Review Questions for

AQUACULTURE

1. Republic Act 8550

a. Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization Act
b. Enabling Act of a University
c. Fisheries Code of 1998
d. Presidential Decree 704

2. Republic Act 8435

a. Fisheries Code of 1998
b. Modernization of Agriculture Act
c. Modernization of Fisheries Act
d. Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization Act

3. The raising of two or more species of fish or crustaceans in a pond

a. Monoculture c. Monosex culture
b. Polyculture d. Integrated farming system

4. The first species of tilapia introduced in the Philippines a. O.

niloticus/ Tilapia nilotica c. O. aureus/ T. aureus
b. O. Spilurus/ T. spirulus d. O. mossambicus/ T. mossambica
5. Aquaculture is synonymous to
a. Pen culture c. Fish culture
b. Cage culture d. Tank culture

6. This fish culture method requires the use of enclosures in shallow protected areas of inland water
generally in lakes or lagoons.
a. Cage method b. Pond method c. Fish pen method d. Tank method

7. The process of releasing fish fry or fingerlings in a body of water like a fishpond or lake.
a. Planting c. Rationing
b. Stocking d. Fishing

8. These are microscopic plants in pond a. Zooplankton

b. Plankton c. Macrophytes d. Phytoplankton

9. This is the number of fish seed material stocked in a given area of water
a. Stocking biomass b. Fish culture
b. Stocking rate c. Stocking replacement d. Stock enhancement

10. The release of fish in natural body of water a. Capture fisheries

c. Stock enhancement d. Mariculture

11. Fish with uniform size are stocked in progressively larger ponds as more space is needed
a. Multi-size stocking b. Multi-stage stocking c. Mono-size stocking d. Double cropp

12. Includes fish, all other aquatic flora and fauna and other living resources of the aquatic environment,
including, but not limited to salt and corals
a. Coastal area b. Artificial reefs
c. Aquatic resources d. Coral reefs
 13. A stationary weir or trap devised to intercept and capture fish consisting of rows of bamboo stakes,
plastic nets and other materials fenced with split bamboo matting or wire matting.
a. Fish cage b. Fish coral or baklad
c. Fish net d. Fish pen

14. People directly or personally and physically engaged in taking and/or culturing and processing
fishery and/or fishery resources
a. Fisherfolk c. Fish culturists d. Aquaculturists
b. Fisherman

15. The biggest lake in the Philippines a. Lake Buhi c. Taal Lake
b. Lake Lanao d. Laguna de Bay

16. Adult bangus

a. Sabalo c. Dago
b. Malaga d. Mako

17. The incumbent director of the Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources
a. Felix Gonzales b. Guillermo Morales c. Malcolm Sarmiento d. Eduardo B. Gongona

18. This consists of the microscopic plants and animals found in the bottom of ponds
a. Lablab b. Bulan-bulan
b. Phytoplankton c. Zooplankton d. Periphyton

19. Local name for milkfish fry a. Bidbid

c. Kawag-kawag d. Tikitiki

20. This method of culturing milkfish is also known as the deep water method
a. Lablab method b. Lumot method c. Plankton method d. Platform method

21. A fish that holds fertilized eggs in its buccal cavity for rearing
a. Pouch breeders b. Mouth brooders c. Substrate spawn d. Nest builders

22. A fishing gear made of synthetic netting used for harvesting fish
a. Seine c. Baklad
b. Fyke net d. Trap

23. Genetically male tilapia (GMT) is a product of a. GIFT

Technology c. Monosex
b. Sex-reversal d. YY-male technolo

24. An act providing for the development, management and conservation of the fisheries and aquatic
resources. Integrating all laws pertinent thereto, and for other purposes
a. Republic Act 8435 b. Fisciculture
b. Republic Act 8550 c. Republic Act 7210 d. Republic Act 8120

25. The art and science of catching fish for livelihood a. Aquaculture
c. Fish capture d. Sea ranching

26. The process of preserving foods in hermetically-sealed containers like tin cans and jars or bottles
through the application of heat to sterilize the food and the container
a. Drying b. Boiling c. Canning d. Salting

27. This is the method of processing fish by lowering its water content through exposure to the sun
a. Fermentation b. Drying c. Salting d. Smoking
 28. This is defined as the total amount of salt in grams contained in one kilogram of seawater (SW)
when all the carbonate has been converted to oxide, bromine, and iodine, replaced by chlorine and
organic matter less completely oxidized
a. Alkalinity b. Salinity c. Hardness d. pH

29. Inversion of prospective genetic tilapia females by feeding a male synthetic hormone
a. YY-male technology b. Radiation c. Sex reversal d. Sterilization

30. This is defined as the amount of feed needed to produce a kilo of flesh
a. Feed ration b. Feed conversion ratio
c. Feed conversion efficiency d. Feed coefficient

31. Nets in the form of a conical bag with the mouth kept open by various devices and the entire gear
towed, trailed or trawled usually in the bottom of the sea to capture submerged species that naturally
stay near the sea bottom
a. Tuck seines b. Trawls c. Trammel net d. Ring net

32. Baited devices made of bamboo, rattan, or chicken wire formed into regular receptacles and having a
non-return value which provides easy entrance but difficult exit of fish
a. Fish pot b. Fish shelter c. Fish corrals d. Fish nets

33. Variously shaped and framed small bag nets used entirely by hand or partly by mechanical power in
which fish are captured by scooping
a. Hoop nets b. Brackishwater
b. Dip nets c. Drag seine d. Fyke nets

34. A mixture of freshwater (FW) and seawater (SW) a. Freshwater

c. Marine water d. Saline wate

35. The sperm of the fish a. Milk c. Milt d. Semen

b. White liquid

36. An animal that feeds on minute organisms suspended in water

a. Plankton feeder b. Channa striata
b. Fish eater c. Insect feeder
d. Egg eater
37. Juvenile fish stocked in ponds or other units of culture a. Fry
b. Breeders
c. Fingerlings
38. Native catfish d. None of the above
a. Clarias batrachus
b. Clarias macrocephalus
c. Clarias gariepinus d. None of the above
39. The scientific name of mud fish
a. Chanos chanos
c. Trichogaster pectoralis d. Oreochromis niloticus

40. These are small ponds in milkfish ponds used exclusively for rearing fry to fingerlings
a. Nursery ponds b. Petuya
b. Transition pond c. Catching pond d. Feed ponds

41. Live fish boat for transporting milkfish fry a. Wooden boat
c. Fishing vessel d. Fishing boat

42. Harvesting method in milkfish culture operation where it takes advantageous of the tendency of the
fish to swim against the current
a. Pasubang method b. Total drainage c. Seining d. Netting

43. The collective terms for microscopic organism suspended in water

a. Zooplankton b. Phytoplankton
c. Plankton d. Periphyton

44. It is the energy that is released as heat when a substance is completely oxidized to CO2, nitrous
oxide and H2O.
a. Total heat production b. Intake energy
c. Gross energy d. Digested energy

45. The total amount of energy contained in a diet is usually determined through
a. Bomb calorimetry c. Bomb colorimetry d. Chemical analysis
b. Respiration

46. Which of the following is not anessential

amino acid (EAA)

a. Lysine c. Valine
b. Tyrosine d. Methion

b. Glycogen synthesis
47. The carbohydrate storage molecules found in plants is
a. Glycogen c. Sugar
b. Starch d. Cellulose
48. The breakdown of glucose liberating energy is known as a.
Gluconeogenesis c. Glycolysis d. Glycogenolysis

49. It is an expression which relates the gram of weight gained to the grams of crude protein fed
a. Net protein utilization c. Protein nutritional value d. Conversion ratio
b. Protein efficiency ratio

50. Are the major lipid components biological membrane a. c. Fatty acids
Triglycerides d. Phospholipids
b. Sterols

51. Are organic molecules that act as cofactors or substrates in some metabolic reactions
a. Proteins c. Minerals
b. Vitamins d. Lipids

52. Insulin is important in fish for a. Amino acid metabolism b.

Carbohydrate metabolism c. Glucose level in blood d. Lipid metabolism

53. The ratio of the length of the digestive tract to body length of fish is known as
a. Relative gut length b. Intestinal length c. Ratio of gut length d. Gut body length ratio

54. Which of the following plays very important role in fat digestion?
a. Pancreas b. Stomach c. Intestine d. Liver

55. Marine fish oils are dietary sources of essential fatty acids (EFA) of the
a. n-9 series b. n-6 series c. Stomach d. Intestine
 56. Freshwater fish from cold water have an essential requirement for fatty acids of
a. n-3 series b. n-6 series d. Both n-3 and n-6 series
c. n-9 series

57. Which of the following is not a function of carbohydrates in aquaculture diets

a. Cheap source of protein c. Binding agent
b. Cheap source of energy d. Enhance palatability of feeds

58. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamins a. Ascorbic

acids c. Vitamin B12
b. Tocoperol d. Inositol

59. One calorie is equal to

a. 4.184 joules c. 4.814 joules
b. 4.481 joules d. 4,841 joules

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60. Which of the following is not a wet feed b. Trysin
a. Whole trash fish
b. Chopped trash fish c. Fish silages d. Fish meals

61. Which of the following is a major mineral required by fish? a.

Iron c. Iodine
b. Magnesium d. Copper

62. Which of the following is not secreted in the pancreas? a.

Chitinase c. Chymotrypsis d. Amylase

63. Major nitrogen containing compounds present in both plants and animals are
a. Nucleic acid c. Organic acid d. Ammonia
b. Proteins

64. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide? a. Xylose c. Ribose

b. Fructose d. Sucrose

65. Which of the following is a polysaccharide? a. Glyceraldehydes

b. Cellobiose c. Cellulose d. Raffinose

66. The main storage carbohydrate of animals is a. Glucose

b. Glycogen c. Chitin
d. Starch
67. Proteins have approximately
a. 6-8% H
b. 50-55% H c. 15-18% O d. 20-23% C

68. Fatty acids that lack double bonds between carbons are known as
a. Monosaturated fatty acids of animals
b. Unsaturated fatty acids b. Provision of aeration
c. Saturated fatty acids d. Monounsaturated fatty acids
69. One of the phases of aquaculture a. Recirculating system
b. Nursery
c. Tanks
70. One of the systems of production a. Intensive d. Floating cages
b. Tanks

