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ᵍɇɇῥＧᵏᶷᵏΐ 6. Which non-radioactive isotope was used by Meselson

Botany - Section A and Stahl to label DNA in their experiment?
1. The plumule of a eudicot seed consists of all of the 1. 35S
following except 2. 15N
1. Epicotyl 2. Shoot apical meristem 3. 32P
3. Young leaves 4. Hypocotyl 4. None

7. Which one of the following pairs of codons are

2. Which of the following is a primary metabolite? correctly matched with their function or the signal for
1. Carotenoid 2. Glucose the particular amino acid?
3. Morphine 4. Cellulose 1. GUU, GCU – Alanine
2. UAG, UGA – Stop
3. AUG, ACG – Start/methionine
4. UUA, UCA – Leucine
3.
Assertion Sporopollenin preserves pollen in fossil 8. With reference to protein synthesis, consider the
(A): deposits following events
Sporopollenin is resistant to physical and a. Binding of aminoacyl - tRNA complex with mRNA
Reason (R):
biological decomposition
b. Activation of amino acid
c. Polypeptide formation
1. (A) is True; (R) is False
d. Formation of aminoacyl - tRNA complex
2. (A) is False; (R) is True
3. Both (A) and (R) are not True What is the correct sequence of the above events in
4. Both (A) and (R) are True. protein synthesis?

1. b, d, a & c
4. In which one of the following options, the two 2. a, b, d & c
given taxonomic categories are correctly matched with 3. d, b, a & c
their organism? 4. a, d, b & c
Taxonomic Categories Organism
1. Diptera and Felidae - Musca
2. Solanaceae and Polymoniales - Datura 9. A test cross is carried out to:
3. Canidae and Primate - Gibbon 1. Predict whether two traits are linked
4. Triticum and Sapindales - Wheat 2. Assess the number of alleles of a gene
Determine whether two species or varieties will breed
3.
successfully
5. Which of the following statements is correct? 4. Determine the genotype of a plant at F2
Organisms that depend on living plants are called
1.
saprophytes.
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen 10. Stellar distances are measured in :
2.
in specialized cells called sheath cells. 1. Meters
3. The fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy. 2. Nanometers
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non- 3. Light years
4.
motile gametes is called plasmogamy. 4. Kilometers

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11. Select the incorrect statement with respect to plant 17. Which of the following is false?
growth regulators: Endosperm formation starts prior to first division of
I.
2, 4-D (2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) is a zygote
1.
synthetic auxin Angiospermic endosperm is mostly 3N while
II.
Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellins increases gymnospermic one is N.
2.
the length of the stem III. The most common type of endosperm is nuclear.
3. Cytokinins promote the apical dominance Coconut has both liquid nuclear (multinucleate) and
IV.
4. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone cellular endosperm.
Milky water of green tender coconut is liquid
V.
female gametophyte.
12. The region of meristematic activity has cells of:
1. I and II only
1. Small size, thin walled and with dense protoplasm
2. Large size, thick walled and with the loose protoplasm 2. III only
3. Small size, thin walled with loose protoplasm 3. V only
4. Large size, thin walled and with dense protoplasm 4. II only

18. According to extreme estimates, which say that there

13. Which of the following is true for vacuole? is 20 to 50 million global species diversity is based on:
1. It is present in both plants and animals 1. Species richness of insects
2. Central vacuole is present in plants 2. Species richness of Arthropods
3. It occupies 90% volume of the plants 3. Species evenness of insects
4. All of these 4. Species evenness of Arthropods

14. Which of the following plants are grown in green 19. The cylindrical body or curved base of a bioreactor
house by exploiting the fact that higher CO2 leads to actually facilitates:
more productivity? 1. The handling and maintenance of bioreactor
1. Tomatoes 2. The mixing of the reactor content
2. Papaya 3. Better oxygen transport
3. Cycas 4. More accumulation of product
4. Pomegranate
20. Isotopes used in proving semiconservative
15. How many ATPs are net gained till the completion of replication of DNA were:
Krebs’ cycle during breakdown of one molecule of 1. 14N 14C
Glucose?
2. 14N 15N
1. 4 ATPs in Glycolysis and 1 GTP in Krebs’ Cycle
3. 14N 31P
2. 4 ATPs in Glycolysis and 2 GTP in Krebs’ Cycle
4. 14C 31P
3. 2 ATPs in Glycolysis and 2 GTP in Krebs’ Cycle
4. 2 ATPs in Glycolysis and 1 GTP in Krebs’ Cycle21. Which of the following is released into natural water
bodies like rivers and streams?
1. Effluent of primary treatment
16. Lichens are mutually beneficial associations 2. Effluent of secondary treatment
between: 3. Settling component of secondary treatment
1. Autotrophic and heterotrophic members 4. Settling component of primary treatment
2. Two autotrophic partners
3. Two heterotrophic partners 22. Mycorrhiza is an example of:
4. Fungi and roots of higher plants 1. Symbiotic relationship
2. Ectoparasitism
3. Endoparasitism
4. Decomposers

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23. Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy ? 30. How many of the given statements regarding sexual
1. Mustard reproduction in Bryophytes are true?
2. China rose I: The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular.
3. Alstonia The male sex organ is called antheridium and they
4. Calotropis II:
produce biflagellate antherozoids.
The female sex organ called archegonium is flask-
24. Germ pores are present in: III:
shaped and produces a single egg.
1. pollen exine where sporopollenin is present
The antherozoids are released into water where they
2. pollen exine where sporopollenin is absent IV:
come in contact with archegonium.
3. pollen intine where hemicellulose is present V: Zygotes undergo reduction division immediately.
4. pollen intine where hemicellulose is absent 1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
25. At the four nucleate stage, the number of cells 4. 5
present in a female gametophyte of a typical angiosperm
is: 31. ‘Toddy’, a traditional drink in some parts of southern
1. 1 India, is made by fermenting sap from:
2. 2 1. Palms 2. Soybean
3. 4
3. Potato 4. Barley
4. 7

