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UNIQUE ADMISSION TEST TO MASTER'S DEGREE COURSES

IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY AND DENTISTRY AND DENTAL PROSTHESIS

Year Academic 2017/2018

CORRECTION COMMENTED
(This commented fix refers to our remixed version of the 2017 test )

Testdi Reasoning Logical

1. Accompanying my daughter to school (event A) is a sufficient condition

to arrive late (result B): in other words, whenever the event occurs
A result B is certainly obtained. However, the question poses this statement as
FALSE and therefore, for it to be false that ALL times A ÿ then B, it must exist
at least one case in which condition A does not lead to result B: AT LEAST once
A ÿ not B. Answer correct D .

2. To solve the question you need to find that number which when raised to the third is less than o
3 3
equal to 359. We proceed using the empirical method: 6 = 216, 7 = 343, 8 3= 512.
So the maximum volume value we can get with 359 cubes is 343.
Answer correct B.

3. To correctly complete the verbal proportion it is necessary to identify among the

options the only one that contains two adjectives with the same meaning but with a degree
different, respectively comparative (outward) and superlative (extreme). The adjectives
ephemeral and ephemeral are opposites (option B incorrect). Final and terminal are synonyms
(option E incorrect). Excellent (superlative degree) and good (positive degree) do not come
inserted correctly within the proportion and do not respect the right
relationship between the degrees of the adjective (option D incorrect). High and supreme they are instead
adjectives of positive and superlative degree respectively (wrong answer A). The only one
pair of terms that respects the proportion is therefore superior-supreme. Answer
correct C.

4. First we subtract from the total number of seats (900) the number of 10th, 9th, 8th,
7th, 6th position which will be worth: 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, remember that it asks us for the value
maximum of the 5th seat (which is why we gave the minimum possible value to the

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first 5 seats), the result will be 765. At this point we divide 765 number by 5 (ie the remaining
seats) and we obtain 153, which turns out to be the average value of the first 5 positions.
We proceed with the empirical method giving a value to each seat (remember that
the sum of the 5 seats must give 765) obtaining that: the 1st is worth 155, the 2nd 154, the
3rd 153, the 4th 152 and therefore the 5th ° which will be worth 151. Correct answer A.

5. Using the data provided by the text we can reconstruct that the order that Enrico will follow to
feed the animals is: Bears, Horses, Tigers, Elephants and Lions. Enrico starts work at 6.30 by
feeding the Bears, then after 15 minutes he will move on to the next corral, that is to say the
Horses, where he will stay until 7. So at 6.50 Enrico will be in the horse corral. Correct
answer E.

6. The relationship between the terms of the verbal proportion that one must respect for
completing the exercise is to be found in the sequence of the letters that make up one and
the other word provided by the text of the question (SFRTHZ and TESSIV): the trick is to
compare one by one the first letter of the first word with the first letter of the second, the
second letter of the first word with its counterpart of the second word and so on. In this way
it is noted that the first letter of the second word (T) is the consecutive, according to the
alphabetical order, of the first letter of the first word (S), while for the second letter the
opposite is true, i.e. that for the second term the letter (E) is the previous one that appears in the
first term (F). We then proceed alternately: the third letter reproposes the relation of
consecutiveness (R for the first term and S for the second), while the fourth one that of
precedence (T for the first term and S for the second) etc. The only pair of words, in the
options, which reflects this order of sequentiality in the formation of the two terms, maintaining
the relationship "consecutive letter-previous letter and then again consecutive and
previous" is DPILGF - EOLIHE. Correct answer E
.

7. The duration of the flight, taking into account the 4h time zone, will be 11h (7h flight + 4h time
zone), therefore the flight will arrive at h. 7:30 on May 1st. ATTENTION April has only 30
days. Answer correct C.

8. With the data that the problem provides us, we set up a system of two equations,
calling P the birdseed that eats a parrot and C that eats a canary.
The first equation turns out to be: 14 = 4P+3C, the second: 18 = 4P+5C. From the first
equation we obtain that: 4P = 14-3C, we substitute it in the second equation and we
obtain: 18 = (14-3C)+5C ÿ 4 = 2C ÿ C=2. We now obtain the value of P by
substituting C=2 in the first one: 14 = 4P+(3*2) ÿ 8 = 4P ÿ P = 2. Now let's read the options and
look for the WRONG one: "two parrots and 6 canaries" = (2*2 )+(6*2) = 16, DO NOT
require the same birdseed every day as “five parrots” = 5*2 = 10. Correct answer B.

