INTENSIVE FINAL COACHING IN SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH LEGAL

MEDICINE
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the correct answer.

1. It is an activity that collects facts to accomplish the three fold aims, i.e., to identify, to locate the guilty
party, and to provide evidence for his guilt.
A. investigation B. crime investigation
C. crime scene search D. criminal investigation
2. It is asking question to person who is believed to possess knowledge that is of official interest to the
investigator, and who is cooperative in the conduct of investigation.
A. investigation B. interview
C. intelligence D. information
3. It is the skillful questioning of persons who are uncooperative in the conduct of investigation or those who
reluctant to divulge information in his possession which are pertinent in the conduct of investigation.
A. interrogation B. questioning
C. all of these D. examination
4. It is the scientific examination of minute details of physical evidence, application of laboratory equipment
and methods of forensic science in the detection of crime.
A. forensic science B. criminalistics
C. instrumentation D. police science
5. It is the branch of forensic science which concerned with the recording, scientific examination, and
interpretation of the minute details to be found in physical evidence
A. criminalistics B. forensic science
C. instrumentation D. police science
6. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt. It is an
acknowledgment of a fact or circumstance from which guilt may be inferred.
A. confession B. acknowledgment
C. admission D. self-incrimination
7. It is the testimony of a witness reduced to writing under oath or affirmation, before a person empowered to
administer oaths, in answer to interrogatories and cross interrogations submitted by the party desiring the deposition
and the opposite party.
A. testimony B. deposition
C. affidavit D. statement
8. It the place where the essential ingredients of the criminal act took place, and this also includes the setting
of the crime and also the adjoining places of entry and exit of both offender and victim.
A. place of crime B. locale of crime
C. all of these D. crime scene
9. In this type of crime scene, one searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a quadrant. Depending on the
size of the area, it is divided into quadrants and then each quadrant is cut into another set of quadrants.
A. strip method B. spiral method
C. zone method D. wheel method
10. It is the most universally used and most adaptable method of crime scene recording, and it is applicable in
all types of crimes.
A. sketching B. note taking
C. all of these D. photography
11. Historically, the use of maps, models and sketches preceded the practice of __________ the crime scene,
and it has become an indispensable tool of the criminal investigator.
A. note taking B. sketching
C. video-recording D. photographing
12. It is made by the investigator at the crime scene. It needs not to be drawn to scale, but the proportions
should be approximated and the appropriate measurement of dimension shown.
A. projection sketch B. final sketch
C. rough sketch D. all of these
13. This type of sketch of the crime scene of a room is like drawing of a cardboard box whose edges have been
cut and the sides flattened, and it is also called, exploded sketch.
A. crime scene sketch B. cross-projection sketch
C. draft sketch D. plain sketch
14. It may be defined as an articles and material which are found in connection with an investigation and which
in establishing the identity of perpetrator or the circumstances which the crime was committed, or assist in the
discovery of facts.
A. physical evidence B. clue materials
C. minute objects D. minute details
15. This kind of evidence links the suspect to the crime scene or the offense, i.e., safe lining found in a
suspect’s shoe or the broken headlight glass found at the scene of hit-and-run.
A. material evidence B. circumstantial evidence
C. direct evidence D. associative evidence
16. This refers to the number of persons who handle the physical evidence between the time of commission of
the alleged offense and the ultimate disposition of the case should be kept to a minimum.

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 A. protecting evidence B. chain of custody
C. evidence preservation D. securing evidence
17. This refers to the offender’s pattern of committing a crime.
A. modus operandi B. motive & intent
C. profiling D. characteristics
18. It is a file of photograph of arrested individuals which usually includes full-face and mug shots along with
detailed physical description of subject persons.
A. roques gallery B. modus-operandi file
C. fingerprint file D. index card file
19. It is an investigative practice of placing the suspect within a group of people for the purpose of being
viewed by eyewitnesses.
A. police line-up B. identification parade
C. all of these D. none of these
20. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide, EXCEPT:
A. the accused killed a person without any justifying circumstances
B. the accused had the intention to kill which is presumed
C. the killing was not attended by any qualifying circumstances
D. the killing of the persons is neither parricide, murder nor infanticide
21. It is entitled as an “Act Defining Certain Rights of a Person Under Custodial Investigation, Prescribing
Penalties for the Violators Thereof, and for Other Purposes.”