71. The choice of production system depends on a. Stocking density c. Floating cages
d. Recirculating system c. Feed requirements
d. Exposure to stress

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72. Factor that often leads to disease c. Environment
a. Host d. Exposure of the animal to stress
b. Pathogen

73. One advantage of tilapia pond culture is that the fish a. Able to c. Able to breathe freely
swim freely d. Able to be captured easily
b. Feed on natural food

74. The study of genes and genotypic frequencies within a population

a. Quantitative genetics c. Mendelian genetics
b. Population genetics d. Molecular genetics

75. Component that is due to the additive effects of the genes a.

Additive variance c. Dominance variance
b. Epistatic variance d. Additive and dominance variance

76. Variance that is due to the interaction of alleles between two or more loci
a. Additive variance b. Epistatic variance d. Additive and dominance variance
c. Dominance variance

77. It is a breeding program in which individuals or families are chosen in an effort to change the
population mean in the next generation
a. Hybridization b. Cross breeding c. Selection d. Triploidy

78. Variance that is transmitted in a predictable and reliable manner

a. Additive variance c. Dominance variance
b. Epistatic variance d. Genetic variance

79. The raw material with which the animals breeder most work a.
Genetic variation c. Environmental variation
b. Phenotypic variation d. Genetic and environmental variation

80. The proportion of individuals in the population with a particular genotype

a. Genotypic frequency b. Gene frequency d. Effective population number
c. Allele frequency

81. Component that is due to the interaction of the alleles at each locus
a. Additive variance b. Dominance variance c. Epistatic variance d. Genetic variance

82. The observable or measureable differences among individuals within a population for a particular
trait
a. Genetic variation b. Phenotypic variation c. Environmental variation d. Additive variation

83. Only a small random sample of parents’ variance is inherited by its progeny
a. Additive variance b. Dominance variance c. Epistatic variance d. Non-additive variance

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84. Considered as the governor in any selection program a. Realized response
b. Genetic variance c. Heritability d. Epistatic

85. Describes a diploid organism that carries two different alleles at one or more genetic loci
a. Homozygous b. Polyploidy
b. Heterozygous c. In-breeding d. Gene pool

86. Offspring of two different varieties or two different species a.

Diploid c. Hybrid d. Triploid

87. Organism that has been genetically engineered to contain one or more novel genes, taken from one
or more different species and inserted into its genome
a. Transgenic b. Selected line c. Hybrid d. Triploid

88. Loss or alteration of genetic identity in wild population of organisms that may result from
interbreeding of genetically distinct stocks introduced to the wild either intentionally or
accidentally
a. Genetic engineering b. Genetic plasticity d. Genetic dilution
c. Gene probe

89. Feed cost is not a major expense item under this culture system
a. Cage culture b. Tank culture c. Extensive culture d. Intensive culture

90. The most likely effect of a subsidy on inputs in fish production

a. Increase in output price b. Increase in production c. Increase in demand d. Increase in profit

91. Cultivation of only one target species at a given time and place
a. Fish culture b. Polyculture d. Simultaneous culture
c. Monoculture

92. A sequence of organism, each of which provides food for the next, beginning with primary producers
and extending to carnivores
a. Food cPhotosynthesis c. Food web d. Food channel

93. The process by which green plants algae and other primary producers produce food for their own
growth, plus oxygen from CO2, water, and sunlight
a. Photoinhibition c. Photolytic
b. Photosynthesis d. Phototactic

94. Most are of earthen construction

a. Tanks c. Ponds
b. Pen d. Cages

95. It must be available in the necessary quantity and quality a.

Water c. Fertilizer
b. Soil type d. Pond vegetation

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96. A culture system where two or more agricultural commodities are simultaneously grown in a certain
area
a. Polyculture b. Multi-stock c. Integrated farming d. Multi-cropping

97. This is the best way to maintain the water quality for fish production
a. Aeration 99. This is an inverted mosquito net used to hold fish a. Hapa
b. Water exchange b. Net

98. It is the heart of a successful fish culture a. Feeding 100. Method of feeding fish with excess amount a. Hand feeding
b. Water management b. Ad libitum feeding
101. It is the rearing of fish c. Net cage
a. Fishery d. Pen
b. Fisheries

102. This is the process of eating and being eaten a. Food pyramid c. Feeding into satiation d. Restricted feeding
b. Food web
c. Biofiltration
d. Recirculation c. Fish propagation
d. Fish culture

c. Water quality management d. Water quality

c. Food chain
d. Food cycle

103. This is a culture system with two or more compatible fish species in a culture container
a. Polyculture b. Multi-stock c. Integrated farming d. Multi-cropping

104. It is a management technique done by choosing species of fish to grow

a. Partial stocking c. Multi-stocking
b. Selective stocking d. Monosex

105. This is the biomass a body of water can support a. Standing

crop c. Carrying capacity d. Critical standing crop
b. Biogenic capacity

106. This is a culture system called all in all out culture system
a. Monoculture b. Polyculture c. Partial harvest d. Monoharvest

107. Percentage of energy loss in every step of the food chain

a. 90% b. 80% c. 10% d. 50%

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108. This is the most desired fish food a. Plankton c. Microscopic organism d. Zooplankton
b. Phytoplankton

109. This is the limiting nutrient in fish culture a. Carbon dioxide c. Phosphorus
b. Nitrogen d. Oxygen

110. The main goal of aquaculture development is a. Food security

b. Food production c. Food availability d. Increase fish catch

111. This is the position of the organism in the food chain

a. Herbivore b. Trophic level c. 1st degree consumer d. Ultimate consumer

112. This is the main source of energy of fish and organic matter
a. Sunlight b. Solar radiation
c. Photoperiod d. Aquatic plants

113. This is one of the reasons why there is variability of growth rate
a. Hierarchy of feeding b. Ctenopharyngodon idella
b. Traits c. Seeking for food d. Individual

114. Bighead carp is scientifically named a. Hypophthalmichthys

molitrix c. Aristichthys nobilis d. Cyprinus carpio
 115. This is the prime commodity of our country from freshwater
a. Bangus b. Tilapia c. Carps d. Catfish
 116. When an ecosystem is limited by biota, this is the system that could be practiced
a. Polyculture b. Cage culture c. Monoculture d. Pen culture
 117. The harvesting method you have to follow if you practice varied sizes of fish stocking
a. Selective harvesting b. Partial harvesting c. Mono harvest d. Poly-harvest
118. This is a
type of fish that
directly feed on
aquatic plants

a. Strainer
b. Sucker

119. The is the gain in weight by fish a. Absolute growth

b. Specific growth

120. The weight increase of fish in a day is termed a. Average

growth rate
b. Average weight
c. Predator
d. Grazer
c. Relative growth d. Potential growth c. Average weight gain d. Average daily weight
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121. Small fish has higher of this growth rate than large fish
a. Specific growth b. Grass carp
b. Absolute growth c. Optimum growth d. Relative growth

122. This is the King of Fishes in China a. Bighead carp

c. Common carp d. Crucian carp

123. Development of aquaculture commenced in what century?

a. 16th
c. 18th
b. 17th d. 19th

124. A culture system producing stable-sized fish is a. Grow-out

b. Hatchery c. Pond
d. Cage
125. This is an Indian carp
a. Rohu
b. Crucian carp c. Grass carp
d. Mrigal
126. This is the act of putting or adding fish into the pond a.
Stocking
b. Sampling c. Stocking density d. Stocking rate

127. It is the balance of fish population with fish food available in the pond
a. Stocking b. Stocking fraction
c. Stocking density d. Selective stocking

128. Fish of uniform size are stocked in progressively larger ponds

a. Monosize stocking c. Multi-stage stocking d. Multi-size stocking
b. Monosex stocking

129. A fishing gear which is a cone-shaped net a. Lift nets c. Bag net
b. Cast nets d. Dip net

130. A fishing gear used to encircle a body of water by drawing both ends used after pond has been
drained
a. Cast net b. Seine net c. Lift net d. Dip net

131. This is a remedy done if fertilization is not effective to produce natural fish food organisms by
buffering the water
a. Feeding b. Aeration d. Water exchange
c. Liming

132. Type of feed formulated out of the naturally available ingredients

a. Purified feed b. Semi-purified feed
c. Practical feed d. Natural food

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133. This fish activity is higher in small fish than large fish per unit body weight
a. Gonadal development of fish waste
b. Growth b. Size of fish

134. This is affected by the quality of ration given to fish a. Amount 135. It is also known as “bintol”
a. Lift net
b. Crab lift net c. Quality of fish d. Food preference
c. Cropping
d. Metabolic rate
c. Cast net
d. Trap net

136. This is a water quality parameter which affects the metabolic rate of fish being cultured
a. Dissolved oxygen b. Temperature d. Carbon dioxide
c. pH

137. This is a process of releasing the nutrient content of organic matter by bacteria
a. Decomposition c. Nitrification d. Nutrient release
b. Mineralization

138. This kind of fertilizer is mostly carbon a. Organic c. Complete

b. Inorganic d. Incomplete

139. It is the total weight of the organisms contained in a sample

a. Standing crop b. Carrying capacity d. Critical standing crop
c. Biomass

140. This is an aquaculture diet as an additional source of nutrient by fish

a. Complete b. Extensive
b. Incomplete c. Supplemental d. Additional

141. Culture system with low intensity a. Intensive

c. Semi intensive d. Extra intensive

142. This is the rearing of aquatic organism under controlled condition

a. Mariculture c. Freshwater aquaculture d. Brackishwater aquaculture
b. Aquaculture

143. A fish use for breeding purposes c. Brood

a. Mature d. Mother
b. Broodstock

144. A fish larger than fry but not of marketable size a. Fingerling c. Post fry
b. Adult d. Table size

145. This is the food that fish eats in nature a. Natural food
b. Feed c. Zooplankton
d. Microscopic plants
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146. The taxonomy or identification and classification of Philippine fishes and other living aquatic
resources started by the first American group of scientists who came to the Philippines to initiate
fisheries work. The American who made extensive collections of fish all over the country and wrote
several publication monographs describing the different fish collections is
a. Dr. Albert W.C. T. Herre b. Dr. Wallace Adams c. Dr. Alvin Scale d. Dr. Henry Fowler