9. Let's first calculate the total distance that Stephanie has to travel:
375km*2 (round trip)= 750km. If the car consumes 1 liter of petrol every 25km, in
750km it consumes: 750/25 = 30 litres. To find how many gallons
they correspond to, set up a proportion: 1 gallon : 3.75L = X : 30L; and we get X

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ÿ X = 30/3.75 = 8. We also know that each gallon of petrol costs 3 pounds, so

Stephanie spends 3*8= 24 pounds, which corresponds to 30 euros (24*1.25 = 30).
Answer Correct A.

10. This is the only Cambridge question of the test. You are asked to identify among the options
the one that has the same logical structure as the piece. It is therefore very useful to
schematize the passage as follows: “more than
half of A is Y; the majority of A is X; so some A must be X and Y”.
At this point we schematize the options in the same way, and compare what we get with the
schema of the piece.
• A: “half of A is X; therefore ¼ of A will be X and
Y”; • B: “of A the best sellers are X; of A the most common are Ab; then Ab Y will be la
most common combination”;
• C: “the majority of A is Y; more than half of A is X; so a part of A must
be X and Y”;
• D: “for breakfast there is A or B; therefore today at breakfast there will be
no C”; • E: “half of A is X; a considerable part of A is Y; so some X must
be Y".
Comparing with the passage, the only correct one is option C, which has exactly
the same logical pattern.
We could have had some doubts about option E, but besides the fact that in the conclusion
the large set A is not considered, but only the subset X (the conclusion of the passage is
"then some A is both X and Y", that of the option E is "then some X will also be Y"), the
two premises are not the same as those of the passage: saying "a considerable
part of A", is different from saying "most of A", because the fact that the number is
considerable does not imply that it is also the majority.
Answer correct C.

11. Reading the text of the question, we immediately realize that the information regarding the
number of brown and current students is not needed to find the solution. If we call
A the set of Males and B the set of Nearsighted, to find the intersection between the two sets
we must do: AÿB = A + B - AÿB. Since the request is the MINIMUM number of short-
sighted men, the value of AÿB must be as high as possible, i.e. 235 (the total students). So
AÿB = 183(male) + 190(sighted) – 235(total) = 373-235 = 138. Correct answer C.

12. To correctly identify the couples, let's start from the fact that Flavio married Alice and that
Marcella has no sisters. Since it is said that two of the three women are sisters and that
Rosario married Alice's sister, we deduce that Rosario's wife is Viviana. Answer correct E.

13. The text states that in every laboratory there are 2 managers and "at least" 3
researchers, meaning 3 or more. If there are 10 laboratories, the number of
supervisors is equal to 10*2 = 20. Answers B and C are incorrect. Laboratory managers can be

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therefore 2/3 of the researchers, 2/4, 2/5 and so on, but the largest number will
always remain 2/3. Answer Correct D.
14. To solve the question more quickly, we indicate the ladies sitting in the cinema with their initials (Margherita,
Ornella, Fiorella, Gabriella and Anna). We enter the information given in a table (see below). 1st
piece of information: Fiorella is three rows behind Anna who does not occupy the front row seat. This means

that Anna will be in 2nd position, in fact going back 3 rows we arrive at the back of the room (2 + 3 = 5);
consequently Fiorella will be in position 5. With reverse reasoning we can position Gabriella and
Margherita. In fact, the second piece of information states that “Gabriella, on the other hand, sits
three rows ahead of Margherita” and therefore they will be respectively in position 1 and 4. The last one
left is therefore Ornella who sits in position 3 and therefore in front of Margherita. Correct answer D.

Position 1 information 2nd Information

1° G

2° A

3°

4° M

5° F

15. The question can be quickly solved by drawing sets. Representing what is said in the text, we will obtain
that all the omegas will be contained in the set of tau; all tau will be contained in the lambda; finally
all the lambdas will be contained in the set delta. So it will surely be true that all taus are deltas (since
taus are contained in the lambda set which is part of the delta set) and that consequently all omegas are lambdas
(options C and B incorrect).

Analogously we can deduce that surely the non-deltas (everything outside the delta set) will be extraneous to
the set of lambdas (wrong option D) and that the non-tau will also be part of the non-omega set (wrong
option E ). The only statement that is not necessarily true is that the non-lambdas are non-deltas,
since although the set lambda is contained within the set delta this does not mean that the two sets
coincide, but (as drawn in the graph) the delta

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can also contain non-lambdas. Answer Correct A.

