Test 1

Q:1-Albert Technologies is developing a new transistor system to launch in 2012. Which Six Sigma
project methodology are managers likely to use?
Mark one answer:
DMADV
DMAIC
DMAIV
DMADC

Q:2-In DMAIC project methodology, the 'I' refers to the following:

Mark one answer:
integrate current products
integrate future products
improve current processes
improve future processes

Q:3-Jason's company manufactures parts for large car producers such as Toyota and Honda.
Management at his company is committed to continuous improvement in manufacturing
standards and practices through rigorous training. What is the name of this practice?
Mark one answer:
Kaiser
error-proofing
Kaizen
teamwork

Q:4-The Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation requests 'business cases' of all new project proposals.
What is the main goal behind the preparation of a business case?
Mark one answer:
to gather technical requirements for an IT project
to present financial projections to investors
to address how the project will address the business need
to focus the efforts of executive recruitment

Q:5-David’s team of architectural engineers is prompted by managers to gather Key Performance

Indicators (KPIs) for their next project. What is the process whereby project KPIs are set against
internal and external goals?
Mark one answer:
 kaizen
benchmarking
data gathering
organizational restructuring

Q:6-What is the correct sequence for the use of benchmarking in the assessment of process
efficiency?
Mark one answer:
select KPIs > collect data > analyze data against benchmarks > improve strategies
select KPIs > select benchmarking targets > collect data > analyze data against benchmarks >
improve strategies
select benchmarking targets > collect data > improve strategies > select KPIs
select KPIs > select benchmarking targets > improve strategies > analyze data against
benchmarking

Q:7-Managers at a waste management facility are exploring question-asking methods to help

them understand the cause of low productivity. What technique that utilizes repeated questions
can they use to get to the root of a problem?
Mark one answer:
pareto chart
run chart
5why
3why

Q:8-As manager of a grocery store, Jason is requested by executives to develop a SIPOC diagram
for their latest expansion. What does the P stand for in the acronym?
Mark one answer:
process
production
project
pareto

Q:9-Drake International is compiling a list of their customers who have purchased large items in
successive years. They complete a contingency table that compiles biographical information on the
customers such as age and occupation along with information on the purchases. What are the
values in a contingency table based on?
Mark one answer:
prior knowledge
empirical evidence
personal experiences
public data repository

Q:10-Sam's research at a local manufacturing company is examining the efficiency of a new

machine in detecting design failures. To present evidence to his supervisors that the machine is
indeed effective, he must accept or reject the null hypothesis. According to the image below, what
does the region of non-rejection imply?
Mark one answer:
accept the alternate hypothesis
reject the null hypothesis
accept the null hypothesis
reject the alternate

Test 2

Q:1-A significant limitation of regression analysis is:

Mark one answer:
an incomplete understanding of the relationship between the independent and dependent
variable
an incomplete understanding of the relationship between the slope and the random error term
an incomplete understanding of the relationship between the slope and the intercept
an incomplete understanding of the relationship between the intercept and the random error
term

Q:2-Business Process Mapping (BPM) defines what a business does and the various actors within
these activities. What is the final product of Business Process Mapping?
Mark one answer:
process map
business map
business process deliverable
business process illustration

Q:3-Root Cause Analysis (RCA) is considered to be a _____ type of accident analysis.

Mark one answer:
 reactive
reflective
proactive
probative

Q:4-Green Technologies Inc. is conducting a JAD session to define those factors they think will
contribute to the success of the new information system. This will include cost limitations and how
to measure the success of the system. What does JAD stand for?
Mark one answer:
Joint Assessment Design
Joint Analytical Design
Joint Application Development
Joint Assessment Development

Q:5-Sam's Club executives noticed a strong, positive correlation between in-store promotions and
the use of mail coupons. How does the increase of mail coupons affect in-store promotions?
Mark one answer:
as more in-store promotions are conducted, more mail coupons are used
there is no association between in-store promotions and mail coupons used
as more in-store promotions are conducted, mail coupons are not affected
as more in-store promotions are conducted, fewer mail coupons are used

Q:6-A car manufacturing company is facing a class -action lawsuit because of major brake failures.
The company's research department is especially implicated because their published research on
the brake systems showed them to be within expected safety standards. The following are
expectations of ethical experimentation EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
presentation of all results - favorable and unfavorable
full explanation of methodologies used in research
exclusion of important factors that affect experiment results
presenting summaries that do not distort experiment results

Q:7-The Risk Priority Number (RPN) methodology is an analytic tool that is used to determine the
risks associated with potential problems for a product or a process. The following are components
of the RPN equation EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
 source
severity
occurrence
detection

Q:8-Managers at a food manufacturing plant are studying the efficiency of sorting processes. They
believe that 2% of food products contain defects; to prove this, their stated alternate hypothesis
(H1) is that:
Mark one answer:
2% of food products do not contain defects
2% of food products contain defects
98% of food products do not contain defects
not enough information is available

Q:9-Three samples (1, 2, 3) are compared using ANOVA. The null hypothesis is stated as:
Mark one answer:
H0: µ1 = µ2 = µ3
H0: µ1 = µ2
H1: µ1 = µ2 = µ3
H0: µ2 = µ3

Q:10-Brian is a Management Consultant who is hired to improve the performance of a capital

fundraising team. In his initial workshop, he relates the importance of understanding team
development and its effects on their upcoming fundraising campaign. After 'forming', teams enter
a stage where ideas compete for prominence. What is this stage called?
Mark one answer:
adjourning
performing
storming
recognition

Test 3

Q:1-An effective communication strategy is a must for successful and profitable companies. All of
the following are important components of effective communication EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
location
speaker credibility
 purpose
audience

Q:2-Pharmaceutical companies are often accused of hiding experimental results that do not
support their stated marketing campaigns. In ethical terms, what is this practice called?
Mark one answer:
"data cleansing"
"data boosting"
"data analysis"
"data scrubbing"

Q:3-Quality control at a software production assembly line chooses samples for study from every
25 units produced within the day shift. At the end of a single production cycle, they are expected
to analyze 200 units for defects. What is this type of sampling called?
Mark one answer:
Probability sampling
Non-probability sampling
Continuous sampling
Fixed-rate sampling

Q:4-The throughput yields of 5 sub-processes in series to execute in order are: 80%, 82%, 80%,
80%, and 83%, respectively. What is the probability that the order executed through this 5 sub-
processes in series is defect free?
Mark one answer:
25.15%
34.85%
45.15%
65.85%

Q:5-In both manufacturing and business processes in the long-term, the number of sigmas that
will fit between a process mean and the desired specification limit will _____.
Mark one answer:
remain the same
decrease
 increase
fluctuates with the process

Q:6-In a capability study, a process capability index uses both the process _______ and _________
to determine whether the process is "capable".
Mark one answer:
accuracy; precision
variability; specifications
variability; reproducibility
precision; specifications

Q:7-Melissa is a Management Consultant hired to conduct a business improvement assessment of

low-performing processes in a fruit packing factory. The following are all examples of common
causes in variations that could be found in this factory EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
human reaction times
equipment age
materials variation
shortage of skilled machinists

Q:8-Following completion of her Six Sigma training, Stacey is responsible for Six Sigma
implementation across the organization, integrating the knowledge she has gained while
mentoring Black Belts. Stacey's role is:
Mark one answer:
executive leadership
champion
green belt
yellow belt

Q:9-An ink manufacturing company manager draws a control chart that displays a process mean.
The manager is concerned that the process of ink packages assembly is inconsistent and
inefficient. The control chart below shows that the process is out of control because:
Mark one answer:
eight points are above the center line
process means are too close to the LCL
 process means are too far from the UCL
one point is above the center line

Q:10-Six Sigma business management strategy was started in 1981 in an effort to streamline and
improve the effectiveness of business and manufacturing processes. Which company originally
developed Six Sigma?
Mark one answer:
Microsoft
General Electric
General Motors
Motorola

Test 4

Q:1-Charles' company plans to expand its market into North Africa particularly Egypt and Algiers.
As producers of high quality, specialty food supplements, they must launch products that are
specifically targeted to this new market, setting them apart from their own offerings and the local
market. What is this practice called?
Mark one answer:
new market product launch
product differentiation
product innovation
new product market launch

Q:2-Richard's Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) project team members are spending increasingly
less time on value-added tasks. As a result, the project's productivity is declining. What is this an
example of?
Mark one answer:
over-commitment
under-commitment
ERP creep
scope creep

Q:3-What does DPMO stand for?

Mark one answer:
Dedicated Production & Manufacturing Output
Defects Per Million Opportunities
 Defects Per Manufacturing Output
Defects Per Manufacturing Opportunities

Q:4-Annex Inc. managers wish to improve the productivity of project processes that require cross-
functional team collaborations. Which of the following does NOT contribute to cross-functional
teams failing to complete projects successfully?
Mark one answer:
leadership crises
differing departmental cultures
remote communication
territorial behavior

Q:5-Organizations forming successful cross-functional teams during the planning stages often have
a formula include the following EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
a detailed 'roles and responsibilities' document that is tailored to cross-functional teams
team members who can anticipate both cultural and practical processes complications
an experienced project manager who has limited exposure to cross-functional teams
business units that are flexible enough to provide support to cross-functional teams

Q:6-David's team of architectural engineers is prompted by managers to gather Key Performance

Indicators (KPIs) for their next project. What is the process whereby project KPIs are set against
internal and external goals?
Mark one answer:
kaizen
benchmarking
data gathering
organizational restructuring

Q:7-A specialized national welding company is facing the looming retirement of their most senior
welders. According to the Theory of Constraints, what is their most pressing internal constraint?
Mark one answer:
lack of high quality welding materials
competition from outsourcing companies
 shortage of expertise within the company
vulnerability to rising metal prices

Q:8-In product development and design, it is important to document and analyze all the ways that
a product design would fail in real life situations. The goal of DFMEA in Six Sigma methodology is
to uncover those instances where _____ _____ occurs.
Mark one answer:
failure mode
failure milestones
function model
function milestones

Q:9-PEAK Inc. is a large medical facility offering advanced radiological services. Executives are
interested in computing the median age of men seeking full diagnostic imaging. As a measure of
central tendency, where is the median point located?
Mark one answer:
located at the midway point of outlier points
located at the midway point of the upper 50% and lower 50% of data
located at the midway point of the most frequent data
located at the sum of differences between the mean and individual data points

Q:10-Operators of a local racetrack are interested in calculating the probability of rain during a
major upcoming event. When calculating probability, what assumption is made about all
outcomes of an event?
Mark one answer:
that they are a greater value than individual outcomes
that they are a smaller value than individual outcomes
that they have an equal likelihood of occurrence
that they have an unequal likelihood of occurrence

Test 5

Q:1-Stakeholders are individuals or organizations that are affected by a company's decisions.

Which one of these can be considered an external stakeholder to a global oil and gas company?
Mark one answer:
project leads in overseas offices
independent drilling equipment producers
seasonal employees
subcontracted consultants
Q:2-NEC launches a new TV set in Washington State in 2008 with a limited release. Company
executives are interested in tracking sales' patterns in order to make production decisions for the
following year. What graphical tool can display sales figures by month?
Mark one answer:
histogram
run chart
CTQ tree
process map

Q:3-Kroger's grocery stores in Houston are interested in gauging the response of weekend
managers to door promotions. By selecting specific managers, what sampling method are
executives using in their research?
Mark one answer:
convenience sampling
stratified sampling
simple random sampling
judgment sampling

Q:4-A biomedical company is studying whether its knee joint replacement is causing nerve
damage. After extensive tests, the researchers make an erroneous decision, concluding that the
replacement does cause nerve damage. A Type I error is the probability of?
Mark one answer:
rejecting the alternative hypothesis when it is true
rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
accepting the null hypothesis when it is true
accepting the alternative hypothesis when it is true

Q:5-All of the following are the components of the multiple regression model EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
slopes of trend lines
correlation coefficients
random error terms
intercept
Q:6-Executives at a software company are studying the differences between two groups of
application users using Analysis of Variance (ANOVA). If they ACCEPT the null hypothesis in this
study, the implication is that:
Mark one answer:
there are no differences in the means between the two groups
there are small differences in the means between the two groups
there are large differences in the means between the two groups
there are no differences between the first group and the population

Q:7-Using a Program Evaluation & Review Chart (PERT) model, fundraising managers at Smith
College develop a plan to expand the reach of their capital gains campaign. What is the main
purpose behind the use of a PERT model in project management?
Mark one answer:
to predict the likelihood that employees will increase their productivity
to gain a new perspective on campaign growth strategy
to analyze tasks involved in completing the project
to provide post-implementation evaluation of the project

Q:8-Procom Systems uses a centralized system of gathering and analyzing feedback from
customers through an online repository of surveys. What is this system called?
Mark one answer:
Enterprise Survey Development
Enterprise Feedback Management
Enterprise Survey Generation
Enterprise Feedback Analysis

Q:9-SWOT analysis is frequently used by companies to assess the viability of a new project or an
existing one. The goal of this analysis is to provide _____ into the company's past performance
and _____ about its future performance.
Mark one answer:
insight; foresight
planning; action
insight; data
forecast; planning
Q:10-The Taguchi method for improving product quality of goods aims to eliminate variation in
manufacturing. When is this method optimally used in the manufacturing life cycle?
Mark one answer:
during the design stage
before the design stage
during the production stage
after the production stage