A. RA 9262 B. RA 7438
C. RA 7659 D. RA 8553
22. It is hearsay evidence, and it is also known as an ante-mortem statement.
A. allegations of facts B. hearsay testimony
C. dying declaration D. material evidence
23. It is the unlawful killing of any person.
A. homicide (Generic Term) B. murder
C. parricide D. infanticide
24. As provided in the Revised Penal Code, robbery is divided into two different classifications, one is robbery
by the use of force upon things, and the other classification is:
A. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person
B. taking of personal property belonging to another
C. with intent to gain and to possess the property
D. pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
25. Evidence that can link the perpetrator to the crime scene or victim is of two kinds, the first is evidence
taken deliberately or accidentally from the crime scene, and the second is:
A. tracing evidence that lead to the identity of suspect
B. physical evidence brought to and left at the crime scene
C. circumstantial evidence to prove the commission of the crime
D. associative evidence found at the crime scene
26. It is otherwise known as the “The Anti-Rape Law of 1997.”
A. RA 7659 B. RA 8353
C. RA 9262 D. RA 8294
27. In bringing rape victim at the hospital, the procedure will accomplish two primary objectives in treating the
victim, one is to treat the victim with physical injury, and the other is:
A. to be immediately interviewed by the investigator
B. to collect evidence of investigative significance
C. to provide emergency medical attention
D. to undergo professional psychological counseling
28. During the conduct of special crime investigation, it becomes a widely used tool in determining the success
of criminal investigation.
A. proximity factors B. probability factors
C. propinquity factors D. solvability factors
29. It is the taking, with intent to gain, of a motor vehicle belonging to another, without the latter’s consent, or
by means of violence against of intimidation of persons, or by using force upon things.
A. carnapping B. motor vehicle theft
C. all of these D. joy riding
30. It is the taking of personal property belonging to another, and with intent to gain, by means of violence
against, or intimidation of any person, or using force upon things.
A. robbery B. theft
C. brigandage D. hijacking
31. It is a criminal act more particularly described as the unlawful taking and carrying away of a person by
force or fraud and against his or her will for purpose of extorting ransom.
A. kidnapping B. abduction
C. hostage taking D. illegal detention
32. It is money, price, or consideration paid or demanded for redemption of a captured person or persons, a
payment that releases from captivity.
A. ransom B. financial consideration

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 C. monetary consideration D. none of these
33. It shall mean any act of canvassing, enlisting, contracting, transporting, procuring workers, and promising
or advertising for employment abroad, whether for profit or not.
A. employment agencies B. illegal agencies
C. illegal recruiters D. illegal recruitment
34. It is the investigation of cases that are unique, and often require special training to fully understand their
broad significance.
A. robbery & theft investigation
B. rape & sex crimes investigation
C. homicide & murder investigation
D. special crime investigation
35. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wire Tapping Law.”
A. RA 4200 B. RA 4002
C. RA 2004 D. RA 4020
36. It is defined as the procedure for collecting, recording, organizing and preserving all various information
gathered in an investigation.
A. investigation B. trial preparation
C. case screening D. case management
37. In administrative case designations as considerations in case management, it means that all available leads
has been exhausted but the case has not been brought to a conclusion and investigative efforts may resume.
A. follow-up investigation B. suspended investigation
C. initial investigation D. none of these
38. It is a term used to describe the confiscation of assets, by the state, which are either, i.e., the proceeds
of crime or the instrumentalities of crime, and more recently, terrorism.
A. sequestration B. escheating
C. asset forfeiture D. all of these
39. This is an “Act Defining and Penalizing the Crime of Plunder.”
A. R.A. No. 7080 B. R.A. No. 7008
C. R.A. No. 8770 D. R.A. No. 7800
40. This is an “Act Defining the Crime of Money Laundering, Providing Penalties Therefore, and for Other
Purposes.”
A. R.A. No. 9610 B. R.A. No. 9160
C. R.A. No. 9106 D. R.A. No. 9061
41. It involves gathering and preparing the raw material for a court or hearing, and can include evidence
gathering, forensic investigation, private investigations, evidence analysis, and preparing witness testimony.
A. case management B. court preparation
C. trial preparation D. case preparation
42. These are properties for which ownership itself is a crime, e.g., illegal drugs, smuggled goods, and any
other properties subject of the offense.
A. contraband B. prohibited articles
B. illegal items D. assets & net worth
43. These crimes are often referred to as “__________,” because victims are unlikely to report the crime to the
police or law enforcement agencies, e.g., gambling, prostitution, and dangerous drugs.
A. violation of penal code B. violation of special laws
C. crimes against person D. victimless crimes
44. It is the observation of the intelligence collection agencies of its activities by the opposition for purposes of
determining whether they are under surveillance, casing or any other forms of collection of information.
A. technical surveillance B. counter-surveillance
C. moving surveillance D. counter-intelligence
45. This is an act or an instance of following up, as to further an end or review new developments of an
investigation earlier conducted, or it is a process of digging up the preliminary earlier conducted.
