2/27/2020 DU LLM Entrance Question Paper Answers on Law Delhi University
DU LLM Entrance Question Paper Answers on Law
Delhi University
1. According to Constitution (Seventy-third) Amendment Act, 1992, in the event of dissolution
of Panchayati Raj institutions election for the new body should be compulsorily held
within
(A) 2 months (B) 4 months
(C) 6 months (D) 8 months
2. Article 144 of the Constitution mandates that all authorities, civil and judicial, in the
territory of India shall act in aid of the
(A) President (B) Supreme Court
(C) Prime Minister (D) Parliament
3. Is there a presumption in favour of the constitutionality of statutes ?
(A) Yes (B) No
(C) Depends (D) Not in all cases
4. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
(A) 45 years (B) 30 years
(C) 35 years (D) 21 years
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5. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Forms of Oaths or Armations ?
(A) Third Schedule (B) Fourth Schedule
(C) Seventh Schedule (D) Ninth Schedule
6. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign
immunity will not apply to a proceedings for award of compensation for violation of
fundamental rights
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(A) Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab (B) Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P.
(C)HOME SARKARIRESULT
Rudal Sah v. OLD PAPERS
State of Bihar (D) Nilabeti GOVT. JOBS 2019
Behara v. State of Orissa CURRENT AFFAIRS IBPS
7. The Supreme
ADMISSION Court has
2019 ruled that
HIGHER STUDYa person belonging to the non-reserved class
transplanted by adoption or marriage or conversion or any other voluntary act to family
belonging to the reserved class does not become eligible to bene t or reservation either
under Article 5(4) or Article 16(4) of the Constitution in
(A) Indra Sawhney v. UOI
(B) Km. Madhuri Patel v. Addl Commissioner, Tribal Development
(C) Valsamma Paul v. Cochin University
(D) M.D. Kasekar v. Vishnath Pander Barde.
8. The UPSC has to serve only
(A) Selected States (B) Union Territories
(C) Entire Nation (D) Depends on President’s Will
9. Under Article 11 of the Constitution the Parliament passed the Citizenship (Amendment)
Act, 2003 which provides the overseas citizenship to the People of Indian Origin in
(A) 12 speci ed countries (B) 16 speci ed countries
(C) 18 speci ed countries (D) 20 speci ed countries
10. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The Constitution gives more importance to the society as a whole
(B) The Constitution is individual centric or individual oriented
(C) The Constitution is social-economic pattern of the society but ignores the individual
(D) The Constitution has not ignored individual but has endeavoured to harmonise the individual
interest with permanant interest of the community.
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11. Assertion (A) : An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression
Reason (R) : An accused person cannot be compelled to be witness against himself
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(A) Both A and R are true (B) Both A and R are false
(C)HOME
A is true butSARKARIRESULT OLD PAPERS
R is false (D) A is false but R is true GOVT. JOBS 2019 CURRENT AFFAIRS IBPS
12.ADMISSION
A telephonic conversation
2019 HIGHERof STUDY
the accused with his friend was secretly tapped by the police.
Can this lay basis for raising the issue that :
(A) It infringes the fundamental right against testimonial compulsion under Article 20 (3) of the
Constitution
(B) It infringes the fundamental right to privacy under Article 19 of the Constitution
(C) It infringes the fundamental right guaranteed in Article 21 relating to personal liberty
(D) There is no constitutional bar to the prosecution of such accused.
13. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352
(A) The Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in
the State List
(B) The power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under the
Constitution is suspended
(C) A law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with the prior
permission of the President
(D) Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures.
14. The Speaker is the presiding o cer of Lok Sabha :
(A) He is a master of the House and not its servant
(B) He can exercise all and every powers of the House
(C) He is not above party politics
(D) He occupies a position of an umpire and must see that all sections of the House are given
proper opportunity to participate in the proceedings of the House
15. The term ‘law’ includes every branch of law. Yet there is difference between Constitutional
law made in exercise of sovereign powers and the other laws made in exercise of normal
legislative power. Hence amendment is not covered within the de nition of ‘law’ provided
in Article 13(2) and (3) of the Constitution of India. This was observed by Supreme Court
in
(A) Sankari Prasad v. UOI (B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (D) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
16. Which is the most highlighted Constitution (Amendment) Bill of recent times ?
(A) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Bill (B) Constitution (101st Amendment) Bill
(C) Constitution (108th Amendment) Bill (D) Constitution (73rd Amendment) Bill
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17. During the emergency proclaimed under Article 352, the President of India has a power
HOME
to suspend theSARKARIRESULT OLD PAPERS
fundamental rights enshrined in Part-IIIGOVT.