Test 6

Q:1-A manager of an 800-room hotel wishes to study the time it takes to deliver luggage to a
room. For 10 days, he collects data on delivery times which can be up to 20 per day. What
measure of dispersion can he use to analyze this data?
Mark one answer:
mean
standard deviation
median
mode

Q:2-Weigh-It-Right is producing a new brand of scales that measures body fat in addition to
weight. Under testing conditions, the scale shows a consistent weight of 0.25 lbs. What is this an
example of?
Mark one answer:
constant bias
constant variation
constant average
constant overeating

Q:3-A national dairy farm is facing significant revenue losses due to customer returns and store
rejections of their milk products. Executives wish to quantify the actual cost of poor quality on
revenues. Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) includes the following EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
cost of labor to repair a problem
cost of failure prevention programs
cost of new and extra materials used
cost of additional utilities used
Q:4-A marketing company claims that its customer return 12% of promotional surveys they
conduct on a quarterly basis. To test this claim, a random sample of 1000 customers are sent a
promotional survey. The significance level (a) of this study is set at 0.05. What does a significance
level imply?
Mark one answer:
probability of rejecting the alternate hypothesis when it is true
probability of accepting the null hypothesis when it is false
probability of accepting the alternate hypothesis when it is false
probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true

Q:5-Researchers at a soap production company are interested in the purchasing differences

amongst 3 of their products (Product 1, Product 2, and Product 3). They state a null hypothesis
that there are no differences between mean sales of the 3 products. The alternate hypothesis is
stated as:
Mark one answer:
H1: Not all µx are the same (where x is a product)
H0: Not all µx are the same (where x is a product)
H1: µ1 = µ2 but not µ3
H0: µ2 = µ3 but not µ1

Q:6-In the company’s annual retreat, several members complain to the facilitators that some
participants are not putting in an equal effort. What is this behavior referred to?
Mark one answer:
groupthink
social loafing
jerkdom
performing

Q:7-In a brainstorming session, an effective facilitator should NOT:

Mark one answer:
encourage the participation of all members
dismiss ideas in the early stages
dismiss discouraging remarks
encourage adherence to a structure
Q:8-Jackie’s communication firm is asked to provide a training session to a medical supplies’ sales
force. The session emphasizes the importance of involving the intended audience when making
sales presentations. In order of importance, rank the level of involvement of the audience in
bringing about effective results:
Mark one answer:
engage < consult < tell < show
tell < consult < show
tell < show < consult < engage
consult < show < tell

Q:9-Jeffrey is a real estate agent who wishes to study the relationship between the selling price of
a house and its size (measured in feet) in Manhattan. He develops a simple linear regression
model as seen below. What is the slope of the model?
Houseprice = 95.5 + 0.25 (square feet) + 13
Mark one answer:
95.5
0.25
13
4.5

Q:10-Managers at an oil and gas company are interested in improving current safety procedures in
their plants in the Gulf Coast. Six Sigma certified professionals are consulted on how to improve
these processes. In Six Sigma's DMAIC methodology, what does the 'M' represent?
Mark one answer:
measure
model
maintain
modify

Test 7

Q:1-Process variation is a natural phenomenon in business as no two products or service

experiences offered to customers can be identical. What two components make up process
variation?
Mark one answer:
common cause & inherent cause
common cause & special cause
common cause & production cause
common cause & training cause
Q:2-A Decision Tree is a is a visual decision making tool that can prove useful across a number of
business settings. Decision trees provide all of the following EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
present competing alternatives
display potential outcomes
provide comprehensive risk analysis
compare probabilities

Q:3-The following is a multiple regression model. What do the regression coefficients b1 and b2
represent?
Yi = b0 + b1X1i + b2X2i +ei
Mark one answer:
slopes of independent variables
slopes of dependent variables
random error term
graph intercept

Q:4-A process is a:
Mark one answer:
value-added transformation from input to output
value-added transformation from data to knowledge
manufacturing transformation of raw materials
business transformation of data to process maps

Q:5-The ability of an electronic scale to measure substances consistently every time the
measurement is made is referred to as _____.
Mark one answer:
repeatability
precision
accuracy
reproducibility

Q:6-_____ is a tool that is used in the define phase of Six Sigma DMAIC, and can be used in
developing high level process maps in a process improvement project.
Mark one answer:
SIPOC
CPOQ
CTU
DPU

Q:7-Real estate agents at a national agency meet on a weekly basis to discuss property pricing.
With repossessed homes, the proper procedure for pricing is for three real estate agents to agree
on a selling price. This is an example of _____.
Mark one answer:
percent agreement
pricing agreement
estate agreement
systematic agreement

Q:8-Workers in the overnight shift at an assembly line, on average, require 8.5 minutes to
complete once production cycle. Production managers have contributed this to biological
differences in overnight reaction times. What type of variation is this an example of:
Mark one answer:
wear-and-tear
inherent
special cause
deliberate

Q:9-The following are examples of statistical process control charts EXCEPT:

Mark one answer:
p-charts
c-charts
Xbar charts
Y charts

Q:10-Project specification limits are set by managers in response to customers’ expectations. The
largest specification value that can be obtained and still be acceptable to customer expectations is
referred to as:
Mark one answer:
LSL
USL
 LSL
UCL

Test 8

Q:1-The Cp index is a measure of potential process performance as seen in the equation below.
What does a Cp value greater than 1 imply?
Cp = USL - LSL/ 6( Rbar/d2) = specification spread/process spread
Mark one answer:
a process has the potential of having > 94.73% of outcomes within specifications
a process has the potential of having > 97.73% of outcomes within specifications
a process has the potential of having > 99.73% of outcomes within specifications
a process performance cannot be calculated from given information

Q:2-The Six Sigma approach allows for a shift of as much as ______ standard deviations, so it is
essentially a ±4.5 standard deviation goal.
Mark one answer:
3.0
3.5
1.0
1.5

Q:3-Ron's research team is examining the tread quality of their company’s new tires. The team
decides to use a factorial design that is examining 2 types of tread in 3 different types of metal
installations. What type of design is this?
Mark one answer:
2X2
2X3
6X1
3X3

Q:4-A Cp of more than 2 implies that a process has the potential of _____ expectations of Six
Sigma standards.
Mark one answer:
meeting
exceeding
 falling short
being unaffected

Q:5-A hotel manager wishes to compare packaged deals to frequent guests. Specifically, he is
interested in whether those who receive business deals stay longer than those who receive
personal deals. What statistical test is most appropriate to compare the two deals?
Mark one answer:
t-test
f-test
chi-square test
m-test

Q:6-Statistical Process Control (SPC) is an application of statistical methodology such as

experiments to ensure that a process produces desired effects. SPC can be broken down into
understanding the following factors EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
the process
the causes of variation
the roles
the corrective measures

Q:7-In Total Quality Management, most variation in a process is due to the system not the
individual. Is this statement true?
Mark one answer:
yes
no
yes, but only in manufacturing
depends on the industry

Q:8-In an effort to mobilize resources needed for the annual fundraising campaign, Stewart uses a
specialized type of bar chart to track the project’s milestones within important phases. What is
this type of bar chart referred to?
Mark one answer:
gantt chart
bar chart
 c-chart
process chart

Q:9-In Six Sigma methodology implementation within a company, the commitment of senior
management and executives is important because:
Mark one answer:
people only follow those in high ranks
they are important in providing resources and support
they are the ones that sign everyone's check
quality management is the concern of top level employees along

Q:10-A local FedEx company wishes to reduce the penalties incurred from late deliveries to
business centers. Managers conduct the following analysis to understand the root cause of these
late deliveries:
Mark one answer:
time trap analysis
ANOVA
regression analysis
time series analysis

Test 9

Q:1-In businesses that apply the theory of constraints, which element of a process receives
immediate attention?
Mark one answer:
The most important
The most problematic
The most complicated
The most efficient

Q:2-What is one major problem with obtaining information about customer satisfaction from
comment cards?
Mark one answer:
Responses are often vague
The most pleased and displeased customers are overrepresented
The expense is high
Participants must be compensated
Q:3-Which distribution is appropriate for a continuous set of data with a fixed lower boundary but
no upper boundary?
Mark one answer:
Lognormal
exponential
normal
Johnson

Q:4-What are the three most important characteristics of process metrics?

Mark one answer:
Reliability, reproducibility, and repeatability
Rationality, reliability, and repeatability
Reliability, responsibility, and rationality
Repeatability, responsibility, and reproducibility

Q:5-Which pioneer of quality control wrote Quality Is Free?

Mark one answer:
Armand V. Feigenbaum
Philip B. Crosby
Joseph M. Juran
W. Edward Deming

Q:6-Which of the following conflict-response strategies would be most appropriate when a group
is fragile?
Mark one answer:
Avoidance
Competition
Collaboration
Accommodation

Q:7-Which is typically the first category to be identified in SIPOC analysis?

Mark one answer:
Inputs
Suppliers
 Outputs
Processes

Q:8-How is takt time calculated?

Mark one answer:
Available time divided by demand
Demand divided by the amount of time available
Time required for a task divided by demand
Overall process time minus time required for a particular task

Q:9-How many runs would be required in a complete factorial design if there are four levels and
three factors?
Mark one answer:
7
12
81
64

Q:10-Which parameter of a statistical distribution relates to the sharpness of its peak?

Mark one answer:
Skewness
Standard deviation
Kurtosis
Central tendency

Test 10

Q:1-What is the name for the amount of completed product divided by the original amount of
product?
Mark one answer:
Throughput yield
Scrap rate
Rolled throughput yield
Yield
Q:2-Which method of creating a prioritization matrix is appropriate when time is limited?
Mark one answer:
Consensus-criteria method
Summary method
Partial analytical method
Full analytical method

Q:3-In gauge repeatability and reproducibility analysis, what percentage of total process variation
is acceptable?
Mark one answer:
30% or less
15% or less
10% or less
20% or less

Q:4-Which type of diagram is used to eliminate unnecessary movement during a process?

Mark one answer:
Ishikawa diagram
Spaghetti diagram
Scatter diagram
Matrix diagram

Q:5-In what order are the process steps presented in a process decision program chart?
Mark one answer:
Top to bottom
Bottom to top
Right to left
Left to right

Q:6-Measurement accuracy is attained when...

Mark one answer:
Different people get the same result when measuring the same item or characteristic.
The same person taking multiple measurements on the same item or characteristic gets the
same results every time.
The measured value has little deviation from the actual value.
 When the resolution of the measurement instrument can give at least 5 distinct values in the
range being measured.

Q:7-In a normal distribution 68% of the data will occur within...

Mark one answer:
+/- 2 standard deviations
+/- 1 standard deviation
+/- 3 standard deviations
Outside the bell-shaped curve

Q:8-The Risk Priority Number (RPN) in an FMEA exercise is derived from...

Mark one answer:
severity x occurrence x risk
severity x risk x detection
occurrence x detection x control
severity x occurrence x detection

Q:9-The Voice of the Customer

Mark one answer:
The number of errors in the process
A control chart with control limits
The department's output target
The customer's specification limits

Q:10-A planning method designed to show the tasks associated with a project, the personnel
responsible for completing the tasks and the timelines allowed
Mark one answer:
Pareto chart
Gantt chart
Microsoft Project
Check sheet

Test 11

Q:1-A bar chart that depicts the frequencies of numerical or measurement data
Mark one answer:
Sample
 Histogram
Check Sheet
Process Map

Q:2-SIPOC
Mark one answer:
Suppliers, Inputs, Procedure, Outputs, Customers
Simple, Inputs, Process, Outputs, Complex
Simple, Inputs, Procedure, Outputs, Complex
Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, Customers

Q:3-An improvement process in which a company measures its performance against that of best-
in-class companies, determines how those companies achieved their performance levels, and uses
the information to improve its own performance
Mark one answer:
Control Chart
Six Sigma
Benchmarking
Cause and Effect Diagram

Q:4-A control limit

Mark one answer:
Indicates the boundary of the bell curve in a normal distribution
Indicates that a process event or measurement is likely to fall within that limit
Indicates that a process event or measurement is likely to fall outside that limit
Indicates the customer's desired upper or lower performance limits

Q:5-For a set of data, the average squared deviation from the mean, with a denominator of n-1
Mark one answer:
Sample Variance
Normal Distribution
Sample
Population
Q:6-Provides relationship between two variables, and provides a visual correlation coefficient
Mark one answer:
Scatter Diagram
Cause and effect chart
Box plot
Trend line

Q:7-The objective of Design of Experiments (DOE) is to

Mark one answer:
Map all process steps and determine their average duration
Establish optimal process performance by finding the right settings for key process input
variables
Establish the best graphing method to illustrate process performance
Determine the mean and standard deviation of a population

Q:8-A six sigma capable process will have

Mark one answer:
Cp = 1.5, Cpk = 2.0 and DPMO = 3.4
Cp = 2.0, Cpk = 1.5 and DPMO = 6
Cp = 1.5 Cpk = 2.0 and DPMO = 6
Cp = 2.0, Cpk = 1.5 and DPMO = 3.4

Q:9-A pictorial diagram showing possible causes (process inputs) for a given effect (process
outputs) It is also referred to as the "Ishikawa diagram" or "fishbone diagram "
Mark one answer:
Standard Deviation
Cause and Effect Diagram
Random Experiment
Scatter Diagram

Q:10-When the mean of the process is outside the customer specification limits the value of Cpk
will be:
Mark one answer:
2.0
0.5
 1.0
Negative

Test 12

Q:1-Six sigma black belt responsibilities include all of the following, except:
Mark one answer:
Selecting projects for execution by green belts
Mentoring green belts
Training organisation staff in six sigma techniques and team work
Planning the sales and marketing strategy

Q:2-The middle value of a data set when the values are arranged in either ascending or descending
order
Mark one answer:
Median
Mode
Mean
Discrete Data

Q:3-One of the most common measures of variability in a data set or population

Mark one answer:
Process capability
Specification limits
Mean
Standard Deviation

Q:4-A sequence of 3 operations has first pass yield (right first time) rates as follows: 93%, 87% and
92%. The first pass yield rate is:
Mark one answer:
72%
74%
99%
87%
Q:5-The following are indicators of out of control conditions on a control chart, except
Mark one answer:
Six consecutive points, increasing or decreasing
Fourteen consecutive points that alternate up and down
Two points in zone c above the mean, followed by two points in zone b below the mean
One or more points outside the control limits

Q:6-A 3 sigma process will have

Mark one answer:
233 ppm
6210 ppm
308770 ppm
66810 ppm

Q:7-What is the correct order of the six-sigma phases?

