CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 01 Page 1

Sample Paper 01
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is a vast arid region in
the northwestern part of India. It spans across the states of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and
parts of Punjab and Haryana. The desert is characterized by its sandy terrain, extreme
temperatures, and sparse vegetation. Despite the harsh conditions, the Thar Desert is
home to a wide variety of flora and fauna, including camels, desert foxes, and several
species of snakes. The survival of life in this region is a testament to the adaptability of
both plants and animals to the desert’s extreme environment.
2. The people living in and around the Thar Desert have also learned to adapt to the
challenging conditions. The local communities depend on livestock farming and small-
scale agriculture, often utilizing innovative techniques to conserve water. Traditional
practices such as rainwater harvesting and the construction of stepwells have allowed
people to thrive despite the limited water resources. In addition to these agricultural
practices, the region has a rich cultural heritage, with vibrant festivals, music, and art
that reflect the resilience of its people.
3. The monsoon season brings much-needed relief to the Thar Desert, though the rains
are often unpredictable. The arrival of rain transforms the barren land, bringing a
temporary burst of greenery and a brief window for agricultural activities. However,
the monsoon can also lead to flash floods, which pose a threat to both the people and
their livelihoods. The people of the Thar have developed unique ways to cope with these
challenges, including the use of flood-resistant crops and constructing homes on higher
ground.
4. The Thar Desert’s ecosystem is fragile, with ongoing threats from human activity, such
as overgrazing and deforestation. However, conservation efforts have been initiated to

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 01 NODIA

protect this unique environment. Wildlife sanctuaries have been established to protect
endangered species like the Great Indian Bustard, and efforts are being made to restore
native vegetation. The delicate balance between human habitation and conservation in
the Thar is a constant challenge, requiring sustainable solutions to ensure the survival
of both the desert and its inhabitants.
5. Despite its arid conditions, the Thar Desert is a place of stunning beauty. The golden
sands stretch for miles, punctuated by the occasional green oasis or ancient fort. The
desert offers a unique landscape that has fascinated travelers for centuries. For those
willing to brave the heat, the Thar Desert provides an experience of isolation and
tranquility, where the vast open spaces create a sense of timelessness.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, how have plants and animals adapted to the extreme conditions
of the Thar Desert? 1

ii. How does the author describe the relationship between the people of the Thar Desert
and their environment, as mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “rainwater harvesting” in paragraph 2 refers to the practice of collecting and
storing rainwater for future use.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
Rainwater harvesting is essential in the Thar Desert because _____.
(A) it ensures a steady water supply in the arid conditions
(B) it prevents flooding during the monsoon season

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
The arrival of the monsoon in the Thar Desert brings _____.

v. Why does the writer emphasize the importance of conservation efforts in paragraph 4? 1
Because
(A) They help in maintaining the beauty of the desert.
(B) They protect endangered species and restore native vegetation.
(C) They ensure tourism continues to thrive.
(D) They encourage large-scale farming.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
Conservation efforts are being made to protect the Thar Desert and its ecosystem.

vii. In the line, ‘The arrival of rain transforms the barren land’ (Paragraph 3), what does
the word ‘transforms’ suggest about the effect of the monsoon on the desert? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 1 : 1

camels: animals :: stepwells: _____
(A) water (B) agriculture
(C) desert (D) people

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 01 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘The Thar Desert provides an experience of
isolation and tranquility’ in paragraph 5 uses descriptive language? 1
(A) It highlights the isolation of the desert.
(B) It describes the harsh weather of the desert.
(C) It explains how the Thar Desert has little wildlife.
(D) It focuses on the culture of the people living there.

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of balancing conservation efforts with the
needs of the local communities, as suggested in paragraph 4. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. A recent study revealed that less than 20% of teenagers report reading a book, magazine,
or newspaper daily for pleasure, while more than 80% say they use social media every
day. This shift in media consumption patterns is part of a larger trend in the digital age,
according to research published by the World Psychological Association.
2. Compared to previous generations, teens in the 2010s spend significantly more time
online and less time with traditional media, such as books and magazines. According
to the lead author of the book yGen, this displacement of traditional media by digital
platforms has transformed how young people engage with content.
3. A study analyzed data from a nationally representative sample of approximately 50,000
eighth, tenth, and twelfth-grade students. The survey, conducted from 1976 to 2016,
encompassed more than 1 million teenagers and examined their media consumption
habits over time.
4. The use of digital media increased substantially from 2006 to 2016. Among twelfth-
graders, internet use during leisure time doubled from one to two hours per day during
that period. Similarly, the study found a 75% increase in digital media use for tenth-
graders and a 68% increase for eighth-graders.
5. On average, twelfth-graders in the mid-2010s reported spending two hours a day texting,
just over two hours on the internet, and under two hours on social media—a total of
about six hours daily on digital media during their free time. This pattern was also
reflected among younger age groups, with tenth-graders spending about five hours and
eighth-graders about four hours per day on digital activities.
6. Time spent on digital media has significantly reduced the amount of time students spend
on traditional media, such as print books and newspapers. In the early 1990s, 33% of
tenth-graders read a newspaper almost daily. By 2016, this figure had dropped to 2%.
Similarly, 60% of twelfth-graders in the late 1970s read books or magazines regularly,
while only 16% did so by 2016.
7. Despite having the ability to access large amounts of information, today’s youth struggle
with focusing on long-form content, which affects their ability to grasp complex issues
and develop critical thinking skills. Their dependence on digital media often makes it
challenging to concentrate for extended periods.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 01 NODIA

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links the shift from traditional media to social media
among teens to highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To explore the decline in reading traditional media and the rise in digital media
consumption among teenagers.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why the increased use of digital media among teenagers is
seen as problematic. 2
iv. Paragraph 6 includes words – ‘traditional media’ and ‘digital media.’ 1
Classify the following sentences as ‘traditional media’ or ‘digital media’:
Sentence 1: Twelfth-graders spend about six hours per day on digital activities, including
texting and social media.
Sentence 2: In the early 1990s, a third of tenth-graders read a newspaper almost daily.

v. Read the following : 1

Arjun spends two hours each day texting and browsing the internet. Priya, his friend,
rarely reads a book and spends about five hours on social media every day. Meanwhile,
Manish, another friend, struggles to focus on complex issues due to his heavy reliance
on digital platforms.
Select the option that identifies the correct digital media habits of Arjun, Priya, and
Manish.
(A) Arjun – two hours texting; Priya – five hours on social media; Manish – difficulty
focusing on complex issues
(B) Arjun – reading books; Priya – two hours on social media; Manish – no internet use
(C) Arjun – texting; Priya – no internet use; Manish – reading newspapers
(D) Arjun – social media; Priya – newspapers; Manish – difficulty with short texts

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 01 Page 5

vi. Why is the decline in reading traditional media considered a significant issue, even
though teenagers are more informed than ever? 1

vii. Analyse how the shift to digital media has impacted students’ ability to focus and
develop critical thinking skills. (Paragraph 7) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Encourage more time spent on digital media
(B) Promote a balance between digital and traditional media consumption
(C) Limit social media usage to reduce screen time
(D) Increase access to social media for younger students

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4

A. Your school is organising a Bal Mela on ‘Children’s Day’ in the school. The primary
wing of the school is going to put up various stalls in the mela. Draft a notice giving
details of the mela as well as inviting the senior students to attend the same. Sign your
name as Rajesh Roshan, Secretary, Cultural Society.