147. A Filipino, a Zoology graduate from University of Chicago who wrote the first report in the
family Mugilidae, a first checklist of Philippine fishes and identification of marine protozoans
a. Dr. Hilario A. Roxas b. Dr. Deogracias V. Villadolid c. Dr. Herminigildo Rabanal d. Mr. Domiciano K.
Villaluz

148. A Filipino graduate from Stanford University who wrote the first reports on Philippine
flatfishes
a. Dr. Hilario A. Roxas b. Dr. Rafael D. Guererro III
b. Dr. Deogracias V. Villadolid c. Dr. Herminigildo Rabanal d. Mr. Domiciano K. Villaluz

149. The father of tilapia sex reversal in the Philippines a. Dr. Tereso
A. Abello c. Dr. William Shelton d. All of the above

150. The first Philippine University/College who first initiated fisheries education is a.
University of the Philippines in the Visayas
b. University of the Philippines-Los Banos
c. Central Luzon State University
d. Iloilo State College of Fisheries

151. The Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources (BFAR) started as a small agency in 1901 under
the name
a. Bureau of Government Laboratories, Department of Interior of the Philippine
Commission
b. Division of Fisheries, Department of Interior of the Philippine Commission
c. Fish and Game Administration
d. Fisheries Division, Department of Agriculture and Commerce

152. The oldest fish culture practiced in the Philippines

a. Milkfish b. Carp c. Mudfish d. Tilapia

153. The first demonstration fish farm established in 1931 in the Philippines was a.
Oyster Farm in Hinigaran, Negros Occidental
b. Molino Freshwater Demonstration Fish Farm, Bacoor, Cavite
c. Dagat-dagatan Saltwater Fisheries Experimental Station, Malabon/Navotas, Rizal
d. Freshwater Fish Hatchery, Laguna de Bay, Tanay, Rizal

154. The leading commercial producers of milkfish in the world are

a. Taiwan, Indonesia, Philippines b. Taiwan, Indonesia, c. Indonesia, Thailand, Philippines d. Indonesia,
Thailand Thailand, Brunei

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155. It is a system in bangus culture used to effect stock manipulation and increase stocking rates
a. Modular system b. Transition pond system c. Nursery system d. Hatchery system

156. It is an assemblage of phytoplankton and zooplankton which serves as a food for milkfish in
brackishwater ponds
a. Lumot b. Lablab c. Nostoc d. Plankton

157. It is a major farmed penaeid shrimp in the Philippines

a. Penaeus monodon b. Penaeus indicus c. Penaeus merguiensis d. Metapenaeus ensis

158. It is an illegally-introduced shrimp species in the country that is now a subject of legal
controversy
a. Metapenaeus ensis b. Litopenaeus vannamei c. Macrobrachium resenbergii d. Cherax
quadricarinatus

159. A species of tilapia that is cold tolerant and also called as blue tilapia
a. Oreochromis spilurus b. Oreochromis aureus c. Oreochromis mossambicus d. Oreochromis
niloticus

160. A herbivorous tilapia species in the Philippines which is also called as yellow tilapia
a. Oreochromis galileus b. Tilapia zillii c. Tilapia ensis
 d. Oreochromis maritimus

161. An introduced crayfish from Australia being mass cultured presently in Iloilo, Philippines
a. Procambarus clarkii b. Cherax quadricarinatus c. Macrobrachium lanchesteri d. Macrobrachium
idella

162. A herbivorous crayfish species from Louisiana, USA being marketed as a pet in the
aquarium fish trade industry in the Philippines
a. Procambarus clarkii b. Cherax quadricarinatus c. Macrobrachium lanchesteri d. Macrobrachium
idella

163. Which shrimp species is indigenous in Philippine waters?

a. Macrobrachium rosenbergii b. Macrobrachium idella
c. Macrobrachium ensis d. Macrobrachium maritimus

164. A popular aquaculture prawn species whose reproduction and larval rearing occur in
saltwater but adult grows in freshwater
a. Macrobrachium rosenbergii b. Macrobrachium c. Macrobrachium ensis d. Macrobrachium maritimus
idella

165. A commonly-cultured mudcrab in brackishwater and has a high aquaculture potential and
market value
a. Scylla serrata c. Scylla olivacea
b. Scylla tranquebarica d. Scylla paramamosain

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166. The first mariculture park in the country was established in August 2001 at
a. Samal Island, Davao del Norte b. Honda Bay, Palawan d. Zamboanga
c. Leyte

167. A pest of the cultured seaweed Kappaphycus and Eucheuma which is an epiphyte that grows on and
entirely covers the affected seaweed. It is locally known as “balahibo” or “balbas” because of its
hairy appearance. It competes for nutrients and light with the host.
a. Polynia sp. b. Polymorpha sp. c. Polygonum sp. d. Polyponia sp.

168. A dominant carp species cultured in the fish pens of Laguna de Bay
a. Hypophthalmichthys molitrix b. Aristichthys nobilis c. Ctenopharyngodon idella d. Cyprinus carpio

169. This is a species of abalone with a good foreign market and its hatchery developed by
SEAFDEC/AQD. Locally known as “lapas” or “sobra-sobra”. This species is also called cocktail
abalone because of its small size (maximum shell length at 10-11 cm). It is the fastest growing
abalone in the world since a marketable size of 5-6 cm can be attained in one year compared with
five years for some temperature species.
a. Haliotis asinina b. Haliotis varia c. Haliotis diversicolor d. Haliotis discus hannai

170. The leading abalone producer from aquaculture in the world is Taiwan. What is this abalone
species?
a. Haliotis asinine b. Haliotis varia c. Haliotis diversicolor d. Haliotisdiscus hannai

171. The largest species of abalone prized as food and extensively marketed
a. Haliotis rufescens b. Haliotis varia c. Haliotis diversicolor d. Haliotis discus hannai

172. A mussel species extensively farmed in the Philippines, Thailand, and New Zealand
a. Brown mussel Perna perna b. Green-lipped mussel Perna canaliculus
c. Green mussel Perna viridis d. Mussel Mytilus edulis
 173. A newly-introduced freshwater (FW) mussel in the country from Thailand and found in
Pampanga. A human food with aquaculture potential
a. Pilsbyochoncha exilis b. Cristaria plicata c. Anodonta woodiana d. Vivipara costata

174. It is a freshwater mussel that can be used as food and pearl culture. It is called in Japanese as
“karasu”
a. Hyriopsis schlegeli b. Hyropsis cumingii c. Cristaria plicata d. Anadonota woodiana

175. A saltwater pearl oyster species also called as tipay that can be used for pearl aquaculture in the
Philippines. It produces the famous and expensive South Sea pearl
a. Silver-lipped pearl oyster Pinctada maxima
b. “Akoya” pearl oyster Pinctada fucata
c. Black-lipped pearl oyster Pinctada margaritifera
d. “Mabe” pearl oyster Pteria penguin

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176. A saltwater (SW) pearl oyster species also called as tipay bato that can be used for pearl
aquaculture in the Philippines. It produces black pearl
a. Silver-lipped pearl oyster Pinctada maxima
b. Akoya pearl oyster Pinctada fucata
c. Black-lipped pearl oyster Pinctada margaritifera
d. Mabe pearl oyster Pteria penguin

177. It is the fastest growing pearl oyster species (also called as wasay-wasay) that can be used for
pearl aquaculture and it produces pink pearls.
a. Silver-lipped pearl oyster Pinctada maxima
b. Akoya pearl oyster Pinctada fucata
c. Black-lipped pearl oyster Pinctada margaritifera
d. Mabe pearl oyster Pteria penguin

178. A tiny bivalve cultivated in the province of Capiz in the island of Panay, west central
Philippines as live feed for shrimp and mudcrab, and sometimes for tilapia and milkfish
a. Agiis b. Imbao c. Taklobo d. Tahong

179. A mangrove clam locally known as imbao which is widely distributed in the Indo-West Pacific,
from East and South Africa, including Madagascar and the Red Seam to eastern Polynesia; north to
southern Japan and Hawaii, and south to New South Wales. It inhabits the muddy bottom of
mangrove area, or the adjacent mudflats. It grows to a maximum size 8-9 cm shell length, total
weight of 180-210 g and is a potential aquaculture species
a. Anadonta edentula b. Anadonta woodiana c. Anodonta plicata d. Anodota maritimus

180. A bivalve mollusk locally called as kapis, commercially and economically important because of its
translucent shell. They can be made into beautiful handicrafts and they can be used for making
animals glue, chalk, shellack, soldering lead, and paint. The shellcraft product is exported to US,
Japan, West Germany and other European countries. They can be cultured or transplanted in
suitable areas and there are 27 kapis beds in the Philippines
a. Placuna placenta b. Tridacna gigas c. Conus geographus d. Helmet shell

181. A freshwater gastropod that belongs to the family Pilidae that was introduced in the
Philippines in the 1980’s as a source of food but eventually became pest in rice fields
a. Pomacea cuprina b. Pomacea insularis c. Pomacea cananiculata d. Pomacea maxima

182. A pond system design that allows for the continuous program of pond preparation and harvest of
milkfish in brackishwater (BW) but this system is input and labor intensive and requires an area
of about 8 hectares.
a. Traditional pond system b. Modular pond system c. Nursery pond system d. Transition pond
 183. A parasitic isopod that is a major pest in the cage culture of Nile tilapia in Taal Lake
a. Alitropus typus b. Lernea sp. c. Prosthodisplosthomum sp. d. Monogean parasite

18
184. A fungus-associated disease that affects FW and estuarine warm water fishes that was first
reported in farmed "ayu" in Japan and severe outbreaks occurred in grey mullet Mugil cephalus in
Australia. Some important culture species like tilapia, milkfish and carps are found to be resistant to
this disease
a. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome b. Lymphocysts d. Haemorrhagic Septicemia