A. follow-up investigation B. continuing investigation
C. concluding investigation D. any of these
46. It is unlike the investigation of other types of crime in that it is proactive instead of reactive; and the law
enforcement does not anymore simply respond to the scene after the crime has been committed.
A. special crime investigation
B. investigation of organized crime
C. miscellaneous field investigation
D. crimes against person investigation
47. It is characterized as a “structured group of three or more persons existing for a period of time and acting in
concert with the aim of committing one or more serious crimes or offenses.
A. organized crime B. syndicated crime
C. notorious criminal D. transnational crime
48. This Act shall be known as the "Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008."
A. R.A. No. 9145 B. R.A. No. 9541
C. R.A. No. 9415 D. R.A. No. 9514
49. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. controlling B. abatement

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 C. fire fighting D. preventing
50. Passageway from one building to another or through or around a wall in approximately the same floor
level.
A. vertical exit B. diagonal exit
C. emergency exit D. horizontal exit
51. A piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an electrical system.
A. overloading B. octopus connection
C. jumper D. all of these
52. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume electrical current beyond
the designed capacity of the existing electrical system of as structures.
A. electrical failure B. overloading
C. load capacity D. short-circuiting
53. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building, structure or area with outlets
arranged in a systematic pattern which automatically discharges water when activated by heat or combustion
products from a fire.
A. sprinkler system B. wet pipe system
C. stand pipe system D. dry pipe system
54. A system of vertical pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be attached on each floor, including a
system by which water is made available to the outlets as needed.
A. fire control system B. fire hoses and boxes
C. standpipe system D. fire pipe system
55. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base to the top of
the building.
A. diagonal shaft B. vertical shaft
C. circular shaft D. horizontal shaft
56. A passage hall or antechamber between the outer doors and the interior parts of a house or building.
A. abatement B. shaft
C. vestibule D. jumper
57. It is a heat and light from rapid combination of oxygen and other materials, or simply means the active principle
of burning characterized by fuel, heat and oxygen.
A. light B. flame
C. smoke D. fire
58. This is done with the use of water, and the temperature of the substance is lowered below the burning point
because without the heat the fuel no longer has the conditions required to produce oxygen to sustain fire.
A. cooling B. quenching
C. all of these D. none of these
59. It is defined as the malicious, willful, intentional and felonious destructions of property by fire, and this is
the study of the causes is the subject of fire investigation.
A. destruction B. arson
C. explosion D. fire
60. The term describes the transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts, due this different
materials conduct heat at the different rate.
A. radiation B. convection
C. none of these D. conduction
61. It presupposes an understanding of the motivation behind the behavior of motorist, commuters, and pedestrians.
A. traffic education B. traffic engineering
C. traffic management D. traffic enforcement
62. This is otherwise known as “The Land Transportation Code of the Philippines, as Amended”.
A. R.A. No. 4361 B. R.A. No. 4136
C. R.A. No. 4631 D. R.A. No. 4163
63. These are marks left on the road by tires that are not free to rotate usually because brakes are applied
strongly enough to lock wheels.
A. ski-skid B. skid-marks
C. scuff marks D. yaw marks
64. It is a term commonly applied to any traffic accident in which a driver fails to comply with any of the laws
regarding stopping, giving aid, and revealing his identity after the accident.
A. reconstruction B. hit & run investigation
C. traffic investigation D. on-scene investigation
65. It is refers to any act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person, with or without his
knowledge by injecting, ingestion or other means or of committing any act of indispensable assistance to a person in
taking a dangerous drug to himself or herself.
A. administer B. taking
C. using D. introducing
66. It is a cluster of characteristic reaction and behavior of varying intensity, depending on the amount of drug
taken and length of time used which ensue upon abrupt cessation of drug upon the body has physical dependence.
A. rehabilitation of abuser B. treatment of abuser
C. withdrawal symptoms D. diagnosis of abuser

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67. It is the process that refers to all methods and techniques utilized to help an individual to overcome some
impairment.
A. rehabilitation B. treatment
C. withdrawal symptoms D. diagnosis of abuser
68. It is a necessary tool employed in building-up relevant evidence which is vital in the development of a drug
case.
A. illicit drug investigation
B. drug pushing investigation
C. illegal trade investigation
D. drug trafficking investigation
69. It is a state of psychic or physical dependence or both on a drug arising in a person following
administration of drug on a periodic or continuous basis.
A. drug dependence B. physical dependence
C. drug dependence D. psychological dependence
70. These are drugs capable of provoking sensation, thinking, self-awareness and emotion.
A. stimulants B. hallucinogens
C. narcotics D. depressants
71. It is any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and functioning of
living organism.