O
B. As the librarian of your school, write a notice in about 50 words informing the students
of the penalty for losing or damaging the books issued to them.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4
A. You are going to open a confectionery store at Sipri Road, Jhansi, and want to invite
your friends and the people of your locality on its inaugural ceremony. Draft a suitable
invitation in 50 words.


O
B. You are Anita/Rajnish. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your friend’s
sister during summer vacation. Respond to the invitation accepting the invitation.

5. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in 120-150 words. 1#5 = 5
A. Meera Ranjan is a resident of Kerala. She writes a letter to the editor of a local newspaper
giving her strong views on the disadvantages of setting up a chemical factory in your
area and makes an appeal to the central government to reconsider its decision, as it will
worsen the environment of the city. Add your own ideas and write this letter in 120-150
words.


O
B. You saw an advertisement in a daily newspaper for the post of a Sales Executive in a
reputable MNC. Write a letter with bio-data in 120-150 words to the HR Manager, Goel
Sons Ltd, Vinod Nagar, Delhi, applying for the post advertised. You are Rani/Rajesh.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 02 Page 1

Sample Paper 02
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. The human brain is one of the most intricate and powerful organs in the body, containing
approximately 86 billion neurons. These neurons form complex networks through which
they communicate using electrical impulses. The cerebral cortex is responsible for higher
cognitive functions such as memory, reasoning, and problem-solving. Meanwhile, the
cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement and balance, while the brainstem controls
essential functions like breathing and heart rate. Each region of the brain plays a distinct
role, allowing the body to function properly.
2. The brain, despite being well-protected by the skull and cerebrospinal fluid, is still
susceptible to injuries and diseases. Traumatic brain injuries (TBIs) can result from
accidents, leading to anything from mild concussions to life-threatening damage. Stroke,
caused by interrupted blood flow to the brain, can result in permanent impairments,
depending on the area affected. Neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer’s and
Parkinson’s further complicate the brain’s health by causing gradual loss of neurons,
which results in cognitive decline and motor dysfunction.
3. One of the brain’s most fascinating characteristics is its plasticity, or the ability to change
and adapt. Neuroplasticity refers to the brain’s capacity to reorganize itself in response
to new experiences, learning, or injury. For example, after a stroke, some parts of the
brain can take over functions that were lost due to damage. This capacity for adaptation
allows humans to learn new skills, retain memories, and recover from injuries.
4. Advances in neuroscience have been pivotal in understanding how the brain works.
Techniques such as functional MRI (fMRI) and PET scans allow researchers to visualize
brain activity and understand how different areas are involved in tasks like language,
emotion, and movement. Additionally, researchers are exploring ways to enhance brain

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 02 NODIA

health through diet, exercise, and mental stimulation, with the goal of preventing
cognitive decline and promoting recovery after injuries.
5. As research continues, the mysteries of the brain, such as how consciousness arises or
how memory is stored, remain largely unsolved. However, ongoing studies in neuroscience
offer hope for developing new treatments for brain-related diseases and injuries. The
future of brain research holds great promise for improving our understanding of this
remarkable organ.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. According to paragraph 1, what role does the cerebral cortex play in brain function? 1

ii. How does the author describe the brain’s vulnerability to injury, as mentioned in
paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “neuroplasticity” in paragraph 3 refers to the brain’s ability to change and
adapt.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
Neuroplasticity is important because _____.
(A) it allows the brain to recover from injury and adapt to new experiences.
(B) it prevents all neurodegenerative diseases from progressing.

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
Neuroplasticity is demonstrated when _____.
v. Why does the writer emphasize brain imaging techniques in paragraph 4? 1
Because
(A) They allow researchers to observe brain activity in real-time.
(B) They help cure diseases like Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s.
(C) They provide immediate treatments for traumatic brain injuries.
(D) They make surgery safer.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
Brain imaging techniques have significantly advanced our understanding of brain
functions.

vii. In the line, ‘The brain’s plasticity allows it to reorganize itself’ (Paragraph 3), what does
the word ‘reorganize’ suggest about the brain’s response to injury? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 1 : 1

neurons: brain :: cells: _____
(A) blood (B) muscles
(C) tissues (D) organs
ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘The future of brain research holds great
promise’ in paragraph 5 uses descriptive language? 1
(A) It highlights the potential breakthroughs in neuroscience.
(B) It explains the limitations of current brain research.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 02 Page 3

(C) It describes the complexity of brain diseases.

(D) It focuses on the brain’s vulnerability to injury.

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of enhancing brain health through diet, exercise,
and mental stimulation, as suggested in paragraph 4. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. The Municipal Corporation of Gurugram recently admitted to the National Green
Tribunal that untreated sewage mixes with treated wastewater as it flows into the
Yamuna. This is not unique to Delhi, as 80% of India’s surface water is estimated to be
contaminated, largely from untreated sewage.
2. The onset of the monsoon worsens water contamination. Reports of water-borne diseases
such as diarrhoea and cholera increase during this time as broken pipes and flooding allow
sewage to mix with drinking water in cities like Delhi, Pune, Varanasi, and Chennai.
3. According to a 2009 Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) report, India’s major
cities and towns generate more than 38 billion litres of sewage daily, yet only 30%
is collected and less than 20% treated due to limited treatment capacity. The rest is
discharged into water bodies untreated.
4. A forthcoming report from WaterAid India reveals that 17 million urban households
lack sanitation facilities. Of those with sanitation, only 32% are connected to a sewage
system. Additionally, more than 9 lakh toilets directly drain into open water bodies, and
over 12% of urban households practice open defecation.
5. Many septic tanks are left uncleaned for years, causing fecal sludge to leak into
groundwater. When these tanks are finally cleaned, the waste is dumped into fields and
water bodies, worsening water contamination.
6. The WaterAid report details how much wastewater is left untreated in cities. Delhi
treats only 61% of the 4,346 million litres of wastewater it generates. In Maharashtra,
class I cities treat less than half of their total wastewater, with statistics for class II cities
being far worse, as shown in the accompanying chart.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 02 NODIA

7. Despite the introduction of the National Urban Sanitation Policy (2008) and substantial
government investment in sewage infrastructure, the problem has only worsened in the
past five years. WaterAid recommends decentralized sewage treatment plants and public
promotion campaigns to address the crisis.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. Complete the following suitably. 1
In the introduction, the researcher links untreated sewage in urban areas with water
contamination to highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To investigate the impact of untreated sewage on water bodies in India.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why decentralized sewage treatment is considered an
important solution, based on the passage. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘sewage’ and ‘treatment capacity.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘sewage’ or ‘treatment capacity’:
Sentence 1: India’s major cities produce over 38 billion litres of wastewater every day.
Sentence 2: Limited infrastructure means only 20% of this sewage is treated.

v. Read the following : 1

Ravi lives in Delhi, where only 61% of wastewater is treated, while Priya, who lives
in Maharashtra, faces worse conditions as less than half of the wastewater in her city
is treated. Arjun, in Uttar Pradesh, is impacted by untreated wastewater mixing with
surface water.
Select the option that identifies the correct wastewater management issues faced by
Ravi, Priya, and Arjun.
(A) Ravi – 61% treated; Priya – less than half treated; Arjun – untreated wastewater
(B) Ravi – less than half treated; Priya – 61% treated; Arjun – fully treated wastewater
(C) Ravi – fully treated wastewater; Priya – untreated wastewater; Arjun – 61% treated
(D) Ravi – untreated wastewater; Priya – fully treated; Arjun – 61% treated

vi. Although sewage treatment infrastructure exists, why is untreated sewage still a major
problem in urban areas? 1
vii. Analyse how broken sewage systems contribute to groundwater contamination.
(Paragraph 5) 2
viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Promote the use of septic tanks
(B) Increase water consumption to clean surface water
(C) Implement decentralized sewage treatment plants
(D) Encourage the construction of more dams