26. Most favourite and ideal material for researchers in

genetics is: 32. Consider the two statements:
1. Housefly The use of baculovirus as biocontrol
2. Mosquito agents is especially desirable when an
Assertion (A):
3. Frog ecologically sensitive area is being
4. Fruitfly. treated.
Baculoviruses are species-specific,
Reason (R):
27. Which of the following are the important floral narrow spectrum insecticides.
rewards to the animal pollinators?
1. Nectar and pollen grains Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
2. Floral fragrance and calcium crystals 1.
the (A).
3. Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates 2. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. Colour and large size of flower
3. (A) is False; (R) is False
28. Commonly used vectors for human genome 4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
sequencing are: explain the (A)
1. T - DNA
2. BAC and YAC
3. Expression Vectors 33. A molecule of ATP is produced in glycolysis during:
4. T/A Cloning Vectors I: The conversion of glucose into glucose 6-phosphate.
The conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose
II:
29. The species of plants that plays a vital role in 1, 6-bisphosphate.
controlling the relative abundance of other species in a 1. Only I
community is called _______. 2. Only II
1. alien species 2. endemic species 3. Both I and II
3. exotic species 4. keystone species 4. Neither I nor II

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34. The primary pigment molecule responsible for 39. Mark the incorrect one:
capturing light energy during photosynthesis in higher Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the
plants is: 1.
performance of athletes and race horses
1. Chlorophyll Viability of pollen grain depends upon temperature,
2. Carotenoid 2.
not humidity
3. Bacteriochlorophyll
Pollen grains of a large number of species can be
4. Xanthophyll 3.
stored in liquid nitrogen for years
35. Introduction of Nile perch in Lake Victoria led to the 4. Pollen grains of rice and wheat lose viability within
dramatic decline in the population of indigenous: half an hour
1. Gambusia
2. Cichlid fish
3. Salmon fish 40. Which of the following are true for cyanobacteria?
4. Pomfrets (I) They are freshwater/marine or terrestrial algae.
(II) Often form blooms in unpolluted water bodies.

Botany - Section B (III) Maybe unicellular, colonial, or filamentous.

(IV) Some of them fix atmospheric nitrogen.
36. Which of the following plastid store fats? 1. I, III, IV
1. Elaioplast 2. Aleuroplast 2. I, II, III, IV
3. Proteinoplast 4. Amyloplast 3. II, III, IV
4. I, II, IV

37. Consider the given two statements: 41. The lateral branches originate from the basal and
The term lenticel is usually associated with the underground portion of the main stem, grow horizontally
I: breakage of periderm tissue; however, lenticels also beneath the soil, and then come out obliquely upward to
refer to the lightly colored spots found on apples. give rise to leafy shoot. Which of the following
Both structures have similar functions in gas examples are associated with such modifications?
II: 1. Banana, Mint, Jasmine
exchange.
2. Banana, Pineapple, Chrysanthemum
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I 3. Pineapple, Mint, Citrus
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I 4. Papaya, Citrus, Banana
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct 42. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d)
given below about gymnosperms:
Roots in some non-vascular archegoniate have a
a:
fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza
38. In the internodal segments of tobacco stems, the Leaves are well adapted to withstand extremes of
callus is actually: b:
temperature, humidity, and wind
1. An undifferentiated cell The nucellus is protected by the ovary wall and the
2. A mass of differentiated cell c:
composite structure is called an ovule
3. A mass of undifferentiated cell
Multicellular female gametophyte is retained within
4. A differentiated cell d:
the megasporangium
The correct statements are
1. a and c 2. b and c
3. c and d 4. b and d

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43. Select the incorrect statement 48. Consider the given two statements:
All living organisms have enzymatic machinery to The underlying mechanism of pleiotropy in
1.
partially oxidise glucose without oxygen Assertion most cases is the effect of a gene on
In plants, glucose is derived from sucrose which is (A): metabolic pathways which contribute
2. towards different phenotypes.
the end product of photosynthesis
2ATP are produced as net gain by direct Pleiotropy occurs when one gene influences
3. Reason
phosphorylation during glycolysis two or more seemingly unrelated
(R):
One dehydrogenation and one decarboxylation step phenotypic traits.
4.
occur during EMP pathway
1. (A) is False but (R) is True
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
44. Read the following statements with respect to Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
antenna molecules: 3.
explanation of (A)
The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
a: 4.
molecules bound to proteins. explanation of (A)
b: Water splitting complex is associated with the PS-ll.

1. Only b is correct 49. Identify the incorrect statement:

2. Both a & b are incorrect Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are
3. Only a is correct 1. produced by some microbes and can kill or retard
4. Both a & b are correct the growth of other (disease-causing) microbes.
Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be discovered,
2.
and it was a chance discovery.
45. Which of the given plant produces cardiac Alexander Fleming while working on Staphylococci
glycosides? 3. bacteria, discovered Penicillin in the
1. Calotropis mould Penicillium chrysogenum.
2. Acacia Penicillin’s full potential as an effective antibiotic
3. Nepenthes 4. was established much later by Ernest
4. Utricularia Chain and Howard Florey.