of theJOBS 2019
Constitution. CURRENT AFFAIRS
The rights IBPS
contained in which of the following Articles could not be suspended even during
emergency ? 2019
ADMISSION HIGHER STUDY
(A) 20 and 21 (B) 19 and 20
(C) 21 and 22 (D) 19, 20 and 21
18. In which Indian case it has been quoted that “A man’s liberty of movement is regarded so
highly by the law of England that it is not to be hindered or prevented except on the
surest grounds” :
(A) Maneka Gandhi case
(B) Joginder Kumar case
(C) Amarawati case
(D) Parkash Singh case
19. For the purpose of fundamental rights an authority must come within the de nition of
‘State’. Which of the following is not a State ?
(A) ONGC (B) Industrial and Finance Corporation
(C) NCERT (D) Kerala Legislative Assembly
20. In relation to a liation of educational institutions with a University, the Supreme Court
has pointed out that :
(A) Grant of a liation is purely a discretionary power of the State
(B) A liation being a Fundamental Right cannot be denied
(C) If an institution ful ls the condition of a liation, the same must be given and there cannot be
any discrimination
(D) If policy of the Government does not permit a liation, the same may be refused
21. Who amongst the following was appointed as the rst Chairperson of Unique Identi cation
Authority of India ?
(A) Ratan Tata (B) Azim Premji
(C) Nandan Nilekani (D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
22. Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom Behind Bars’ ?
(A) Nelson Mandela (B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) Sonia Gandhi
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23. Who among the following was awarded by the title of ‘Living Legend of Law’ by the
HOME SARKARIRESULT
International Bar Association in 1995OLD PAPERS
in recognition of GOVT. JOBS 2019
outstanding service toCURRENT
the legal AFFAIRS IBPS
profession internationally and for commitment to the Rule of Law ?
(A)ADMISSION
Justice H.R.2019
Khanna (B) Justice
HIGHER Krishna Iyer
STUDY
(C) Justice M.N. Venkatachalayya (D) Justice Anand
24. In 1980, an inmate of the Tihar Jail managed to send a scribbled piece of paper to Justice
Krishna Iyer of the Supreme Court narrating physical torture of the prisoners. The judge
got it converted into a petition :
(A) Charles Shobhraj vs. Delhi Admin. (B) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Admin.
(C) Keshavananda Bharati case (D) D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal
25. The South African Lawyer who was elected as the United Nations independent expert to
tackle violence against women
(A) Asma Jahangir (B) Rashida Manjoo
(C) Fatima Mir (D) Soli Sohrabji
26. The committee which studied the social, economical and educational status of Muslims
(A) Kuldeep Nayyar Committee (B) Shivanandan Menon Committee
(C) Rajinder Sachar Committee (D) Verma Committee
27. Justice Sudha Mishra is the only woman Chief Justice of High Court in India now. She is
the Chief Justice of which High Court ?
(A) Jharkhand (B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Karnataka (D) Madhya Pradesh
28. The International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL) has its headquarters at
(A) London (B) Paris
(C) Bonn (D) Hague
29. Who among the following was conferred with Mahatma Gandhi International Award of
Peace and Justice 2009 ?
(A) Aung San Suu Kyi (B) Sheikh Hasina
(C) Benazir Bhutto (D) Hilary Clinton
30. The mascot of 2010 Commonwealth Games to be held in October in Delhi is
(A) Tiger (B) Panda
(C) A red-tailed black cuckoo (D) Peacock
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31. The provision of personation at elections under Section 171D of IPC
(A)HOME
Shall apply SARKARIRESULT OLD PAPERS
to a person who has been authorized toGOVT. JOBS 2019
vote as CURRENT AFFAIRS
proxy for an elector under any IBPS
law in force
(B)ADMISSION
Shall not apply
2019to a person
HIGHERwho has been authorized to vote as proxy for an elector under
STUDY
any law in force
(C) Does not lead to any restriction under any law in force
(D) Shall not apply to a public servant on election duty
32. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary con nement to be
(A) one year (B) two years
(C) three months (D) six months
33. A hangman who hangs a convict pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from criminal
liability by virtue of
(A) Section 77 of IPC (B) Section 78 of IPC
(C) Section 79 of IPC (D) Section 76 of IPC
34. X ordered his employee Y to beat Z. Y refused to do so. Now
(A) X has committed abetment & Y has committed assault
(B) X has committed abetment & Y has committed no offence
(C) X & Y both have committed no offence
(D) X has committed no offence but Y has committed offence of subordination
35. ‘A’ knows that ‘B’ is suffering from a disease in his head and also knows that if a st blow
is given to ‘B’ on his head, it is likely to cause his death. Knowing it ‘A’ gives a st blow
to B on his head and causes death of ‘B’. ‘A’ is
(A) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder since he does not think that his act is
likely to cause death
(B) Guilty of murder since he had knowledge that in all probability it is likely to cause death of
‘B’
(C) Guilty of no offence since the blow is not su cient to cause the death of a person of normal
health
(D) Guilty of causing hurt only.
36. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and nds after so
opening the box, that there is no jewel in it.
(A) A has done an act towards the commission of crime therefore he is liable U/S 511
(B) A has not done an act towards the commission of crime therefore he is not liable U/S 511
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(C) It is impossible to steal anything from an empty box therefore A is not liable
(D)HOME SARKARIRESULT
Both (B) & (C) are true OLD PAPERS GOVT. JOBS 2019 CURRENT AFFAIRS IBPS
37.ADMISSION
Right of private
2019 defence is notSTUDY
HIGHER available
(A) Against an insane
(B) Against a child
(C) When there is a time to recourse the public authorities
(D) Against a public servant
38. Indian government proposes to privatize sick government sector and liberalize import-export policy of
India. B criticizes this policy and mentions its supposed bad impact. After going through this article
various labour and student unions, organize peaceful processions against it :
(A) B is liable U/S 124A because he excites disaffection against the Government of India
(B) B is not liable U/S 124A, because he simply expresses his disapprobation towards the policy
(C) B is liable because his article results in public disorder
(D) B is not liable U/S 124A, because requisite publication of seditious matter is lacking in the case.
39. A contracts with a gas company for supplying him gas and agrees to pay according to meter. He
intentionally makes some alternation in the meter reading to pay less charges
(A) A is guilty of theft (B) A is not guilty of theft
(C) A is guilty of criminal breach of trust (D) A is guilty of extortion
40. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Maxim, actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea has no application to the offences under the penal code in
its purely technical sense because the de nitions of various offences contain propositions as to the
statement
of offences
(B) Maxim has no application and is barred in absolute sense
(C) In cases of absolute liability this maxim has no application
(D) (A) and (C) both are true
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41. What is the difference between law making treaty and treaty contracts ?
(A) In law making treaty there should be more than 50 participants while in treaty contracts more than 100
(B) Treaty contracts are entered among neighbouring states and law making treaty may include any two
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countries
(C)HOME
There is noSARKARIRESULT OLD PAPERS
difference between the GOVT. JOBS 2019
two, as far as nature is concerned CURRENT AFFAIRS IBPS
(D) Law making treaty lays down rules of universal or general application, while treaty contract means, a
treaty
ADMISSION 2019 HIGHER STUDY
between two or only a few states, on a special matter concerning these states exclusively.
42. What does jus cognes imply ?
(A) No derogation is permitted from it
(B) Treaty or an agreement is void to the extent of inconsistency with this principle
(C) It can be modi ed only by a subsequent norm of general International law
(D) It can be modi ed by General Assembly Resolution.
43. “A state is and becomes an international person through recognition only and exclusively.” Who stated
this ?
(A) L. Oppenheim (B) Hobbes
(C) Fenwick (D) Starke
44. General Assembly adopted the de nition of word aggression through
(A) Resolution 3314 XXIX in 1974 (B) Resolution 3312 XXXIX in 1973
(C) Resolution 2213 in 1982 (D) Resolution 2214 in 1992
45. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The decisions of the International Court of Justice have binding force on all the members of United
Nations
(B) The decisions of the International Court of Justice have binding force on all states of the world
(C) The decisions of the International Court of Justice shall not have a binding force except upon the parties
to
a dispute and only in respect of a particular dispute between them
(D) The decisions of ICJ, shall not have any binding force on any members as its decisions are only
subsidiary
means for determining rules of International law.
46. The ‘Pigeon hole’ theory is related to
(A) Law of torts (B) Law of tort
(C) Law of Tortious tort (D) Law of negligence and nuisance
47. The maxim qui facit per alium facit per se means
(A) He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself
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(B) He who acts negligently is deemed as wrong does in law
(C)HOME SARKARIRESULT
He who violates OLD PAPERS
the legal rights of GOVT. JOBS 2019
other must pay for that CURRENT AFFAIRS IBPS
(D) He who injures other either directly or indirectly must pay for the same
ADMISSION 2019 HIGHER STUDY
48. A an independent contractor withdrew the support from C’s land. This work was given to A
by B.