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 03 Page 1

Sample Paper 03
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12

1. The Rann of Kutch, located in Gujarat, is one of the largest salt deserts in the world.
It stretches over thousands of square kilometers, its flat, white expanse shimmering
under the intense sunlight during the day. As far as the eye can see, the barren land
appears almost otherworldly, with the horizon blending into the sky. Despite the harsh
environment, the Rann of Kutch is a place of quiet beauty, where the vast emptiness
holds a certain allure. Walking across the cracked earth, visitors feel a sense of isolation,
as if they have stepped into another world.
2. During the winter months, the Rann comes alive with the Rann Utsav, a vibrant festival
celebrating the rich culture and heritage of the Kutch region. Colorful tents dot the
landscape, offering visitors a taste of traditional crafts, music, and dance. The sound
of folk instruments fills the air, and local artisans display their handmade goods, from
intricate embroidery to pottery. The festival, held under the full moon, attracts tourists
from all over India and the world, who come to experience the magic of the salt desert
under the moonlight.
3. The Rann is not only known for its cultural significance but also for its unique wildlife.
Flamingos, wild asses, and other migratory birds flock to the region during the cooler
months, taking refuge in the wetlands that form on the edges of the desert. The nearby
Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary protects these animals, offering visitors a chance to
see rare species that thrive in this harsh landscape. The presence of wildlife in such an
extreme environment adds to the mystique of the Rann.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 03 NODIA

4. As dusk falls, the Rann undergoes a transformation. The sun sets, casting a warm
orange glow over the salt flats, and the cool evening breeze begins to blow. The desert,
which was once scorching hot, now feels pleasantly cool. The sky changes color, from
bright blue to deep purple, and the first stars begin to appear, creating a breathtaking
view that feels almost surreal.
5. The Rann of Kutch is not just a desert—it is a place of contrasts, where extreme heat
meets cold nights, and silence is broken by the vibrant celebrations of the local people.
For those who visit, it offers a rare glimpse into a world where nature and culture exist
in perfect harmony.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, what is unique about the Rann of Kutch’s appearance during the
day? 1

ii. How does the Rann Utsav bring the salt desert to life, as mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “the Rann of Kutch is a place of contrasts” in paragraph 5 suggests that the
desert is full of opposing features.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The Rann is described as a place of contrasts because _____.
(A) it shifts from intense heat during the day to cool nights
(B) the wildlife disappears during the Utsav

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
The Rann is home to unique wildlife, including _____.

v. Why does the writer mention the change in temperature as dusk falls in paragraph 4? 1
Because
(A) It highlights the extreme conditions that make the Rann an unusual desert.
(B) It shows how the desert is uninhabitable.
(C) It explains why people visit the Rann only in the evening.
(D) It highlights the difficulty of travel during the day.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 3, to support the following : 1
The Rann of Kutch supports a diverse range of wildlife despite its harsh environment.

vii. In the line, ‘the sky changes color, from bright blue to deep purple’ (Paragraph 4), what
does the changing color of the sky suggest about the mood of the evening? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 2 : 1

artisans: crafts :: musicians: _____
(A) pottery (B) instruments
(C) embroidery (D) dance

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 03 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘the Rann of Kutch offers a rare glimpse into a
world where nature and culture exist in perfect harmony’ in paragraph 5 uses descriptive
language? 1
(A) It emphasizes the peaceful coexistence of wildlife and local culture.
(B) It explains why people visit the Rann during the festival.
(C) It compares the cultural aspects of the Rann to the weather.
(D) It describes the climate and landscape of the Rann.

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of preserving the Rann of Kutch, as suggested
in paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Deforestation is one of the leading causes of environmental degradation, affecting both
biodiversity and climate change. As forests are cleared for agriculture, urban development,
and logging, the world faces severe consequences, including the loss of species and the
disruption of ecosystems. Over 3.1 million square kilometers of forest have been lost
since 1990.
2. Data from the World Resources Institute shows that over 18 million hectares of forests
are lost each year, contributing to approximately 15% of global CO2 emissions. Tropical
deforestation, especially in the Amazon, results in the extinction of 13% of species.
Forests act as crucial carbon sinks, absorbing 2.6 billion metric tons of CO2 annually,
helping to mitigate global warming.
3. The study also reveals that 80% of global deforestation is driven by agricultural
expansion. This includes crops like soy, palm oil, and areas for livestock grazing. The
deforestation rate in the Amazon alone has surged by 9.5% annually in recent years. In
addition, logging and infrastructure contribute to the remaining 20% of forest loss. These
activities increase CO2 emissions and affect rainfall patterns, leading to unpredictable
climate changes.
4. Deforestation also leads to soil erosion, reducing the fertility of the land. The study
highlights that 24 billion tons of fertile soil are lost annually due to deforestation and
unsustainable farming practices. This contributes to desertification, which affects 40%
of the world’s land area, particularly in Africa and Asia. As more forests are cleared, the
likelihood of land degradation increases.
5. Efforts to combat deforestation include reforestation, sustainable farming, and stricter
laws. Reforestation can sequester up to 10% of global CO2 emissions annually. Brazil’s
plan to restore 12 million hectares of land by 2030 aims to reverse some of the damage
caused by deforestation.
6. This study emphasizes the urgent need for global cooperation to combat deforestation.
By addressing the root causes—agriculture, illegal logging, and poor land management—
the world can reduce deforestation, preserve biodiversity, and mitigate the effects of
climate change.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 03 NODIA

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links deforestation with environmental degradation
to highlight __________.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To explore the causes of deforestation and its global environmental impacts.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why agriculture was included as a focus in the study on
deforestation. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘carbon sinks’ and ‘soil erosion.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘carbon sinks’ or ‘soil erosion’:
Sentence 1: Forests absorb CO2, helping to regulate atmospheric carbon levels.
Sentence 2: When trees are removed, the soil is exposed to wind and water, which
removes topsoil and decreases land fertility.

v. Read the following : 1

Ravi works on a palm oil plantation where forests have been cleared to make room for
crops. Meanwhile, Mohan lives in a mountainous region where heavy rains have caused
soil erosion due to deforestation.
Select the option that identifies the correct environmental challenges faced by Ravi and
Mohan.
(A) Ravi – agriculture-driven deforestation; Mohan – soil erosion
(B) Ravi – biodiversity loss; Mohan – carbon emissions
(C) Ravi – desertification; Mohan – water shortage
(D) Ravi – soil erosion; Mohan – deforestation

vi. Although both agriculture and logging contribute to deforestation, why is agriculture
the largest driver? 1

vii. Analyse how reforestation efforts can help reduce CO2 emissions and support soil fertility.
(Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Promote agricultural expansion to increase food production
(B) Preserve biodiversity and mitigate climate change through sustainable practices
(C) Prioritize industrial development over environmental concerns
(D) Reduce soil erosion without addressing other factors