185. A kind of mycotoxin found in feeds a. Aflatoxin

b. Fungal toxin c. Cytotoxins
c. Spring Viranemia d. Neurotoxin

186. The ratio of feed consumed to the fish biomass gained is called
a. Feed conversion ratio b. Food conversion c. Feed conversion efficiency D. Food conversion
ratio efficiency

187. The physiological capacity of the fish to convert feeds to fish flesh is termed
a. Feed conversion efficiency b. Acid phase of digestion with long intestine
b. Feed conversion ratio c. Energy feed efficiency d. Feed conversion

188. Fishes with no stomachs have a. No acid phase of digestion

c. Extensive intestine d. None of the above

189. In fishes with stomach, the transport of food from the stomach into the midgut is controlled by a
muscular sphincter called
a. Pylorus b. Esophageal sphincter
c. Midgut sphincter d. None of the above

190. The stomach of voracious fish produces pepsin and the pH is

a. 4 b. 5 c. 3 d. 2

191. For carnivorous (e.g. Trout and dalag) and non-carnivorous (e.g. Tilapia and carp) fishes, the
feeding practices are as follows
a. Large meals and less frequent feeding and small meals and more frequent feeding,
respectively
b. Small meals and less frequent feeding and large meals and less frequent feeding, respectively
c. Large meals and have frequent feeding, respectively
d. None of the above

192. The tilapias are cichlid species which are endemic to the
a. Middle East and Africa b. Middle East and c. Southeast Asia and the Pacific d. All of the above
Africa

193. Sex reversal is one of the methods to produce all-male tilapia. This method is done by the oral
administration of the hormone called
a. 17 á-methyl testosterone b. Diesterol alpha c. Methyl androgen d. All of the above

19
194. The chromosomes of the normal male and female tilapia are
a. XY and XX, respectively b. XX and XY, respectively
195. A process that strips oxygen from an ecosystem. a. c. Photosynthesis builds up carbohydrates
Photosynthesis c. XY and YY, respectively d. All of these
b. Respiration

196. One of the following statements is incorrect. a. Autotrophs c. BOD and COD
produce their own food. d. All of the above
b. Heterotrophs are primary producers

d. Most larval stages of fish are either omnivorous or carnivorous.

197. A lotic aquaculture system is exemplified by

a. Recirculating system c. Flow through system d. All of the above

b. Open pond with water exchange

198. The highest fish production can be achieved in a. Flow c. Pen

through/recirculating system d. Cage
b. Aerated ponds

199. Energy-wise, the culture of what species will yield most?

a. Carnivorous b. Omnivorous c. Herbivorous d. None

200. Which of the following will not cause low primary productivity in ponds?
a. Nutrient deficiency b. Acidity c. Low stocking density d. Pest

201. When fish gasps at the surface, a fish culturist must immediately do one of the following:
a. Fertilize the pond b. Drain the pond c. Activate life support system d. Feed the species

202. Aquaculture may affect the environment through the following: a.

Eutrophication of aquatic systems
b. Reduction of pelagic fisheries populations
c. Decimation of important natural life support systems
d. All of the above

203. One of the commodities listed below is not a top fishery export of the Philippines
a. Milkfish b. Seaweeds c. Prawn d. Tuna

204. In terms of finfish production, one of the following agro-ecological zones yields the most in both
volume and value.
a. Mariculture areas b. Brackishwater ponds c. Freshwater ponds d. None of the above

20
205. Carrying capacity can be increased by: a. Fertilization c. Feeding
b. Aeration d. All of the above

206. Primary productivity in natural systems is contributed by the following:

a. Photosynthesis a. Majority of plants
b. Chemosynthesis b. Areas with light wavelength within visible range c. Euphotic zone
of a lake
207. Photosynthesis occurs in: d. All of the above
c. Photoassimilation d. All of the above

208. A pond deficient with nitrogen must not be fertilized with

a. Urea c. Solophos
b. Ammonium sulphate d. Ammonium phosphate

209. Plankton method of growing food requires a minimum depth of:

a. 15-20cm b. 75-100cm c. 15-30cm d. Below 15cm

210. A gaseous biogeochemical cycle that is self- replenishing, almost a perfect cycle.
a. Nitrogen cycle b. Phosphorous cycle d. Carbon Dioxide cycle
c. Carbon cycle

211. Fish grows isometrically when their Length-Weight relationship yields a b value of:
a. 1 c. < or > 1
b. 3 d. < or > 3

212. Cost of fish production can be improved by: a. Improvement of

FCR c. Proper feeding d. All of the above
b. Efficient feed formulation

213. Feeds that contain ingredients of precisely known composition and formulated from
synthetic substances.
a. Practical diets biogeochemical cycles are self-replenishing b. The lower the FCR
b. Complete diets the better
c. Purified diets d. Balance diets
214. Suitable range of water pH for fish growth. a. 5-8
b. 6.5-9
c. 6.0-9.0
215. Which of the following statements is correct? a. All d. 6.5-11

c. Carrying capacity is the ability of the pond to produce natural foods

d. Growth potential of a fish can be exceeded with proper maintenance of growth related factor

21
216. A type of parasitic crustacean that is caused by parasitic copepod, worm-like adults buried in the
body and only female species infect the fish
a. Lerneasis b. Fish lice c. Skin fluke d. Gill fluke

217. Protogyny, in which female species turn into males, is common to this family except:
a. Labridae b. Scaridae c. Serranidae d. Monocantidae

218. This is a phenomenon caused by low salinity, temperature and light intensity. This health condition
of seaweed wherein it exudes organic substances, which is mucilaginous in nature and with the presence
opportunistic bacteria in the water column aggravates the whitening of the branches.
a. Tip discoloration b. Ice-ice disease d. Tip darkening
c. Die off

219. Kjeldahl digestion is the method of analysis of what major fraction of feeds and feedstuff?
a. Crude protein b. Moisture c. Crude fat d. Crude fiber

220. Weed control is one of the different strategies in pond management. Which of the following is not
an adverse effect of weeds?
a. Utilize soil nutrients
b. Increase in hydrogen sulfide concentration
c. Interfere with the production of fish
d. Impede solar exposure of the pond

221. The following species of fish exhibit bisexual reproduction except:

a. Catfish c. Milkfish
b. Mullets d. None of these

222. It is defined as the number of eggs spawned a. Fecundity

b. Fertility c. Spawning d. Stocks

223. In ponds, the problem with acid sulfate soils usually originates in:
a. Gates b. Levees c. Dikes d. Canals

224. What is the active ingredient of the organic pesticide, derris roots?
a. Rotenone b. Saponin c. Teaseed d. Nicotine

225. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. Chaetoceros b. Brachionus c. Skeletonema d. Spirulina

226. Which of the following families exhibit a protandrous mode of reproduction?

a. Serranidae b. Ciprinidae c. Penaeidae d. Clariidiidae

22
227. Which of the following statement about feeds and feeding of fishes and shrimps is incorrect? a.
Milkfish broodstock are fed with 25%protein.
b. Milkfish larvae fed on chlorella.
c. Tilapias are omnivorous
d. Shrimp more actively at night.

228. What anti- nutritional substance is found in ipil-ipil that interferes with enzyme synthesis in the
liver?
a. Lectin b. Memosine
c. Phytates d. Thiaminase

229. Aflatoxicosis is a disease resulting from exposure of feeds to aflatoxin- contaminated diet. This
is also known as
a. Red disease b. Black disease c. Paralytic syndrome d. Fusarium disease

230. Anti- nutritional substance that is found in cassava that releases poisonous hydrocyanic acid upon
hydrolysis.
a. Peroxide b. Cyanogens c. Tannin d. Phytates

231. Which of the following minerals is considered as macro-element and required in the diet in
relatively large amount?
a. Iron b. Chlorine
232. What do you call the milkfish breeders? a. Sabalo c. Gravid d. Berried
b. Kawag-kawag
c. Copper d. Selenium

233. Which of the following is considered as unslaked lime?

a. CaO b. CaOH c. CaS104 d. CaCO3

234. Which of the following is not a mode of action of probiotics?

a. Dampen the immunological system of the host
b. Eliminate phatogenic bacteria
c. Help in digestion
d. Prevent adhesion of harmful bacteria

235. Which of the following is not recommended as environment-friendly practice in an aqua farm?
a. Feed right b. Recirculating aquaculture system
c. Monoculture practice d. Use of settling pond

236. Which of the following has nitrogen as its only nutrient component (single fertilizer)?
a. Urea b. Potassium chloride
c. Potassium sulfate d. Super phosphate

23
237. Which of the following is not a zooplankton? a. Brachionus c. Chaetoceros
b. Moina d. Artemia

238. Which of the following factors affect fecundity? a. Buoyancy of

the eggs c. Type of spawning and age of the fish d. All of these
b. Size of the eggs

239. Which of the following species of fish exhibit parthenogenic reproduction?

a. Amazon molly b. Homologous
b. Snakehead c. Freshwater prawn d. Mullet

240. Organisms that spawn more than once before dying a.

Semelparous c. Iteroparous d. Homozygous

241. A product of fish protein metabolism and decomposition of organic matter by bacteria
a. Urea b. Phosphorous
c. Potassium d. Ammonia

242. Which of the following environmental stimuli affect spawning of tropical species?
a. Rainfall and floods b. Speleophils
b. Courtship behavior c. Temperature d. All of these

243. Brood hiders whose eggs endure dry season a. Xerophils

c. Ostracophils d. Aphyrophils

244. This feed is given to fish weighing 5.1-30.0 grams per piece
a. Mash c. Juvenile pellets d. Adult pellets
b. Crumbles

245. Brachionus is commonly known as a. Artemia c. Rotifers

b. Green algae d. Megalopa
 246. Which of this animal litter has the highest nitrogen content?
a. Sheep (old) b. Sandy-clay type
b. Swine (fold) c. Broiler (fresh) d. Layers (fresh)

247. Soil type with 22% clay, 14% silt and 63% sand a. Clay-clay
type c. Sandy-loam type d. Loam type

248. Example of antibiotics used as dietary component of aqua feeds

a. Anthaxanthin b. High salinity
b. Gonadotrophine c. Canthaxanthin d. Oxytetracycline