46. The motion of sister Chromatids towards opposite

poles of the cell occurs by: 50. What is the site of the light-dependent reactions in
1. Shortening of microtubules attached to centromere photosynthesis in higher plants?
2. Shortening of microtubules attached to kinetochores 1. Stroma of chloroplasts
Shortening of microtubules attached to Metaphase 2. Thylakoid membrane
3. 3. Lumen of thylakoid
plate
4. Intermembrane space
Shortening of microtubules attached to other
4.
homologous chromosomes
Zoology - Section A
51. For a given lead configuration, the ECGs obtained
47. Nucellar embryony:
from _________ individuals have _________ shape.
I: is a type of apomixes 1. different, different
II: occurs in many citrus varieties 2. different, same
3. different, roughly same
1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct 4. Twins, same
3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect

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52. High pCO2 and low pO2 can be found in: 56. Which of the following symbols represent
1. alveoli consanguineous mating?
2. tissues
3. blood 1. 2.
4. heart
3. 4.
53. Which structures perform the function of
mitochondria in bacteria ?
1. Nucleoid
2. Ribosomes
57. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to
3. Cell wall
natural selection theory:
4. Mesosomes
1. The unit of natural selection is an individual
54. Given below is the structure of a monosaccharide. 2. Darwin implied natural selection as a method of
The homopolymer of this monosaccharide is used in: evolution
Reproductively fit organisms will survive more and
3.
hence are selected by nature
Increase in the number of melanised moths during
4. post-industrialisation is not an example of natural
selection

58. SAN is present in -------------- while AVN is present

in-----------.
Right upper corner and left lower corner of both the
1.
1. Storage of carbohydrates in plants atria.
2. Storage of carbohydrates in animals Right upper corner and left lower corner of right
3. Making the medium for microbial culture 2.
atrium.
4. Formation of the structure of the plant cell wall Right upper corner and left lower corner of left
3.
atrium.
Right upper corner and left median corner of left
4.
55. Identify the option where all the columns are not atrium.
correctly matched:
Animal Phylum Features
59. In the given diagram, the columns of Bertini are
Comb plates,
represented by the letter:
1. Pleurobrachia Ctenophora Only sexual
reproduction
Radula,
2. Loligo Mollusca
Dioecious
Respiration by
3. Balanoglossus Hemichordata gills,
Proboscis gland
Marine,
Notochord
4. Ascidia Chordata
persistent
throughout life
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

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60. Given below are the statements related to the 63. Which of the following genes control the cotton
functioning of different parts of the human brain with bollworm?
respect to the labelled structure in the diagram showing 1. cry IAc and cry IIAb
sagital section of human brain. 2. cry IIAb and cry IIAc
3. cry IAb and cry IAc
4. cry IAb and cry IIAc

64. ____________ gene codes for the proteins are

required for the replication of plasmid.
1. ori 2. rop
3. ampR 4. tetR

65. Early detection of disease is not possible by

performing:
A is a major coordinating centre for sensory and 1. RDT
a.
motor signalling. 2. Urine analysis
B controls body temperature, urge for eating and 3. PCR
b.
drinking. 4. ELISA
C along with amygdala and hippocampus involved in
c. regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of 66. Pelvic girdle is made up of:
emotional reaction.
D converts short term memories into long term 1. Two coxal bones
d. 2. Two sacral bones
memories.
3. Two Femur bones
How many statements are correct? 4. Two glenoid cavity
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four 67. In which of the chromosomes two equal arms are
present?
1. sub-metacentric chromosome
2. metacentric chromosome
61. Select the correct match: 3. acrocentric chromosome
1. Zona reticularis – inner layer of adrenal medulla 4. telocentric chromosome
2. Zona fasciculata – middle layer of adrenal cortex
3. Zona glomerulosa – outer layer of adrenal medulla 68. Different types of cones possess their own
4. Zona fasciculata – middle layer of adrenal medulla characteristic photopigment that respond to specific
wavelength of light. Upon equal stimulation of the
62. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that: cones, the sensation of light produced is of which colour
make cuts at specific positions within the DNA ?
1. 1. Black 2. White
molecule
recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding 3. Green 4. Orange
2.
of DNA ligase
3. restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA
4.
molecule

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69. In a growing population of a country: 74. A selectable marker is used to :
pre-reproductive individuals are more than help in eliminating the non-transformants so that the
1. 1.
reproductive individuals. transformants can be regenerated
reproductive individuals are less than post- identify the gene for the desired trait in an alien
2. 2.
reproductive individuals. organism
reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are select a suitable vector for transformation in a
3. 3.
equal in number. specific crop
pre-reproductive individuals are less than mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using
4. 4.
reproductive individuals. restriction enzyme

70. Which of the following cell will undergo meiosis? 75. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases
1. Sertoli cells is not completely curable?
2. Spermatogonia 1. Chlamydiosis
3. Leydig cell 2. Gonorrhoea
4. Immunologically competent cells 3. Genital warts
4. Genital herpes
71. Which of the following is true?
1. Gills are used by most of the aquatic animals 76. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by:
2. lungs are used by most of the terrestrial animals 1. nitration of morphine
2. methylation of morphine
3. Mammals have a well developed respiratory system
3. acetylation of morphine
4. All of the above 4. glycosylation of morphine

77. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo

72. Which of the following hormones is responsible for de Vries are:
both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal ejection 1. small and directionless
reflex? 2. random and directional
1. Estrogen 2. Prolactin 3. random and directionless
3. Oxytocin 4. Relaxin 4. small and directional

78. Match the following columns and select the correct

73. Match the items in Column - I with those in Column option:
- II : Column I Column II
Column I Column II (1) Eosinophils (i) lmmune response
(a) Podocytes (i) Crystallised oxalate (2) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(b) Protonephridia (ii) Annelids Release histaminase, destructive
(3) Neutrophils (iii)
(c) Nephridia (iii) Amphioxus enzymes
(d) Renal calculi (iv) Filtration slits Release granules containing
(4) Lymphocytes (iv)
histamine
Select the correct option from the following:
1. (a)-(iii), (b )-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) 1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) 2. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