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 04 Page 1

Sample Paper 04
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. The vast Sundarbans, a sprawling delta region in the southern part of West Bengal, is
one of the most unique and biodiverse areas in the world. Known for its dense mangrove
forests, the Sundarbans is home to the endangered Bengal tiger and a wide variety of
wildlife, including spotted deer, crocodiles, and rare bird species. The intricate network
of tidal waterways, islands, and mudflats creates an ecosystem that is both fragile and
resilient. The air is thick with humidity, and the salty smell of the ocean mixes with the
earthy scent of the mangroves, creating a distinctive atmosphere that reflects the raw
beauty of the region.
2. The Sundarbans is not only a haven for wildlife but also a lifeline for the communities
that live along its edges. The people of the Sundarbans rely on the forest for their
livelihoods, collecting honey, fishing, and gathering wood to meet their daily needs. Life
in the Sundarbans is tough, with unpredictable weather patterns, rising sea levels, and
the constant threat of cyclones. Despite these challenges, the people have adapted to
their environment, learning to live in harmony with the forest and its wildlife.
3. Every year, during the monsoon season, the rivers swell, and large portions of the land
become submerged. The sound of the rain hitting the leaves of the mangroves is a steady
rhythm that echoes through the forest. Boats become the primary mode of transport,
navigating the narrow, waterlogged paths that crisscross the forest. The monsoon brings
with it both blessings and challenges: while the rains nourish the mangroves and support
the ecosystem, they also cause flooding that threatens homes and crops.
4. The Sundarbans is not just a natural wonder, but a reminder of the delicate balance
between man and nature. The mangroves act as a natural buffer, protecting the inland

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 04 NODIA

from storms and cyclones. Without the forest, the communities would be far more
vulnerable to the ravages of nature. Conservation efforts are underway to protect this
vital region, ensuring that both the environment and the people who depend on it can
continue to thrive.
5. To visit the Sundarbans is to step into a world where nature reigns supreme. The interplay
of water, land, and forest creates a landscape unlike any other, where survival depends
on respecting the delicate balance of the ecosystem. For those who make the journey, the
Sundarbans offers a glimpse of a world that is both beautiful and unforgiving.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, what makes the Sundarbans ecosystem both fragile and
resilient? 1

ii. How does the author describe the relationship between the people of the Sundarbans
and the forest, as mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “a lifeline for the communities” in paragraph 2 suggests that the forest is
essential for the survival of the people living nearby.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The Sundarbans is a lifeline because _____.
(A) it provides resources like honey, fish, and wood for the local people
(B) it is a tourist destination that supports the local economy

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
The monsoon season in the Sundarbans brings _____.

v. Why does the writer emphasize the importance of mangroves in paragraph 4? 1

Because
(A) Mangroves help prevent the spread of diseases in the region.
(B) They act as a buffer, protecting communities from storms and cyclones.
(C) Mangroves are used as a resource for building materials.
(D) They support the tourism industry in the region.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
Conservation efforts are being made to protect the Sundarbans and its ecosystem.

vii. In the line, ‘The sound of the rain hitting the leaves of the mangroves is a steady rhythm’
(Paragraph 3), what does the phrase ‘steady rhythm’ suggest about the atmosphere
during the monsoon season? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 1 : 1

tigers: wildlife :: mangroves: _____
(A) sea (B) rivers
(C) forest (D) storms

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 04 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘The Sundarbans offers a glimpse of a world that
is both beautiful and unforgiving’ in paragraph 5 uses descriptive language? 1
(A) It highlights the importance of tourism in the region.
(B) It describes the harsh yet stunning natural environment of the Sundarbans.
(C) It explains how the Sundarbans is easy to navigate.
(D) It focuses on the weather patterns in the Sundarbans.

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of balancing conservation efforts with the
needs of the local communities, as suggested in paragraph 4. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. A large number of citizens suffer from diseases linked to tobacco addiction. In a recent
check-up camp organized by the Cancer Patients Aid Association (CPAA), 830 street
children were examined, revealing a troubling picture:
All boys, young and old, smoked ganja.
Girls consumed supari or burnt tobacco powder.
Children also inhaled white ink or erasing fluids to get a ‘high’.
These substances are legal and cost only `2. This trend is seen across all sections of
society, with tobacco use rampant among higher-income children as well.
2. According to CPAA officials, the consumption of gutkha has increased significantly
in recent years. The absence of restrictions on advertising allows gutkha companies to
sponsor festivals and display large ads.
3. Over 50% of the people screened in the camp were addicted to tobacco. The most
common forms of use were gutkha and chewing tobacco, with some people consuming
tobacco up to 22 times a day. Worldwide, 4 million people die each year from tobacco-
related causes. By 2030, this figure is projected to rise to 10 million annually due to
aggressive tobacco promotion.
4. Despite the knowledge that tobacco harms both health and economies, many governments
are reluctant or unable to introduce strong legislation to control its use.
5. More young people are being drawn into tobacco use through deceptive advertising.
Although the tobacco industry claims individuals make informed choices, the reality is
that most youths make uninformed decisions when it comes to consuming tobacco.
6. The tobacco industry masks the harmful effects of tobacco by promoting it as key to a
happy, social life.
7. According to a CPAA survey:
Children as young as 7-8 smoke bidis, and the youngest smoker was 6 years old.
87 children had already developed pre-cancerous lesions.
Over 50% of people screened were addicted to tobacco.
4 million people die annually from tobacco-related causes, a figure expected to reach 10
million by 2030.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 04 NODIA

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1
In the introduction, the researcher links tobacco addiction with its widespread use across
different income groups to highlight _____.
ii. What would the following be classified as? 1
To investigate the rise in tobacco consumption among children and its long-term effects.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why advertising is a focus in the study on tobacco use. 2
iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘tobacco addiction’ and ‘deceptive advertising.’ 1
Classify the following sentences as ‘tobacco addiction’ or ‘deceptive advertising’:
Sentence 1: People consume gutkha up to 22 times a day, leading to severe addiction.
Sentence 2: Tobacco companies sponsor large festivals to promote their products.
v. Read the following : 1
Ravi regularly consumes gutkha, even though he is aware of its harmful effects. Priya,
his friend, started smoking bidis to fit in with her peers. Anil, another friend, developed
pre-cancerous lesions due to his long-term tobacco use.
Select the option that identifies the correct situations Ravi, Priya, and Anil face.
(A) Ravi – gutkha; Priya – bidis; Anil – pre-cancerous lesions
(B) Ravi – erasing fluids; Priya – gutkha; Anil – social pressure
(C) Ravi – bidis; Priya – white ink; Anil – tobacco advertising
(D) Ravi – gutkha; Priya – erasing fluids; Anil – tobacco addiction

vi. Why is the projected rise in deaths from tobacco-related causes considered alarming,
even though governments are aware of the risks? 1
vii. Analyse how misleading advertising contributes to the increasing number of young
tobacco users. (Paragraph 5) 2
viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Strengthen tobacco control through legislation
(B) Increase tobacco production to meet demand
(C) Promote traditional tobacco use in rural areas
(D) Support the tobacco industry through advertising