Mark one answer:
Define, Analyze, Improve, Control, Measure
Define, Analyze, Measure Improve, Control
Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control
Define, Measure, Analyze, Control, Improve

Q:8-What are the ways of capturing VOC

Mark one answer:
A. Surveys
B. Focus Groups
C. Brainstorming
D. A & B

Q:9-Cause and Effect Diagram is not known as

Mark one answer:
Isihikawa Diagram
4-M
Affinity Diagram
None of the above
Q:10-Which of these is not a Measure of Dispersion
Mark one answer:
Range
Variance
Median
Standard Deviation

Test 13

Q:1-Which of the p value indicates a stable data

Mark one answer:
A. 0.67
B. 0.03
C. 0.019
D. A & B

Q:2-Which of these are not Multivariate analyses?

Mark one answer:
Factor analysis
MANOVA
ANOVA
Cluster analysis

Q:3-Which of the following is a non parametric test

Mark one answer:
Regression
2 tailed 2 sample t test
ANOVA
Kruksal test

Q:4-It is a technique to trace the rule responsible for the problem and break the assumption for
the process
Mark one answer:
Assumption Busting
Analogy Technique
 Benchmarking
Constrained Brain writing

Q:5-Cost benefit analysis does not include

Mark one answer:
Project benefits
Project cost factors
Project gain
Impact on competitor

Q:6-A shoe manufacturing firm learned through a Lean Six Sigma project their boot soles could be
made of a different material requiring two less steps in the process. Removal of these two steps
yielded a monthly cost savings of $7,500. Therefore the reported financial savings for this LSS
project were _____.
Mark one answer:
$45,000
$75,000
$90,000
$120,000

Q:7-A Belt utilized a diamond symbol in a Process Map she created for the process that was
subject to her LSS project. By use of the diamond symbol she was showing a(n) _____ point in the
process.
Mark one answer:
Ending
Beginning
Decision
Repair station

Q:8-When in the process of trying to identify the Critical X’s for a LSS project a Belt creates a(n)
_____ because frequently it is 20% of the inputs that have an 80% impact on the output.
Mark one answer:
Pareto Chart
FMEA
 Np Chart
X-Y Diagram

Q:9-When a Belt is developing a Macro Process Map to define a complex process he will
frequently include activities across various department to capture all the appropriate activity. He
will use _____ to show which department is responsible for which steps in the process.
Mark one answer:
Subscripts
Superscripts
Swim Lanes
Fence Posts

Q:10-As we calibrate our Measurement System to assure accurate data we frequently encounter
Bias which is the _____ of a measured value from the _____ value.
Mark one answer:
Spread, Mean of the population
Deviation, hoped for
Deviation, true
Spread, idea

Test 14

Q:1-In an "X" Sifting exercises a Belt will use a(n) _____ to assist in isolating families of variation
that may exist within a subgroup, between subgroups or vary over time..
Mark one answer:
Multi-Vari Chart
Pareto Chart
FMEA
Shewhart Analysis

Q:2-When analyzing sample data a Belt may experience a Bimodal Distribution with each mode
displaying Normal Distribution. This could be caused by _____.
Mark one answer:
Two different machines being read
Two operators on different shifts
Two suppliers parts being used
All these are correct answers
Q:3-A battery manufacturer was considering changing suppliers for a particular part. The
purchasing manager required that the average cost of the part be less than or equal to $32 in
order to stay within budget. A sample of the 32 initial deliveries had a Mean of the new product
upgrade price of $28 with an estimated Standard Deviation of $3. Based on the data provided, the
Z value for the data assuming a Normal Distribution is?
Mark one answer:
0.67
1.33
2.67
4.33

Q:4-When doing a graphical analysis of DOE results a Belt frequently uses the Main Effects Plot. To
determine the relative impact of a variety of inputs on the output of interest it is easy to identify
the most impactful input because the slope of the line on the Main Effects Plot is _____.
Mark one answer:
The steepest
Negatively correlated
Positively correlated
The shallowest

Q:5-A _____ is used to create a model of the affect on an output by the variation in two or more of
the inputs.
Mark one answer:
Correlation Coefficient
Linear Regression
Multiple Regression
X-Y Diagram

Q:6-In the Control Phase of a LSS project a Belt will identify key metrics that can be monitored and
analyzed to give an indication that a process may be moving towards an out of spec condition.
When he applies this approach he is using _____.
Mark one answer:
Poisson Derivatives
Inferential Statistics
 Kanban Analysis
Statistical Process Control

Q:7-As a Belt completes a LSS project she creates for the Process Owner a Control Plan. The _____
portion of the Control Plan details the actions to be taken when the KPI’s indicate they may be
moving outside acceptable limits.
Mark one answer:
Visual Factory
Response Plan
Readjustment Plan
Variance Tracking

Q:8-An organized and disciplined approach to problem solving in most six sigma organizations is
called:
Mark one answer:
SIPOC
DMAIC
PDCA
DPMO

Q:9-Using six sigma methodology, a company at 4.5 sigma would have a failure rate of:
Mark one answer:
3.4 ppm
233 ppm
1350 ppm
6210 ppm

Q:10-From an upper management perspective, what has been the principal motivating factor in
embracing six sigma?
Mark one answer:
Bottom line results
Market share growth
Defect reductions
Customer focus

Test 15
Q:1-An advantage of training managers in six sigma concepts before improvement team members
is which of the following?
Mark one answer:
Managers have more time available for training
Managers must lead the deployment of six sigma
Managers must understand the concepts better than the team members
Managers must pay for worker training

Q:2-In highly effective six sigma companies, most employees receive some training. What group is
most likely to receive sponsorship training?
Mark one answer:
Senior management
Master black belt candidates
Black belt candidates
Green belt candidates

Q:3-A company struggling with low performance in terms of quality, profitability, and productivity
is considering a six sigma initiative. A decision to proceed would be considered:
Mark one answer:
Smart, they have a lot of low lying fruit
Unwise, they probably can't afford the effort
Unwise, they need to attend to basic activities first
Smart, they obviously need the six sigma structure

Q:4-One of Dr. Deming's 14 points for management states, "Cease dependence upon inspection as
a way to achieve quality." The underlying tenet of this statement is which of the following?
Mark one answer:
Many American companies employ too many inspectors; perhaps 5% - 10% of the work force
Quality should be built into the product, not inspected in
In most cases, the worker should perform his/her own inspection and not rely on someone else
Most manual inspection will miss 10% - 20% of defects under typical working conditions

Q:5-Which of the following quality luminaries would be most clearly identified as a proponent of
improvement and breakthrough projects?
Mark one answer:
 Ishikawa
Deming
Juran
Crosby

Q:6-Identify the quality guru who believed the best approach to understanding the purpose of a
quality system would be the four absolutes of quality management.
Mark one answer:
Dr. Feigenbaum
Philip Crosby
Dr. Deming
Dr. Juran

Q:7-If one chose to look at any business enterprise on a main level basis, which of the following
categories would be integrated into other KPIV and KPOV areas?
Mark one answer:
Process
Operations
Business
Technological

Q:8-Why has six sigma been so successful for many organizations?

Mark one answer:
Bottom line results are enhanced
A ± 1.5 sigma shift is included
An undisciplined approach is used
Sound statistical approaches are eliminated

Q:9-Why is six sigma called TQM on steroids?

Mark one answer:
Because of the extensive training element required
Because of the inclusion of statistical and lean tools
Because of the heavy impact of top management support
Because of the impact of cost savings on the bottom line
Q:10-Albert Technologies is developing a new transistor system to launch in 2012. Which Six Sigma
project methodology are managers likely to use?
Mark one answer:
DMADV
DMAIC
DMAIV
DMADC

Test 16

Q:1-A Belt will occasionally do a quick experiment referred to as an OFAT which stands for _____.
Mark one answer:
Only a Few Are Tested
Opposite Factors Affect Technique
One Factor At a Time
Ordinary Fractional Approach Technique

Q:2-Which statement(s) are correct for the Regression Analysis shown here?

Mark one answer:

a) This Regression is an example of a Multiple Linear Regression.
 b) This Regression is an example of Cubic Regression.
c) Thickness explains over 80% of the process variance in heat flux.
d) Both a & c

Q:3-The Regression Model for an observed value of Y contains the term ?o which represents the Y
axis intercept when X = 0.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:4-Which statement(s) are true about the Fitted Line Plot shown here?

Mark one answer:

a) When Reactant increases, the Energy Consumed increases.
b) The predicted output Y is close to -18 when the Reactant level is set to 6.
c) Over 85 % of the variation of the Energy Consumed is explained by the Reactant via this Linear
Regression.
d) Both b & c

Q:5-After reviewing the Capability Analysis shown here select the statement(s) that are untrue.
Mark one answer:
The process is properly assumed to be a Normal process
The Mean of the process moving range is 1.78
The process is out of Control
This Capability Analysis used subgroups

Q:6-The actual experimental response data varied somewhat from what a Belt had predicted them
to be. This is the result of which of these?
Mark one answer:
Inefficiency of estimates
Residuals
Confounded data
Gap Analysis

Q:7-Multiple Linear Regressions (MLR) is best used when which of these are applicable?
Mark one answer:
Preventing the use of a Designed Experiment if unnecessary
We assume that the X's are independent of each other
Relationships between Y (output) and more than one X (Input)
All of the above
Q:8-The generation of a Regression Equation is justified when we _____.
Mark one answer:
Expect the relationship to be Linear between the output and inputs
Experience several process defects and have no other way to fix hem
Need to understand how to control a process output by controlling the input(s)
All of the above

Q:9-Which statement(s) are correct for the Regression Analysis shown here?

Mark one answer:

a) This Regression is an example of a Multiple Linear Regression.
b) This Regression is an example of Cubic Regression.
c) Thickness explains over 80% of the process variance in heat flux.
d) Both a & c

Q:10-The Regression Model for an observed value of Y contains the term ?o which represents the
Y axis intercept when X = 0.
Mark one answer:
True
False
Test 17

Q:1-Which statement(s) are true about the Fitted Line Plot shown here?

Mark one answer:

a) When Reactant increases, the Energy Consumed increases.
b) The predicted output Y is close to -18 when the Reactant level is set to 6.
c) Over 85 % of the variation of the Energy Consumed is explained by the Reactant via this Linear
Regression.
d) Both b & c

Q:2-A Six Sigma tool that helps to screen factors by using graphical techniques to logically
subgroup multiple discrete X's plotted against a continuous Y is known as a _____ Chart.
Mark one answer:
SIPOC
Multi-Vari
Box Plot
Whisker

Q:3-A primary benefit of using a Multi-Vari Chart is it provides a visual presentation of two-way
interactions.
Mark one answer:
True
False
Q:4-_____ Distributions occur when data comes from several sources that are supposed to be the
same yet are not.
Mark one answer:
Skewed
Bimodal
Gaussian
Tri-peaked

Q:5-Bias in Sampling is an error due to lack of independence among random samples or due to
systematic sampling procedures.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:6-To draw inferences about a sample population being studied by modeling patterns of data in a
way that accounts for randomness and uncertainty in the observations is known as _____.
Mark one answer:
Influential Analysis
Inferential Statistics
Physical Modeling
Sequential Inference

Q:7-For a Normal Distribution the Mean, Median and Mode are the same data point.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:8-When two Inputs have an impact on the Output together yet seem to have no or little impact
on their own this is called a/an _____.
Mark one answer:
Interaction
Oddity
Coincidence
Impossibility
Q:9-Hypothesis Testing can save time and help avoid high costs of experimental efforts by using
existing data.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:10-It is a Type II error if we decide to reject the Null Hypothesis when it is actually true.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Test 18

Q:1-A Belt experienced an Alpha of .05 and a Beta of .10 and knew these are the most common
risk levels when running a Statistical test.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:2-Inferential Statistics is largely about Significance. There are both Practical and _____
Significance to consider during an analysis of data in a Lean Six Sigma project.
Mark one answer:
Problematic
Impractical
Usable
Statistical

Q:3-The Central Limit Theorem helps us understand the _____ we are taking and is the basis for
using sampling to estimate population parameters.
Mark one answer:
Analysis
Kurtosis
Risk
Route

Q:4-Hypothesis Tests determine the probabilities of differences between observed data and the
hypothesis being solely due to _____ based on the result of the Pvalues.
Mark one answer:
Human error
Measurement error
Shift differences
Chance

Q:5-The Alpha level of a test (level of significance) represents the yardstick against which P-values
are measured and the Null Hypothesis is rejected if the P-value is which of these?
Mark one answer:
Less than the Alpha level.
Greater than the Alpha level.
Greater than the Beta and Alpha level.
Less than one minus Alpha.