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79. Match the following diseases with the causative 83. Consider the given two statements:
organism and select the correct option: Assertion (A): Hormones act only on their target cells.
Column I Column II Hormones are transported to their
Reason (R):
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias target organs by ducts.
(b) Adult with radial symmetry and
(ii) Scorpion
larva with bilateral symmetry Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
1.
(iii) the (A).
(c) Book lungs
Ctenoplana 2. (A) is True; (R) is False
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta 3. (A) is False; (R) is False
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
4.
(a) (b) (c) (d) explain the (A).
1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
3. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 84. Consider the given two statements:
Deficiency of ADH causes diabetes
4. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) Assertion (A):
insipidus.
ADH promotes the expulsion of water
80. To induce uterine contractions for parturition which Reason (R): from the collecting duct, a portion of
of the following hormones can be injected to the female? the nephron.
1. hCG
2. Estrogen Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
1.
3. Progesterone the (A).
4. Oxytocin 2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is False
81. Which one of the following is False? Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
1. Fatty acids and glycerol are soluble in water 4.
explain the (A).
2. Phospholipids are found in the cell membrane
3. Oils have lower melting point
4. In lipids fatty acids are found esterified with glycerol
85. Pneumotaxic centre which can moderate the
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre is present at:
82. Consider the given two statements:
1. Pons region of brain
Morphine should not be routinely used 2. Thalamus
Assertion (A):
in patients with mild to moderate pain. 3. Spinal cord
Reason (R): Morphine increases sensitivity to pain. 4. Right cerebral hemisphere

1.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains
the (A). Zoology - Section B
2. (A) is True; (R) is False 86. The inter-atrial septum in the human heart can be
3. (A) is False; (R) is True best described as:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 1. A thin muscular wall 2. A thick muscular wall
4. 3. A thin fibrous tissue 4. A thick fibrous tissue
explain the (A).

87. The muscle can directly use which of the following

as a source of energy?
1. Creatine phosphate 2. Glucose
3. ATP 4. Fatty acids

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88. Which of the following is true about the Endocrine 94. Which of the following is not the example of
system? evolution by anthropogenic actions?
1. It is not directly connected with the organs 1. Herbicide resistant varieties
2. Response is slow 2. Antibiotic resistant microbes
3. Coordinates through secretion of hormones 3. Darwin Finches
4. All of the above 4. Different breeds of dogs

89. How many seminiferous tubules will be there per 95. Read the following four statements A, B, C and D
testis? which are the descriptions of some events in the life
1. 1 to 3 cycle of Plasmodium and select the correct option
2. 500 having a set of correct statements
3. 1000 Parasite reproduces asexually in red blood cells. The
4. At maximum, 4 rupture of RBCs is associated with the release of a
A.
toxic substance, haemozoin, which is responsible for
90. Which of the following is correct regarding chills and high fever
colostrum ? Sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in the intestine
1. Rich in antigens B.
of man
2. Rich in antibodies
Fertilisation and development take place in the
3. Produced upto 6 months (lactation period) C.
mosquito's intestine
4 .lts release is blocked by low levels of prolactin
Female mosquito takes up the gametocyte with blood
D.
91. Choose the incorrect option with respect to assisted meal
reproductive technologies:
In IUT, embryos with upto 8 blastomeres are
1. 1. A & B
transferred into the uterus
2. B & C
In ZIFT, zygote can be transferred into the fallopian 3. A & D
2.
tube 4. C & D
In AI, the semen collected either from husband or
3. healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the
vagina or into the uterus
During IVF, fertilization occurs outside the body in 96. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the
4. plasmid vector became possible due to:
almost similar conditions as that in the body
1. DNA polymerase
2. Exonucleases
92. Select the correct statement: 3. DNA ligase
Human cell divide once approximately every 24 4. Endonucleases
1.
hours
Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm during G2 -
2.
phase
In the quiescent stage, cells remain metabolically
3.
inactive
During G1 - stage cell is metabolically active but does
4.
not grow

93. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by:

1. Alteration or mutation in a single gene.
2. Chromosomal gross structural changes.
3. Recombination between linked genes.
4. Jumping genes

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97. How many of the given statements are correct for
cyclostomes? Chemistry - Section A
All living members are ectoparasites on some 101. Metallic sodium is fused with organic compounds
I:
fishes. for testing nitrogen, sulphur, and halogens. The correct
They have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs of reason behind this is:
II:
gill slits for respiration. 1. To convert all compounds to their ionic form.
They have a sucking and circular mouth without 2. Sodium reduces the compounds.
III:
jaws. Sodium converts all compounds in their covalent
3.
IV: Their body has scales and paired fins. form.
V: Circulation is of open type. 4. None of the above.
Cyclostomes are fresh water animals but migrate
VI:
for spawning to marine water.
1. 3 102. Chloromethane on treatment with excess of
2. 4 ammonia yields mainly:
3. 5
4. 6

98. ADH: 1. N, N-dimethylmethanamine

facilitates water reabsorption from latter parts of the 2. N-methylmethanamine (CH 3 —NH—CH 3)
I: 3. Methanamine (CH 3NH 2)
tubule, thereby preventing diuresis.
II: is a potent vasodilator. 4. Mixture containing all these in equal proportion
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct 103. Methylamine reacts with HNO2 to form-
3. Both I and II are correct 1. CH3-O-N=O
4. Both I and II are incorrect 2. CH3-O-CH3
3. CH3-OH
99. The two cerebral hemispheres in the human brain are
4. CH3CHO
connected by a tract of nerve fibres called:
1. corpus striatum 2. corpus callosum
104. Proteins are found to have two different types of
3. corpus luteum 4. corpus unigemina secondary structures via α-helix and β-pleated sheet
structure. The α-helix structure of a protein is stabilized
by-
100. Parazoa is a taxon at the base of the phylogenetic 1. Peptide bonds
tree of the animal kingdom and includes the most 2. Van der waals forces
primitive forms, characterized by not having proper 3. Hydrogen bonds
tissues. The phylum/phyla included in this taxon will be: 4. Dipole-dipole interactions
I. Porifera II. Cnidaria III. Ctenophora
105.
1. Only I 2. Only II and III
3. Only I and II 4. I, II and III
[ ( 6 )
The degenerate orbitals of Cr H 2O ] 3 + are:

1. d z2 and d xz
2. d yz and d z2
3. d xz and d yz
4. d x 2 - y 2 and d xy

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106. On heating compound (A) gives a gas (B) which is 111. Identify A in the given reaction:
a constituent of air. This gas when treated with H2 in the
presence of a catalyst gives another gas (C) which is
basic in nature. (A) should not be-
1. (NH4)2Cr2O7
2. Pb(NO3)2
3. NaN3
4. NH4NO2

107. The total number of monohalogenated organic

products (excluded stereoisomer) in the following
reaction is- 1. 2.
1.H 2 / Ni
A (simplest optically active alkene) → Products
2.Cl 2 / hv
1. 5
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8 3. 4.
108. The number of chiral centers present in [B] is-

112. 1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A2B3 is

60% ionised. The boiling point of the solution at 1 atm
1. 5 2. 6 is-. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
3. 4 4. 2 [Given Kb for (H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1]
1. 373 K 2. 380 K
109. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 663 nm is 3. 375 K 4. 377 K
just sufficient to ionize the atom of metal A. The
ionization energy of metal A in kJ mol–1 is: (Rounded-
off to the nearest integer) 113. 1 gram of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with
[h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, c = 3.00 × 108 ms–1 , NA = 6.02 × excess HCl produces 0.01186 moles of CO2. The molar
1023 mol–1] mass of M2CO3 in g mol–1 is -
1. 189 2. 175 1. 118.6
3. 181 4. 185 2. 11.86
3. 88.6
4. 84.3
110. The atomic number of Unnilunium is-
114. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak base
1. 111 2. 110
(BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. The pH of their salt
3. 101 4. 107 (AB) solution is:
1. 7.0
2. 1.0
3. 7.2
4. 6.9

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115. Which of the following reactions is an example of a 120. Diamond and graphite both are made of carbon
redox reaction? atoms. Diamond is extremely hard whereas graphite is
1. XeF 6 + H 2O ⟶ XeOF 4 + 2HF soft. This is because :
2. XeF 6 + 2H 2O ⟶ XeO 2F 2 + 4HF Diamond has carbon-carbon double bond while
1.
3. XeF 4 + O 2F 2 ⟶ XeF 6 + O 2 graphite has carbon-carbon single bond
2. Diamond is ionic whereas graphite is covalent
4. XeF 2 + PF 5 ⟶ [XeF] + 1 + PF 6 −
Diamond has a strong covalent bond with regular
3.
tetrahedron pattern
116. The element having the highest boiling point among 4. Certain atoms in diamond are smaller in size
the following is-
1. He
2. Ne
121. An alkene on reductive ozonolysis gives 2-
3. Kr
molecules of CH2(CHO)2. The alkene is-
4. Xe
1. 2,4-Hexadiene
117. A reactant (A) forms two products : 2. 1,3-Cyclohexadiene
k1 3. 1,4-Cyclohexadiene
A → B, Activation Energy Ea 4. 1-Methyl-1, 3-cyclopentadiene
1
k2
122. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
A → C, Activation Energy Ea 2 N 2(g) + O 2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)
If Ea2 = 2 Ea1, then k1 and k2 are related as:
at temperature T is 4 × 10 − 4 . The value of Kc for the
1. k 2 = k 1e Ea 1 / RT reaction,
2. k 2 = k 1e Ea 2 / RT 1 1
NO(g) ⇌ 2 N 2(g) + 2 O 2(g)at the same temperature) is :
3. k 1 = k 2e Ea 1 / R T
1. 2.5 × 10 2
4. k 1 = 2k 2e Ea 2 / KT 2. 50
3. 4 × 10 − 4
118. In context with the transition elements, which of the 4. 0.02
following statements is incorrect?
In addition to the normal oxidation state, the zero 123. The standard emf of a cell, involving one electron
1. oxidation state is also shown by these elements in change is found to be 0.591 V at 25°C. The equilibrium
complexes constant of the reaction is (F=96,500 C mol-1):
In the highest oxidation states, the transition metal 1. 1.0×101
2.
shows basic character and forms cationic complexes
2. 1.0×105
In the highest oxidation states of the first five
3. transition elements (Sc to Mn), all the 4s and 3d 3. 1.0×1010
electrons are used for bonding 4. 1.0×1030
5
4. Once the d configuration is exceeded, the tendency124. (ΔH − ΔU) for the formation of carbon monoxide
to involve all the 3d electrons in bonding decreases
(CO) from its elements at 298 K is :
(R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)
-1
119. Among the ligands NH3, en, CN- and CO, the 1. -1238.78 J mol
correct order of their increasing field strength is: 2. 1238.78 J mol-1
1. CO < NH3 < en < CN- 3. -2477.57 J mol-1
4. 2477.57 J mol-1
2. NH3 < en < CN- < CO
3. CN- < NH3 < CO < en
4. en < CN- < NH3 < CO

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125. Identify Z in the given sequence: 129. For the reaction, 2A → B, rates= k[A]2. If the
∆ P 2O 5 H 2O / H +
concentration of reactant is doubled, then the:
CH3COONH4 → 𝑋 → 𝑌 → 𝑍 (a) rate of reaction will be doubled.
∆
rate constant will remain unchanged, however rate
1. CH3CH2CONH2
(b) of reaction is directly proportional to the rate
2. CH3CN constant.
3. CH3COOH rate constant will change since the rate of
4. (CH3CO)2O (c) reaction and rate constant are directly proportional
to each other.
126. The number of π-bonds in the formula given (d) rate of reaction will increase by four times.
below, NC—CH=CH—CN are:
1. 5 Identify the set of correct statements & choose the
2. 4 correct answer from the options given below:
3. 3
4. 2 1. (a) and (c) only 2. (a) and (b) only
3. (b) and (d) only 4. (c) and (d) only
127. In the following benzyl/allyl system

130. Which of the following has the maximum mass?

1. 0.1 gram molecule of oxygen.
2. 10 ml H 2O at STP

the decreasing order of inductive effect is- 3. 3.01 × 10 22 molecules of H 2SO 4