(A) B is not liable vicariously for the act of A because A is acting independently
(B) B is liable vicariously even if the work was done by independent contractor
(C) B is liable only if C could prove presence of B at the time of withdrawal of support
(D) B is liable if C could prove that B carried on the work even after contrary express instructions by C.
49. A has grown a tree on his land. The branches of the tree are overhanging on the land of B. Under the
law, B is entitled to
(A) Enter into the land of A without his permission and cut the tree
(B) Forcibly enter into A’s land and chop off the branches
(C) Chop off the branches from his own land and take away the branches
(D) Chop off the overhanging branches while remaining on his land and inform A about the same.
50. De minimi’s non curat lex means
(A) Law does not take account of every tri ing matter
(B) Plaintiff must present the damage in minimum degree
(C) Your behavior should not hamper the work of others
(D) You must not withdraw the support of the land of others
51. By virtue of Section 36 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, an outgoing partner has
(A) A right to carry on a business competing with that of the rm
(B) No right to carry on a business competing with that of a rm
(C) A right to carry on a business competing with that of the rm only with the permission of all the partners
even
though under the contract of partnership there is not restriction imposed
(D) A right to carry on a business competing with that of the rm only with the permission of the majority of
the
partners even though in the contract of partnership there is no restriction imposed.
52. If a minor, admitted to the bene ts of the rm, on attaining majority, fails to give public notice of his
intention to become or not to become a partner, within the prescribed six months, by virtue of proviso to
section 30(5) of the Partnership Act, he
(A) Automatically becomes a partner in the rm after the expiry of said six months
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(B) Automatically ceases to be a partner in the rm after the expiry of said six months
(C)HOME
Becomes aSARKARIRESULT OLD PAPERS
partner in the rm after GOVT. JOBS 2019
the expiry of the said six months onlyCURRENT AFFAIRS
if all the partners IBPS
consent to it
(D) Either (A) or (C)
ADMISSION 2019 HIGHER STUDY
53. The term ‘goodwill’ is a thing very easy to describe but very di cult to de ne, was stated by
(A) Lord Herschell (B) Lord Haldane
(C) Lord MacNaughten (D) Lord Eldon
54. Section 22 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 lays down
(A) A rule of procedure (B) A rule of evidence
(C) A rule of substantive law (D) A basic principle of law
55. Which of the following is not held to be misconduct within the meaning of Section 44 (c) of the Act,
warranting an order of dissolution of a rm by the court
(A) Committing adultery with several women in the city where the business was carried on by the rm, by a
partner of the rm engaged in banking
(B) Committing adultery with the wife of a fellow partner
(C) Conviction for travelling without ticket
(D) Misconduct towards the clients of the rm
56. If instead of avoiding the contract the contractor accepts the belated performance of reciprocal
obligation on the part of the employer, the contractor cannot claim compensation for any loss occasioned
by the non-performance of the reciprocal promise by the employer at the time agreed, unless at the time of
such acceptance, he gives notice to the promisor of his intension to do so. In which case it was held ?
(A) State of Kerala v. M.A. Mathai (2007)
(B) Punjab State Civil Supplies Co-op Ltd. v. Sikander Singh (2006)
(C) Shin Satellite Public Co. Ltd. v. Jain Studios Limited (2005)
(D) K.C. Skaria v. the Government of State of Kerala (2004)
57. Which of the following is not a ground for termination of agency ?
(A) Agent renounces the business of the agency
(B) Business of the agency has been completed
(C) The agent is going abroad for a longer period
(D) The Principal/Agent has died under unnatural circumstances
58. If an acceptance on phone is drowned by noise and is not heard by the proposer
(A) No contract is concluded (B) A valid contract is concluded
(C) There is a voidable contract (D) The contract is void
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59. A contract which is valid initially however, ceases to be enforceable subsequently, the contract
(A)HOME SARKARIRESULT
Remains valid OLD PAPERS GOVT. JOBS 2019 CURRENT AFFAIRS IBPS
(B) Becomes voidable when it cease to be enforceable
(C)ADMISSION
Becomes void
2019when itHIGHER
ceasesSTUDY
to be enforceable
(D) Becomes void since inception
60. A contingent contract based on the speci ed uncertain event happening within a xed time under
Section 35
(A) Remains valid even if the event does not happen within that xed time
(B) Becomes void at the expiration of the time xed
(C) Becomes void if the happening of that event becomes impossible before the expiry of time xed
(D) Both (B) & (C)
61. Section 41-C inserted under the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2008 mandates the
State Government to establish Police Control Room
(A) In every District (B) At the State Level
(C) In every Police Station (D) Both (A) and (B)
62. Victim means
(A) A person against whom the offence has been committed
(B) The complainant
(C) The person who has lodged FIR with the police
(D) A person who has suffered any loss or injury by reason of the act of the accused
63. The accused can le an application for transfer of his case from one Magistrate to the other, when the
Magistrate takes cognizance under :
(A) Section 190 (1) (a) (B) Section 190 (1) (b)
(C) Section 190 (1) (c) (D) Section 190 (2)
64. Acquittal under Section 232 of CrPC is a
(A) Statutory acquittal
(B) Technical acquittal
(C) Acquittal on merits but before hearing the defence
(D) Acquittal on merits after hearing the defence
65. Plea Bargaining is not possible in respect of the offences covered under which of the following Acts,
even if, punishable for a term not exceeding 7 years ?