16. The question places us in front of a system with 4 unknowns with 3 equations and therefore
it would seem unsolvable. In the first equation, however, Ee can be eliminated. If the calculations
are carried out by substituting the 2nd and 3rd equations within the first, one obtains: yy + jK + Ee =
ZZ + Ee ZZ = 4

yy = jK –2
(jK - 2) + jK + Ee = (4) + Ee ÿ 2jK = 4 + 2 + Ee - Ee ÿ 2jK = 6 ÿ jK = 6/2 = 3 Answer Correct
A.

17. We also represent this query with sets.

The set of those who eat ice cream includes that of those who go to the beach. That of children is
totally included in the ensemble of those who eat ice cream, but we are not told anything about its
relationship with the ensemble of those who go to the beach, it could intersect it, be totally inserted
into it, or not even intersect it ( in the image for simplicity it is drawn as intersected). So it is not
necessarily true that whoever goes to the beach is a child, nor that all children go to the beach
(answers D and E incorrect).

Furthermore, it is true that those who go to the beach are included in that of those who eat ice cream,
but it is not said that the two systems coincide; therefore it is not correct to say that whoever eats
ice cream goes to the beach, there could be a person who eats ice cream without going to the
beach (answer C incorrect).
We know that Francesco goes to the beach, so he may or may not be a child, because some children
go to the beach, some don't (answer A incorrect).
The only certain affirmation is that Francesco, since he goes to the beach, eats ice cream.
Correct answer B.

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18. The question can be resolved by noting that in the sentence "5h0 d3748 232 60gl09 68150"
an H is present in the first word 5h0 and therefore the word can be either chi or che e
so the number 5 should be replaced with the C. If you pay attention to the options you will notice
that the only option with the c in the penultimate letter is fish while all the other options
they have another letter. Answer Correct D.

19. We use the information given and insert the data into the table. It is known that:
1. the motorbike belongs to Sara while Laura does not own a car;
2. Elena's means of transport is black;
3. the car is blue and the bicycle is red.

By drawing a simple table like the one below we can first pigeonhole the
information 1) and 2) of the text and then deducing the position of information 3) and of all those
missing. The initial table will be this:
Laura Giulia Sara Elena

Half (not car) Moto

Color Black

It follows that the only one who can own the car (which is blue) is Giulia (green column, free
by means and by color and compatible with Giulia). Laura will therefore own the red bicycle
which cannot be in possession of Sara and Elena due to means or colors already present.
Once Laura's column is complete, it will be easy to identify, by exclusion, that Elena is in
possession of a black off-road vehicle while Sara of the green motorcycle.

The complete table will then be:

Laura Giulia Sara Elena

Half Bikes Auto Moto Off road

Color Red Blu Green Black

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Answer correct C.

20. From the table completed with information from the test, it can be seen that Giulia owns the car.
Correct answer A.

Testdi Culturagenerale

21. The Lateran pacts were pacts stipulated between the kingdom of Italy and the Church and sanctioned the end
of the so-called Roman question, or the controversy regarding the role of
Rome, seat of the pope's temporal power but, at the same time, capital of the Kingdom
of Italy. Article 7 of the Italian constitution states that “The State and the Church
catholic are, each in its own order, independent and sovereign. Their reports are
governed by the Lateran Pacts.” Answer Correct D.

22. “From the big bang to black holes. A Brief History of Time” is a best seller, popularisation essay
science written by Stephen Hawking and published in 1988 which made famous
the author also outside the scientific niche. Answer correct C.

Testdi Biology

23. The Krebs cycle is one of the stages of cellular respiration, distinct from glycolysis
aerobic and anaerobic. It does not use glucose, but acetyl-CoA, produced by partial
oxidation of glucose in the previous phases of respiration. For each molecule of
Acetyl-CoA produces 1 GTP (equivalent to 1 ATP), 2 CO2 , 1 FADH2 ,3 NADH. The process
does not consume ATP. Answer Correct A.

24. In the G2 phase the cell, which has just carried out the DNA duplication in the S phase,
possesses an amount of DNA (other than ploidy!) equal to Y. The cell undergoes a
meiosis, process composed of two phases (meiosis I and meiosis II), at the end of each of
which the genetic heritage is halved in the daughter cells. Therefore, after completing
meiosis I each of the two daughter cells will contain 0.5Y and at the end of meiosis II
0.25Y. The question however asks for the amount of DNA in metaphase II when meiosis II is not
not yet finished and the genetic material has not yet been divided, which therefore
equals 0.5Y. Answer correct E.