Q:6-A 1-Sample t-test is used when you want to compare the Median of one distribution to a
target value.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:7-When a Belt is analyzing sample data she should keep in mind that 95% of Normally
Distributed data is within +/- 2 Standard Deviations from the Mean.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:8-The Standard Deviation for the distribution of Means is called the _____ and approaches zero
as the sample size reaches 30.
Mark one answer:
Standard Error
Mean Deviationb
Mean Spread
Mean Error
Q:9-Due to excessive pollution, GREEN Solutions Inc. is considering subsidizing public
transportation to work for its employees. According to the manager it takes an average weekday
commute of 39 minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work
while they use their personal vehicles for their office commute while the management set a policy
of not more than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70
employees showed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public
transportation system with a Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. Assuming a Normal Distribution
for the commute times by either personal or public transportation, which of these is true?
Mark one answer:
The probability that they would arrive on time using personal vehicles is much higher than using
the metro public transportation system (MPTS)
The probability that they would arrive on time using the MPTS is much higher than using their
personal vehicles
The two probabilities are about the same excepting in one case the consistency is higher than
the other
We need to compile more data around weekends to incorporate for traffic differences

Q:10-According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a

Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work when they use their personal
vehicles for their office commute while management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for
their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average
of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard
Deviation of 21 minutes. For the employees choosing to increase their chances to come on time
using personal transportation their variation should be reduced to _____?
Mark one answer:
1 minute
6 minutes
3.5 minutes
Eliminate it to 0.0 minutes

Test 19

Q:1-According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard

Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use their personal vehicles for
their office commute while the management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their
daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34
minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation
of 21 minutes. If the Standard Deviation is uncontrollable then the other option to increase the
probability of coming in on time via personal vehicles to work could be _____?
Mark one answer:
Increase the average time of commute
Maintain the average time of commute and change route to work
 Reduce average commute time to work by departing earlier
Change policy at work and request for flexible times based on location

Q:2-Which of the following is used to test the significance for the analysis of a Variance Table?
Mark one answer:
t Test
F Test
Chi Square Test
Acid Test

Q:3-Non-parametric testing is done when which of these are applicable?

Mark one answer:
They look at the Median rather than the Mean of populations
A Hypothesis Test for the Median of the population is in question
It does not require data to come from Normally Distributed populations
All of the above

Q:4-The Mann-Whitney Test is used to test if the Means for two samples are different.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:5-Contingency Tables are used to perform which of these functions?

Mark one answer:
Illustrate one-tail proportions
Analyze the "what if" scenario
Contrast the Outliers under the tail
Compare more than two sample proportions with each other

Q:6-For the data shown here a Belt suspects the three grades are supplying the same results.
Which statement(s) are true for proper Hypothesis Testing?
Mark one answer:
The most appropriate Central Tendency to test is the Means
An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Levene's test
An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the ANOVA test
An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood's Median test

Q:7-A Six Sigma tool that helps to screen factors by using graphical techniques to logically
subgroup multiple discrete X's plotted against a continuous Y is known as a _____ Chart.
Mark one answer:
SIPOC
Multi-Vari
Box Plot
Whisker

Q:8-A primary benefit of using a Multi-Vari Chart is it provides a visual presentation of two-way
interactions.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:9-Skewed, or Mixed, Distributions occur when data comes from several sources that are
supposed to be the same yet are not.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:10-When two Inputs have an impact on the Output together yet seem to have no or little impact
on their own this is called a/an _____.
Mark one answer:
 Interaction
Oddity
Coincidence
Impossibility

Test 20

Q:1-To draw inferences about a sample population being studied by modeling patterns of data in a
way that accounts for randomness and uncertainty in the observations is known as _____.
Mark one answer:
Influential Analysis
Inferential Statistics
Physical Modeling
Sequential Inference

Q:2-The perfect sample size is the minimum number of data points required to provide exactly 6%
overlap or risk if one wants a 95% confidence level.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:3-Bias in Sampling is an error due to lack of independence among random samples or due to
systematic sampling procedures.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:4-The Central Limit Theorem helps us understand the _____ we are taking and is the basis for
using sampling to estimate population parameters.
Mark one answer:
Analysis
Kurtosis
Risk
Route

Q:5-Hypothesis Testing can help avoid high costs of experimental efforts by using existing data.
Mark one answer:
 True
False

Q:6-Hypothesis Tests determine the probabilities of differences between observed data and the
hypothesis being solely due to chance. This is determined based on the result of the _____.
Mark one answer:
Random acts
P-values
Standard Deviations
R-values

Q:7-It is a Type I error if we reject the Null Hypothesis when it is actually true.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:8-Inferential Statistics is largely about Significance. There are both Practical and _____
Significance to consider during an analysis of data in a Lean Six Sigma project.
Mark one answer:
Problematic
Impractical
Usable
Statistical

Q:9-Having an Alpha of .05 and a Beta of .10 are the most common risk levels when running a
Statistical test.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:10-The Alpha level of a test (level of significance) represents the yardstick against which P-
values are measured and the Null Hypothesis is rejected if the P-value is which of these?
Mark one answer:
Less than the Alpha level.
Greater than the Alpha level.
 Greater than the Beta and Alpha level.
Less than one minus Alpha.

Test 21

Q:1-A 1-Sample t-test is used when you want to compare the Median of one distribution to a
target value.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:2-A 1-Sample t-test is used to compare an expected population Mean to a target.

Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:3-Unequal Variances can be the result of differing types of distributions.

Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:4-Due to excessive pollution, GREEN Solutions Inc. is considering subsidizing public

transportation to work for its employees. According to the manager it takes an average weekday
commute of 39 minutes with a Standard Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work
while they use their personal vehicles for their office commute while the management set a policy
of not more than 40 minutes for their daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70
employees showed an average of 34 minutes commuting time using the metro public
transportation system with a Standard Deviation of 21 minutes. Assuming a Normal Distribution
for the commute times by either personal or public transportation, which of these is true?
Mark one answer:
The probability that they would arrive on time using personal vehicles is much higher than using
the metro public transportation system (MPTS)
The probability that they would arrive on time using the MPTS is much higher than using their
personal vehicles
The two probabilities are about the same excepting in one case the consistency is higher than
the other
We need to compile more data around weekends to incorporate for traffic differences
Q:5-According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard
Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work when they use their personal vehicles for
their office commute while management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their daily
one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34
minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation
of 21 minutes. For the employees choosing to increase their chances to come on time using
personal transportation their variation should be reduced to _____?
Mark one answer:
1 minute
6 minutes
3.5 minutes
Eliminate it to 0.0 minutes

Q:6-According to a manager it takes an average weekday commute of 39 minutes with a Standard

Deviation of 7 minutes for the employees to get to work while they use their personal vehicles for
their office commute while the management set a policy of not more than 40 minutes for their
daily one-way commute. A survey conducted one day on 70 employees showed an average of 34
minutes commuting time using the metro public transportation system with a Standard Deviation
of 21 minutes. If the Standard Deviation is uncontrollable then the other option to increase the
probability of coming in on time via personal vehicles to work could be _____?
Mark one answer:
Increase the average time of commute
Maintain the average time of commute and change route to work
Reduce average commute time to work by departing earlier
Change policy at work and request for flexible times based on location

Q:7-Which of the following is used to test the significance for the analysis of a Variance Table?
Mark one answer:
t Test
F Test
Chi Square Test
Acid Test

Q:8-Non-parametric testing is done when which of these are applicable?

Mark one answer:
They look at the Median rather than the Mean of populations
A Hypothesis Test for the Median of the population is in question
 It does not require data to come from Normally Distributed populations
All of the above

Q:9-The Mann-Whitney Test is used to test if the Means for two samples are different.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:10-Contingency Tables are used to do which of these?

Mark one answer:
a) Illustrate one-tail proportions.
b) Compare more than two sample proportions with each other.
c) Applicable to data that is Attribute in nature.
d) Both b & c

Test 22

Q:1-For the data shown here a Belt suspects the three grades are supplying the same results.
Which statement(s) are true for proper Hypothesis Testing?

Mark one answer:

The most appropriate Central Tendency to test is the Means
An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Levene's test
An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the ANOVA test
An appropriate test to test Central Tendency is the Mood's Median test

Q:2-The higher the sigma level of a process the better the performance.
Mark one answer:
 True
False

Q:3-The Six Sigma methodology had its origins at _____ in the late 1980's when William Smith
coined the name for quality related work being done there.
Mark one answer:
Motorola
Allied Signal
General Electric
Honeywell

Q:4-Training cost is $4,000 and a project required an initial investment of $30,000. If the project
yields monthly savings of $2,000 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months
(before money costs and taxes)?
Mark one answer:
10
20
27
33

Q:5-Lean Six Sigma's general approach to solving significant challenges related to a process is
called _____.
Mark one answer:
DOE
SIPOC
DMAIC
FMEA

Q:6-Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine _____ attributes of a
product or service.
Mark one answer:
At least 6
The profitable
Critical-to-Quality
The majority of the
Q:7-Those who are trained to the skill levels of a Black Belt are typically utilized to apply Lean Six
Sigma methodologies what percentage of their time?
Mark one answer:
25%
50%
75%
100%

Q:8-A process can be defined as a repetitive and systematic series of steps or activities where
inputs are modified or assembled to achieve a customer desired result.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:9-Customers make a purchase decision based on a number of factors. In Lean Six Sigma we refer
to these decision points as CTQ's or as _____.
Mark one answer:
Critical-to-quality
Conscious thought qualities
Conspicuous time quandaries
Cost of the quantity

Q:10-Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can be classified as Tangible (Visible) Costs and Hidden Costs.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Test 23

Q:1-An employee of ACME Corporation noticed that every loan application that gets approved is
copied four times and is stored in different locations in the company for no apparent reason. This
would be an example of _____.
Mark one answer:
Internal Failure Costs
Appraisal Costs
External Failure Costs
Prevention Costs
Q:2-The 80:20 rule is associated with which of these tools?
Mark one answer:
Pareto Chart
Simon's Cross-Functional Tool
SIPOC
Framing Tool

Q:3-One of the metrics commonly used in Lean Six Sigma is DPU. This acronym stands for _____.
Mark one answer:
Deferred planned usage
Defects per unit
Decreased production utilization
Downtime per unit

Q:4-According to the definition of Rolled Throughput Yield which of these items best describe the
purpose of RTY?
Mark one answer:
A function of Y=f(x)
Accounts for losses due to rework and scrap
Isolates the increase throughput
Determines incremental Growth

Q:5-What is the Cycle Time, in seconds, for a process having a Throughput of 7,200 units per hour?
Mark one answer:
0.5
2
4
10

Q:6-The following Business Case is constructed properly. "In business unit A there are too many
flashlight returns and flashlight sales have decreased by 25 percent."
Mark one answer:
 True
False

Q:7-To create standardization of financial benefit calculations project savings are typically based
on savings over what period of time?
Mark one answer:
6 months
12 months
24 months
The remainder of the calendar year

Q:8-The essence of Lean is to concentrate effort on removing waste while improving process flow
to achieve speed and agility at lower cost.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:9-Lean had its origins in the development and practice of the _____ Production System.
Mark one answer:
Honda
Toyota
Ford
Motorola

Q:10-Lean removes many forms of _____ so Six Sigma can focus on reducing _____.
Mark one answer:
Waste, variability
Inventory, defects
Waste, cost
Movement, variation

Test 24

Q:1-Which element of waste best describes "the unnecessary movement of materials and/or
goods"?
Mark one answer:
Overprocessing
Motion
 Conveyance
Correction

Q:2-Which element of waste best describes "the cost of an idle resource"?

Mark one answer:
Waiting
Motion
Inventory
Correction

Q:3-The proper functioning of a Visual Factory is dependent upon which of these?