(A) The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986
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(B) The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
(C)HOME
The BondedSARKARIRESULT OLD PAPERS
Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 GOVT. JOBS 2019 CURRENT AFFAIRS IBPS
(D) Indian Penal Code, 1860
ADMISSION 2019 HIGHER STUDY
66. Bentham’s philosophy was based on
(A) Utilitarian individualism (B) Utilitarian socialism
(C) Utilitarian communalism (D) Utilitarian fundamentalism
67. In case there is a con ict between the decision of two co-equal benches
(A) Court can follow any of the two decisions
(B) The decision later in time must be followed
(C) The decision of both the courts will be of no value
(D) The court should wait for the decision of the Supreme Court
68. A primary duty is that duty :
(A) Which should be ful lled primarily where there are more than one duties
(B) Which is covered under the rst list of duties
(C) Which is imposed on the persons of primary sector
(D) Which exists per se independent of any other duty
69.Possession is prima facie evidence of the ownership hence,
(A) Long adverse possession confers title even to a property which originally belonged to another
(B) In all cases possession leads to ownership
(C) Transfer of possession does not lead to transfer of ownership
(D) Long adverse possession does not confer title to a property which belongs to another
70. Corporation has a distinct personality, a leading case on this point is
(A) Salmon Vs. Salmon (B) Whiteman Vs. Whiteman
(C) People’s Pleasure Park Vs. Rohleder (D) (A) & (C)
71. Delay in making an application for setting aside the arbitral award
(A) Can be condoned under Section 5 of Limitation Act
(B) Cannot be condoned by invoking Section 5 of Limitation Act
(C) May be condoned under Section 5 of Limitation Act as per discretion of the court
(D) Only (A) and no (B) or (C)
72. The ‘Presiding Arbitrator’ is appointed by :
(A) Parties to the arbitration agreement (B) The arbitrator appointed by each party
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(C) The Court (D) Either (A) or (B)
HOME SARKARIRESULT OLD PAPERS GOVT. JOBS 2019 CURRENT AFFAIRS IBPS
73. ‘Foreign Award’ under Section 44 means
(A)ADMISSION
That the award
2019 must HIGHER
have been made on or after 11th day of October 1960
STUDY
(B) That the award must have been made after 28th day of July 1924
(C) That the award must have been made on or after 12th day of December 1971
(D) That the award must have been made after 1st July 1996
74. Which of the following is not a true statement of law under Arbitration Act, 1996 ?
(A) Place of arbitration proceedings is determined by parties
(B) Place of arbitration proceedings is determined as per the rules applicable for determining the jurisdiction
of
the courts
(C) In case of default of the parties, arbitral tribunal itself could determine the place of arbitration
proceedings
(D) For consultation among its member, the arbitral tribunal could also x any place other than the place
determined by parties
75. After the settlement agreement is reached between the parties to conciliation
(A) The conciliator makes an award stating the reasons thereof
(B) The conciliator shall authenticate the settlement agreement and furnish a copy thereof
(C) The conciliator shall refer the matter to the tribunal
(D) The conciliator shall dictate the order and it will be binding upon the parties.
FINAL ANSWERS / KEY
Subject: LL.M.
1 C 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 C 9 B 10 D 11 A 12 C13 A 14 D 15 A 16 C 17 A 18 A 19 C
20 C 21 C 22 B 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 B 29 A 30 A 31 B 32 C 33 B 34 B 35
B 36 A 37 C 38 B 39 A 40 D 41 D 42 A 43 A 44 A 45 C 46 A 47 A 48 B 49 D 50 A
51 A 52 A 53 C 54 A 55 A 56 A 57 C 58 A 59 C 60 C 61 D 62 D 63 C 64 C 65 A 66 A
67 B 68 D 69 A 70 D 71 B 72B 73 A 74 B 75 B
Delhi University (DU) LLB LLM Entrance 2012 Question Paper and Study Materials
See Also……
Previous Year Old Question Paper
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