ANESTHESIOLOGY (Questionnaire)

Name: Year Level/ Section: Date:

Clinical Instructor:

TEST I. Multiple Choice. Choose and BOLD the correct answer.

1. What causes you to become unconscious and impervious to pain during the procedure?
a. General Anesthesia
b. Local anesthesia
c. Regional anesthesia
d. None of the above
2. What blocks pain in a large area of the body?
a. General Anesthesia
b. Local anesthesia
c. Regional anesthesia
d. None of the above
3. What is used to describe an injection of local (often short-acting) anesthetic around a
small area?
a. General Anesthesia
b. Local anesthesia
c. Regional anesthesia
d. Non of the above
4. What is the charge associated with the ECF?
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
5. What type of nerve fibers are unmyelinated nerves?
a. D fibers
b. A fibers
c. C fibers
d. B fibers
6. What is significant about procaine?
a. Most potent vasoconstrictors
b. Most potent vasodilator
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
7. How does pH influence anaesthesia?
a. Lower pH = longer duration
b. Higher pH = longer duration
c. Lower pH = less duration
d. Lower pH = longer duration
8. Why does LA not work as well on infected and inflamed tissues?
 a. Because they have a higher pH level
b. Because they have a lower pH level
c. Because they have a normal pH level
d. None of the above
9. What does vasodilation cause?
a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
10. Which organ has the greatest concentration of LA?
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Skeletal muscle
d. Thyroid
11. A triangular eminence projecting forward from the upper and front of the ulna.
A. Coronoid notch
B. Coronoid process
C. Mandibular notch
D. Mental foramen
12. The small foramen on the anterior surface of the mandible, typically adjacent to the root of the
mandibular canal through it.
A. Mental foramen
B. Mandibular foramen
C. Zygomatic foramen
D. Infraorbital foramen
13. The ridge on the internal surface of the body of the mandible.
A. Mylohyoid line
B. Mandibular notch
C. Condyle
D. Lingula
14. Features of local anaesthetics:
A. Should have quick onset of action and should not be irritating to skin & mucous membranes
B. Duration of action must be long enough to allow desired surgery to be completed
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
15. Also known as Xylocaine.
A. Prilocaine
B. Articaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Bupivicaine
16. Also known as Citanest.
A. Prilocaine
 B. Bezocaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Bupivicaine
17. Mepivicaine is also known as:
A. Citanest
B. Xylocaine
C. Carbocaine or Polocaine
D. Marcaine
18. Causes least vasolidation.
A. Prilocaine
B. Bupivicaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. None of the above
19. Examples of amides, except;
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Mepivicaine
D. Prilocaine
20. Landmarks of maxillary division, except;
A. Canine eminence
B. Incisive foramen
C. Palatal process
D. Coronoid process
21. Type of amelogenesis imperfecta where the enamel is normal in thickness on eruption but with
opaque, white to brownish-yellow patches caused by failure of maturation.
a. Hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta
c. Hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta
d. Hypophosphatasia amelogenesis imperfect

22. Type of amelogenesis imperfecta where the enamel matrix is formed in normal quantity but is
poorly calcified.
a. Hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta
c. Hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta
d. Hypophosphatasia amelogenesis imperfect
23. Type of amelogenesis imperfecta where the main defect in this type is deficient formation of
matrix, so that the amount of enamel is reduced but normally mineralized. The enamel is
randomly pitted, grooved or uniformly very thin, but hard and translucent. The enamel is
randomly pitted, grooved or uniformly.
a. Hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta
c. Hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta
d. Hypophosphatasia amelogenesis imperfect
24. It is an is an unexplained, apparently recently recognised and increasingly frequent condition
defined by hypomineralisation of all first permanent molars and incisors.
a. Chronological Hypoplasia
b. Dentinogeneis imperfecta
c. Odontodysplasia
d. Molar-Incisor Hypomineralization

25. A rare disorder, the crowns are of normal shape and size, but the roots are either absent or very
short and conical. The pulp chambers are obliterated by multiple nodules of poorly organized
dentine containing tubules running in sheaves.
a. Dentinal dysplasia
b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c. Rickets
d. Shell Teeth

26. This localised disorder of development affects a group of teeth in which there are severe
abnormalities of enamel, dentine and pulp. The disorder is not hereditary, and the aetiology is
unknown.
a. Shell teeth
b. Ghost teeth
c. No teeth
d. Supernumerary

27. This rare disorder may be a mild form of the genetic condition hemimaxillofacial dysplasia; it can
be mistaken for fibrous dysplasia or regional odontodysplasia.
a. Segmental odontomaxillary dysplasia
b. Amelogenesis imperfecta
c. Odontomes
d. Hypophosphatasia

28. This rare genetic disorder can have severe skeletal effects as a result of failure of development
of mature bone. There may also be failure of cementum formation causing early loss of teeth.
a. Segmental odontomaxillary dysplasia
b. Amelogenesis imperfecta
c. Odontomes
d. Hypophosphatasia

29. This group of collagen disorders is characterized (to varying degrees) by hypermobile joints,
loose hyperextensible skin, fragile oral mucosa and, in type VIII, early-onset periodontitis.
a. Gardner’s syndrome
b. Congenital syphilis
c. Ehlers–Danlos syndromes
d. Epidermolysis bullosa

30. It is a genetic blistering disease of skin and mucosa. Dental abnormalities include fine or coarse
pitting defects, or thin and uneven enamel, which may also lack prismatic structure.
a. Gardner’s syndrome
 b. Congenital syphilis
c. Ehlers–Danlos syndromes
d. Epidermolysis bullosa

TEST II. True or False. Write True if statement is correct then False if it’s not.

1. Articaine can be used on children under 4 years old.

3. Bending the needle to achieve better access for block injection is acceptable.
4. The most common reactions of people to LA are Vasodepressor syncope and Hyperventilation

5. Analgesia takes 6-10 minutes

6. The ophthalmic division conveys sensory information from the cheeks, upper lip, and roof of the
mouth.
7. The zygomatic nerve is one of the branches of the mandibular division.
8. The mandibular division is both sensory and motor.
9. Amides metabolized in the liver.
10. Lidocaine is not safe in children.
11. Supraperiosteal Injection is for pulpal anesthesia of the maxillary teeth when treatment is
limited to one or two teeth.
12. Paraperiosteal injection is recommended for larger areas of treatment.
13. Posterior Superior Alveolar (PSA) Nerve Block has high successful rate (>95%).
14. PSA Nerve Block includes all the roots posterior teeth.
15. Anterior Superior Alveolar (ASA) Nerve Block is also known as Infraorbital Nerve Block.

TEST III. ESSAY. Answer the questions

1. After general anesthesia for a surgery, how do you determine that a patient can be sent home?

2. Why is reviewing the medical record of a pt important?

3. What is transmission?

4. What is perception?

5. What is projection?
6. Give one local anaesthesia that is used in dentistry and define it?
7. What are Syringe Components? Give its correlation in armamentarium.