25. Modern cell theory is based on four of the five principles given in the answers
to the question. The only statement that does not appear in the formulation of the theory is
“Every multicellular organism can reproduce only sexually”. Answer correct
C.

26. The systemic circulation (or great circulation) starts from the left ventricle of
heart with the aorta, the main artery of the human body, and ends in the right atrium
with hollow veins. The pulmonary arteries branch off from the right ventricle
beginning of the pulmonary circulation (or small circulation), which then ends with the

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pulmonary veins in the left atrium. The portal vein is the vessel that collects waste blood
from the gastrointestinal area and carries it to the liver. Answer correct E.

27. The small positively charged proteins that pack DNA together and are part of the
chromatin are histones. The recognition sequence for mRNA translation is the AUG triplet.
Introns are non-coding sequences of a gene that interrupt the coding sequence, made up of
exons. Introns are transcribed but can be removed from the mRNA sequence by the
splicing process. Answer Correct A.

28. According to Chargaff's first rule, there is a 1:1 ratio between purine bases (adenine +
guanine) and pyrimidine bases (thymine + cytosine). Answer correct B.

29. The genetic code is the set of rules which allow the genetic information contained in the
codons (mRNA nitrogenous base triplets) to be switched into amino acids. The genetic
code consists of both amino acid coding triplets and non-coding triplets (stop triplets:
UAA, UAG, UGA). Furthermore, it is correct to state that the genetic code is redundant/
degenerate, as an amino acid is encoded by multiple codons, but not vice versa. The only
incorrect alternative is the one that reports that codons are made up of pairs of nucleotides.
Correct answer E.

30. Two individuals who do not have A and B antigens on their membrane are both
genotypically and phenotypically group 0 (genotype 00). By crossing these two individuals (00
x 00) four individuals with genotype 00 are obtained. Correct answer D.

31. The process that leads to the differentiation of the three embryonic layers is called
gastrulation; segmentation is the process by which the morula is formed starting from the
zygote; blastulation is the process by which the blastula is formed from the morula.

Organogenesis is the set of processes that leads to the formation of organs in the fetus (no
longer the embryo); morphogenesis , on the other hand, is the process following
gastrulation, through which the embryo begins to take shape. Correct answer A.

32. The correct sequence with which oogenesis can be summarized is: oogonium (primordial cell;
it is possible to exclude all alternatives that do not begin with this cell) ÿ oocyte I ÿ oocyte II ÿ
egg cell. The order of appearance of the polar corpuscles is: primary polar corpuscle ÿ
secondary polar corpuscle (therefore the other alternative starting with oogonium is excluded).
Answer correct B.

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33. Chiasmata are the structures that form during prophase I of meiosis,
allowing crossing over, i.e. the process that allows the gametes to be all genotypically
different. During crossing over the recombination of DNA takes place
between different chromatids but of the same pair of homologues, thus allowing the
recombination of the DNA and not of the chromosomes in their entirety. Answer
correct E.

34. Meiosis is a cellular process that allows the amount of DNA present in the mother cell to be
halved and, therefore, the production of haploid cells: the gametes. In particular, male
gametes have 22 autosomes and the 23rd chromosome can be X or Y, while in female
gametes we find only X. All mature gametes have 23 single chromosomes.
Unlike mitosis, homologous chromosomes in meiosis separate in anaphase I, while in
anaphase II we have the disjunction of sister chromatids. Therefore the reduction of
the number of chromosomes occurs during the
meiosis I. Tetrads line up on the equatorial plane of the cell during metaphase I.
Correct answer B.

35. The osteon is the characteristic microscopic unit of bone, which develops around the Havers
canals, within which we find vessels and nerves. The periosteum is, on the other hand, a
connective structure that covers the bones. The osteocyte is the quiescent cell that
makes up the bone tissue, while osteoblasts and osteoclasts maintain the shape and
structure of the bone by deposing and reabsorbing the extracellular matrix respectively. In
the case of osteoporosis, a condition in which we have loss of bone mineral mass, the cell
that reduces its activity will be the osteoblast. Answer Correct D.

36. Sarcomeres are the functional units of skeletal muscle, delimited by the Z lines.
They consist of actin filaments, anchored to the Z lines, and myosin, anchored to the M lines.
Inside the sarcomere it is possible to identify bands, which delimit the areas in which it is
possible to recognize the various types of filaments. The I bands are the area of the
sarcomere where you have isolated actin filaments, adjacent to the Z lines. Correct answer D.