A. drug B. alcohol
C. substance D. chemicals
72. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity wickedness and corruption.
A. addiction B. vice
C. alcoholism D. gambling
73. Means any part of the plant of the species papaver somniferum L, including the seeds thereof.
A. opium poppy B. opium seeds
C. opium leaves D. opium straw
74. It is learning process that influences an individual emotionally, intellectually, and socially may result in the
modification of attitudes that influence behavior.
A. drug seminar B. drug symposium
C. drug education D. all of these
75. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds, and for Other
Purposes.
A. RA 9165 B. RA 1956
C. RA 9156 D. RA 1965
76. Any organized group of two (2) or more persons forming or joining together with the intention of
committing any offense prescribed by RA 9165.
A. drug syndicate B. syndicated crime group
C. drug traffickers D. organized crime group
77. An analytical test using a device, tool or equipment with a different chemical or physical principle that is
more specific.
A. confirmatory test B. screening test
C. drug test D. non of the above
78. Any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in the probability of the occurrence of fire,
or which may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with fire fighting operations and the safeguarding of life and
property.
A. fire trap B. fire hazard
C. fire danger D. fire door
79. It shall be known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.“
A. PD 1185 B. PD 1613
C. PD 1174 D. RA 3815
80. The fundamental responsibility of the officer-in-charge of protecting the crime scene is:
A. interrogating the witness, the victims and the suspects
B. engaging in the search for traces left by the criminals
C. removal of evidence which may be important investigated
D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical conditions as it was left by the
perpetrator
81. The team leader will mark an area in the form of a rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searchers begin by
turning and proceeding back along new lanes but parallel to the first movement. This search method is known as:
A. Strip method C. Spoke method
B. Grid method D. Spiral method
82. This is the gravitation of blood in the most dependent portion of the body thus producing reddish discoloration
of the area affected. It appears usually from three to six hours following death.
A. Rigor mortis C. Postmortem lividity
B. Cadaveric spasm D. State of shock
83. The system of searching a crime scene that is generally most effective is the ____.
A. Zone method C. Double-strip method
B. Wheel method D. Spiral method

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84. Bottles, envelopes, test tubes, pins, thumb tacks, carton boxes, paper bags, plastic zip bags, plastic bag
containers, etc. are used for:
A. Collection of evidence C. Preservation of evidence
B. Searching tools D. None of them
85. Each person who handles an item of evidence from the time of its discovery until presentation in court must take
certain safeguards. This safeguarding of the evidence from person to person is most accurately termed as:
A. Standards of comparison C. Chain of custody
B. Control of evidence D. Integrity of evidence
86. Any drug which sedates the central nervous system is referred to as:
A. Narcotic C. Medicine
B. Depressant D. Stimulant
87. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of the
commission of the criminal act itself.
A. Admission C. Confession
B. Deposition D. Accusation
88. Principle of science applied to law enforcement.
A. Instrumentation C. Forensics
B. Legal medicine D. Criminology
89. Articles and materials which are found in connection with the investigation and which aid in establishing the
identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances which the crime was committed or which, in general assist in the
prosecution of the criminal.
A. Tracing evidence C. Corpus delicti
B. Associative evidence D. Physical or material evidence
90. A compilation of photographs of known criminals utilized in investigation for identifying suspects in a crime.
A. Photographic file C. Album for criminals
B. Rogue’s gallery D. Cartographic sketch
91. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to avoid contamination of the specimen?
A. Formaldehyde C. Saline solution
B. Alcohol D. Distilled water
92. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each quadrant.
A. Zone method C. Strip method
B. Spiral method D. Wheel method
93. Heat transferred by direct contact from one body to another is known as:
A. Nuclear fission C. Convection
B. Conduction D. Radiation
94. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected so that water with
pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. Fire hose box C. Fire truck
B. Hose reel D. Fire hydrant
95. An art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt through
criminal proceeding.
A. Information C. Interrogation
B. Instrumentation D. Investigation
96. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the crime.
A. Motive C. Intent
B. Opportunity D. Deceit
97. ____ is heat transfer through air motion.
A. Convection C. Conduction
B. Radiation D. Combustion
98. What type of license has a validity of three years and can be used for driving as a means of livelihood?
A. Business License C. Commercial License
B. Entrepreneur License D. Professional License
99. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s habit and associate are required.
A. Surveillance C. Loose tail shadowing
B. Rough shadowing D. Close tail shadowing
100. What group of drugs is used medically as pain-killers?
A. Opiates C. Shabu
B. Track D. Coke
101. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “Watch out” C. “Keep to the right”
B. “Keep to the left” D. “Full stop”
102. Fires fueled by substances such as gasoline, grease, oil, or other volatile fluids are classified as what type of
fire?