Mark one answer:
Technically skilled workers
Work space with active 5S
Availability of visual tools
Breakthrough projects

Q:4-Lean focuses on the sequence of activities and work required to produce a product or a
service. This flow is called a _____.
Mark one answer:
Value-add Flow
Production Map
Value Stream
Operating Procedure

Q:5-Lean Enterprise is based on the premise that anywhere work is being done which of these is
also occurring?
Mark one answer:
Money is being spent
Waste is being generated
People are producing value added product
Waste is being eliminated
Q:6-When constructing a Fishbone Diagram using the _____ approach is the most classic
arrangement.
Mark one answer:
6M
4M
5M
Alphabetical

Q:7-The 5 Why Analysis is only useful if the possible independent variable can be broken down
into five possible causes.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:8-The purpose of a Process Map is to identify the complexity of the process and to assist in
identifying critical steps in the process.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:9-The very best way to begin an effort to map a process is to do which of these?
Mark one answer:
Interview the process owner
Interview the manager of the department
Walk the actual process from beginning to end
Take pictures of the factory floor at each shift

Q:10-The X-Y Diagram is a tool used to identify/collate potential X's and assess their relative
impact on multiple Y's.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Test 25

Q:1-The term FMEA is an abbreviation for Failures Measure Effective Automation.

Mark one answer:
 True
False

Q:2-When utilizing Statistics the population is defined as a collection of all the individual data
points of interest.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:3-Which of these is Discrete data?

Mark one answer:
Train arrived at 4:17 pm.
Race car consumed 23 gallons of fuel.
Of the 42 people on the bus, 12 went into the station.
It took 3 hours and 32 minutes to complete the marathon.

Q:4-Nominal Scale data consists of names, labels or categories and cannot be arranged in any
mathematical ordering scheme. Complex arithmetic functions cannot be easily applied to Nominal
Data:
Mark one answer:
True
Falsed

Q:5-When looking at a distribution graph, the Mean is defined as the _____.

Mark one answer:
Average based on the sample size
Aggression measured
Total sample size
Measurement based off a quarter of the sample size

Q:6-The difference between the largest observation and the smallest observation in the data set is
known as the _____.
Mark one answer:
Breadth
 Range
Spread
Median

Q:7-The Empirical Rule is important because it provides an estimate of the probability of an event
occurring depending on the Standard Deviation from the Mean.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:8-The Z score is a measure of the distance in Standard Deviations of a sample data point from
the Median of the sample population.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:9-Long-term Data represents all the variation that one can expect within the subject process.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:10-If a Histogram displays two peaks the distribution would likely be _____.
Mark one answer:
Transformed
Multi-skewed
Bimodal
Bi-attribute

Test 26

Q:1-A Belt gathered the following defect data for a shoe production line and wanted to assemble
it into a Pareto Chart. The correct order from left to right in the chart would be:

Data:
Cutting38
Forming17
Stitching56
Sealing42
Mark one answer:
Forming, Sealing, Cutting, Stitching
Sealing, Stitching, Forming, Cutting
Stitching, Sealing, Cutting, Forming
Forming, Cutting, Sealing, Stitching

Q:2-Measurement error is defined as the effect of all sources of measurement variability that
caused an observed or measured value to deviate from the __________.
Mark one answer:
Standard Deviation
Mean
Median
True value

Q:3-Measurement System Analysis is a procedure used to quantify variation of the method or

system used for taking measurements.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:4-The Accuracy of a Measurement System addresses _____.

Mark one answer:
Stability, Bias & Linearity
Repeatability & Reproducibility
Stability & Sensitivity
Precision & Sensitivity

Q:5-As a type of measurement error, Linearity describes a change in accuracy through the
expected operating range of the measurement instrument.
Mark one answer:
True.
False
Q:6-The deviation of the measured value from the actual value is known as _____.
Mark one answer:
Bias
Linearity
Repeatability
Movement

Q:7-The ability to repeat the same measurement obtained with one measurement instrument
used several times by one appraiser while measuring the identical characteristic on the same part
is known as _____.
Mark one answer:
Repeatability
Bias
Linearity
Reproducibility

Q:8-Process Capability is a function of which of these?

Mark one answer:
Customer requirements
Process performance
Output over time
All of these answers are correct

Q:9-If a process has Outliers which pair of charts is most preferable if subgroups will exist for the
Continuous Data?
Mark one answer:
Individual-Moving Range
Xbar-R Charts
Xbar-S Charts
nP and P Charts

Q:10-After a Belt has put data through the smoothing process which chart would be used to look
for trends in the data?
Mark one answer:
Moving Average Chart
Multi-Vari Chart
 X bar Chart
Pareto Chart

Test 27

Q:1-A Belt concludes a Lean Six Sigma project with the creation of a Control Plan. At what point
can the Control Plan be closed?
Mark one answer:
Never, a Control Plan is a living document
As soon as the Champion signs off
Within 30 days of the LSS project review team meeting
After the project has been presented at the recognition event

Q:2-Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 80% of its data points within +/- 6
Standard Deviations from the Mean.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:3-In the late 1980's William Smith coined the name Six Sigma for a methodology that had its
origins at _____ for quality related work being done there.
Mark one answer:
Honeywell
Allied Signal
General Electric
Motorola

Q:4-Training cost $6,500 and a project required an initial investment of $47,500. If the project
yields monthly savings of $3,500 beginning after 4 months, what is the payback period in months,
before money costs and taxes?
Mark one answer:
9.7
15.4
19.4
23.7
Q:5-The acronym for the defined approach taken by Lean Six Sigma to solve significant challenges
related to a process is which of these?
Mark one answer:
DOE
DMAIC
SIPOC
FMEA

Q:6-Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine _____ attributes of a
product or service.
Mark one answer:
At least 6
The profitable
Critical-to-Quality
The majority of the

Q:7-Typically a person who is trained to the skill level of a Black Belt is nearly 80% dedicated to
applying Lean Six Sigma methodologies towards process solutions.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:8-A process can be defined as a repetitive and systematic series of steps or activities where
inputs are modified or assembled to achieve a _______________ result.
Mark one answer:
Revenue total
Month end
Customer desired
Budgeted

Q:9-Customers make a purchase decision based on a number of factors. In Lean Six Sigma we refer
to these decision points as CTQ's which stands for __________.
Mark one answer:
Cost of the quantity
Conscious thought qualities
 Conspicuous time quandaries
Critical-to-quality

Q:10-Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can be classified as either Tangible (Visible) Costs or Hidden
Costs.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Test 28

Q:1-The Purchase Orders for Glenn Manufacturing Company were being copied by an employee
and sent to four different departments yet only one department took an action based on the
information in the PO. This is an example of _____.
Mark one answer:
External Failure Costsa
Appraisal Costs
Internal Failure Costs
Prevention Costs

Q:2-According to the definition of Rolled Throughput Yield which of the following items best
describe the purpose of RTY?
Mark one answer:
A function of Y=f(x)
Determines incremental Growth
Isolates the increase throughput
Accounts for rejects and reworks

Q:3-One of the metrics commonly used in Lean Six Sigma is DPU. This acronym stands for _____.
Mark one answer:
Deferred planned usage
Defects per unit
Decreased production utilization
Downtime per unit

Q:4-The 80:20 rule is associated with which of these tools?

Mark one answer:
 Pareto Chart
Simon's Cross-Functional Tool
SIPOC
Framing Tool

Q:5-What is the Cycle Time, in minutes, for a process having a Throughput of 360 units per hour?
Mark one answer:
0.167
0.333
0.667
1.333

Q:6-The following Business Case is constructed properly. "During fiscal year 2008 the warranty
returns for electric razor Model 312 were 1.3%. This represents a gap of 0.5% over target costing
the company $18,500 per month."
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:7-In order to standardize project savings financial calculation such project benefits can be
compared the financial savings are typically calculated over what period of time?
Mark one answer:
12 months
24 months
The remainder of the calendar year
The remainder of the fiscal year

Q:8-The essence of Lean is to concentrate effort on removing waste while improving process flow
to achieve speed and agility at lower cost.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:9-Which element of waste best describes "the unnecessary movement of materials and/or
goods"?
Mark one answer:
Overprocessing
Motion
Conveyance
Correction

Q:10-Lean removes many forms of _____ so Six Sigma can focus on reducing _____.
Mark one answer:
Waste, variability
Inventory, defects
Waste, cost
Movement, variation

Test 29

Q:1-Lean had its origins in the development and practice of the _____ Production System.
Mark one answer:
Honda
Toyota
Ford
Motorola

Q:2-Which element of waste best describes the cost of a resource being in the queue?
Mark one answer:
Waiting
Motion
Inventory
Correction

Q:3-Lean Enterprise is based on the premise that anywhere work is being done which of these is
also occurring?
Mark one answer:
Money is being spent
Waste is being generated
People are producing value added product
Waste is being eliminated
Q:4-Lean focuses on the sequence of activities and work required to produce a product or a
service. This flow is called a _____.
Mark one answer:
Value-add Flow
Production Map
Value Stream
Operating Procedure

Q:5-The proper functioning of a Visual Factory is dependent upon which of these?

Mark one answer:
Technically skilled workers
Work space with active 5S
Availability of visual tools
Breakthrough projects

Q:6-Use of the _____ approach is the most classic arrangement when constructing a Fishbone
Diagram.
Mark one answer:
Chronological
6M
5M
Alphabetical

Q:7-When creating a Cause and Effect Diagram the team needs to continually broaden their view
as well as drill down until they identify all the potential _____ impacting their process.
Mark one answer:
Line operators
Root Causes
Inventory issues
Customer requests

Q:8-The purpose of a Process Map is to identify the complexity of the process and to record all
actions and decision points in the process.
Mark one answer:
 True
False

Q:9-The very best way to begin an effort to map a process is to do which of these?
Mark one answer:
Interview the process owner
Interview the manager of the department
Walk the actual process from beginning to end
Take pictures of the factory floor at each shift

Q:10-The X-Y Diagram is a tool used to identify/collate potential X's and assess their relative
impact on multiple Y's.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Test 30

Q:1-The FMEA is used to analyze potential source of defects in the process of interest and stands
for _____.
Mark one answer:
Failure Measure for Effective Automation
Failure Modes and Effect Analysis
Focused Mental Efforts Analyze
Failed Manufacturing Efforts Analyzed

Q:2-With the use of Statistics we define the population to be a large enough sample set of data
such that you can analyze it and draw conclusions as to all of the data.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:3-Which of these is Discrete data?

Mark one answer:
Train arrived at 4:17 pm.
Race car consumed 23 gallons of fuel.
 Of the 42 people on the bus, 12 went into the station.
It took 3 hours and 32 minutes to complete the marathon.

Q:4-A _____ is used primarily to track the stability of the average value of a metric of interest.
Mark one answer:
NP Chart
Xbar-R Chart
I-MR Chart
C Chart

Q:5-For her injection molding project a Belt needed to track the percentage of defectives of a
particular sample set so she used a _____ to display the data?
Mark one answer:
Individual Chart
C Chart
Xbar Chart
P Chart

Q:6-Which of these graphs demonstrates conditions which would be sufficient to enable OCAP for
the process?
Mark one answer:
Xbar Chart
Time Series Chart
Neither
Both

Q:7-Control Charts were developed by Dr. Shewhart to track data over time. To detect Special
Cause variation the Control Charts use which of these?
Mark one answer:
Data shift analysis
Outlier analysis methods
Center Line and Control Limits
None of the above
Q:8-Common and _____ Cause Variation are the focus of Statistical Process Control.
Mark one answer:
Uncommon
Ordinary
Special
Selective

Q:9-Special Cause Variation falls into which two categories?

Mark one answer:
Natural & Unnatural
Short Term & Long Term
Assignable & Pattern
Attribute & Discreet

Q:10-Range Charts are the technique used to determine if Special Causes are occurring within the
subgroups of the _____.
Mark one answer:
Histograms
SPC Charts
NP Charts
Pareto Charts

Test 31

Q:1-If the production is for higher volume and monitoring and the Mean and variability is to be
monitored for four machines producing product and the characteristic to be monitored is Variable
Data, which SPC Chart is best to be selected?
Mark one answer:
Xbar-R Chart
Individual-MR Chart
NP Chart
CUSUM Chart

Q:2-When a Belt Poka-Yoke's a defect out of the process entirely then she should track the activity
with a robust SPC system on the characteristic of interest in the defect as an early warning system.
Mark one answer:
 True
False

Q:3-Following the completion of a LSS project the Belt not only creates a Control Plan he also
develops a _____ so those involved in the process know what to do when the critical metrics move
out of spec.
Mark one answer:
Response Plan
Call List
Chain-of-Command
Defect Analysis Plan

Q:4-The Control Limits width varies if the sample size varies for which type of chart?
Mark one answer:
P Charts
NP Charts
Xbar-R Charts
Time Series Charts

Q:5-Which of these elements are not included in Implementation plans?

Mark one answer:
Work breakdown structure
Risk management plans
Cost/Benefit ratios
Planned audits of work completion

Q:6-Upon completion and validation of an improvement to a process a Belt and the Project Team
create a Control Plan that contains which of these?
Mark one answer:
Standard operating work description of the process change
Description of the monitoring system in place to assure continued compliance
Summary of the targeted critical metrics for process performance measurement
All of the above
Q:7-What conclusion is most correct about the Experimental Design shown here with the response
in the far right column?

Mark one answer:

No factor has enough statistical confidence greater than 95% to have an impact on the response
rate
Constant, Adv and Bev are the only factors statistically affecting the response rate with 95%
confidence or moreb
If the Adv is increased from the low level to the high level, the response rate increases
The response level is statistically concluded to only need the Adv and Bev factors set at the low
level to get the largest response rate

Q:8-Which statement(s) are correct about the Factorial Plot shown here?

