1.

Which of the following is a transfusion reaction that is due to an

immunologic attack by the viable donor lymphocytes against the
transfusion recipient?
a. TACO
b. TA-GVHD
c. TRALI
d. FNHTR
e. TAS
f. None of the Choices
2. Expansion of donor screening protocols in 1996 in the United States to
include p24 core antigen testing reduced the window period of HIV
infection from an estimated 22 days to _____ days.
a. 12
b. 10
c. 14
d. 16
3. Which of the following method yields more plasma, has a greater red cell
loss and has a better initial white blood cell reduction before filtration?
a. None of the Choices
b. Buffy Coat Method
c. Irradiated Platelets
d. Platelet Rich Plasma
e. Platelet Poor Plasma
4. The most commonly used blood bags are made from which of the
following?
a. Polyvinyl chloride
b. Polyofelin
c. Acrylic
d. Polyester
5. Which of the following is/are the criteria for abbreviated crossmatch?
I. The current antibody screen on the patient is completely negative
II. There is no past history of clinically significant antibodies
a. None of the Choices
b. I and II
c. II only
d. I only
6. Which of the following is performed to ensure the proper functioning of
materials, equipment, and methods during operations?
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality management
c. Quality control
d. Quality improvement
7. Female donors for Double RBC pheresis, must be at least _____ tall and
weigh at least ______ with a hematocrit value of 40%
a. 5’5”; 130
b. 5’1”; 150
c. 5’1”; 130
d. 5’5”; 150
8. In pasteurizing Factor VIII concentrates, which among the following is
added to prevent denaturation of the product?
I. NSS
II. Albumin
III. Sucrose
IV. Glycine
a. Four of these
b. Three of these
c. One of these
d. Two of these
9. Which of the following is a major cause of transfusion-related fatalities?
a. None of the Choices
b. Bacterial contamination
c. FHTR
d. Iron overload
e. TRALI
f. FNHTR
10. Weak A phenotypes can be serologically differentiated using the following
techniques, EXCEPT:
a. Saliva studies to detect the presence of A and H substances
b. Adsorption-elution tests with anti-A
c. Forward grouping of A and H antigens with anti-A, anti-AB and
anti-H
d. Reverse grouping of ABO isoagglutinins and the presence of anti-A2
- correct: A1
11. Which of the following antibodies are most capable in binding
complement?
I. ABO
II. Lea
III. Kell
IV. P1
a. of these
b. Three of these
c. Two of these
d. One of these

12. Which among the following is true of Confidential Unit Exclusion?

a. Provides an opportunity for those donors who felt pressure to
donate in the workplace or at a community blood drive to indicate
their blood should not be transfused
b. Required by the AABB Standards and FDA to be included by blood
centers as part of the donation process
c. Both
d. Neither

13. Which among the following is NOT a type of Delayed Immune Transfusion
Reaction?
a. Transfusion Associated Graft Vs. Host Disease
b. Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload
c. None of the Choices
d. Post Transfusion Purpura
e. Alloimmunization

14. I. Premature newborn infants are more likely than full-term infants to
require exchange transfusions.
II. Exchange transfusions are used primarily to remove high levels of
conjugated bilirubin and thus prevent kernicterus
a. First statement is correct; Second statement is incorrect
b. First statement is incorrect; Second statement is correct
c. Both statement is incorrect
d. Both statement is correct
15. Which of the following antibodies are associated with spontaneous and
early abortions?
a. None of the choices
b. Anti-N
c. Autoanti-P
d. Anti-PP1Pk
16. Which of the following antibodies react at immediate spin phase?
I. Lea
II. Kell
III. Lua
IV. Lub
a. Two of these
b. Three of these
c. All of these
d. One of these
17. When platelets are stored at 1 to 6 degrees Celsius, it can only be stored for
how many days?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5

18. What is the purpose of the check cells in AHG test?

I. Standardize antiglobulin sera
II. Confirm true negative antiglobulin reactions
a. II only
b. I and II
c. None of the Choices
d. I only