1. (CH3)3C- > (CH3)2CH- > CH3CH2- 4. 1 gram atom of hydrogen.
2. CH3CH2- >(CH3)2CH- > (CH3)3C-
131.
3. (CH3)2CH- > CH3CH2- > (CH3)3C-
Order is applicable only for elementary
4. (CH3)3C- > CH3CH2- > (CH3)2CH- Statement reactions whereas molecularity is
I: applicable for both elementary as well as
128. Which of the following has the highest negative complex reactions.
electron gain enthalpy? Statement Order of a reaction is an experimental
1. F II: quantity.
2. Cl In the light of the above statements, identify the correct
3. Br option:
4. I 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

132. Identify the incorrect statements, regarding the

molecule XeO4:
1. XeO4 molecule is square planar
2. There are four pπ – dπ bonds
3. There are four sp3 – p, σ bonds
4. XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral

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133. Arrange the following ligands in order of increasing 138. The electrode potential for Mg electrode varies
2− according to the equation
field strength: S 2 − , C O , NH , en, CO
2 4 3
o 0.059 1
2− 2− E Mg 2 + / Mg = E Mg 2 + / Mg − log
1. S < CO < NH 3 < en < C 2O 4 2 [ Mg 2 + ]
2− 2+
2. S 2 − < NH 3 < en < CO < C 2O 4 The graph of EMg2+ / Mg vs log [Mg ] among the
2− following is:
3. S 2 − < C 2O 4 < NH 3 < en < CO
2−
4. CO < C 2O 4 < NH 3 < en < S 2 −

134. The following conversion is known as:

1. 2.

1. Stephen reaction
2. Gattermann-Koch reaction
3. Etard reaction
4. Rosenmund reaction
3. 4.
135. The correct sequence given below contains neutral,
acidic, basic, and amphoteric oxide
each, respectively, i:s
1. NO, ZnO, CO2, CaO 2. ZnO, NO, CaO, CO2
3. NO, CO2, ZnO, CaO 4. NO, CO2, CaO, ZnO
139. CH 3CH 2OH can be converted into CH 3CHO by:
1. Catalytic hydrogenation

Chemistry - Section B 2. Treatment with LiAIH 4

3. Treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate
136. An anticancer agent among the following is: 4. Treatment with KMnO 4
[ (
1. mer - Co NH 3) 3Cl ] 140.
2. cis - [PtCl 2 (NH 3) 2 ]
Compound can be prepared by
3. cis - K 2 [Pt Cl 2Br 2 ] the reaction of-
1. Phenol and benzoic acid in the presence of NaOH
4. NH 2CoCl 4 2. Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of
pyridine
137. dπ - pπ bond is present in :- 3. Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of ZnCl 2
1. XeO 3 4. Phenol and benzaldehyde in the presence of palladium
2. POCl 3
141. For a first-order reaction A → B the reaction rate at
3. SO 3
a reactant concentration of 0.01M is found to be
4. All 2.0 × 10 − 5 mole L − 1 s − 1. The half-life period of the
reaction is:
1. 300s
2. 30s
3. 220s
4. 347s

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142. Sulphuric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide as 146. Five moles of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 298 K are
follows expanded into a vacuum till the volume doubles. The
H 2SO 4 + 2NaOH → Na 2SO 4 + 2H 2O work done is:
When 1L of 0.1 M sulphuric acid solution is allowed to 1. –RT ln V2/V1
react with 1 L of 0.1 M sodium hydroxide solution, the 2. CV(T2 – T1)
amount of sodium sulphate formed and its molarity in 3. zero
the solution obtained are respectively- 4. – RT(V2 – V1)
1. 0.1 M, 7.10 g
2. 7.10 g, 0.025 M 147. Among the following, the specie having unequal
3. 0.025 M, 3.55 g bond length is-
4. 3.55 g, 0.25 M
1. BF4- 2. XeF4
143. The diamagnetic species that has the shortest bond 3. SF4 4. SiF4
length among the following is-
1. N 22 -
2. O2 148. The product A in the following reaction is:
2-
3. C 2
2-
4. O 2

144. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an ionic

compound XY in water is four times that of a solution of
0.01 M BaCl2 in water. Assuming complete dissociation
of the given ionic compound in water, the concentration
of XY (in mol L–1 ) in solution is:
1. 2.
1. 4 × 10–4
2. 4 × 10–2
3. 16 × 10–4
4. 6 × 10–2

145.
When Cu (II) and sulphide ions are 3. 4.
Assertion (A): mixed, they react together extremely
quickly to give a solid.
The equilibrium constant of Cu2+(aq) +
Reason (R): S2- (aq) ⇋ CuS(s) is high because
the solubility product is low.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the explanation
1.
for (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4.
explanation for (A)

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ᵍɇɇῥＧᵏᶷᵏΐ
149. Use the provided information in the following
paper chromatogram. Physics - Section A
151. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis
is 1.5 kg-m2. Initially, the body is at rest. In order to
produce rotational kinetic energy of 1200 J, the angular
acceleration of 20 rad/s2 must be applied about the axis
for a duration of:
1. 5 s
2. 3 s
3. 2.5 s
4. 2 s
Figure: Paper chromatography for compounds A and B.
The Rf value of A is Y×10–1. The value of Y is- 152. In the given figure, the energy levels of hydrogen
1. 2 atom have been shown along with some transitions
2. 3 marked A, B, C, D and E. Transitions A and B represent,
3. 4 respectively:
4. 8

150. The correct structural formula of 5-nitro-3-

methoxy-3-methylhexanoyl chloride among the
following is-

1.

The ionization potential of hydrogen and second

2. 1.
member of Balmer series.
The first member of the Lyman series and the second
2.
member of the Paschen series.
The series limit of the Lyman series and the third
3.
member of the Balmer series.
3. The series limit of Lyman series and the second
4.
member of Paschen series.