249. Dissolve oxygen is high in: a. High temperature

c. High pressure d. High evaporation
24
250. Routinely added to most fish diets to prevent fats from becoming rancid in storage
a. Antibiotics c. Pigments d. Antioxidant
b. Vitamins

251. Overliming can give a deficiency of a. Fe c. Zn

b. Mn d. Cu

252. Often used to flocculate suspended solids so that they will settle quickly
a. Aluminum sulfate b. Calcium carbonate d. Magnesium sulfate
c. Pyrite

253. A complex community of microbenthic biota closely associated with pond bed
a. Lablab b. Lumot c. Phytoplankton d. Zooplankton

254. Which of the following feedstuff has the highest apparent protein digestibility?
a. Gelatin b. Fillers
b. Yeast c. Corn starch d. Fish meal

255. Substances added to feeds to make it stable in water a. Vitamins

c. Antibiotics d. Binders

256. Refers to the layer of the land or the changes in the surface and elevation of the ground
a. Soil pH b. High salinity
b. Soil area c. Soil texture
d. Topography
257. Vibriosis occurs in the following conditions except: a. High
temperature
c. High oxygen d. High organic load

258. Localized tissue anemia due to obstruction of the inflow of blood.

a. Lethargy 261. Origin of aquaculture
b. Necrosis a. China
b. Japan
259. Abnormal protrusion of the eyeball of the fish a. c. Anemia
Exophthalmia d. Ischemia
b. Ulceration

260. Origin of Red tilapia c. Ischemia

a. Thailand d. Necrosis
b. Singapore
c. Egypt c. United States d. Greece
d. Taiwan

25
262. Which of the following is the chemical commonly used as treatment for viral infections?
a. Copper sulfate b. Oxylinic acid c. Magnesium oxide d. None of these

263. This is a normal free-living organism either in water or the fish, but is capable of adopting
pathogenic role under certain circumstances.
a. Primary or obligate pathogen b. Opportunistic c. Isopod infestation
pathogen d. Bacterial hemorrhagic septicemia

264. Condition characterized by a deficiency of hemoglobin, packed cell volume, or erythrocytes in the
blood
a. Thrombosis b. Anorexia c. Dystrophy d. Anemia

265. Luminous Bacterial Disease is caused by what strains of Vibrio?

a. V. harveyii and V. splendidus b. V. penaeicida and c. V. fluvialis and V. harveyii d. V. alginolyticus and V.
V. damsel splendidus

266. This is caused by opportunistic gram-negative bacteria like Vibrio, Aeromonas,

Pseudomonas and members of Enterobacteriaceae
a. Isopod infestation c. Bacterial Hemorrhagic Septicemia d. Epizootic
b. Infections of acid fast bacteria Ulcerative Syndrome

267. The following are examples of major viral infections in fish except:
a. Spinning Tilapia Syndrome b. Lymphocystis c. Yellow Head Virus Disease d. Epizootic Ulcerative
Disease Syndrome

268. Best known viral disease of marine and freshwater fish

a. Herpesvirus b. Lymphocystis c. Viral Nervous Necrosis d. White spot disease

269. Several species of crabs are now of commercial value and can be obtained from the natural
habitat or hatchery. Which of the following is considered the native crab?
a. Scylla tranquebarica b. Scylla serrata d. Scylla paramamosain
c. Scylla olivacea

270. White Spot Syndrome Virus (WSSV) Disease, a major viral infection in penaeid shrimp, is
caused by
a. Parvovirus b. Baculovirus c. Rhabdovirus d. Nodavirus

271. Which of the following water management methods is stressful to shrimps during culture?
a. Frequent water exchange b. Application of c. Application of lime d. Production of green water
Probiotics

272. The egg-carrying females of common crustaceans such as prawn and crabs are termed
a. Elated c. Berried d. Matured
b. Pregnant

273. Larval stage of Penaeus after nauplius a. Post larvae c. Zoea

b. Broodstock d. Fingerlings
26
274. Which of the following is incorrect about the sex determination of Siganus canaliculatus? a.
Males are generally smaller than females
 b. Abdomen of female is distinctly plump
c. Whitish fluid come from the abdomen of male once pressed
d. Female is more active than male

275. Known as the giant/king mud crab

a. Scylla paramamosain b. Scylla olivacea c. Scylla tranquebarica d. Scylla serrata

276. A serious viral problem to grouper culture which was first reported in Japan in 1991 and 1994.
a. Viral Nervous Necrosis b. Taura Syndrome Virus c. White Spot Disease d. Lymphocystis disease

277. Which of the following is not a right technique in handling and transporting prawn
spawners?
a. Place the organism in plastic bag with oxygen pressure
b. Place the spawner in freshwater with continuous aeration
c. Put certain amount of ice outside the plastic bag to be use
d. All of these

278. Which of the following statements is incorrect about male crab? a. It

has 4 pairs of gonopods
b. It has semi-circular abdomen
c. It has semi-circular abdomen and it has smaller cheliped than female
d. All of these

279. The following species of Siganus make use of coral reef as its habitat except:
a. punctatus c. luridus
b. vermiculatus d. None of these

280. Berried crabs should be:

a. Disinfected through formalin bath c. Stocked in tank with freshwater d. All of the above
b. Fed with 30-40% biomass daily

281. Walking legs of prawn c. Pleopods

a. Periopods d. Gonapods
b. Uropods

282. Crustacean parasite known as fish louse (freshwater) a. c. Ergasilus

Argulus d. Lernea
b. Caligus

283. Viral Nervous Necrosis (VNN), common among groupers and related species is caused by:
a. Rhabdovirus b. Parvovirus c. Baculovirus d. Nodavirus

27
284. This is a serious finfish disease in Asia affecting more than 100 species of wild and cultured fish
and to a lesser extent brackishwater fishes.
a. Infectious Acid Fast Bacteria b. Bacterial Hemorrhagic c. Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome d. Fungal disease
Septicemia

285. Tilapia nests can be natural or constructed cavities. What do you call this kind of ecological
spawning?
a. Psammophils b. Phytophils c. Aphrophils d. Speleophils

286. The following are gross signs of Spinning Tilapia Syndrome except:
a. Do not feed b. Scale loss c. Swim in spiral pattern d. Gasping for air

287. What is the right water management for semi-intensive culture of tilapia in ponds?
a. Frequent water change b. Flow-through c. 50% water change after 2 months d. 5-10% daily water change

288. Common carp spawns between 2-8am and eggs hatched in __________days.
a. 1-2 c. 2-3
b. 4-5 d. 5-6

289. At how many months do catfish reach maturity? a. 4-5 months

b. 1 - 3 months c. 6 - 8 months d. More than 1 year

290. The species of carp which is flat head, sub-inferior mouth, herbivore and widely introduced for
weed control.
a. Ctenopharyngodon idella c. Cyprinus carpio
b. Ctenopharyngodon nobilis d. Hypothalmichtys molitrix

291. He introduced Tilapia in the Philippines in 1950 a. Guerrero

b. Tayamen c. Genomar
d. Villadolid

292. The success of the milkfish culture in fishpens in Laguna de Bay could be attributed to the
following except:
a. Occurrence of algal bloom b. Absence of true plankton c. Mixed water
feeders d. Bottom is sandy and coralline

293. First maturation of common carp occurs within how many months.
a. 3-5 b. 6-8 c. 8-12 d. 4-8

294. Carp, catfish, and snakehead are usually inflicted with cestode, and endoparasitic tapeworm with
ribbon-like body. Causative agent is:
a. Echinocephalus b. Alitropus d. Botriocephalus
c. Argulus

28
295. The local pattern of tide curve (better known as design tide curve) upon which fishpond design
is based can be obtained from an analysis of the tide record drawn along ______________ a.
Zero datum which is mean lower low water
b. Zero datum which is mean low water
c. Zero datum which is mean high water
d. Zero datum which is mean higher high water

296. It serves as the foundation of the structure and its elevation for main gates must be lower than
the pond bottom elevation and is slightly lower than the lower tide of the site
a. Dikes b. Levees c. Catching pond d. Floor

297. The broadened and extended part of the floor. It serves as protection to scouring and future
seepage of water at the gates sides.
a. Dike b. Floor c. Crown d. Apron

298. This is built against the side walls to support or reinforceit; it also helps in reducing seepage flow
along the sidewalls
a. Wing wall b. Buttress c. Catwalk d. Apron
a. Wing wall b. Buttress 299. Reinforced concrete slab or thick wooden planks that span thec.sidewalls
Catwalks d. Apron
300. They are generally wooden planks used to control the amount of water flowing through the gate
a. Flash boards/slabs b. Apron c. Screen d. Buttress

301. Framed bamboo strips or polyethylene meshes fitted into the groves, used to prevent the exits
of cultured organisms and the entry of predators
a. Pillars b. Braces c. Screens d. slabs

302. These provides the control of water to and from the control canal and into the different pond
components such as catching pond or nursery pond
a. Main gate b. Main dike d. Secondary/tertiary dike
c. Blocks

303. A more recent innovation in pond construction which convey water across the dikes and similar
embankments, it is smaller and less expensive made of concrete hollow blocks or asbestos
cement, it may or may not have wing walls.
a. Gate b. Canal c. Culvert d. Stand pipe

304. It helps retain water for use in the fish farming operation as well as to protect everything
within it from destruction
a. Dikes b. Gates d. Perimeter dike
c. Slabs

29
305. The design of perimeter dike must be based on sound engineering principles and economic
feasibility. There are generally two types of perimeter dike design, what are those? a. For exposed
area and for protected area
b. For domestic and export market
c. For commercial and for backyard farming
d. For hatchery and for grow-out
306. In the formula Hm= (Hat –Gs)+Mf + F , Hat pertains to______________ 1-
(%S/100)
a. Height of astronomical tide b. Height of allowable c. Height of agricultural terrain d. None
tide level

307. These structure in fish pond usually starts from the main gate and transverse the central
portion of the farm.
a. Supply canal b. Water supply canal
c. Main water supply canal d. Tertiary water supply canal

308. Usually, these structures are the veins supplying the nursery and transition pond in fish farm. These
can be modified to serve as catching pond.
a. Diversion canal b. Nursery supply canal c. Tertiary canal d. Drainage canal