19. Which of the following quality is intended to enable an organization to

attain higher levels of performance by creating new or better features that
add value by removing deficiencies in the process, product, or service?
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality improvement
c. Quality management
d. Quality control
20. Determine the result of the crossmatching with the following information:
Donor: Blood type “O
Recipient: Blood type “B”
a. Major Crossmatch:Incompatible; Minor Crossmatch: Compatible
b. Major Crossmatch:Incompatible; Minor Crossmatch: Incompatible
c. Invalid
d. Major Crossmatch:Compatible; Minor Crossmatch: Compatible
e. Major Crossmatch:Compatible; Minor Crossmatch: Incompatible
21. Which of the following is an acute transfusion reaction presenting with
respiratory distress and severe hypoxemia during or within 6 hours of
transfusion in the absence of acute lung injury?
a. TA-GVHD
b. None of the Choices
c. TAS
d. TACO
e. TRALI
f. FNHTR
22. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE of Replacement Fluids?
I. Albumin in a concentration of 5% is the most widely used replacement
fluid.
II. It is a hyponcotic fluid for most patients and therefore will result in the
net flow of fluid from the extravascular space.
a. II only
b. I only
c. I and II
d. None of the Choices
23. Spherocytosis is more commonly seen in what type of HDN?
a. ABO
b. Rh
c. None of the Choices
d. Both ABO and Rh
24. Which of the following term is used to refer to chemicals and conditions
that can cause mutations?
a. Mutagens
b. Neither Mutagens or Missense
c. Either Mutagens or Missense
d. Missense
25. Which of the following is defined as a reaction in which signs and symptoms
are already present within 24 hours of transfusion?
a. 2 answers from the Choices
b. Acute transfusion reaction
c. None of the Choices
d. Hyperacute transfusion reaction
e. Delayed transfusion reaction
26. Anemia of the newborn infant is more commonly seen in what type of
hemolytic disease of the newborn?
a. ABO
b. None of the Choices
c. Rh
d. Both Rh and ABO
27. What is the initial freezing temperature of RBCs when using high glycerol?
a. -80C
b. -65C
c. -96C
d. -75C
e. -196C
28. Which of the following is the wavelength used for phototherapy?
a. 460-490 nm
b. 500-540 nm
c. 450-460 nm
d. None of the Choices
29. Which of the following drug used for leukapheresis increases leukocyte
output by pulling the granulocytes from the marginal pool into the general
circulation?
a. Neither Corticosteroid and Hydroxyethyl Starch
b. Corticosteroid
c. Hydroxyethyl Starch
d. Both Corticosteroid and Hydroxyethyl Starch
30. Application of the antiseptic during blood collection should be scrubbed
on the site of puncture for at least _____.
a. 60 seconds
b. 120 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 10 seconds
31. Kell blood group antigens are found in which among the following cells?
I. RBCs
II. Platelets
III. Lymphocytes
IV. Granulocytes
V. Monocytes
a. Three of these
b. One of these
c. Two of these
d. All of these
32. Which of the following antibodies RARELY causes HDFN?
a. Anti-Leb
b. Anti-e
c. Anti-K
d. Anti-N
e. None of the Choices

33. Which of the following are true regarding Hemagglutination inhibition in

application to blood bank?
I. It is used to neutralize selected blood group antibodies with their
corresponding antigen found in soluble form in human saliva, serum, or
other body fluids.
II. Useful when working with a serum specimen containing multiple
specificities.
III. It is also used to determine the secretor status of individuals with weak
ABO subgroups
a. None of these
b. Two of these
c. One of these
d. All of these

34. Which of the following procedures allow the clinicians to obtain a sample of
fetal blood through cordocentesis?
a. Intrauterine transfusion
b. None of the Choices
c. Color Doppler
d. Advanced sonography
35. What type of gloves is used for handling hot or frozen material?
a. Rubber utility gloves
b. Insulated gloves
c. Examination gloves
d. None of the Choices
e. Sterile gloves

36. Which of the following is a subgroup of A where Red Blood Cells

characteristically demonstrates a mixed-field pattern of agglutination with
anti-A and most anti-AB reagents?
a. Ax
b. Ael
c. A2
d. A3
37. When both DAT and IAT are to be performed, RBCs must be saline washed
for a minimum of?
a. 3 times
b. 2 times
c. 6 times
d. 4 times
e. 5 times

38. _______ is the only FDA approved rejuvenation solution used in some blood
centers to regenerate ATP and 2,3-DPG levels before RBC freezing.
a. Rejuvesol
b. None of the Choices
c. AS-5
d. AS-1
e. AS-3

39. Which of the following is the most critical step in pretransfusion testing?
I. Proper collection and identification of the recipients blood sample
II. Proper conduct of Crossmatching
a. I only
b. None of the Choices
c. I and II
d. II only
40. Which of the following antigens are inactivated by proteolytic enzymes?
I. Duffy II. Rh III. Kidd IV. MNS V. Xga
a. Three of these
b. Two of these
c. All of these
d. One of these

41. What is the purpose of dextrose in anticoagulant solutions?

a. It maintains pH during storage
b. It extends shelf-life from 21 days to 35 days
c. It chelates calcium
d. None of the Choices
e. It serves as a substrate for ATP production

42. I. Post partum women may donate blood one year after delivery or five
months after weaning
II. Women who breastfed shall be deferred for a minimum of five months
after weaning
a. Both statements are incorrect
b. First statement is correct; second statement is incorrect
c. First statement is incorrect; second statement is correct
d. Both statements are correct

43. I. On infection with HBV, the first serological maker to appear is HBsAg,
followed by IgM anti- HBc then HBeAg within the first few weeks of exposure
II. HBIg is an immune globulin prepared from persons with a low titer on
anti-HBs
a. Both statements are incorrect
b. First statement is correct; second statement is incorrect
c. First statement is incorrect; second statement is correct
d. Both statements are correct
44. Which among the following choices does NOT cause a false-positive
reaction in Rh typing?
a. Rouleaux
b. Drying of slide
c. Cold agglutinins
d. Variant antigen