Mark one answer:

When the cutting speed increased from low to high level, the tool age increases
The coefficient of the metal hardness is positively related to the output of tool age
The coded coefficient is lower for cutting speed than the cutting angle related to the output of
tool age
All of the above
Q:9-How many experimental runs exist in a Full Factorial and fully randomized design for 4 factors
with 2 replicates for the Corner Points and no Center Points? The factors in the experiment are
only at 2- levels.
Mark one answer:
10
32
256
64

Q:10-If an experiment has 5 factors and no replicates for a 2-level Experimental Design with 16
experimental runs which statement is incorrect?
Mark one answer:
The Experimental Design is half-fractional
The Main Effects are confounded with only 4-way interactions
The Main Effects for the 5 factors are not aliased or confounded but the 2-way interactions are
confounded with the 3-way interactionsc
The experiment has 8 experimental runs with the first factor at the high level

Test 32

Q:1-Which statement(s) are correct about the Pareto Chart shown here for the DOE analysis?

Mark one answer:

a) It is unknown from this graph how many factors were in the Experimental Design
b) The factors to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal
to 2.06
 c) The effects to keep in the mathematical model are E, D, DE, BD and B with an alpha risk equal
to 0.05
d) Both a & c

Q:2-Fractional Factorial, _____ and Response Surface Method are types of planned experiments.
Mark one answer:
Multi-Vari Analysis
Baldridge Channels
One Factor at a Time or OFAT
Factorial Design

Q:3-Relative to a Design of Experiments the term _____ refers to variables being a linear
combination of each other.
Mark one answer:
Mirror Image
Directly Parallel
Collinear
None of the above

Q:4-Which statement(s) are incorrect about Fractional Factorial Designs?

Mark one answer:
A Half Fractional Design for 5 factors has the same number of experimental runs as a Full
Factorial Design for 4 factors assuming no repeats or replicates or Center Points
Quarter Fractional experiments can exist for those with 4 factors
Resolution V design is desired while controlling costs of experimentation
Half Fractional experiments do not exist for those designs with only 2 factors

Q:5-If in an experiment all possible variable pairs sum to zero the design is Orthogonal.
Mark one answer:
True
False
Q:6-Which Experimental Design typically is most associated with the fewest number of input
variables or factors in the design?
Mark one answer:
Fractional Factorial design
Full Factorial design
Simple Linear Regression
Response Surface Design

Q:7-The method of Steepest Ascent guides you toward a target inside the original inference space.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:8-Situations where standardized work needs to be incorporated include all of these except
_____.
Mark one answer:
Machines continually operating to reduce the labor cost per piece
Lack of a system to assure proper inventory levels at repair stations
Changeover instructions incomplete
Process flow for the same product assembly taking various cycle time for completion

Q:9-The Lean toolbox includes all of these items except _____.

Mark one answer:
Mistake Proofing
Visual Factory
Design of Experiments
Inventory Management

Q:10-Questions that can be best answered by a Visual Factory include all of these except _____.
Mark one answer:
Are downtime issues easily noted?
Can extra inventory be seen easily?
Are unneeded tools or supplies easily noted?
Are setups optimized for lower scrap levels?

Test 33
Q:1-If a Six Sigma project was to reduce repair station inventory and the team found the inventory
was creeping up over time which Lean tools should be considered in the Control Phase to
reestablish and sustain the project success?
Mark one answer:
Review the Visual Factory to assure inventory in excess of desired visible
Improve the lighting to assure adequate visibility
Analyze data from supplier deliveries
Reword the standardized work instructions to use active verbs and not passive phrases

Q:2-When a Belt implements an improvement that is automated thus requiring no particular

understanding for use he has applied which Lean tool?
Mark one answer:
Mistake Proofing
Kaizen Event
5S
None

Q:3-Kaizens or Kaikakus and Six Sigma projects are intended to create incremental process
improvements versus breakthrough, significant improvements.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:4-Which of these items contribute to what is necessary for successful Kaizen events?
Mark one answer:
Analysis tools
Management support
Operator support
All of these answers are correct

Q:5-Kanban establishes a means of monitoring production, conveyance and delivery information

such that efficient flow is established. The method used by Kanban is to require a _____ before
anything moves.
Mark one answer:
Sign-off
Signal
 Bell to ring
Work order

Q:6-When a Belt decides to use written procedures and visual controls to improve the consistency
of the tasks that must occur in the process he is improving he has utilized the _____ activity of 5S.
Mark one answer:
Sustaining
Sorting
Standardizing
Straightening

Q:7-Fractional Factorial designs are used to reduce the _____ because the number of runs has
been lowered.
Mark one answer:
Time and cost of experiments
Number of people involved
Number of data measurement points
Output summary

Q:8-Fractional Factorial Designs are used to analyze factors to model the output as a function of
inputs if Hypothesis Testing in the Analyze Phase was inadequate to sufficiently narrow the factors
that significantly impact the output(s).
Mark one answer:
True
Falsed

Q:9-A Factorial Experiment based on a Level 2 Design with 6 factors would require 16 runs to fully
assess the interactions.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:10-A Full Factorial experiment using a 3 level 3 factor approach has been proposed to test the
viability of an extrusion machine experiment. How many treatment combinations will this
approach involve?
Mark one answer:
6
9
27
54

Test 34

Q:1-A Full Factorial experiment using a 3 level 3 factor approach has been proposed to test the
viability of an extrusion machine experiment. How many treatment combinations will this
approach involve?
Mark one answer:
6
9
27
54

Q:2-A valid Multiple Linear Regression (MLR) is characterized by all of these except _____.
Mark one answer:
It is an assumption that the X's (inputs) are not correlated to each other
The X's (inputs) are assumed to be independent of each other
MLR is conducted based on a deliberate form of experimentation
The Residuals from MLR analysis have to be Normally Distributed

Q:3-Which statement is NOT correct about the Fitted Line Plot shown here?
Mark one answer:
The independent variable is the reactant
If the reactant was 6 units, with 95 % confidence we would expect a minimum yield of 100 units
With at least 95% confidence, we can expect less than 10 units of Yield when the reactant is at a
value of 1
A reactant value between 2 and 4 units yields around 20 to 40

Q:4-When doing Hypothesis Testing on Non-normal data Belts will use a _____ to compare more
than two sample proportions to each other.
Mark one answer:
Z score Table
P score Table
Mean-to-Mode Analysis
Contingency Table

Q:5-It would be more likely than not for a Belt conducting a Regression Analysis to find that the
_____.
Mark one answer:
r2 value is smaller than the absolute value of r.
Correlation Coefficient equals r2
Coefficient of Determination is less than r2
Correlation Coefficient equals r divided by 2
Q:6-When a Belt properly analyzes the results of an experiment he must examine the Residuals in
expectation of finding all of the following except _________.
Mark one answer:
Some Residuals higher than others
Some Residuals lower than others
All Residuals within 2 Standard Deviations of the Mean
Residuals will represent a Linear Regression

Q:7-Which of these might contribute to similar distributions having Unequal Variance?

Mark one answer:
Extreme tails
Outliers
Multiple Modes
All of the above

Q:8-A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of
critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the
Belt's effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less
than or equal to $4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article
components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98
was estimated. Select the answer that best states the Practical Problem.
Mark one answer:
If the average cost per component is $4,200 or less, then the purchase manager will introduce
the new product upgrade with new components.
If the average cost per component is greater than $4,200, then the purchase manager will
introduce the new product upgrade with new components.
Only if the average cost per product upgrade is $4,060, will the purchase manager introduce
new product upgrades with new components.
If the average cost per new product upgrade is less than $180, then the purchase manager will
introduce the new product upgrade with new components.

Q:9-A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of
critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the
Belt's effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less
than or equal to $4,200 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 35 first article
components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $4,060, and a Standard Deviation of $98
was estimated. The Alternative Hypothesis in the above example is?
Mark one answer:
The Standard Deviation is equal to $300.
 The Mean is less than $4,320.
The Mean is equal to $4,060.
The Mean is greater than $ 4,200.

Q:10-A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of
critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the
Belt's effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less
than or equal to $3,600 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 42 first article
components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $3,200 and a Standard Deviation of
$180 was estimated. Based on the data provided, the Z value for the data assuming a Normal
Distribution is?
Mark one answer:
1.11
2.22
4.30
5.42

Test 35

Q:1-A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a decision to change suppliers of
critical raw materials for a new product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the
Belt's effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component be less
than or equal to $3,800 in order to stay within budget. Using a sample of 38 first article
components, a Mean of the new product upgrade price of $3,680, and a Standard Deviation of
$120 was estimated. In order to increase the Long Term Z value to 5, what is the maximum long
term variation in pricing the Belt can accept for his upgraded critical raw material component?
Mark one answer:
$6
$12
$24
$48

Q:2-Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Sally motivates Sara mentioning that they
will sell a minimum of 15 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a sample,
whose population is assumed to follow a Normal Distribution, taken for 30 days at 60 degrees or
more an average of 13.6 pots per day were sold with a Standard Deviation of 0.7 pots. For the
sales accomplished above, what test would validate if they met their requirements?
Mark one answer:
F Test
Test for Equal Variance
 Chi Square Test
One-Sample t-Test

Q:3-Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Sally motivates Sara mentioning that they
will sell a minimum of 15 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a sample,
whose population is assumed to follow a Normal Distribution, taken for 30 days at 60 degrees or
more an average of 13.6 pots per day were sold with a Standard Deviation of 0.7 pots. The
statistical Degrees of Freedom for this example are?
Mark one answer:
1
29
30
31

Q:4-Sally and Sara sell flower pots at their garage sale. Martha motivates Rose mentioning that
they will sell a minimum of 16 pots per day if the outside temperature exceeds 60o F. From a
sample, whose population is assumed to follow a Normal Distribution, taken for 30 days at 60
degrees or more an average of 15.2 pots per day were sold with a Standard Deviation of 0.6 pots.
What is the Z value for this sales process?
Mark one answer:
0.67
1.13
1.33
2.66

Q:5-The relationship between a response variable and one or more independent variables is
investigated and modeled by use of _____.
Mark one answer:
X-Y Matrix
Baldridge Assessment
Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
Critical X's Definition

Q:6-An ANOVA used across many dependent variables could increase the Beta risk.
Mark one answer:
 True
False

Q:7-The Mann-Whitney test is a powerful test and is unique to situations from which of the
choices listed? (Note: There are 2 correct answers).
Mark one answer:
a) Testing the identity of two populations
b) Focuses on equality of the Median of the two populations
c) More widely applicable than the traditional "t-test"
d) Both b & c

Q:8-Assessing process proportion as opposed to evaluating a process with respect to a set target
can be done using which of these?
Mark one answer:
Process proportion equals some value range
Process proportion equals some desired value
Target is current
Proportion of the tail is equal

Q:9-A Non-parametric Test should be used if just one distribution is not Normal out of the two or
more gathered.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:10-Contingency Tables are used to test for association, or dependency, between two or more
classifications.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Test 36

Q:1-The use of station warning lights, tool boards and jidohka devices in the application of Lean
accomplish which of these principles?
Mark one answer:
Pilferage Minimization
Visual Factory
 Management Awareness
Operator Attentiveness

Q:2-A Lean Principle that addresses efficiency by the process worker is called _____?
Mark one answer:
Visual Factory
Supervising
Training
Standardizing

Q:3-While management of a company must set the stage for all improvement efforts, which of
these 5S's is primarily driven by management?
Mark one answer:
Straighten
Sort
Shine
Sustain

Q:4-As part of a Visual Factory plan _____ cards are created and utilized to identify areas in need
of cleaning and organization.
Mark one answer:
Kanban
Kaizen
Poke-Yoke
WhoSai

Q:5-The use of Kanbans work best with pull systems for determining the timing of which products
or services are produced.
Mark one answer:
True
False
Q:6-When a Belt applies the practice of Poka-Yoke to a project challenge she is attempting to
make certain the activity is _____.
Mark one answer:
Well documented
Removed from the line
Mistake proofed
Highly visible

Q:7-The Lean Principle action in the 5S approach that deals with having those items needed
regularly at hand and those items need less regularly stored out of the way is known as _____.
Mark one answer:
Shining
Standardizing
Sustaining
Sorting

Q:8-SPC on the outputs is more preferred than SPC on the inputs when implementing SPC for your
process.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:9-Significant variation in process performance is a consequence of several causes that can be

classified using which of the terminologies shown.
Mark one answer:
a) Common
b) Random
c) Special
d) Both a & c

Q:10-When it comes to Control one of the most effective means of eliminating defects is to _____.
Mark one answer:
Train personnel often and thoroughly
Keep a Six Sigma project going on the process at all times
Design defect prevention into the product
Have each process consist of no more than five steps
Test 37

Q:1-A periodic time frame can be used to arrange for Control Limit and Center Line calculations
with good SPC implementation in a process.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:2-The data on SPC charts are typically constructed such that they have the most recent data
point on the right hand side.
Mark one answer:
True
False

Q:3-Which statement(s) describe an undesirable situation when implementing SPC?