309. These canals are built primarily for the purpose of protecting the farm from being flooded with
runoff water coming from the watershed
a. Diversion canal b. Nursery supply canal c. Tertiary canal d. Drainage canal

310. These canals are built to facilitate flow-through system in intensive farming
a. Diversion canal b. Surface
b. Nursery supply canal c. Tertiary canal d. Drainage canal

311. Refers to configuration of the ground surface a. Topography

c. Ground level d. Slope

312. The following are factors to be consider in selecting brackishwater pond except
a. Water supply b. Trend of supply and demand
c. Vegetation d. Topography

313. The suitable site for fishpond is brackishwater/mangrove swamps. This preliminary step in the
construction is done to kill the trees by filling up the pond water.
a. Under-brushing c. Uprooting d. Withering
b. Watering

314. Tool/equipment in piling soil blocks a. Digging blade c. Tagad

b. Bolo d. Cover

315. Digging blade in the Philippines is called ____________

a. Sarap b. Sekop c. Pacul d. Sorok

30
316. Soil/mud blocks are transported from the digging site by means of the following except:
a. Bamboo raft b. Dug-out boat c. Flat boat d. Petuya

317. This tool is used to compact the soil blocks, made of a short log
a. Drag line b. Tamping device
c. Digging blade d. Sarap

318. A track-mounted crane particularly good for dike construction, canal digging and
deepening.
a. Wooden mallet b. Drag line c. Tamping device d. Transit line

319. Manual method in transporting soil blocks where workers forms a single line positioned at 1-2m
apart, extending from the source to the dike construction site relaying the blocks to each man until
it reaches the pile.
a. Line system b. Sliding system c. Flat boat system d. Raft system

320. Another manual method in transporting soil blocks applicable when the source of blocks is close
to the site, the workers throw the blocks on the board letting the blocks to slide down to the base
of the dikes.
a. Line system c. Flat boat system d. Raft system
b. Sliding system

321. Final step in fishpond construction a. Drying c. Leveling

b. Watering d. Cracking

322. The following are functions of pumps in aquaculture except

a. As a total or supplementary means of obtaining waters
b. As aerators
c. For lifting water in sites where elevation is beyond the ample reach of tidal fluctuation
d. Strictly for supplementary means

323. This refers to the vertical distance from the surface of the water to centerline of the pump
impeller
a. Suction head b. Discharge head c. Total dynamic head d. Drawdown

324. A vertical distance from the centerline of impeller to the point of discharge
a. Suction head b. Discharge head c. Total dynamic head d. Drawdown

325. The sum of suction head, discharge head, hydraulic head losses and velocity
a. Suction head b. Discharge head c. Total dynamic head d. Drawdown
 31
326. The lowering of water surface below the static level during pumping
a. Suction head c. Total dynamic head d. Drawdown
b. Discharge head

327. The water level before pumping begin a. Static level c. Discharge
b. Hydraulic loss d. Performance curve

328. Reduction of water level due to several uncontrolled factors taking place as operation goes on and
thereafter.
a. Static level b. Hydraulic loss d. Performance curve
c. Discharge

329. Refers to the rate of flow or the volume of water pumped per unit time
a. Static level b. Hydraulic loss d. Performance curve
c. Discharge

330. Refers to the variation of the head with capacity at a constant impeller speed
a. Static level b. Hydraulic loss d. Performance curve
c. Discharge

331. Pump that is characterized by operating at low head and low discharge
a. Centrifugal pump b. Deep-well turbine d. Hydraulic pump
c. Propeller

332. A pump that is capable of operating at high head and low to high discharge
a. Centrifugal pump b. Deep-well turbine d. Hydraulic pump
c. Propeller

333. This pump has the characteristic of operating at low head but delivering large volume of flow
a. Centrifugal pump b. Deep-well turbine d. Hydraulic pump
c. Propeller

334. A special type of pump which delivers water into the pond by using a wooden trough
equipped with series of blades connected by flexible joints powered by windmill.
a. Propeller b. Centrifugal pump
c. Dragon-wheel pump d. Push pump

335. Special type of pump suitable for lifting water at an inclination of not more than 20°. The water
is being pushed up by means of propeller through a tube or pipe.
a. Propeller b. Centrifugal pump
c. Dragon-wheel pump d. Push pump

336. Shrimp fry are also gathered using push pump with less than 20% mortality. The collected fry
are treated with _____________, an active ingredient from soy bean, which selectively kills
finfish species but not shrimp fry.
a. Quinaldine b. MS222 c. Clove oil d. Saponin

32
337. Which of the following components of pumping plant serves as a basin provided at the foot of the
pump column suction head, this protects the system against excessive debris, floats and also
minimizes silting.
a. Pump and prime mover foundation b. Suction sump c. Distribution canals d. Push pump
 338. The following are components of pumping plants in coastal fish farms. Which among them does
the carrying of weight of the pump and engine?
a. Pump and prime mover foundation b. Distribution canals c. Suction sump d. Push pump

339. In fish farms with accessible supply of electricity where there are no frequent power
interruptions occur, preferably, the type of prime mover to be used is
__________________?
a. Engine-powered b. Electric-powered c. Hydraulic-powered d. Diesel-powered

340. One of the accessories in propeller pumps which change the direction of the drive from vertical to
horizontal, change input and provide alternative horizontal drive where there is already a vertical
electric motor during the pump.
a. Gear drive c. Pump columns
b. Cross joints and shafts d. Hydraulic driven pump

341. This is a system where a prime mover drives a hydraulic pump and the high pressure
transmitted through hydraulic hoses which drives a hydraulic motor attached to the impeller.
a. Pump columns c. Gear drive
b. Cross joints and shafts d. Hydraulic driven pump

342. Comprise about 50-70% of total developmental cost in coastal fishpond development
a. Construction cost b. Estimating development cost
c. Feasibility planning and designing d. Contingencies

343. A part of budget normally set aside specifically intended for unexpected additional expenses
a. Construction cost b. Estimating development cost
c. Feasibility planning and designing d. Contingencies

344. Considered as the simplest culture system in shrimp culture where the stocking density
ranges from 2,000-5,000 fry/hectare.
a. Traditional culture system b. Improved traditional culture c. Semi-intensive method d. Intensive method
system

345. pH is generally considered as one of the most important factors to be considered in

aquaculture. In shrimp culture, the preferable water ph range from______________
a. 7.5-8.5 b. 7.5-9 c. 7.5-10 d. 3.5-14

346. Most ponds developed along the coastal areas with dense mangrove vegetation often have acid-
sulfate problem during the first few years of operation. This is due to the accumulation of?
a. Organic materials b. Hydrogen sulfide c. Pyrite d. Methane

33
347. Perennial fish ponds in the Philippines is characterized by acid sulfate soil and during pond leveling
the pyrites (iron sulfide) are oxidized producing ___________________ which acidifies the soil
correspondingly reducing the natural productivity.
a. Acidic water c. Sulphuric acid d. Hydrogen sulfide
b. Acidic substances

348. A remedy done to neutralize acidic soil a. Fertilization c. Ploughing

b. Drying d. Liming

349. After neutralizing acidic soil with lime, acid are removed through ________________
a. Fertilization 350. Tiger shrimp a. Penaeus japonicus
b. Flushing b. Penaeus merguiensis
c. Crack drying
d. Ploughing c. Penaeus indicus d. Penaeus monodon

351. What differentiates Penaeus indicus from Penaeus merguiensis?

a. Meristic traits b. Body proportion c. Behavioral response d. Feeding habit

352. Metapenaeus ensis are able to tolerate water temperature of 25-45°C, therefore they are ____
a. Euryhaline b. Euryphagous c. Eurythermal d. Polythermal

353. The determination of soil class is still maid in the field mainly by feeling the soil with fingers. If the
soil you squeezed in moist will for a cast but will crumble when touch, then the type of your soil
is…
a. Sandy c. Loam
b. Sandy loam d. Silty loam

354. This type of soil will form a “long, flexible ribbon” when pinched between thumb and
fingers, a fine textured soil that usually form very hard lump when dry.
a. Clay loam b. Sandy loam c. Silty loam d. Clay

355. This type of fine, textured soil will form a “ribbon” when pinched between fingers but will break
readily barely sustaining its own weight.
a. Clay loam b. Sandy loam c. Silty loam d. Clay

356. The amount of each soil separate in a soil mixture determines its texture. The most reliable
method in determining the amount of each soil is…..
a. Petersen method b. Digger
b. Buoyocous mechanical test c. Laboratory test d. Field test

357. A simple device use in soil sampling a. Corer

c. Digging blade d. Auger

34
358. It is the most important physical property of soil in fishpond engineering which helps
determine its ability to resist seepage, attainable compaction and load bearing capacity.
a. Texture c. Acid-forming substance d. Permeability
b. pH

359. Refers to the lay of the land a. Slope c. Topography

b. Elevation d. Pond lay out

360. A zone in coastal edge as probable site for fishpond characterized by its marginal land along edges
of cultivation, seeded by seawater at highest high tide, highly elevated and generally no acid sulfate
soils.
a. Zone A b. Zone B c. Zone C d. Zone D

361. A probable site for fishpond which is generally elevated, vegetated with many swamp areas, some
are earth mounds and some portions are acid sulfate soils.
a. Zone A b. Zone B c. Zone C d. Zone D

362. A zone which is generally low elevation, densely vegetated and with high occurrences of pyrite
build-up.
a. Zone A b. Zone B c. Zone C d. Zone D

363. This zone has low elevation, it is very exposed to wave action which may require expensive big
dikes and wave protection structure, and it has no acidity problem, hence, ideal for shrimp culture.
a. Zone A b. Zone B c. Zone C d. Zone D
 364. In what type of vegetation does an aquaculturist prefer to build his brackishwater pond?
a. Rhizophora vegetated zone b. Mangal zone d. Avicennia zone
c. Nypa zone

365. A zone with this type of vegetation indicates a productive soil because of its less dense root system
compared to other vegetation.
a. Mangrove zone c. Avicennia zone d. Bruguiera zone
b. Rhizophora zone