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 05 Page 1

Sample Paper 05
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. The coastal town of Clearwater was famous for its peaceful beaches and calm atmosphere.
The ocean stretched far into the distance, glittering under the warm sunlight. Gentle
waves rolled onto the shore, and the sound of the sea created a soothing rhythm. By the
docks, fishermen quietly mended their nets, getting ready for the next day’s work. The
fresh, salty breeze reminded everyone of the ocean’s ever-present influence on the town’s
way of life. Tourists often came to Clearwater to enjoy its beauty, but for the locals, the
sea was not just a scenic view—it was a part of their everyday life and livelihood.
2. Clearwater was not just known for its natural beauty; it also had a rich history. One
of the most famous landmarks was the old lighthouse, standing proudly at the edge
of the town. Built more than a hundred years ago, it had once guided ships safely to
the harbor when sailors depended on its light to avoid dangerous rocks. Over time,
modern technology replaced the lighthouse’s role, but it remained a symbol of the
town’s resilience. The lighthouse represented the community’s ability to adapt while
still holding on to their past. Today, it served as a historical site, attracting visitors who
marveled at its enduring presence.
3. The heart of Clearwater was its bustling marketplace, where the energy of the town
came alive. Fishermen sold their daily catch, while farmers offered fresh produce, and
artisans displayed handmade goods. The marketplace wasn’t just about commerce; it
was a social hub where townspeople gathered, exchanged stories, and celebrated their
shared way of life. The people’s lives were deeply connected to the sea, and there was
a strong sense of pride in maintaining traditions that had been passed down through
generations.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 05 NODIA

4. As evening approached, the town began to slow down. The setting sun cast a golden
glow over the ocean, and families gathered by the beach to watch it sink below the
horizon. In those quiet hours, the bond between the town, its people, and the sea felt
strongest, as if time itself slowed down to match the rhythm of the waves.
5. Though Clearwater had changed with the times, its connection to the sea remained
unbroken. The town’s identity had been shaped by the ocean for generations, and it
continued to be a source of life, beauty, and inspiration for all who lived there.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, what does the ocean’s salty breeze symbolize for the people
of Clearwater? 1

ii. How does the author describe the role of the lighthouse in Clearwater’s history, as
mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “a sense of pride in maintaining their traditions” in paragraph 3 suggests
that the people of Clearwater feel connected to their past and are proud to keep their
customs alive.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The phrase ‘a sense of pride’ refers to _____.
(A) the modern changes in the town
(B) the traditions shaped by the sea

iv. Complete the following with ONE reason, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
The marketplace in Clearwater is important to the town because _____.

v. Why does the writer refer to the lighthouse as a “symbol of resilience” in paragraph 2? 1
Because
(A) It has stood tall for over a century.
(B) It represents the town’s strength in keeping its history alive.
(C) It still guides ships today.
(D) It is a landmark that tourists come to see.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to prove the following : 1
The bond between the people of Clearwater and the sea grows stronger during the
evening.

vii. In the line, ‘As evening approached, the town began to slow down...’ (Paragraph 4),
what does the phrase ‘slow down’ mean in this context? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 4: 1

dusk: night :: golden light: _____
(A) sunset (B) lighthouse
(C) dawn (D) marketplace

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 05 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘the town’s identity had been shaped by the
ocean’ in paragraph 5, uses figurative language? 1
(A) It is comparing the town’s development to the ocean’s physical influence.
(B) It exaggerates the importance of the ocean to the town.
(C) The town has literally changed its shape due to the ocean.
(D) It is a symbolic way to show how deeply the town depends on the sea.

x. Evaluate the potential benefits or challenges of preserving Clearwater’s traditional way

of life, as suggested in paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Introduction :
In modern urban areas, waste management has become a crucial aspect of maintaining
public health and environmental sustainability. This case study explores the waste
disposal habits among various residential communities and evaluates the effectiveness of
recycling programs in reducing landfill waste.
2. Methodology :
A survey was conducted in multiple urban residential communities to assess their waste
disposal practices. Participants were asked to provide information on how they segregate
and dispose of waste and their participation in local recycling programs. Data was
collected and analysed to identify trends in waste management habits across different
demographics.
3. Survey Examination :
The survey delved into waste management habits, focusing on key aspects such as the
frequency of waste disposal, participation in recycling programs, and the reasons for
adopting or not adopting sustainable waste practices. The study examined factors that
influenced people’s decision to recycle, such as convenience, environmental concerns, and
economic incentives.
4. Results :
The survey results highlighted the following trends in waste management practices:
Demographic % Participation in Reasons for Participation
Recycling Programs
Young Adults 50% Environmental awareness,
Accessibility of programs
Middle-aged 70% Economic benefits, Environmental
concern
Elderly 80% Health concerns, Government
incentives, Ease of disposal
5. Implications for Interventions :
The survey results indicate that waste management programs need to be tailored to
address the specific needs of different demographic groups. For example, increasing
economic incentives for young adults may encourage more participation in recycling.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 05 NODIA

Similarly, enhancing accessibility to recycling programs for middle-aged individuals could

improve participation rates further. For the elderly, ensuring ease of waste segregation
and disposal may increase engagement in sustainable practices.
6. Conclusion :
This study provides important insights into urban waste management practices and
highlights the need for targeted interventions to promote recycling. By addressing the
unique concerns of each demographic, communities can work towards more effective
waste management strategies that protect public health and the environment for future
generations.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. Complete the following suitably. 1
In the introduction, the researcher links waste management with public health and
environmental sustainability to highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To assess waste disposal habits in residential communities and evaluate the effectiveness
of recycling programs.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Method of analysis (B) Primary objective
(C) Research outcome (D) Secondary objective

iii. Give two points to support why recycling programs were included as a focus in the
survey on waste management practices. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘factors’ and ‘influences.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘factor’ or ‘influence’:
Sentence 1 : Economic benefits drive middle-aged individuals to participate in recycling
programs.
Sentence 2 : Government incentives increase recycling participation among the elderly.

v. Read the following : 1

Ravi disposes of his household waste regularly but rarely participates in recycling
programs. His neighbor, Anjali, diligently recycles every week, and Arjun, who lives
nearby, segregates his waste but struggles to find time to recycle.
Select the option that identifies the correct demographic Ravi, Anjali, and Arjun belong to.
(A) Ravi – young adult; Anjali – elderly; Arjun – middle-aged
(B) Ravi – middle-aged; Anjali – elderly; Arjun – young adult
(C) Ravi – young adult; Anjali – middle-aged; Arjun – elderly
(D) Ravi – elderly; Anjali – young adult; Arjun – middle-aged

vi. Although the elderly and middle-aged groups both show high participation in recycling
programs, why is the percentage highest among the elderly? 1

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 05 Page 5

vii. Analyse how tailored interventions can improve recycling participation rates across
different demographic groups. (Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Increase economic benefits for recyclers
(B) Build a comprehensive urban waste management strategy
(C) Encourage more frequent waste disposal
(D) Promote a reduction in government incentives

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words 1#4 = 4

A. As librarian of Crescent International School, Gwalior, draft a notice in not more than 50
words asking all students and teachers to return the library books they have borrowed,
two days before the commencement of the examination.


O
B. Your school is organizing a SPICMACAY programme on the occasion of the World
Dance Day wherein the renowned Bharatanatyam dancer, Geeta Chandran would be
giving a lecture demonstration. As the President, Cultural Society of your school, draft
a notice in about 50 words, informing the students about the same. You are Rakhsita/
Rohit of MVN Public School.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4
A. As Secretary of the Literary Club of St. Anne’s School, Ahmedabad, draft a formal
invitation in not more than 50 words for the inauguration of the club in your school.