A. Class A C. Class C
B. Class B D. Class D
103. Made by investigator at the crime scene. No scale, proportion ignored and everything is approximate.
A. Sketch C. Draft

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 B. Rough sketch D. Finished sketch
104. What mechanisms transfer heat from one body to another?
A. Confection, reflection, and refraction
B. Reflection, conduction, and radiation
C. Refraction, reflection, and convection
D. Conduction, convection, and radiation
105. Willful and malicious burning of a building constitutes the crime of ___.
A. Damage to property C. Arson
B. Malicious mischief D. Fire crime
106. Special crime investigation is more concerned on ____.
A. Associative evidence C. Tracing evidence
B. Testimonial evidence D. Physical evidence
107. A British geneticist who pioneered the DNA Testing and coined DNA fingerprinting, which led to the
development of such test.
A. Alec John Jeffreys C. Edward Henry
B. Rawson W. Rawson D. Dr. Henry Faulds
108. Can rigor mortis determine the time of death?
a. Yes b. No
c. Never d. Maybe
109. Most common form of asphyxia.
a. Strangulation b. hanging
c. lynching d. Garroting
110. A condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood has been reduced below working levels. (5x question)
a. Asphyxia b. homicide
c.syncope d. Coma
111. A wound produced by blunt object/instrument such as log and stone.
a. Punctured c. Lacerated
b. Incised d. Stab wound
112. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site of application of force.
a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury
b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury
113. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon, who performed the autopsy of Julius Caesar,
reporting that out of the twenty three stab wounds, only one penetrated the chest cavity between the first
and second rib which was Caesar’s proximate cause of death.
a. Imhotep b. Antistius
c. Paulus Zacchias d. San Juan de Bautista
114. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and in which it no longer responds to
mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins.
a. Livor mortis c. Stage of primary flaccidity
b. Rigor mortis d. Stage of secondary flaccidity
115. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as the first or earliest recorded medico – legal expert.
a. San Juan de Bautista c. Imhotep
b. Antistius d. Paulus Zacchias
116. Wound produced to man’s instinctive reaction of self – preservation to repel attacks or an aggressor.
a. Mutilated wound c. Self-inflicted wound
b. Defense wound d. patterned wound
117. Pulverization of the body into ashes with the use of intense heat.
a. Pounding c. Charring
b. Cremation d.Exhumation
118. Which of the following is not a valid statement regarding postmortem lividity?
a. It may prove positively that death has occurred
b. It indicates that death is due to violence
c. It indicates position of the body at the time of death
d. It may determine how long a person has been dead
119. In establishing the chain of custody of evidence gathered in a crime scene investigation, all evidence must
be packed and mark and should be stored in evidence room. This statement is:
a. True b. False c. Partially true d. Partially false
120. In photographing the crime scene what view will be the best show the existence of physical evidences?
a. Top view b. Mid-range shot c. Close-up d. General
121. The following are rules in taking crime scene photography: 1. Get complete series of picture; 2. Record all
data; 3. Pay attention to camera angles; 4. Do not disturb the scene. Arrange the rules in order.
a. 1,2,3 & 4 b. 4,1, 3 & 2 c. 2, 4, 3 & 1 d. 4, 2, 1 & 3
122. One of the practical ways to assure the complete coverage of the crime scene and to provide correct
perspective is to follow the:
a. Overview approach c. Four corner approach
b. Close-up approach d. Top view approach

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123. Immediately after hearing a loud shot coming from the bedroom, the parents after forcibly opening the
door, found their 25-year-old son dead with gunshot wound on the temple and with the butt of the fatal gun
held tightly on the palm of the right hand. Such condition of the hand is known as:
a. Rigor mortis c. Death stiffening
b. Algor mortis d. Cadavericc spasm
124. The following one kinds of death, EXCEPT:
a. Somatic or clinical death c. State of suspended animation
b. Cellular or molecular death d. Regulated death
125. In molecular or cellular death, there is death of individual cells in:
a. 3-6 minutes b. 20-30 minutes c. 3-6 hours d. 20-30 hours
126. In the strict sense of the word Forensic Medicine means:
a. Application of medicine to legal cases
b. Application of medical science to elucidate legal problems
c. Knowledge of law in relation to the practice of medicine
d. None of the above
127. Its medico-legal importance is to approximate the time of death:
a. Rigor mortis c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Muscular construction d. all of the above
128. The following body become rigid due to the construction of the muscles appearing three to six hours after
death:
a. Cadaveric Spasm c. Muscular construction
b. Heat Stiffening d. Rigor mortis
129. The most practical, useful and reliable means of preserving evidence is by:
a. Photography c. Description
b. Sketching d. Manikin method
130. The comprehensive study of the dead body performed by a trained physician employing recognized
procedures and techniques is known as:
a. Post-mortem examination c. Medical examination
b. Autopsy d. Post-mortem dissection
131. Which is true with regards to rate of putrefaction?
a. Infants decompose later than healthy adults
b. Skinny ones decomposed more rapidly than highly obese person
c. Bodies of persons whose cause of death is due to infection decomposed rapidly
d. When the disease condition is accompanied with anasarca, decomposition is slow
132. As a general rule, if there is no heart action within the following number of minutes, death is regarded as
certain:
a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes
133. The most prominent sign of death is:
a. Progressive fall of the body temperature
b. Cessation of heart action and circulation
c. Cessation of respiration
d. Insensibility of the body and loss of power to move
134. This is is the dark-blue discoloration on the part of the body when the blood after the death of the person
settles under its own weight into the lowest part of the body.
a. Rigor mortis b. Cadaveric spasm c. Post mortem lividity d. Putrefaction
135. Death maybe superficially simulated where the cardiac activity, breathing and functioning of the nervous
system may reach such a low level of activity that an observer maybe deceived into an assumption of
death. This is called
a. Brain death c. Suspended animation
b. Coma d. Simulated death
136. What is the color of the portion of the dead body especially the lowest part where the blood settled after
death?
a. Purple b. Dark blue c. Black d. Gray
137. The investigator found the deah body wounded on his head with a gun tighly clenched on his right hand.
a. The perpetrator, in order to hide the crime , placed said gun on the victim’s hand
b. This is one prima facie evidence of suicide
c. It indicates he fought with somebody
d. This could be an accident
138. The data concerning the evidence should be recorded in the investigator’s notebook. The following are
typical data for recording evidence, except
a. The exact position of the article of evidence with reference to the vehicle
b. Condition of the article, i.e., whether broken, dirty, soiled, bloodied, etc.
c. The identifying description and information as its probable source
d. The ranks of the investigators who witnessed when the pieces of evidence were found
139. It is the most important means of preserving the initial appearance of the crime scene and the evidentiary
materials.
a. Notes taking b. Sketching c. Eye witnesses’ accounts d. Photography

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140. This becomes important evidence in homicide assaults, robberies or other cases wherein they maybe
spilled.
a. Blood b. Clothing c. Fibers d. Fingernail scrapings
141. This evidence may also assist in determining persons who use narcotics or marijuana.
a. Blood b. Clothing c. Fibers d. Fingernail scrapings
142. To collect dried blood in _____________, cut out the stained area and bring to the laboratory.
a. Absorbent surface c. Non-absorbent surface
b. Clothing d. Wet clothing
143. In the case of _________, semen or blood could be obtained from either from the victim and suspect.
a. Homicide c. Rape and Sexual Assault
b. Theft and robbery d. Clothing Evidence
144. In case the fingernail is short-
a. Clip the nails and place it into paper bindles
b. Remove the remaining portion and compare to other nail fragments
c. Swab the fingernails and allow to air dry
d. Just leave it as it is and locate other samples
145. What tool is advisable in fingernail scraping procedure?
a. Toothpick c. Sharp edge of toothpick
b. Ice pick d. Flat edge of toothpick
146. This evidence is a means of determining the nature of the item worn, type of garment or fabric and thus the
manucfacturer.
a. Blood c. Fibers
b. Clothing d. Fingernail scrapping
147. In glass evidence, this is a fracture that forms in an approximately circular pattern around the point of
impact.
a. Glass Fractures c. Concetric Fractures
b. Radial Fractures d. Glass Breakage
148. Cross transfer of this evidence can happen between two (2) vehicles, a vehicle and an object, or two
objects.
a. Glass c. Wood
b. Paint d. Soil
149. It is frequently encountered in hit-and-run cases, on tools used by burglars, and occasionally in other types
if cases.
a. Glass c. Wood
b. Paint d. Soil
150. As evidence, it may be present as sawdust, chips, large pieces used as assault weapon, maybe present at
the crime scene, on the suspect clothing, or in a wound.
a. Glass c. Wood
b. Paint d. Soil
151. It is an impression, cut, scratch, gouge, abrasion made when a tool is brought into contact with an object.
a. Tool mark c. Firearm
b. Incediary material d. Bullet
152. These are samples that should always be collected at any crime scene whenever evidence is found.
a. Sample c. Comparison sample
b. Questioned sample d. Disputed sample
153. An objective of criminal investigation.
a. Determine the motive c. Rehabilitate criminals
b. Identify criminals d. Prevent crimes
154. It refers to the characteristics that is present even before the manufacture of a firearm.
a. Kalas teris teyks c. Class characteristics
b. Individual characteristics d. Unique characteristics
155. The investigators must collect sample of the evidence in a very generous manner considering the quantity
available and the amount needed for a laboratory test.