366. Refers to incoming/rising tide a. Spring tide c. Flood tide

b. Neap tide d. High tide

367. Refers to outgoing/falling tide a. Ebb tide

b. Neap tide c. Flood tide
d. Spring tide

368. Refers to the time interval between two successive high waters
a. Tidal range b. Tidal period c. Tidal inequity d. Spring tide

35
369. Refers to differences between highest high waters and lowest low waters
a. Tidal range b. Tidal period c. Diurnal inequity d. Spring tide

370. Refers to the differences in height of the two high waters or of the two low waters of each day
a. Tidal range b. Tidal period
b. Tidal period c. Diurnal inequity d. Spring tide

371. Tides that occur under syzygy condition a. Tidal range

c. Diurnal inequity d. Spring tide

372. These are extra high spring tide which occur twice a year at the time of vernal and autumnal
equinoxes.
a. Highest high tide b. Equinoctial autumnal equinoxes
c. MHHW d. MLLW

373. A method in determining the height of tide which involves plotting of the tide curve.
a. Graphical method b. Chart plotting method c. Plotting technique d. Tide plotting

374. This refers to the area/space provided for ecological consideration as well as physical
protection against flooding and wave action. In the Philippines, it is at least 100m from the
sea.
a. Perimeter dike b. Drainage canal c. Miscellaneous structural zone d. Sanctioned buffer zone

375. A smallest unit in pond system where fry are stocked before allowed passing to nursery pond.
a. Catching pond b. Fry acclimatization pond
c. Nursery pond d. Preparatory pond

376. One of the following is not appropriately described by the following statement: is located
adjacent to the nursery pond in order to have efficient and quick transfer of fingerlings
a. Transition pond b. Withholding pond c. Stunting pond d. Holding pond

377. The largest compartment in pond system comprising 80% of the total area.
a. Holding pond b. Kitchen pond c. Catching pond d. Grow out

378. This portion of the pond is strictly intended to augment the availability of food
a. Holding pond 379. Plankton production a. Shallow water method b. Deep water
b. Kitchen pond method
c. Catching pond d. Grow out c. Lablab method d. Plankton method

36
380. Lablab production a. Shallow water method b. Deep water c. Lablab method d. Plankton method
method

381. A complex community of micro-benthic biota closely associated with pond bottom.
a. Lablab b. Plankton c. Periphyton d. Algae

382. Which of the following term corresponds “sanction buffer zone”?

a. Buffer zone b. Drainage canal c. Perimeter dike d. Salvage zone

383. This compartment distributes the tidal inflow to the various ponds and provides
independence in the operation of individual pond compartment.
a. Reservoir pond b. Division pond d. Sedimentation basin
c. Housing site

384. These structures are located near the water source before the incoming tide enters the pond. It is
intended to settle suspended solids carried by the flowing waters.
a. Reservoir pond b. Division pond d. Sedimentation basin
c. Housing site

385. These spaces are set aside for farm personnel and for storehouses.
a. Salvage zone b. Buffer zone c. Miscellaneous zone d. Housing

386. A versatile piece of instrument which is use for measuring vertical and horizontal distances,
angles, for prolonging lines and for leveling operations.
a. Levels b. Engineer’s transit
c. Leveling rod d. Range poles

387. Are slender round poles usually made of metal or wood painted with alternative bands of red and
white, these are stuck along the line of survey in order to establish a straight line of sight
a. Levels b. Engineer’s transit
c. Leveling rod d. Range poles

388. Refers to the normal length of step or stride of an individual

a. Pace b. Pacing c. Phase d. Phage

389. It is defined as the ratio of the measured distance in the number of paces made to cover the
measured distance.
a. Pacing b. Paces c. Pace factor d. All of the above

390. The quick and accurate way of measuring distance is by ……

a. Stadia method b. Pace factor c. Topographic survey d. Contour survey

37
391. Distance
a. Upper stadia minus lower stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth
b. Lower stadia minus upper stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth c. The
product of upper and lower stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth d. The
quotient of upper and lower stadia added to stadia constant divided to a hundredth
 392. In measuring the distance using a modern stadia rod, distance is equal to……. a. Upper
stadia minus lower stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth b. Lower
stadia minus upper stadia divided by stadia constant multiplied to a hundredth c. Upper
stadia minus lower stadia multiplied to a hundredth
d. Lower stadia minus upper stadia multiplied to a hundredth

393. The line in between upper and lower stadia

a. Stadia hair b. Cross lines
c. Intersections
d. Horizontal cross hairs

394. The difference between upper and lower stadia reading…

a. Distance b. Contour line d. Stadia interval
c. Equinox

395. The following are instruments used for angle measurement except…
a. Plane table b. Angular angles
b. Alidade c. Sextant
d. DSRT
396. Angles that are measured in vertical plane a. Vertical angles
b. Azimuth
c. Angular angles d. Back azimuth
397. Angles that are measured along horizontal plane a. Front
azimuth
c. Horizontal angles d. Interior angles

398. An angle that has been referred from North and South and can never be greater than 90°
a. Interior angles b. Bearing c. Deflection angle d. Angular angle

399. Refer to the angle between a line and the prolongation of the preceeding line
a. Interior angle b. Bearing c. Deflection angle d. Angular angle

400. Angles that are determined by clockwise measurement

a. <’s to the right b. Clockwise angle
b. Clockwise angle c. Right angle d. Interior angle

401. Angle inside a given figure a. <’s to the right

c. Right angle d. Interior angle

38
402. A method used in computing area wherein boundaries of the farm are plotted to scale and area is
determined by the use of planimeter
a. Planimeter method b. Double-meridian distance d. Plotting into geometric figure
c. Trapezoidal rule

403. A method use in computing area where area is calculated from coordinates of the farm
a. Planimeter method c. Trapezoidal rule
b. Double-meridian distance d. Plotting into geometric figure

404. This method is applicable for calculating areas of land bounded by irregular curves
a. Planimeter method b. Double-meridian distance d. Plotting into geometric figure
c. Trapezoidal rule

405. A method in computing area which include plotting the boundaries of the scale involving
mathematical computation
a. Planimeter method b. Double-meridian distance d. Plotting into geometric figure
c. Trapezoidal rule

406. This kind of survey requires technical know-how and skill in leveling operation. The ultimate
objective in doing this survey is to reflect on map the relief or changes in elevation of the fish
farm site including other relevant features.
a. Levelling survey b. Topographic survey d. Double-meridian survey
c. Lay-outing

407. The basic operation in engineering survey that leads to the production of topographic map
a. Levelling survey b. Topographic survey d. Double-meridian survey
c. Lay-outing
 408. A kind
a. Distant levelling b. Differential levelling c. Profile
of direct levelling which determines the difference in elevation d. Double-point
of two
levelling points which levelling
are
distant apart.
409. A kind of direct levelling which determines the differences in elevation of points along a
prescribed line and at measured intervals.
a. Distant levelling c. Profile levelling d. Double-point levelling
b. Differential levelling

410. Refers to the vertical distance of the ground a. Slope c. Benchmark

b. Topography d. Elevation

411. Refers to the station or point in the ground of known elevation and of permanent nature, this point
provides the reference/ baseline point of elevation from where other station is calculated.
a. Slope b. Topography
c. Benchmark d. Elevation

412. The point where a rod reading is taken and generally along the line being run
a. Station b. Backsight c. Foresight d. Turning point

39
413. A reading taken on point of known elevation, more known as plus sight
a. Station b. Backsight c. Foresight d. Turning point
414. A reading taken on any point of unknown elevation and is always subtracted, hence, known as
minus sight
a. Station b. Backsight c. Foresight d. Turning point

415. It is an intermediate station or reference point whenever the instrument are moved from one set up
to another, this point is no longer needed right after the necessary reading are taken
a. Station b. Backsight d. Turning point
c. Foresight

416. It is the relative elevation of the line of sight of the instrument

a. Turning point b. Foresight c. Ground profile d. Backsight

417. Refers to the graph of the ground surface which shows change in elevation with distance
a. Turning point b. Height of the instrument
c. Ground profile d. Foresight

418. These show the configuration or changes in elevation of the ground in a topographic map. Each
point represents the points of the same elevation and is spaced according to the differences in
elevation between two adjacent lines.
a. Turning point a. 2.47 acres
b. Benchmark b. 1 acres

419. Lates calcarifer a. Tarpun 424. 1m2equals to… a. 3km2

b. Mangrove jack b. 2.59km2
c. Topographic lines d. Contour line
420. 1 decimeter is equal to… a. 10cm
b. 50cm
c. Pompano
421. 1.61km equals to…. a. 1 statute mile d. Apahap
b. 1 knot

422. 1.85km equals to… a. 1 statute mile c. 100cm

b. 1 knot d. 0.5cm

423. 1 hectare
c. 1 nautical mile d. 1 mile c. 0.54 acres
d. 2.2 acres
c. 1 nautical mile d. 1 mile
c. 2.59m3
d. 2.59km

40
425. 1 circumference a. 1800 c. 000° d. 10
b. 0900

426. Are fine-meshed rectangular net supported by two poles at both ends employed for
fingerling collection
a. Fingerling seine b. Cast net c. Push net d. Scoop net

427. Rectangular or square net use in counting fingerlings or before transport

a. Fingerling seine b. Scoop net c. Fingerling suspension net d. Transition net

428. This tightens the collecting bunt of harvesting bag nets to impound catch
a. Rope b. Metal rings
c. Rhumb line d. Lazy line

429. A versatile net used for sampling fish or shrimp to monitor its growth
a. Seine net b. Scoop net c. Cast net d. Hapa net

430. These are either electric or engine powered machineries which can remedy critical oxygen
condition in fish farms.
a. Pumps b. Fish wheel
c. Paddlewheel d. None of the above

431. A simple hand instrument designed to eliminate burrowing crabs into the fishpond dikes
a. Predatory hook c. Eel hook
b. Crab hook d. Snare

432. Mound-building mud lobster a. Panulirus anomala

b. Thallasina anomala c. Panulirus interruptus d. Panulirus sp.