O
B. You are Amit Dubey. You have received an invitation from the Director, Health Services,
Punjab who has invited leading medical practitioners of the state to attend a workshop
on ‘child care’ on 25 July, 20x x at 9 a.m. in New Hope Hospital, Ambala. Draft a reply
to the invitation in 50 words.

5. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in 120-150 words. 1#5 = 5
A. You have seen an advertisement in a national newspaper for the post of Senior Teacher
in English at Sunrise Global School, Noida. You are Karuna, M-114, Mall Road, Delhi.
You are MA (English), B.Ed. from Delhi University and yet to have any teaching
experience. Write a job application in 120-150 words to the principal.


O
B. Write a letter the Editor, ‘The Hindu’ about the mosquito menace due to stagnant water
in your locality. Give suggestions to improve the situation. You are Raman/Renu, living
in Rajaji Nagar, Tiruneveli.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 06 Page 1

Sample Paper 06
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12

1. On the outskirts of the bustling city of Jaipur, in a quiet village, stands an old banyan
tree that has been there for centuries. The tree’s thick roots run deep into the earth,
and its wide branches stretch across the sky, casting a cool shadow on the ground below.
Locals say the tree has witnessed countless generations, standing as a silent guardian
over the village. During the hottest summer days, villagers gather beneath the tree to
escape the scorching sun, and in the evenings, the air is filled with the sounds of children
laughing and playing around its base.
2. The banyan tree is more than just a tree; it has become a part of the village’s daily
life and traditions. Every year, during the festival of Makar Sankranti, the villagers tie
colorful ribbons and small paper wishes to the tree’s branches, believing that the banyan
will carry their hopes and dreams to the gods. The tree has become a sacred place where
villagers come to offer their prayers, share stories, and seek peace. It stands as a symbol
of resilience and faith, connecting the people to their roots and their ancestors.
3. In the early mornings, when the village is still wrapped in mist, the tree appears almost
mystical. The dew-covered leaves glisten as the first rays of sunlight touch them, and the
soft rustle of the leaves in the breeze seems to whisper forgotten tales. Birds find refuge
in the tree’s vast branches, singing their morning songs, while the villagers begin their
day with quiet devotion at the tree’s base. Farmers often start their workday by bowing
their heads in respect before the tree, believing it will bring them good fortune.
4. As the seasons change, so does the appearance of the banyan tree. In spring, new leaves
sprout, and the tree is full of life and activity, with birds building nests and children

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 06 NODIA

playing in its shade. In the monsoon, the tree’s roots absorb the nourishing rains,
making it look even more vibrant and strong. Even in winter, when the air is cool and
dry, the tree stands tall, a reminder of the cycles of nature and life.
5. The banyan tree is not just a part of the landscape; it is woven into the fabric of the
village’s identity. It is a symbol of endurance, a place of gathering, and a witness to the
joys and sorrows of the people who live beneath its branches. The villagers believe that
as long as the banyan tree stands, their community will continue to thrive, rooted in
tradition and connected to the natural world.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, why do the villagers gather under the banyan tree during the
day? 1

ii. How does the author describe the significance of the banyan tree during the festival of
Makar Sankranti, as mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “woven into the fabric of the village’s identity” in paragraph 5 suggests that
the banyan tree is deeply connected to the daily lives and traditions of the villagers.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The banyan tree is important to the village because _____.
(A) it provides shade during the day
(B) it represents the village’s resilience and connection to their ancestors

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
The banyan tree appears mystical in the morning because _____.

v. Why does the writer describe the banyan tree as a “symbol of resilience and faith” in
paragraph 2? 1
Because
(A) The tree has been standing for generations and plays a significant role in village
traditions.
(B) The tree provides shelter to the villagers and protects them from the weather.
(C) It is the oldest tree in the village, and people believe it grants wishes.
(D) It is the place where villagers gather to offer sacrifices to their gods.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
The banyan tree changes with the seasons but remains strong and resilient throughout
the year.

vii. In the line, ‘the banyan tree is not just a part of the landscape; it is woven into the fab-
ric of the village’s identity’ (Paragraph 5), what does the phrase ‘woven into the fabric’
suggest about the tree’s role in the village? 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 06 Page 3

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 4 : 1

spring: new leaves :: monsoon: _____
(A) dry air (B) strong roots
(C) colorful ribbons (D) changing appearance

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘the banyan tree stands as a symbol of endurance’
in paragraph 5 uses figurative language? 1
(A) It highlights the tree’s long-lasting presence in the village’s history.
(B) It compares the tree to a protector of the villagers.
(C) It describes the physical strength of the banyan tree.
(D) It exaggerates the importance of the tree in the village.

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of preserving the banyan tree, as suggested in
paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Global water scarcity has become a critical issue, with 47% of the global population
expected to live in areas of high water stress by 2030. This case study examines water
consumption across various regions, focusing on disparities between developed and
developing countries, and the factors contributing to water shortages.
2. Data from the World Bank shows that water consumption in developed regions, such
as North America and Europe, averages 350 liters per person per day. However, in
developing regions like sub-Saharan Africa and the Middle East, water consumption is
much lower, averaging just 50 liters per person per day. The global average is 200 liters
per person per day.
3. A breakdown of water usage shows that 70% of the world’s fresh water is used for
agriculture, 20% for industry, and 10% for domestic use. In water-scarce regions, the
demand for agricultural water is even higher, with 85% of available water being used for
farming. This heavy reliance on agriculture contributes significantly to water stress in
these areas.
4. The study also reveals that groundwater provides 40% of the world’s fresh water.
However, in many regions, over-extraction has led to significant depletion. Some regions
report water tables dropping by as much as 3 meters per year, raising concerns about
the long-term sustainability of groundwater reserves.
5. In areas of high water stress, it is estimated that 1 in 4 people live under conditions
where more than 80% of available water is used annually. These regions are at increased
risk of facing acute water shortages, particularly in the context of climate change.
6. The data highlights the importance of implementing effective water management
strategies. Efficient irrigation practices could reduce agricultural water consumption by
as much as 30% in water-stressed regions, offering a path toward sustainable water use
in the future.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 06 NODIA

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links global water demand with water scarcity to
highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To explore the factors contributing to water consumption disparities between developed
and developing countries.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Method of analysis (B) Research outcome
(C) Primary objective (D) Secondary objective

iii. Give two points to support why agriculture was included as a focus in the study on water
consumption. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘over-reliance’ and ‘over-extraction.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘over-reliance’ or ‘over-extraction’:
Sentence 1: The extensive use of groundwater for farming in dry regions leads to rapid
depletion of water sources.
Sentence 2: Many regions depend on water-intensive crops, such as rice and cotton,
further straining limited water resources.

v. Read the following : 1

Nina lives in a rural area where water scarcity is a daily challenge. Her family consumes
only 50 liters of water per day, most of which is used for farming. Her friend Alex, who
lives in an urban area, consumes 250 liters per day, with most of it used for domestic
purposes.
Select the option that identifies the correct water consumption patterns for Nina and
Alex.
(A) Nina – 350 liters; Alex – 50 liters
(B) Nina – 50 liters; Alex – 250 liters
(C) Nina – 100 liters; Alex – 350 liters
(D) Nina – 250 liters; Alex – 100 liters

vi. Although rural and urban areas both face water challenges, why is the per capita water
consumption lower in rural areas? 1

vii. Analyse how targeted water management interventions, such as improving irrigation
techniques, can significantly reduce water consumption in agriculture-heavy regions. 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Promote increased water usage in industrial regions
(B) Reduce global water stress and ensure sustainable water usage
(C) Limit the use of groundwater to urban areas
(D) Focus only on domestic water use