a. Standard or Known sample c. Integrity of sample
b. Adequate sample d. Sufficiency of sample
156. There is no difficulty in the collection of this type of evidence. The investigator simply removes the whole
object.
a. Easy evidence c. Fixed eveidence
b. Portable evidence d. Immovable evidence
157. He must be able to properly preserve the crime scene to get the maximum scientific data information that
will help in the successful prosecution of the perpetrator of the crime.
a. Investigator c. First responder
b. SOCO Team Leader d. Crime Scene Processor
158. It is used for identification of substances through flourescene.
a. Infrared c. Flourescent light
b. Ultra-violet light d. Incandecent light
159. It refers to the external examination to a dead body without incision being made.
a. Post-mortem examination c. Exhumation

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 b. Autopsy d. Macro-Etching
160. In photography, they are advisable to enhance their effects to the sense of the court.
a. General view c. Color Photography
b. Mid-range view d. Close Range Photography
161. It is the graphic representation of the scene of the crime with complete measurements of the relative
distances of relevant object and conditions.
a. Photograph c. Graph
b. Sketch d. Table
162. The crime scene processing activities include the following except:
a. Assessing c. Documenting
b. Observing d. Preserving
163. This is the most important element of crime scene processing.
a. Documentation c. Chain of Custody
b. Preservation d. Examination
164. The golden rule at the crime scene is, “never touch any object at the crime scene unless
a. Photographed, measured and evaluated by the chief investigator
b. Photographed, measured and submitted to the evidence custodian
c. Photographed, measured and indicated in the sketch
d. Photographed, drawn and shown to the chief of office
165. It is the number of persons who handled and possessed the pieces of evidence the moment they were
collected, marked and tagged, up to the time of the final disposition of the case.
a. Team of investigators c. Team of custodians
b. Chain of custody d. Officers-on-case
166. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
a. Strip method c. Spiral method
b. Wheel method d. Zone method
167. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and circling around a
central point.
a. Strip method c. Spiral method
b. Wheel method d. Zone method
168. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.
a. Convoy c. Tailing
b. Caravan d. Surveillance
169. Another term for tailing.
a. Impersonating c. Supporting
b. Backing d. Shadowing
170. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the information openly and
even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to remain
anonymous.
a. Witness c. Hostile witness
b. Expert witness d. Informant
171. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other people.
a. Bugging c. Mimicking
b. Dubbing d. Tapping
172. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows about the crime or
individuals involved in it.
a. Interrogation c. Interview
b. Rumor mongering d. Inquiry
173. It is a type of sketch where the scene of a room is like a drawing of a cardboard box in which the edges
have been cut and the sides flattened.
a. Projection sketched c. Rectangular coordinate method
b. Rough sketch d. Cross-projection method
174. It is a method of crime scene sketching wherein if the crime scene is a room, the objects can be mapped by
using two mutually perpendicular marks as the reference lines.
a. Projection method c. Surveying method
b. Polar coordinate method d. Rectangular coordinate method
175. It is a method of crime scene sketching wherein a point can be mapped by giving its distance from some
chosen origin and the direction angle which the distance line makes with a choses axis of reference. This
is particularly useful for outdoor scenes.
a. Projection method c. Polar coordinate method
b. Surveying method d. Rectangular coordinate method
176. It is the first step to be done upon arrival at the crime scene
a. Locate and identify the person who first notified the police
b. Record the time of arrival at the crime scene and the weather condition
c. Determine and record the names of those present at the crime scene
d. Permit only authorized persons to enter the crime scene
179. Why proper handling of physical evidence necessary?
a. It is a standard operating procedure

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 b. To obtain the maximum possible information and to prevent its exclusion as evidence in
court
c. To gain approval from your superiors and peers
d. In order that the physical evidence collected will reach laboratory in the same condition as when
found
180. When is the collection of physical evidence finished?
a. When it’s becoming dark especially if you don’t have lighting equipment
b. When you chief tells you so
c. After the search is completed, the rough sketch done and photograph taken
d. After doing a mental reconstruction of the crime and all eye witnesses had been interviewed
181. The following are principles in handling all types of physical evidence, except
a. The collected evidence should reach the laboratory as much as possible in the same condition as
when it was found
b. Keep all specimen in one big container to avoid misplacing other necessary pieces of
evidence
c. The chain of custody must be maintained
d. Submit a known or standard specimen for comparison
182. Why is important that the quantity of the collected specimen submitted to the crime laboratory must be
adequate?