4. 153. A resonance circuit having inductance and

resistance 2 × 10–4 H and 6.28 Ω respectively oscillates
at 10 MHz frequency. The value of quality factor of this
resonator is-
1. 1000
2. 1500
3. 2000
4. 2500

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154. A cube of metal is subjected to a hydrostatic 158. Equipotential surfaces corresponding to a uniform
pressure of 4 GPa. The percentage change in the volume electric field are:
of the cube is: (Given bulk modulus of metal, 1. straight lines
B = 8 × 10 10 Pa) 2. planar
1. 2.5 3. spherical
2. 5 4. ellipsoidal
3. 7.5
4. 10 159. Correct relation between magnetic field B,
magnetic intensity H, and intensity of magnetization I
155. Consider a two particle system with particles is:
having masses m1 and m2. If the first particle is pushed 1. B = μ 0(H + I)
towards the centre of mass through a distance d, by what 2. I = μ 0(H + B)
distance should be second particle be moved, so as to 3. H = μ 0(I + B)
keep the centre of mass at the same position?
m2
1. m d
(
4. B = 2H I + μ 0 )
1
m1 160. Two coils A and B are connected in series across a
2. m + m d 240 V, 50 Hz supply. The resistance of A is 5 Ω and the
1 2
m1 inductance of B is 0.02 H. The power consumed is 3 kW
3. m d and the power factor is 0.75. The impedance of the
2
circuit is:
4. d
1. 0.144 Ω
156. From spring, a body of mass 4 kg hangs and 2. 1.44 Ω
oscillates with a period 0.5 seconds. On the removal of 3. 14.4 Ω
4. 144 Ω
the body, the spring is shortened by: [ Take π 2 = 10 ]
1. 6.4 cm
161. Network shown in the diagram is part of an
2. 6.25 cm
electrical circuit. The current is 2 A and is decreasing at
3. 6.8 cm
the rate of 2 A/s, then VP - VQ equals:
4. 7.1 cm

157. What is the direction of electric field at point O as

shown in figure?
1. 2 V
2. -2 V
3. 4 V
4. -4 V

162. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying

on a table. Loop A carries a current that increases with
time. In response, the loop B:
1. Is attracted by loop A
2. Is repelled by loop A
1. positive x-axis
3. Remains stationary
2. negative x-axis
4. None of these
3. positive y-axis
4. negative y-axis

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ᵍɇɇῥＧᵏᶷᵏΐ
163. Figure shows a square loop of side 0.5 m and 166. Find the value of 'u' so that the ball reaches at point
resistance 10 Ω. The magnetic field has a magnitude B = B: (Take g = 10 m/s2)
1.0 T. The work done in pulling the loop out of the field
uniformly in 2.0 s is:

1. 3. 125 × 10 − 3J
2. 6. 25 × 10 − 4J
1. 20 m/s
3. 1. 25 × 10 − 2J
2. 40 m/s
4. 5. 0 × 10 − 4J
3. 15√2 m/s
164. A steady current I flows in a small square loop of 4. 50 m/s
wire of side L in a horizontal plane. The loop is now
folded about its middle such that half of its lies in a 167. Which of the following graphs correctly represents

( )
vertical plane. Let μ 1 and μ 2 (vectors) denote the dV
magnetic moment due to the current loop before and the variation of β = − dP / V with P for an ideal gas
after folding, respectively. Then:
at constant temperature?
| μ1 |
1. =1
| μ2 |
2. μ 1 and μ 2 are in the same direction 1. 2.

| μ1 |
3. = √2
| μ2 |
| μ1 | 1
4. =
| 2 | √2
μ 3. 4.

165. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations

is used for viewing through haze and fog?
1. Radio wave
2. Infrared wave 168. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms-2 and the
3. Microwave
4. Matter wave units of length and time are taken as kilometer and hour
respectively, the numerical value of the acceleration is:
1. 360000
2. 72000
3. 36000
4. 129600

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ᵍɇɇῥＧᵏᶷᵏΐ
169. As the speed of the electron increases, its de- 173. Which of the following is not an illustration of
Broglie wavelength: Newton's third law?
1. Decreases
2. Increase 1. Flight of a jet plane
3. Remains same A cricket player lowering his hands while catching a
4. Either (2) and (3) is possible 2.
cricket ball
3. Walking on the floor
170. An air column in a pipe that is closed at one end
will be in resonance with a vibrating tuning fork of 4. Rebounding of a rubber ball
frequency 330 Hz if the length of the column is: (Speed
of the sound in air is 330 m/s)
1. 50 cm 174. A ball is released from the top of a building 180 m
2. 75 cm high. It takes time t to reach the ground. With what
3. 150 cm speed should it be projected down so that it reaches the
5t
4. 100 cm ground in time 6 ?
171. A body cools from 85oC to 80oC in 10 minutes, 1. 50 ms-1
-1
when the temperature of the surrounding is 32.5oC. How 2. 61 ms
much time will it take to cool down by the same amount 3. 11 ms-1
(i.e. from 85oC to 80oC) if the temperature of the 4. 2 ms-1
surroundings is 57.5oC? (Assume that Newton's law of
cooling is valid) 175. The liquid reaches equilibrium as shown, in a
1. 20 min capillary tube of internal radius r. If the surface tension
2. 5 min of the liquid is T, the angle of contact θ and density of
20 liquid ρ, then the pressure difference between P and Q is:
3. 3 min
4. 40 min

172. For ideal diatomic gases at normal temperature,

Molar heat capacity at constant pressure

Statement I:
for all diatomic gases is the same.
The specific heat capacity at constant
Statement II: pressure of all diatomic ideal gases is the
same.