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 07 Page 1

Sample Paper 07
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. The Himalayas, the world’s tallest mountain range, stretch across northern India and
serve as a natural barrier between the Indian subcontinent and Central Asia. These tow-
ering peaks, some rising above 8,000 meters, include Mount Everest, the highest point
on Earth. The Himalayas are home to diverse ecosystems, from snow-covered summits
to dense forests in the lower regions. The variation in altitude results in a wide range of
climates and habitats, supporting a rich variety of flora and fauna, including endangered
species like the snow leopard and the red panda.
2. The people living in the Himalayan region have adapted to its rugged terrain and harsh
climatic conditions. Most rely on agriculture, though the short growing season at high
altitudes limits the crops they can cultivate. Terrace farming is commonly practiced to
make the most of the limited arable land. In addition, many communities depend on
livestock, and some have turned to tourism, offering trekking and mountaineering ser-
vices to adventurers from around the world.
3. The monsoon rains are crucial for life in the Himalayas, though they also bring risks.
The heavy rainfall during the monsoon season replenishes the rivers that flow from the
mountains, providing water for agriculture and daily needs. However, the rains can also
cause landslides and floods, devastating villages and infrastructure. The local population
has developed early warning systems and adapted their building methods to mitigate
these risks, but the unpredictable nature of the monsoon remains a challenge.
4. The Himalayan glaciers are a critical source of freshwater, not only for the people of the
region but for millions across South Asia. These glaciers feed the major rivers, including
the Ganges, Indus, and Brahmaputra. However, climate change poses a serious threat to

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 07 NODIA

the glaciers, which are melting at an alarming rate. If this trend continues, it could lead
to water shortages and increased flooding downstream. Efforts are being made to study
and protect the glaciers, but the magnitude of the problem requires global cooperation.
5. For those who visit the Himalayas, the experience is one of awe and inspiration. The
sheer scale of the mountains, the crisp, thin air, and the breathtaking views make the
Himalayas one of the most popular destinations for nature lovers and adventure seekers.
Beyond its natural beauty, the Himalayas are also a spiritual haven, attracting pilgrims
to its sacred sites, which are often located in remote, hard-to-reach areas.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, how does the variation in altitude affect the ecosystems of the
Himalayas? 1

ii. How does the author describe the relationship between the people of the Himalayas and
their environment, as mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “terrace farming” in paragraph 2 refers to the agricultural practice of creat-
ing steps on the slopes of hills to grow crops.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
Terrace farming is essential in the Himalayas because _____.
(A) it prevents soil erosion and makes arable land available on the steep slopes
(B) it allows the cultivation of a wide variety of crops

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
The monsoon season in the Himalayas brings _____.

v. Why does the writer emphasize the importance of the glaciers in paragraph 4? 1
Because
(A) They provide a habitat for endangered species.
(B) They are a major source of freshwater for the region and beyond.
(C) They help control the climate of the region.
(D) They are popular tourist attractions.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
Climate change is seriously affecting the Himalayan glaciers.

vii. In the line, ‘The sheer scale of the mountains’ (Paragraph 5), what does the phrase
‘sheer scale’ suggest about the Himalayas? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 1 : 1

snow leopard: fauna :: dense forests: _____
(A) land (B) climate
(C) flora (D) altitude

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 07 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘the Himalayas are also a spiritual haven’ in
paragraph 5 uses descriptive language? 1
(A) It highlights the cultural significance of the Himalayas.
(B) It explains how the Himalayas are a popular adventure destination.
(C) It describes the physical challenges of reaching sacred sites.
(D) It focuses on the importance of spirituality in the region.
x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of balancing conservation efforts with the
needs of the local communities, as suggested in paragraph 4. 2
2. Read the following carefully. 10
1. Air pollution poses a significant threat to human health, with 1.1 billion people globally
breathing unhealthy air. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), urban
air pollution leads to approximately 800,000 deaths worldwide each year, and 4.6 million
people lose their lives due to pollution-related causes annually.
2. Several factors contribute to the aggravation of air pollution, including traffic, inade-
quate drainage facilities, lack of open spaces, carbon emissions, and waste accumulation.
In developing countries, air pollution is linked with an increased risk of Acute Respira-
tory Infections (ARI), which is a leading cause of child mortality.
3. Urban air quality in mega cities such as Kolkata is particularly concerning. An Exceed-
ance Factor (EF) analysis of ambient air quality in Kolkata found that out of 17 moni-
toring stations, five fell under the “critical” category, while 12 were classified as having
high pollution levels. The pollutants identified include RPM, SPM, NO, and SO2, with
major sources being vehicular emissions (51.4%), industrial sources (24.5%), and dust
particles (21.1%).
4. A health assessment conducted near highly polluted areas revealed that 85.1% of respond-
ents had respiratory diseases, compared to 14.9% who suffered from waterborne diseases.
Common respiratory ailments included Acute Respiratory Infections (ARI) (60%), Chronic
Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) (7.8%), and Influenza (12.7%).
5. In order to promote well-being, it is essential for individuals to adopt pollution-avoiding
practices in their daily lives. Public awareness campaigns about the dangers of polluted air
can encourage these changes, helping people protect themselves and their communities.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 07 NODIA

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links urban air pollution with the global death toll
to highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To examine the contribution of various sources, such as vehicular emissions and indus-
trial sources, to air pollution in Kolkata.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why awareness about air pollution is critical, based on the
passage. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘vehicular emissions’ and ‘dust particles.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘vehicular emissions’ or ‘dust particles’:
Sentence 1: The majority of pollutants in Kolkata come from cars and other motor ve-
hicles.
Sentence 2: Air quality deteriorates significantly due to dust from construction sites.

v. Read the following : 1

Ravi works in an industry that is a major contributor to air pollution. Priya lives in an
area where dust particles are the primary source of pollution. Meanwhile, Arvind, who
drives a truck, contributes to vehicular emissions.
Select the option that identifies the correct sources of pollution associated with Ravi,
Priya, and Arvind.
(A) Ravi – industrial pollution; Priya – dust particles; Arvind – vehicular emissions
(B) Ravi – vehicular emissions; Priya – industrial pollution; Arvind – dust particles
(C) Ravi – dust particles; Priya – vehicular emissions; Arvind – industrial pollution
(D) Ravi – industrial pollution; Priya – vehicular emissions; Arvind – dust particles

vi. Why is the increased incidence of respiratory diseases in polluted areas considered a
major health concern? 1

vii. Analyse how the major sources of pollution in Kolkata contribute to deteriorating air
quality. (Paragraph 3) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Encourage more use of industrial resources
(B) Increase awareness of pollution-avoiding practices
(C) Promote the use of diesel generators for energy
(D) Limit the availability of medical assessments in polluted areas