a. Some roque policemen got some of the physical evidence
b. Good test results cannot be obtained from insufficient specimen
c. Physical evidence submitted will not be processed
d. You cannot file the case with an inadequate collected specimen
183. Why is it necessary for the investigator to mark or label each piece of evidence found at the crime scene?
a. For the pieces of evidence not to be lost or misplaced
b. For an easy and systematic storage by the evidence custodian
c. For positive identification, especially in court
d. For easy retrieval in case the investigator wants to see again said pieces of evidence
184. What is the reason you have to bring to the crime laboratory, along with the stained questioned material,
the unstained portion?
a. To prove that the stained questioned material is cut from the unstained material
b. The stained questioned material will not be processed an unstained portion is also submitted
c. The unstained portion sill serve as control in the analysis to be conducted
d. In some instances, it is the unstained portion that bears significant pieces of evidence than the
stained questioned material
185. How should an investigator collect and preserve seminal stains on clothing, bed sheets or blankets?
a. Carefully fold the stained material and place inside a plastic bag
b. Iron to dry the stained material before sending it to the laboratory
c. Cut only a small portion of the stained material, place inside a mailing envelope and send it to
the laboratory
d. Air dry the stained material, wrap with paper and package it inside a paper bag
186. How should hair strands be collected from a person?
a. Cut the hairs with scissors to avoid delay
b. Uproot the desired number of hairs one by one
c. Rub, massage or comb the hair using the fingers so that loose hair will fall onto a large
sheet of clean paper
d. Count the desired number of hairs needed and forcefully pull them out altogether from the head
of the person
187. A standard arrow to designate the north must be indicating to facilitate proper orientation. This is
known as:
a. Map c. Compass direction
b. Wind whirl d. Window
188. It is means sanctioned by the rules of court of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting
a matter of fact.
a. Associative Evidence c. Evidence
b. Tracing Evidence d. Physical Evidence
189. At least 4 or 5 samples is needed for accurate sizing in this type of physical evidence.
a. Shot and Powder Patterns c. Shotgun Shells
b. Shotgun Pellets and Wads d. Cartridge Cases
190. This evidence may sometimes has a great evidential value. It is very sensitive to sampling techniques.
The usual source is clothing, shoes and tools.
a. Wood c. Soil
b. Blood d. Incediary Material
191. This maybe important evidence in robberies and hit-and-run cases. It may be found as trace evidence in
clothing and shoes. It is usually examined to determine if both the evidence sample and the known standard
has the same physical properties and the trace elements as impurities.
a. Glass c. Fibers
b. Paint d. Clothing

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192. It is a condition whereby a woman is conscious of the nature of the sexual life but has not experienced
sexual intercourse.
a. Moral Virginity c. Demi-Virginity
b. Physical Virginity d. Virgo-Intacta
193. What literally means a “Truly Virgin Woman”?
a. Moral Virginity c. Demi-Virginity
b. Physical Virginity d. Virgo-Intacta
194. The woman maybe embraced, kissed, may allow her breast to be fondled, her private organ to held etc.,
the woman allow sexual intercourse but only “ inter femora or inter labia”. What kind of virginity is this?
a. Moral Virginity c. Demi-Virginity
b. Physical Virginity d. Virgo-Intacta
195. What becomes of the color of the areola during pregnancy?
a. Pinkish Red c. Dark Brown
b. Whitish Pink d. Brown
196. What kind of breast is observed wherein the skin of the breast is loose making of capable of swinging
in any direction. This commonly observe among parturient breast-feeding mothers?
a. Hemispherical Breast c. Infantile Breast
b. Conical Breast d. Pendulous Breast
197. What part is being considered in virginity wherein it is tight and the rugosities are sharp and
prominent. Insertion of a finger or an instrument may show certain degree of resistance.
a. Breast c. Fourchette
b. Vaginal Canal d. Hymen
198. What is that kind of hymen that forms a ring around the vaginal opening wherein as it hymen starts to
erode from sexual or other activity, the hymen becomes less ring like?
a. Annular c. Imperforate
b. Crescentic d. Cribriform
199. What is known as the laceration or rupture of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse?
a. Defloration c. Deflowering
b. Rape d. Discoloration
200. What is the logical assumption when a body is found with wounds which indicate that much blood has
been lost but the amount of blood appears to be less than what would normally expect to find?
a. The crime committed was murder
b. The suspect fled with the victim
c. The crime was committed elsewhere
d. The crime will never be solve

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