Mark one answer:
The lower Control Limit for the R chart is equal to zero
Attempt to use SPC for tracking transaction times at a warehouse
A process is in Statistical Control before implementation of SPC
The Control Limits are wider than the customer specification limits

Q:4-When analyzing a data set we frequently graph one metric as a function of another. If the
slope of the Correlation line is -2.5 we would say the two metrics are _____ correlated?
Mark one answer:
Positively
Not
Negatively
None

Q:5-Fractional Factorial designs for an experimental approach are used when _____ about the
multiple metric interaction in a process.
Mark one answer:
Much is known
Little is known
We don't care
Data exists
Q:6-The reported Cpk for a process with an average of 94 units, a spread of 22 units and upper and
lower specification limits of 125 and 80 units would be?
Mark one answer:
0.64
1.27
1.84
2.12

Q:7-What is the key benefit of multi-vari charting?

Mark one answer:
It keeps track of the time when measurements were made
It graphically displays the variation in a process
It assists in the breakdown of components of variation
It is much easier to plot than most control charts

Q:8-Deciding to collect sample from a population is often:

Mark one answer:
A Personal decision
An Economical decision
A Risky decision
A Team decision

Q:9-A Six Sigma project had a lot of improvement measures suggested on training people, setting
standardized job instructions, getting surveys done from employees, and so on. Who would be the
focused audience for whom this project was aimed at?
Mark one answer:
External customers
Stakeholders
Internal customers
All of the above

Q:10-Cause and Effect Diagram when used with 5 WHY helps you in understanding the root cause
of the problem. In doing so, what does the Six Sigma team wish to know?
Mark one answer:
 The assignable causes
Causes attributable to categories
Categories that can be ignored
None of the above

Test 38

Q:1-Which of the below mentioned tools is considered best to inform employees of their work
roles, in terms of ease of understanding and implementation?
Mark one answer:
Written Instructions
Job Description
Process Flow Maps
Standardized Work Templates

Q:2-In embracing Six Sigma, what has been the principal motivating factor from the point of view
of upper management ?
Mark one answer:
Bottom line results
Market share growth
Defect reductions
Customer focus

Q:3-The purpose of "rolled throughput yield" in Six Sigma would NOT be to:
Mark one answer:
Analyze a process flow for improvement ideas
Spot significant differences in yield
Use the calculation for customer analysis
Provide a baseline metric

Q:4-A company making rubber tires is evaluated on 5 opportunities per product; in 1000 products
manufactured in a month if 100 defects are observed, the Rolled Throughput Yield is:
Mark one answer:
98%
99%
 97%
96%

Q:5-What is Lean philosophy?

Mark one answer:
Provide perfect value to the customer through a perfect value creation process that has zero
waste
Continuous Improvement
Higher output by encouraging people to work hard and have targets
Reducing cost and improving purchasing power for the individuals

Q:6-When samples are drawn out of a population randomly, what is said to be true?
Mark one answer:
The sample mean is always the same as population mean
The sample standard deviation will be the same as population standard deviation
The sampling distribution approaches normality with increase in sample size
The sampling distribution would be triangular if population is distributed as triangular
distribution

Q:7-Which of the following tools is most commonly used in the define phase of a project?
Mark one answer:
Affinity diagram
Control chart
Failure mode and effects analysis
Data collection checklist

Q:8-Which of these is considered a technique to collect data or comments from customers?

Mark one answer:
Multivoting
Customer needs prioritization
Focus Groups
Nominal Group Technique
Q:9-Which of the following cannot be considered as an acceptable reason for deploying a Six
Sigma DMAIC project?
Mark one answer:
Reduce Cost of Quality
Increase Customer Satisfaction
Reduce internal problems
Improve the Design

Q:10-Sum Square of Error is equal to:

Mark one answer:
Sum Squares due to Pure Error + Sum Squares due to Lack of Fit
Sum Squares due to Pure Error - Sum Squares due to Lack of Fit
Sum Squares due to Lack of Fit-Sum Squares due to Pure Error
None of the above

Test 39

Q:1-The p value for Moods Median test is .02 and the level of significane is set at .05, what
decision is made?
Mark one answer:
reject null hypothesis
fail to reject null hypothesis
cannot determine
use a different test

Q:2-What type of waste would the following scenario potentially cause? A clothing manufacturing
is producing more items than what the customer has ordered.
Mark one answer:
Waiting
Over Production
Transportation
Over Processing

Q:3-Which of the following variations are identified in control charts?

Mark one answer:
Random and chance
Special and assignable
 Normal and Special
Normal and random

Q:4-Which of the following tools helps in visualizing series of causes to an effect?

Mark one answer:
Cause and Effect Matrix
Correlation Diagram
Ishikawa Diagram
Value Stream Mapping

Q:5-Which of the following statistical tests should be used by the Green Belt for testing the means
between two inter-related groups?
Mark one answer:
2 Sample t assuming equal variances
2 Sample t assuming unequal variances
Paired t test
z test

Q:6-Standard Deviation in Six Sigma applications is referred to as difference from the:

Mark one answer:
Target
Specification limits
Nearest fit value
Mean

Q:7-In a typical DFSS Approach, which of these stages figures in most DFSS approaches?
Mark one answer:
Innovate
Identify
Improve
Control

Q:8-Which of the following pairs is the most useful in preparing control charts, when used
together, for variables data?
Mark one answer:
AQL, p-bar
p, n
X-bar and R
R, sigma

Q:9-Which of the following activities is NOT non value-added?

Mark one answer:
Setup
Rework
Process
Inspection

Q:10-Repetition helps the Six Sigma team in determining:

Mark one answer:
Short term variability
Long term variability
All of the above
None of the above

Test 40

Q:1-Identify the most accurate method for quantifying gage repeatability and reproducibility.
Mark one answer:
The bias and linearity method
The range method
The average and range method
The ANOVA method

Q:2-Which of these tools / techniques represent "continuous improvement"?

Mark one answer:
Kaizen
Six Sigma
Lean
Kanban
Q:3-A Six Sigma project can reduce:
Mark one answer:
Internal Failure Cost
External Failure Cost
Total Failure Cost
Non of the above

Q:4-Why would Six Sigma activities prompt a re-analysis of measuring systems?

Mark one answer:
It's mandated by the MSA (1998) Reference Manual
Variability may be reduced, requiring more precise measurements
Six Sigma is a more quality-conscious control technology
Most six sigma training includes statistical software which requires frequent re-analysis

Q:5-Japanese 5S methodology is created and used for:

Mark one answer:
Continuous Improvement
Prevent Defects
Creating a productive work environment
Reduce Variation

Q:6-What does OEE stands for?

Mark one answer:
Overall Equipment Effectiveness
Overall Estimation Effectiveness
Overall Equipment Estimation
Overall Effective Estimation

Q:7-The house of quality is used to translate customer wants into engineering design variables.
The linking or prioritization of customer wants into engineered values occurs in which of the
following elements?
Mark one answer:
Competitive analysis
Conflict analysis
 Technical review
Relationship matrix

Q:8-What is the name of the condition if you are running a 7-4 fractional experiment? You know
factors A, B, C, D, and E are independent of each other, but you suspect factors F and G are not
independent. You conducted a small sub-experiment and discovered a high correlation between
factors F and G.
Mark one answer:
Collinearity
Confounded
Correlation
Covariates

Q:9-Most of the modern computer programs can perform an analysis of experimental residuals.
Which of the following techniques will NOT be employed?
Mark one answer:
Control Charts
Histograms
Normal probability plots
Dot plots

Q:10-If an experiment has an alias, you could say that the two factor effects are:
Mark one answer:
Confounded
Blocked
Misnamed
Mixtures

Test 41

Q:1-What types of variation does a process have if it is "in control"?

Mark one answer:
Process has assignable causes
Process has assignable and chance causes
Process has random causes only
Process has assignable or chance causes
Q:2-For 4 factors and 3 levels, the DOE setup has 32 runs. What type of experiment is being
conducted?
Mark one answer:
Half fractional factorial
Full factorial
Quarter fractional factorial
Response Surface

Q:3-Which of the following techniques used in DOE helps you in identifying pure error?
Mark one answer:
Replication
Blocking
Randomization
Coding

Q:4-A combined calculation of repeatability and reproducibility using the average and range
method produces a ratio of 7.42% of process tolerance. What can be stated about the 7.42%
value?
Mark one answer:
The measurement system is acceptable
The measurement system is marginal
The measurement system is not acceptable
It must be separated into individual R&R values

Q:5-In a single factor ANOVA, the assumption of homogeneity of variances applies to:
Mark one answer:
The variances within the treatment groups
The variances of the treatment groups
The total variance
All of the above

Q:6-A perfect regression model with all points fitting the regression line has Sum Square of Errors
______
Mark one answer:
 >0
<0
equal to 0
equal to 1

Q:7-A QFD template allows the Six Sigma team to learn which of the following?
Mark one answer:
The most important customer requirements
The performance of a company versus competitors
The core area of focus for efforts
All of the above

Q:8-What are the six experiments called while performing one experiment with four repetitions?
Mark one answer:
Randomization
Replications
Blocking
Sequencing

Q:9-If men having high Blood Sugar problems are diagnosed with Diabetes, with the mean blood
sugar level to be at 120 and a standard deviation of 9, and any individual having greater than 100
Blood Sugar levels can be diagnosed with Diabetes, what is the probability of committing a Type II
Error?
Mark one answer:
0.007
0.0062
0.0139
0.0055

Q:10-A Six Sigma Green Belt practitioner constructs a control chart to display a process mean and
its outer limits. In such a chart, what does UCL stand for?
Mark one answer:
Upper Cycle Length
Upper Control Limit
Upper Cycle Limit
Upper Control Length
Test 42

Q:1-To optimize the response of a process, ideally what sequence of experimentation should one
use?
Mark one answer:
Use response surface methodologies at all stages
Use screening first and then response surface techniques
Use charting techniques first and then ANOVA
Use experimental designs first and then ANOVA

Q:2-Which of the following terms describes the situation in which the effects of two factors are
correlated while designing experiments?
Mark one answer:
Covariate
Confounded
Interactive
Collinear

Q:3-What is the process capability for attribute data?

Mark one answer:
Cannot be determined
Is determined by the control limits on the applicable attribute chart
Is defined as the average proportion of nonconforming product
Is measured by counting the average nonconforming units in 25 or more samples

Q:4-An organization finds that an extra measure of security added to online transactions did not
reduce the incidence of identity theft. What is this concept of management referred to?
Mark one answer:
no-value added
no-security added
limited effectiveness model
identity theft model

Q:5-Which of the following statements are NOT true of control charts?

Mark one answer:
 They can detect trends of statistical significance
They provide straightforward, easily interpreted information
They provide an ongoing measure of process capability
They can detect special causes of variation

Q:6-Rolled Throughput Yield best indicates:

Mark one answer:
The quality levels of the process
The need for improvement
The time and effort spent on rework and scrap
The utilization of the process

Q:7-For a full factorial experiment with 23 treatments and 0 replicate, how many runs could you
expect?
Mark one answer:
23
16
46
32

Q:8-What set of basic quality tools would be most applicable for a work team to use when there is
a desire to follow procedures and work instructions more closely?
Mark one answer:
Pareto and affinity diagrams
Data sheets and histograms
Checklists and flow charts
Fishbone and control charts

Q:9-Hypothesis tests on enumerative statistics would NOT involve which of the following
distributions?
Mark one answer:
Chi-square
Student's t
 Binomial
Poisson

Q:10-One of the purposes of using a fishbone diagram is to:

Mark one answer:
Separate a problem into smaller components
Identify the significant few components of a problem
Define the problem in sequential order
Show the relationship between parameters

Test 43

Q:1-Which of the following control charts would best fit a process in which measurement data on
a product is easily obtained?
Mark one answer:
Run charts
Median charts
X-bar and R charts
p charts

Q:2-With which of the following distributions is the term "degrees of freedom" inapplicable?
Mark one answer:
F Distribution
Poisson
Student's t
Chi-square

Q:3-What determines the factors that will receive major attention after constructing a rank order
prioritization matrix?
Mark one answer:
The relative strength values of the factors
Those criteria with the highest numeric values
Those criteria at the top of the chart
The factors with negative strength values
Q:4-Which of the following is an example of a Primary metric for Six Sigma projects?
Mark one answer:
Quality
Morale of employees
Average turnover
Customer Satisfaction

Q:5-What skills and experiences do project improvement team members normally have?
Mark one answer:
Narrow skills and experiences
Diverse skills and narrow experiences
Diverse experience and narrow skills
Diverse skills and experiences

Q:6-What type of variation is undesirable when trying to control a process?