433. These soil are those that contain high concentration of hydrogen and aluminum ion resulting to
poor productivity when utilize as fishpond
a. Sandy coralline b. Mudflats c. Acid sulfate soil d. Pyrite

434. Acid sulfate soil results from the formation of___________

a. Hydrogen sulfide b. Pyrite c. Acid sulfate d. Methane

435. Upon bacterial decomposition in perennial brackishwater pond, abundant sulfate from seawater
is reduced to sulfides which then undergo chemical reaction forming crystals known as?
a. Pyrite b. Aluminum crystals
c. Crystalline nodules d. Mineral pyrites

436. What does an aquaculturist do to prevent dike erosion?

a. Utilize dikes as vegetable farm b. Liming c. Dike concreting d. Plant Bermuda grass

41
437. Which of the following has highest aquaculture production as of 2013?
a. Region I b. Region II c. Region III d. ARMM
 438. Which of the following has the highest rice-fish culture production?
a. CARAGA b. Region IV c. Region V d. Region III

439. Which of the following has the least aquaculture production?

a. Region III c. NCR
b. CAR d. ARMM

440. Silver perch

a. Bidyanus bidyanus c. Hypothalmichthys molitrix d. Lates calcarifer
b. Anabas sp.

441. Sea bass c. Saurida tumbil

a. Lates sp. d. Lates calcarifer
b. Neoceratodus forsterii

442. Breeding period of Bidyanus bidyanus a. 5months c. 7 months

b. 1 year d. 3 months

443. Pond loach is locally known as __________ a. Liwit

b. Dojo c. Apahap
d. Salamander fish
444. Dojo is named in scientific society as… a. Ophicephalus
striatus
b. Chitala ornate c. Channa striata
d. Misgurnus anguillicaudatus
445. Integrated culture of oyster and fish a. Depuration purposes
b. Aquasilviculture
c. Green water technology d. Talaisdaan
446. Chinese soft-shelled turtle
a. Pelodiscus sinensis
b. Trionyx schlegelii c. Potamochelys sp.
d. Erythmochelys imbricate
447. Female mud crab is called…
a. Sire
b. Jennies c. Dame
d. Bucks
448. Male mud crab is called…
a. Sire
b. Jennies c. Dame
d. Bucks

42
449. A chemical attractant release by mature female to get noticed by males
a. Pheromone c. Ova
b. Secondary substance d. Ovules

450. Which of the following statement about fertilization is incorrect?

a. Ponds which have excessive water flow can be efficiently fertilized.
b. Do not fertilize ponds with extensive areas less than two feet deep. The added nutrients will
promote the growth of undesirable rooted aquatic vegetation in areas.
c. Do not fertilize ponds with no history of weed problems and very light fish harvests. It serves
no purpose to increase pounds of fish in the pond if very few are going to be.
 d. Do not fertilize commercially fed ponds. Added nutrients promote excessive phytoplankton
blooms that could lead to dissolved oxygen depletions, resulting in fish.

451. Refers to the ability of lake to dilute material whether they are naturally occurring from the
watershed or from a human-induced spill is termed as…
a. Carrying capacity b. Competence c. Dilution capacity d. Dissolution

452. Are graphs used to provide a visual representation of the relationship between the surface area
of a certain ecosystem and its depth, able to give us accurate information at a glance?
a. Hypsographic curves c. Volume
b. Hydrographic curves d. Angle

453. It is represented in scientific literature as V.. a. Velocity

b. Number five c. Radius
d. Circumference
454. It is represented in scientific society as A a. Area
b. Hypsographic arc
c. Area
455. Ź in scientific literature means… a. Mean depth d. Distance
b. Circumference
c. Hypsographic arc d. Hydrographic arc

456. Some organisms are motile throughout their lives, but others are adopted to move or to be
moved at precise, limited phases of their life cycle. This particular stage in their lives is known as
a. Dispersive phase b. Density-dependent dispersal
c. Density-independent dispersal d. Natal dispersal

457. A situation where an individual, often juveniles, move away from where it was born
a. Dispersive phase b. Density-dependent dispersal
c. Density-independent dispersal d. Natal dispersal

458. A situation where an individual, often adult, moves away from one breeding location to breed
elsewhere
a. Dispersive dispersal b. Natal dispersal d. Density-dependent dispersal
c. Breeding dispersal

43
459. A special, dormant propagules of freshwater sponges
a. Planula b. Density-independent dispersal
b. Tardigrades c. Zygote
d. Gemmulae
460. Passive dispersal
a. Dispersive phase
b. Density-independent dispersal c. Density-independent dispersal d. Natal dispersal

461. Active dispersal

a. Dispersive phase c. Density-independent dispersal d. Natal dispersal

462. Silver pompano, scientifically named as Trachinotus blochii belongs to family…

a. Apogonidae b. Crablets
b. Syngnathidae c. Carangidae d. Scombridae

463. Mud crab juvenile is called a. Megalopa

c. Post juvenile d. Sub adult

464. Giant freshwater prawn, locally known as “ulang” has been scientifically known as
a. Macrobrachium resenbergii b. Microbrachium c. Macrobrachium rosenvergie d. Macrobrachium
rosenbergie rosenbergii

465. A kind of survey which takes into account the true spheroidal shape of the earth
a. Plane surveying c. Geodetic survey d. Spheroidal survey
b. Apparent survey

466. Refers to the degree of perfection a. Accuracy c. Apparent

b. Precision d. True measurement

467. Refers to the degree of refinement a. Accuracy

b. Precision c. Apparent
d. True measurement

468. Refers to the difference from the true value caused by the imperfection of the surveyor’s
senses, imperfection of the instrument or by weather effect.
a. Mistake b. Error d. Accidental error
c. Difference

469. Refers to the difference from the true value caused by the inattention of the surveyor
a. Mistake b. Error d. Accidental error
c. Difference

470. This refers to the horizontal angle with respect to a reference line which is read clockwise
a. Direction c. Meridian
b. Horizontal angle d. True meridian

44
471. Refers to the fixed line of reference a. Direction c. Meridian d. True meridian
b. Horizontal angle

472. It is an angle formed by the intersection of two lines in a horizontal plane

a. Direction c. Meridian
b. Horizontal angle d. True meridian

473. This refer to the direction of a line passing through the geographic North and South poles and
the surveyors position
a. Meridian b. True meridian
c. Magnetic meridian d. Assumed meridian

474. This is the direction taken by the magnetized needle of the compass at the surveyor’s
position
a. Meridian b. True meridian
b. True meridian c. Magnetic meridian d. Assumed meridian

475. This is an arbitrary direction taken for convenience a. Meridian

c. Magnetic meridian d. Assumed meridian

476. Refers to the series of successive straight lines that are connected together
a. Traverse 477. Crucian carp a. Carassius auratus
b. Contour line b. Carassius carassius
478. Blue gill sun fish a. Carassius auratus c. Lepomis macrochirus d. Labeo ruhita
b. Carassius carassius
c. Latitude
d. Meridian c. Lepomis macrochirus d. Labeo ruhita

479. Round scad, as of 2011, is the top species in commercial fisheries and is scientifically known as?
a. Decapterus macrosoma b. Selar c. Rastrelliger brachysoma d. Nemipterus sp.
crumenopthalmus

480. Mosquito fish a. Ophicaphelus striatus b. c. Gambusia affinis d. Monopterus albus

Periopthalmus sp.

481. A fish that is closely associated with mangrove area, which behaves more like an amphibian than fish
a. Ophicaphelus striatus b. Periopthalmus sp. c. Gambusia affinis
d. Monopterus albus
482. Knife fish
a. Chitala ornata
b. Channa striata c. Misthicthyes luzonensis d. Leptoceris
kalayaanensis

45
483. Smallest fish which measures 7.9 cm in adult size, found in Sumatra, Indonesia
a. Misthichthyes lozunensis b. Pandaca pygmea c. Carapus bermudensis d. Paedocypris
progenetica
484. Channel catfish a. Caranx ignobilis
b. Acanthurus mata
c. Loligo edulis
485. Diwal d. Ictalurus punctatus
a. Paphia undulate
b. Histrio histrio
c. Barnea manilensis d. Latimeria chalumnae

486. The only fresh water species from the family Carangidae
a. Caranx ignobilis 492. Australian lungfish a. Neoceratodus forsterii b.
b. Lepomis macrochirus Anguilla anguilla
c. Sardinella tawilis
487. Northern blue fin tuna a. Thunnus obesus d. Ipomea reptans
b. Euthynnus affinis

488. Kurinding c. Auxis thazard

a. Thunnus obesus d. Thunnus thynnus
b. Euthynnus affinis

489. Big eye tuna c. Auxis thazard

a. Katsuwonus pelamis d. Thunnus thynnus
b. Euthynnus affinis

490. Gulyasan c. Thunnus obesus

a. Katsuwunus pelamis d. Thunnus albacores
b. Euthynnus affinis

491. Diamond-back squid a. Loligo edulis c. Thunnus obesus

b. Octopus vulgaris d. Thunnus albacores
 c. Thysanotheutis rhombus d. Thysanotheutis c. Salmo salar
dombus d. Abyssobrotulagalathae

493. A fish from family Channichthyidae which carries no hemoglobin on its blood
a. Vandellia cirrhosa c. Gambusia affinis
b. Missgurnus anguillicaudatus d. Chionodraco hamatus

494. Electric-generating fish

a. Saurida tumbil c. Scarus ghoban
b. Hippoglossus stenolepsis d. Electrophorus electricus

495. One of the following is phases in aquaculture a. Intensive

b. Extensive c. Semi-intensive
d. Grow out
46
496. In aquaculture, the choice of culture system depends on _________. a.
Desired quantity of animals to be stocked in a given area b. Amount
of feed
c. Water availability
d. All of these

497. The following are production system in aquaculture except for _____.
a. Supra-intensive b. Extensive c. Semi-intensive D. Intensive

498. Any abnormality in structure or function displayed by living organisms through specific or non-
specific sign.
a. Symptoms b. Stress d. Paranormal behavior
c. Disease

499. The development of disease in a particular aquaculture system involves several factors; the
farmed fish (host), the disease causing organism (pathogen) and ____________.
a. Viruses b. Implications
c. Culture system d. Environment

500. Resistance/susceptibility of the host depends on ________________

a. Age/size of host organism b. Species and health of c. Defense mechanisms employed d. All of these
the fish
 47
48