA.
____38. These are structures in different organisms that are similar in function but different in
origin.
A. Analogous structures B. Homologous structures C. none of the above
____39. These are parts of different orgaanisms that are similar inn structure but serve different
function.
A. Analogous structures B. Homologous structures C. none of the above
____40. An increase in similarities among species derived from different ancestors as a result of
similar adaptation to similar environment.
A. Convergent evolution B. Divergent evolution C. none of the above
____41. An increase in the difference among descendants of a single ancestral species as time
passes.
A. Convergent evolution B. Divergent evolution C. none of the above
____42. Charles Darwin was the proponent of a theory based on natural selection.
A. Theory of need. C. Theory of Acquired Characteristics
B. Theory of use and disuse. D. Theory of Evolution
____43. In what era can the oldest fossils be found?
A. Cenozoic B. Mesozoic C. Paleozoic D. Pre
Cambrian
____44. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Organs that are nor used may disappear, while organs that are constantly used may
develop.
B. In nature, the organism with desirable characteristics may survive, while those with
weaker traits may not.
C. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given environment.
D. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring.
____45. Which if the following statements does not show the process of adaptation?
A. Dying out of dinosaurs during Cretaceous period.
B. Certain group of birds eating different kinds of food.
C. The finches in Galapagos with different beaks.
D. A child learning to walk on his own.
____46. Which of the following statements explains Lamarck’s Theory of use and disuse?
A. Body structures develop because they are used extensively.
B. Body structures develop because they are not in use.
C. Body structures develop because of competition.
D. Body structures develop because of mutation.
___47. Which of the following statements supports the idea that extinction is necessary?
A. To give way for other organisms to develop.
B. To let other organisms evolve and progress.
C. To know who is the fittest.
D. All of the above.
____48. Why do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger evolutionary
relationships.
A. They have varied and different ancestry.
B. They have similar pattern during their early stage of development.
C. They have a common ancestor and have the same kind of proteins.
D. They possess same vestigial structure that made their evolutionary relationship
closer.
____49. There are limiting factors that depend on population density. When population
approaches its carrying capacity and individual organisms leave and go to a new area
where they can find enough resources for survival and reproduction, this is known as ---
A. competition and resources B. diseases and parasites
C. emigration D. Predation
____50. Cocolisap infestation outbreak has been declared in some parts of the Philippines. The
cocolisap feeds on the sap of the coconut tree and injects toxic enzymes, resulting in
discolored leaves and deformed plant tissues that retard its growth. This results in the
decrease of the survival rate of coconut trees. Which of the following factors limit the
population of coconut trees?
A. Predation B. competition of resources C. diseases and parasites D. emigration
____51. A population growth in which the growth rate decreases with increasing number of
organisms until it becomes zero when population reaches its carrying capacity.
A. Normal growth B. exponential growth C. logistic growth D. none
of the above
____52. An increase in the difference among descendants of a single ancestral species as time
passes.
A. Adaptation B. divergent evolution C. evolution D. convergent
evolution
____53. Davao is known for its variety of fruits and other plant species that makes it more
attractive to tourists. Which of the following classification of value of biodiversity is
described?
A. Direct economic value B. indirect economic value C. aesthetic D. both A & C
____54. Which of the following causes a decreasing wildlife population in most of the places in
our country?
A. Loss of limiting factor B. loss of carrying capacity C. loss of habitat
____55. A farmer breeds guinea pigs in a cage. After a few generations, the breeder observes
that the guinea pigs are more aggressive towards each other, the young are less healthy
and more young guinea pigs die. What do you think will happen to the population of the
guinea pigs?
A. The population will remain the same. C. The population will increase.
B. The population will decrease. D. The population is not affected.
____56. The maximum number of organisms that an environment can support is known as –
A. Carrying capacity B. population density C. population D. stability
____57. The measurement of a population per unit area.
A. Carrying capacity B. population density C. population D. stability
____58. The total number of organisms belonging to the same species in a given environment.
A. Carrying capacity B. population density C. population D. stability
____59. The ability of an ecosystem to be self-regulating, and again become steady after a
disturbance.
A. Carrying capacity B. population density C. population D. stability
____60. When an increase in the population of house lizard in a certain area causes a decrease
in the population of mosquito, what limiting factor is involved?
A. competition and resources B. Diseases and parasites
C. emigration D. predation

Prepared by:

LEIZYL B. ALCANTARA
Science 10 Teacher

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