37. All the enzymes mentioned are involved in the stages of food digestion and nutrient
absorption. Trypsin is produced by the pancreas in the form of trypsinogen, which is
secreted into the duodenum where it is converted into active trypsin, which can break down
proteins into smaller peptides (answers A and E incorrect). Pancreatic amylase and lipase
are produced by the pancreas and are also poured into the duodenum, where they are
responsible, respectively, for the splitting of polysaccharides and triglycerides (answers
C and D incorrect). Pepsin is secreted by glands in the stomach wall in the form of
inactive pepsinogen, which, in the presence of acidic pH, is transformed into pepsin,
which breaks down proteins into simpler peptides. Correct answer B.

38. Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH) is one of two hormones, together

to oxytocin, to be produced by the hypothalamus and to be released into the circulation
by the neurohypophysis. Vasopressin acts at the level of the renal collecting ducts,
where it induces reabsorption of the water present in the filtrate; it can also cause

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peripheral vasoconstriction of blood vessels. By these mechanisms, vasopressin increases blood

pressure. Blood calcium is regulated by calcitonin and parathyroid hormone, while blood
sugar by insulin and glucagon. Answer Correct A.

39. A missense mutation is a point mutation that occurs by substitution of nitrogenous bases: it occurs when,
within a coding sequence, a nitrogenous base is replaced with another, so that the newly formed codon
codes for an amino acid other than the original. This mutation may have no effects on the
phenotype, if the newly formed amino acid has chemical-physical characteristics similar to those of the
original amino acid; on the contrary, it can have serious and pathological effects in case the new
amino acid is chemically different from the original amino acid. Answer correct E.

40. The question takes into consideration a generic condition with autosomal recessive transmission, in which
recessive homozygosity (the presence of two recessive alleles: rr) leads to the abortion of the embryo.
Therefore, by crossing two Rr heterozygous individuals for the aforementioned condition, we will
have only two possible genotypes for children born alive: ÿ of the children will have the dominant
homozygous RR genotype, while ÿ of the children will be Rr heterozygous. Answer Correct A.

Testdi Chemistry

41. What is meant by boiling point? The temperature at which a

chemical element/compound changes to a gaseous state. If a chemical compound has a boiling point
of 68°C at atmospheric pressure, but we are in standard conditions (25°C), we can state with
absolute certainty that the compound is not a gas, but that it will still be in a solid state or liquid. Answer
Correct A.

42. A concentration of a solution is calculated with the following formula:

M (molarity) = moles / liters
So just enter the data that has been given to us in the text and we get: 5mol / 10L = 0.5M.

Answer Correct D.

43. Two atoms that have the same atomic number but different mass numbers are two
isotopes.
Isotopes have exactly the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons.
Answer correct E.

44. Exercise on the Periodic Table and on the external electron configuration. I count in ), so the element
total 3 electrons (“2” in 1s atomic2 “1” in 2s 1 in question will be the one with
,

number 3. The first period has two elements, H and He, consequently our element will be the first of the
second period, i.e. Lithium. Correct answer E.

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45. Without having to dive into complex and abstruse reasoning, among all the proposed alternatives
only one has a correct unit of measurement for mass (grams "g"), which will be the exact answer.
Answer Correct D.

46. Easy balancing exercise of a very "short" reaction, consequently the fastest method to use in
this case would be the empirical one; the only correct alternative is the one with “a” = 2, “b”
= 2 and “c” = 3. Correct answer A.

47. The reaction to be taken into consideration is: NH3 + H +

ÿ NH4
+

Analyzing the different acid-base theories we have that:

- According to Arrhenius a free base OH - ion (alternative D wrong)
- According to Lewis, an acid accepts a pair of electrons, while H+ is a proton (wrong alternative
B)
- According to Bronsted and Lowry a base accepts H + ions (alternative A correct)
Shiff bases are particular organic compounds with the C=N functional group also known as
"imines" and therefore the alternative C should be excluded a priori.
Although ammonia can behave as an amphoteric by accepting H+ or yielding it forming the
conjugate base NH2 - the reaction under examination only justifies its basic
behaviour.
Answer Correct A.

48. The reaction between nonmetals and oxygen leads to the formation of acidic oxides, otherwise
known as anhydrides. An example of this is carbon dioxide CO2 formed by Carbon (non-metal) +
molecular oxygen. Answer correct D.