Mark one answer:
Special cause variation
Random cause variation
Chance cause variation
Normal variation

Q:7-An engineer is considering a fractional factorial instead of a full factorial to analyze a process
because of the large number of variables under study. Apart from the possibility of studying a
large number of factors with relatively few experiments, what other characteristic will support a
decision to use a fractional factorial instead?
Mark one answer:
It is suspected that there are many interactions
The process is well known and only the main factors are of concern
A fractional factorial will determine the main effects curvature
Blocking is necessary to account for nuisance factors in this study

Q:8-The difference between strategic quality goals and the strategic business plan is that:
Mark one answer:
Strategic quality goals are often a lower tier than the strategic business plan
They are determined only by top management
 They may offer conflicting priorities
They are based on priorities given by all levels of the company

Q:9-Identify the post-improvement tool which would be most beneficial when generating fresh
ideas after the results of an improvement process have been disappointing.
Mark one answer:
A post-improvement capability analysis
A post-improvement brainstorming session
A follow-up FMEA study
A multi-vari re-analysis

Q:10-Which of the following errors is typically associated with the notion, "False negative"?
Mark one answer:
Type I error
Type II error
Type III error
Depends on the experiments

Test 44

Q:1-When the data has outliers, which of the measures of central tendency should be used?
Mark one answer:
Mean
Median
Mode
None of the above

Q:2-What type of waste is "an accountant going to the first floor to pick up documents from
printer"?
Mark one answer:
Overproduction
Motion
Radiation
Underutilization
Q:3-What is the best choice in the hands of a Six Sigma team to increase the power of the
experiments?
Mark one answer:
Reduce Significance level
Reduce Sample Size
Increase Sample Size
All of the above

Q:4-Which hypothesis test is similar to the 1 sample t-test but is used when the data set is non-
normal?
Mark one answer:
Mann-Whitney
Kruskal-Wallis
1- sample sign
Friedman

Q:5-Which approach talks about equipment effectiveness?

Mark one answer:
Lean
TPM
Six Sigma
TOC

Q:6-What is the more appropriate definition of Non-Value-Add Activity?

Mark one answer:
There is no monetary value involved in activity
Any activity that does not add any value to the product
Non-tangible value
The improvement activities cannot be valued by the organization

Q:7-Best metric for measuring defectives is:

Mark one answer:
DPMO
DPU
 PPM
DPO

Q:8-If the Measure stage in a DMAIC approach is all about measuring the data for existing process,
what is the main objective in the Measure phase in a DFSS approach?
Mark one answer:
Measure what you can measure
Measure what the customer wants you to measure
Set the key measurement steps and metrics
Define operational metrics

Q:9-All the factors that might contribute to a production problem must be discovered. Which
among the following problem-solving tools might be the best choice?
Mark one answer:
Pareto diagrams
Fishbone diagrams
Histograms
Control charts

Q:10-One thousand units of a product were examined for the possibility of 5 different undesirable
characteristics. A total of 80 defects were found. How many defects would be expected in a million
opportunities?
Mark one answer:
16000
26666
61458
80000

Test 45

Q:1-On a highly automated food processing line, a quality professional wants to chart the weight
of packages. The recommended control chart is an X-bar - S chart and not the typical X-bar - R
chart, in wide use throughout the facility. Which of the following is the most logical reason for this
switch?
Mark one answer:
The X-bar control limits will be tighter
The supervisor obviously wants some variety in control chart usage
Only one control chart will be required
The X-bar and S values will come automatically from a weight checker
Q:2-Variable control chart subgroup sizes are generally 3, 4, 5, or 6 for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT:
Mark one answer:
They are large enough so that averages of data will follow the normal distribution
They fit onto traditional chart paper very well
Larger sizes permit an opportunity for process changes within the subgroup
They permit a separation of within time from time-to-time variation

Q:3-Which of the following measures of central tendency is prefered when the data does not have
outliers?
Mark one answer:
Mean
Mode
Median
None of the above

Q:4-Poke Yoke is a lean manufacturing concept that is used for what purpose?
Mark one answer:
Process leveling
Mistake proofing
Process visualization
Quick set up

Q:5-Which of the following assumption is necessary to validate the meaning of the standard
deviation of measurement variability?
Mark one answer:
Measurement errors are independent
The measurement scale is normally distributed
Measurement errors are independent of the operators involved in the study
Measurement errors are skewed in the direction of normality

Q:6-For many people, changing a single tire can easily take 15 minutes. But, for a NASCAR pit crew,
changing four tires takes less than 15 seconds. This represents good use of what tool?
Mark one answer:
SMED (Single-Minute Exchange of Die)
Poka Yoke
Kanban
Six Sigma

Q:7-In a study of probability, an event or outcome that cannot be broken down any further is
referred to as:
Mark one answer:
A mutually exclusive event
A dependent event
A simple event
An event complement

Q:8-As a Green Belt, what should a trainee do when he faces a problem during his projects?
Mark one answer:
Quantify the problem and consult the Black Belt
Consult the Champion
Consult Team Members
Consult MB

Q:9-Which of these distributions can be used to make inferences about population variances?
Mark one answer:
T distribution
Z distribution
Chi-Square distribution
Gamma distribution

Q:10-Which of the following is the LEAST likely tool to assist the problem definition stage of Six
Sigma?
Mark one answer:
CTQ trees
Pareto analysis
Product yield data
Control charts
Test 46

Q:1-For a process working at 5 Sigma level, how many opportunities are considered to lie outside
of the specification limits provided by the customer?
Mark one answer:
233
6210
3.4
66807

Q:2-In a typical Measure Phase, which of the following activities should a Green Belt perform first?
Mark one answer:
Stability
Capability
MSA
Normality

Q:3-In a typical MSA GAGE RR study conducted, what should the Six Sigma team determine about
the Measurement System first?
Mark one answer:
Accuracy
Stability
Resolution
Linearity

Q:4-Which of the following scenarios is best suited to use an X-bar and R chart?
Mark one answer:
A smaller sample size is needed
It is necessary to know when to investigate a process for causes of variation
The machine capability is wider than the specification
An acceptable quality level must be established

Q:5-If 6 consecutive samples were taken from a process and precisely measured, you can still
expect differences. What type of variation would be the most difficult one to determine?
Mark one answer:
 Lot-to-lot variation
Piece-to-piece variation
Inherent process variation
Error of measurement

Q:6-What is one basic assumption of a null hypothesis?

Mark one answer:
That the variables are dependent
That the variables are independent
That the sample size is adequate
That the confidence interval is ± 2 standard deviations

Q:7-As an experienced experimenter, you have built a predictive model of an experimental data.
The difference between the actual response data and the model data are termed as:
Mark one answer:
Confounded data
Nested experiments
Residuals
Efficiency of estimators

Q:8-In the theory of control charts, the distribution of the number of defects per unit follows
which of the following distributions?
Mark one answer:
Normal distribution
Binomial distribution
Chi-square distribution
Poisson distribution

Q:9-What type of waste is "Purchasing and storing office supply, sales literature, etc."?
Mark one answer:
Over production
Cost
Inventory
Motion
Q:10-For a Six Sigma project done in the Operations department (LOB project), which of the
following could be called a stakeholder to the project?
Mark one answer:
IT Department
Administration Department
Human Resources Department
All of the above

Test 47

Q:1-Which item should not be identified in the Define Phase?

Mark one answer:
Root causes
The key problem area
Possible financial loss
Intangibles

Q:2-Distribution that follows principles of an exponential distribution is:

Mark one answer:
Poisson
Binomial
Chi-Square
Normal

Q:3-While considering the stakeholder groups, which of the following terms is closely identified
with the term 'community'?
Mark one answer:
Society
Government
External customers
Suppliers

Q:4-Poka-yoke is best defined as:

Mark one answer:
capturing the voice of the customer
improving machine efficiency
 reducing field failures to virtually zero
preventing controllable defects

Q:5-Which of the following is NOT necessary for the Six Sigma team to update in the Project
Charter in the Define Phase?
Mark one answer:
Project Name and Description
Business need
Project purpose
Constraints

Q:6-Which of the following distributions describes the ratios of two variances drawn from the
same normal population?
Mark one answer:
F statistic
Student's t test
Chi-square
Normal

Q:7-A Green Belt is attempting to improve the customer experience provided by a call centre for a
budget airline ( telephone support). As a result he should build a list of Critical to Quality
Characteristics based on _____.
Mark one answer:
Service benefits defined by customers
Product features requested by customers
Cost of production
Size of unit

Q:8-A dairy learned through a Lean Six Sigma project their ice cream products could be stored at a
temperature 2 degrees higher than they had historically used. Since their energy costs for ice
cream storage cost $6,000 per month per degree of temperature, what was reported as the annual
savings from this LSS project?
Mark one answer:
$72,000
$144,000
 $432,000
$720,000

Q:9-Producing more than is needed by the next step in the process or more than the customer
needs is an example of which of the Seven Elements of Waste?
Mark one answer:
Overproduction
Correction (defects)
Inventory
Motion

Q:10-An FMEA is an important tool for a Black Belt. From the list below select the items that best
describe the benefits obtained from constructing a FMEA.
Mark one answer:
Predict where/when/how failures may occur
Estimate the severity, occurrence and detection of defects
Identify ways in which a process can fail to meet customer requirements
All of the above

Test 48

Q:1-The shape of a Normal Distribution is impacted primarily by:

Mark one answer:
Sample Error
Mean
Data Type
The standard deviation or variance of the data distribution

Q:2-Since 95% of Normally Distributed data is within +/- 2 Standard Deviations of the Mean, then
the probability is _____% that a sample Mean is within +/- 2 Standard Deviations of the
population Mean.
Mark one answer:
30
47.5
75
95
Q:3-After running some statistical tests, a Belt found that the P-value was greater then 0.05 which
indicated:
Mark one answer:
There is a difference or relationship with at least 95% confidence
There is no difference or relationship with at least 95% confidence
To reject the Null Hypothesis with a least 95% confidence
To run five more tests to get 95% confidence

Q:4-Which item is the least descriptive of a properly designed control system using the Lean
toolbox?
Mark one answer:
Balanced and consistent work flow across a process
Zero inventory of Work In Process (WIP)
Tidy, organized and maintained office equipment or machinery
Labeled inventory areas which control the production of material or services

Q:5-A characteristic of properly executed SPC includes which of the following:

Mark one answer:
a) Immediate response to an out of control indication
b) After a action to an out of control indication of violating the 3 sigma limits, the next data point
is just within the 3 sigma limits so another action was taken to further reduce the response
c) Creation of Out of Control Action Plans before using an SPC Chart in the process
d) Both a & c

Q:6-If unsustained results are the case after project closure, what actions should be taken to
recapture the benefits of the Six Sigma project?
Mark one answer:
Contact the Belt no matter where he/she is
Contact the Belt if still in the same process area
Reference the Control Plans and key finding in the final report
Check to see if the SPC Charts are up to date

Q:7-Which option does not reflect how replication affects an experiment

Mark one answer:
 Increase the treatment effects.
Better estimate of the error of experiments.
Improve precision of experiments.
Better estimate of the treatment effects.

Q:8-Blocking is valid for all except:

Mark one answer:
Blocks contribute to getting more random samples.
A block segments the experiment.
A blocking factor has 2 levels.
A block of trials would be run together.

Q:9-Which statement about confounding is true:

Mark one answer:
Variables are confounded if they are collinear.
Variables are confounded due to complexity.
Variables are confounded if the same effects are produced.
Variables are confounded if their effects are not separable.

Q:10-A sequence of four replications consists of

Mark one answer:
One experiment with three repetitions.
One experiment with three levels.
One experiment with three factors.
Planned grouping with four blocks.

Test 49

Q:1-A 4(3) experiment describes:

Mark one answer:
Three levels of three factors
Four levels of three factors
Four factors at three levels
Full factorial randomized block experiment
Q:2-Designed experiments:
Mark one answer:
Can use quantitative and qualitative data
Must use quantitative data only
Should be normally distributed
Must be tracked with a control chart

Q:3-Designed experiments support Improvement by

Mark one answer:
Expanding complexity of analysis.
Following a sequential cycle.
Replicating results within a balanced design quicker than trial and error methods.
Charting processes with control limits.

Q:4-Full Factorial experiments with 2 levels of 3 factors will require how many trials?
Mark one answer:
8
9
6
4

Q:5-Confounding is defined by
Mark one answer:
Complicating experiments.
Mixing main effects and interaction effects of an experiment.
Reversing Average and Range data on control charts.
Discovering the effects of an experiment.

Q:6-The following definitions are correct except:

Mark one answer:
Treatments are the levels assigned to each factor.
Randomization is a technique to increase experimental validity.
A replication is a group of treatments and levels that indicates the required experiments.
Factors are studied for their impact on a process.
Q:7-The items are valid objectives for Design of Experiments except.
Mark one answer:
Compliance to external standards
Comparative
Screening
Optimization

Q:8-A Belt utilized a diamond symbol in a Process Map she created for the process that was
subject to her LSS project. By using the diamond symbol, she was indication which of the following
points in the process?
Mark one answer:
Ending
Decision
Repair station
Beginning

Q:9-When analyzing sample data a Belt may experience a Bimodal Distribution with each mode
displaying Normal Distribution. This could be caused by which of the following? (Choose one
answer)
Mark one answer:
There are two operators on different shifts.
There are two different machines being read.
Parts from two suppliers are being used.
All of these answers are correct.

Q:10-A shoe manufacturing firm learned through a Lean Six Sigma project their boot soles could be
made of a different material requiring two less steps in the process. Removal of these two steps
yielded a monthly cost savings of $7,500. Which of the following would be the reported financial
savings for this LSS project?
Mark one answer:
$45,000
$120,000
$75,000
$90,000