Choose the correct statement(s): 1. ( )

2T
r
cosθ

T
1. only (I) is correct 2. rcos θ
2. only (II) is correct 2T
3. both (I) and (II) are correct 3. rcos θ
4. none of them are correct
4. ( )
4T
r
cosθ

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ᵍɇɇῥＧᵏᶷᵏΐ
176. A ball is projected vertically up with an initial 180. A converging lens is used to focus light from a
velocity. Which of the following graphs represent the small bulb onto a book. The lens has a focal length of 10
KE of the ball? cm and is located 40 cm from the book. Determine the
distance of the bulb from the lens:
1. 8 cm 2. 20.3 cm
1. 2. 3. 13.3 cm 4. 16 cm

181. In gamma-ray emission from a nucleus:

3. 4. 1. only the proton number changes.

both the neutron number and the proton number
2.
change.
there is no change in the proton number and the
3.
neutron number.
177. A ball is dropped from a spacecraft revolving 4. only the neutron number changes.
around the earth at a height of 120 km. What will
happen to the ball?
182. For the given Zener circuit find the source voltage.
1. It will go very far in the space.
2. It will fall down on the earth gradually.
It will move with the same speed, tangentially to the
3.
spacecraft.
It will continue to move with the same speed along
4.
the original orbit of the spacecraft.

178. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest 1. 100 V

emits an α- particle. If the momentum of α- particle and 2. 150 V
daughter nucleus are pa and pd respectively, then- 3. 200 V
4. 250 V
1. pa < pd
2. pa = pd 183. In Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity at a
3. pa > pd point P on the screen is half the maximum intensity in
4. Mass of daughter nucleus is required the interference pattern. If the wavelength of light used
is λ and d is the distance between the slits, the angular
179. For an equilateral prism, it is observed that when a separation between point P and the centre of the screen
ray strikes grazingly at one face it emerges grazingly at is:
the other. Its refractive index will be:
√3
1. 2
()
λ
1. sin − 1 d

2.

3. 2
2

√3 ()λ
2. sin − 1 2d

4. data not sufficient

()λ
3. sin − 1 3d

()λ
4. sin − 1 4d

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ᵍɇɇῥＧᵏᶷᵏΐ
184. A cell of emf E and internal resistance 2r is 187. A small block starts slipping down from a point B
connected in series with an external resistance nr. The on an inclined plane AB, which is making an angle θ
ratio of the terminal potential difference to emf is: with the horizontal section. BC is smooth and the
1. (1/n) remaining section CA is rough with a coefficient of
2. 1/(n+2) friction μ. It is found that the block comes to rest as it
3. n/(n+2) reaches the bottom (point A) of the inclined plane. If BC
4. (n+2)/n = 2AC, the coefficient of friction is given by μ = ktanθ.
The value of k is:
185. The circuit represents a full wave bridge rectifier
when switch S is open. The output voltage (V 0) pattern
across R L when S is closed:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
1. 2.
188. Starting from the origin at time t = 0, with an
initial velocity 5ĵ ms − 1, a particle moves in the x-y
plane with a constant acceleration of 10î + 4ĵ ms − 2. At
3. 4. time t, its coordinates are (20 m, y 0 m). The value of t
is:
1. 2 s
2. 4 s
3. 6 s
Physics - Section B 4. 8 s
186. An α-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest
189. A body is moving in a low circular orbit about a
by a potential difference of 200 V. After this, their de-
planet of mass M and radius R. The radius of the orbit
Broglie wavelengths are λ α and λ p respectively. The
can be taken to be R itself. The ratio of the speed of this
λp
body in the orbit to the escape velocity from the planet
ratio λ is:
α is:
1. 3.8 2. 8 1. √2
3. 7.8 4. 2.8 1
2.
√2
3. 2
4. 1

190. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density =

19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid (density = 1.5
kg/m3), the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density
= 10.5 kg/m3) of the same size in the same liquid will
be:
1. 0.4 m/s
2. 0.133 m/s
3. 0.1 m/s
4. 0.2 m/s

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191. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a 195. A boy is standing on a rotating table with heavy
frequency of 2 Hz. The frequency with which its spheres in his extended hands. If he suddenly withdraws
potential energy oscillates is: his hands to his chest, the angular velocity of the table:
1. 4 Hz 1. becomes zero
2. 2 Hz 2. increases
3. 6 Hz 3. decreases
4. 8 Hz 4. remains unchanged

192. Which of these is not the property of a charged 196. A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude a,
conductor in electrostatic conditions? wavelength λ and frequency f is traveling on a stretched
string. The maximum speed of any point on the string is
v
1. Body of metal is equipotential. , where v is the speed of propagation of the wave. If
10
2. Field lines are perpendicular to the metal surface.
3. Electrostatic potential inside a metal body is zero. a = 10 3 m and v = 10 ms-1 , then λ and f are given by:
4. Electrostatic field inside metal is zero. 1. λ = π × 10 − 2 m
2. λ = 10 − 3 m
3. f = 10 − 3 / (2π) Hz
193. A battery having e.m.f. E is connected to a variable 4. f = 10 4 Hz
resistance R. Internal resistance of the battery is r. As we
increase R, the potential difference across the terminals 197. The current in the circuit shown in the figure
of the battery: considering the ideal diode is:

1. 20 A
2. 2 × 10 − 3A
3. 200 A
4. 2 × 10 − 4A

198. A rope of length 8 m and linear density 0.5 kg/m is

1. Increases lying lengthwise on a horizontal smooth floor. It is
2. Decreases pulled by a force of 12 N. The tension at the mid-point
3. First increase then decreases would be:
4. None of these 1. 12 N
2. 8 N
3. 6 N
194. Two protons enter a region of transverse magnetic 4. 4 N
field. What will be ratio of time period of revolution if
the ratio of energy is 2√2 : √3 ?
1. 2√2 : √3
2. √3 : 2√2
3. 3 : 8
4. 1 : 1

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 High Yield Test #8 (Level 1) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

ᵍɇɇῥＧᵏᶷᵏΐ
199. Seven resistors, each of value 5Ω, are connected as
shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance between
points A and B is:

1. 5Ω
2. 7Ω
3. 14Ω
4. 35Ω

200. The lowest possible temperature is:

1. 0 ∘ C 2. 0 ∘ F
3. − 173 ∘ C 4. 0 K

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