49. Amides are derivatives of carboxylic acids obtained by condensation reaction

with ammonia or amines. You will have:
RCOOH + NH3 ÿ RCONH2 + H2O The
only alternative that follows the structure is CH3CONH2 , formula of ethannamide.
Correct answer B.

50. The two compounds differ only in the position of the OH group, the first in
position 1 the second in position 2. This type of isomerism is precisely the structure isomerism;
the other answers refer to isomers of a more complex type, due for example to free rotation
around a simple carbon-carbon bond (conformational isomerism). Answer Correct D.

51. Let's look at the oxidation numbers of nitrogen and sulfur: - HNO3: if
hydrogen has +1 and oxygen -2, then nitrogen here has the number of
oxidation +5 > NO: oxygen maintains -2, nitrogen assumes oxidation number +2
Nitrogen is reduced from +5 to -2
- H2S: hydrogen has +1, S has oxidation number -2 > S, as an element, has
as oxidation number 0 The sulfur
oxidizes, going from -2 to 0 Answer
correct C.

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52. There is little to say about this question. We know that by definition a bond
covalent can be single, double, or triple.
They are not formed only between equal atoms, since polar covalent bonds exist; they are not formed only
between different atoms, due to the existence of the pure covalent bond.

The other two options make no chemical sense.

Answer Correct A.

Testdi Physicsand
Mathematics

53. Exercise based on the work formula L=ÿU, (i.e. Work=variation of E.

Potential). That said, since the formula of gravitational potential energy is ÿU=mgh, we find that L=50
Kg x 10 mx h. Insulating h, h=L/500=6000/500=12 m.
Answer correct C.

54. This question can be answered by considering Stevin's law, it claims

in fact that, P=dgh (Answers D and A incorrect). Of these unknowns it is known that: g is constant, as well as h
(since the cylinders are identical and the volume poured inside them is equal), at this point, knowing that

dgasoline<dwater, it follows that Pgasoline < Pwater . Answer correct E.

55. To carry out the exercise it is practical to use the clockwise law of motion uniformly (in this case, v0=0 and
2
accelerated. It consists of s=s0+v0 t+1/2at point, setting s0=0). To this
2
a=10 m/s (acceleration of gravity) and t=2s, the equation s=1/2 is solved
x 10 m/s 2
x 2 s 2=20 m. It is therefore understood that the space covered by the stone in the time of 2
2

seconds (i.e. the height of the cliff) is equal to about 20 meters, approximately since
2 2
the acceleration due to gravity was approximated to 10 m/s corrected instead of 9.8 m/s . Answer
D.

56. To solve this exercise, it is essential to know how to calculate the total capacitance of capacitors connected in
series. That is, 1/Ctot=1/C1+1/C2+1/C3 . At this
point, it is necessary to substitute within the equation the values of the capacitances of the
capacitors known to us, thus finding 1/Ctot=1/6 C+1/4 C +1/12 C=1/2 C. Finally, isolating Ctot , we find that
it is equal to 2 C. Answer correct E.

57. The fastest way to solve this exercise is to use the empirical method. In particular, by substituting the
coordinates of the points within the equation of the circle, one quickly realizes that it passes through
the origin. Or it can be noted that in the given equation the term c is absent with respect to the Cartesian
equation of the circumference, this implies that the circumference passes through the origin of the axes (0;0).
Answer Correct A.

58. This exercise is solved using Euclid's second Theorem. It asserts that "the height relative to the hypotenuse is
the mean proportional between the projections of the legs on the hypotenuse"; consequently,

hip=ÿ6x12=ÿ72=6ÿ2 cm. At this point, knowing that the sum of the projections of the legs is equal to the
hypotenuse, we find that the value at

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the corresponding one is ip=12+6=18 cm. Finally, having all the necessary data, the
area of the triangle can be calculated: A=6ÿ2x18/2=54ÿ2 cm2 . Answer correct C.

59. The exercise can be solved using the empirical method: replace the values of x present
in the solutions proposed within the equation. In this way, substituting x=-1, we find that 5
-2+1
-1/5 =0, i.e. 1/5 -1/5 =0 . Correct answer E.

60. This last exercise can also be solved using the empirical method: it can
replace x=-1 (which was given to us as a solution of the equation by the text), finding
k+3k+k+1=0. At this point it is possible to isolate k, 5k=-1, and therefore k=-1/5 .
Correct answer A.

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