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 08 Page 1

Sample Paper 08
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. The old library stood at the end of a quiet street, its walls showing signs of age. Inside,
the air smelled of old books, a reminder of the knowledge stored here over the years.
Tall wooden shelves were filled with books that seemed to hold endless stories. The
only sound was the gentle rustling of pages, creating a peaceful atmosphere for anyone
who visited. The library had stood for over a century, a silent witness to the countless
people who had come in search of knowledge, solace, or simply an escape from the rush
of everyday life.
2. Sunlight shone through the large, stained-glass windows, creating colorful patterns on the
floor. The light was a quiet reminder of how time was passing by, even though the library
itself seemed to stay the same. For many, the library was a place of escape, where the
busy world outside didn’t matter. Some visitors found comfort in its stillness, while others
appreciated the opportunity to disconnect from the constant barrage of notifications and
demands of modern life. Others, however, felt that the library was becoming outdated in a
world where everything was available online at the click of a button.
3. In the quietest corners of the library, where dust gathered on untouched books, there was
still something special. It wasn’t just about reading; it was about discovering forgotten
wisdom and stories. Holding a book, feeling its weight, and turning its pages was a
connection to the past—a time when stories were shared through paper, not screens.
For some, this act of reading provided a sense of nostalgia, while for others, it was a
reminder of the simple pleasures that technology could never replace.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 08 NODIA

4. Despite the rise of technology, the library remained a symbol of human curiosity and
the desire for knowledge. In today’s fast-paced world, the library encouraged visitors to
slow down and take their time. It wasn’t about how much information they could get,
but about enjoying the experience of reading and thinking. Libraries represented a rare
space where reflection and deep thinking were valued over speed.
5. In this space, time was measured not by the ticking of clocks but by how deeply one
could lose themselves in a story. While the modern world seemed obsessed with speed,
the library offered a different kind of richness—the kind that could only be found in the
pages of a book, in the quiet moments of reflection. For those who appreciated it, the
library was not just a place, but an experience, a pause from the relentless pace of life.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, what does the scent of old books in the library symbolize? 1

ii. How does the author use the sunlight coming through the stained-glass windows to show
the passage of time in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase ‘something special’ in paragraph 3 suggests that beyond the dust and
forgotten books, there is still an element of magic in the act of choosing and reading a
book, connecting readers to the past.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The ‘something special’ refers to _____.
(A) a collection of rare and valuable artifacts
(B) untold stories and knowledge waiting to be discovered

iv. Complete the following with ONE reason, with reference to paragraph 2 : 1
The library is considered a place of escape because _____.

v. Why does the author describe reading physical books in the library as a ‘connection to
the past’ in paragraph 3? 1
Because
(A) It brings readers closer to an old way of learning and storytelling.
(B) It offers a sense of nostalgia for those who miss the past.
(C) It provides a more authentic experience than reading on screens.
(D) It preserves books that have been forgotten by time.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 3, to support the following : 1
The act of reading a book is more than just gathering information.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 08 Page 3

vii. In the line, ‘In today’s fast-paced world, the library encouraged visitors to slow down...’
(Paragraph 4), what does the phrase ‘slow down’ mean in this context? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 4 : 1

rest: relax :: library: _____
(A) read (B) discover
(C) think (D) slow

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘In this space, time was measured not by the
ticking of clocks but by how deeply one could lose themselves in a story’ in paragraph 5,
uses contrast? 1
(A) It shows the difference between regular time and the emotional experience of losing
oneself in a book.
(B) The author is pointing out the slow pace of the library compared to the busy
modern world.
(C) The writer contrasts how people experience time in the library versus the outside
world.
(D) The statement highlights the difference between time spent reading and time spent
on other activities.

x. Evaluate the potential benefits or challenges of keeping libraries relevant in the digital
age, as suggested in paragraph 4. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Introduction :
In the fast-paced environment of urban living, transportation choices play a significant
role in daily life. This case study aims to analyse the preference for public transport
compared to private vehicles among different age groups and the implications for
environmental sustainability.
2. Methodology :
A survey was conducted among individuals of various age groups, from teenagers to the
elderly, to identify their preferred mode of transport. Participants were asked to choose
between public transport and private vehicles and explain the reasons behind their
choice. The collected data was analysed to observe trends in transportation preferences
across age demographics.
3. Survey Examination :
The survey provided a detailed examination of transportation habits, focusing not only
on the preferred modes of transport but also exploring the reasons behind these choices.
Participants were asked to elaborate on their decisions, revealing the complexities of
their transportation choices, such as convenience, environmental concerns, and cost.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 08 NODIA

4. Results :
The survey yielded the following results regarding transportation preferences:
Age-group % Preferred Mode Reasons for Preference

Teenagers 60% Private Independence, Convenience, Parental influ-

ence

Young adults 45% Mixed Flexibility, Time management, Financial

considerations

Middle-aged 70% Public Cost efficiency, Environmental concerns,

Traffic stress

Elderly 85% Public Safety, Comfort, Lack of need for frequent

travel

5. Implications for Interventions :

Understanding the preferences of different age groups can help policymakers design
targeted interventions. For instance, promoting sustainable transport options for young
adults through flexible and affordable plans may encourage more eco-friendly choices.
Similarly, improving public transport accessibility for the elderly and middle-aged
groups could address safety and convenience concerns while promoting environmental
sustainability. Initiatives like these can result in broader support for public transport
systems and reduced reliance on private vehicles.
6. Conclusion :
The survey findings provide a basis for developing interventions that cater to the
diverse needs of different age demographics, fostering a more sustainable and efficient
transportation system. By addressing the underlying reasons behind transportation
preferences, stakeholders can collaborate on building an eco-friendly and accessible
urban transport network for future generations.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. Complete the following suitably. 1
In the introduction, the researcher links fast-paced urban living with transportation
choices in the study to highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To examine transportation preferences across various age groups in detail, and assess
environmental implications.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Primary purpose (B) Secondary objective
(C) Method of analysis (D) Research outcome

iii. Give two points to support why public transport was given as an option to the survey
participants to choose from in the study on transportation preferences. 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 08 Page 5

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘reasons’ and ‘decisions.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘reason’ or ‘decision’:
Sentence 1 : Traffic congestion leads middle-aged individuals to prefer public transport
over private vehicles.
Sentence 2 : The desire to save money drives young adults to opt for a mix of public and
private transportation.

v. Read the following : 1

Ravi regularly commutes by bus and train, preferring the convenience of public transport.
Sneha, his colleague, mostly drives her car to work for comfort and independence.
Anirudh, who lives nearby, switches between using his bike and car based on the weather.
Select the option that identifies the correct demographic Ravi, Sneha, and Anirudh
belong to.
(A) Ravi – elderly; Sneha – young adult; Anirudh – middle-aged
(B) Ravi – middle-aged; Sneha – young adult; Anirudh – teenager
(C) Ravi – young adult; Sneha – teenager; Anirudh – middle-aged
(D) Ravi – elderly; Sneha – middle-aged; Anirudh – young adult

vi. Although teenagers and middle-aged groups both prefer public transport, why is the
preference percentage highest among the elderly? 1

vii. Analyse how targeted interventions based on the diverse transportation preferences
of different age groups can lead to a more sustainable urban transport system.
(Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Encourage widespread adoption of electric vehicles
(B) Build a sustainable and efficient public transport network
(C) Reduce individual commuting time
(D) Increase affordability of private transport options

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4

A. You are the Secretary of your School Literary Association. Write a notice in not more
than 50 words for your school notice board, giving details of the proposed inauguration of
the Literary Association of your school. You are ‘XYZ’ of Jain Vidyashram, Cuddalore.


O
B. You lost your wristwatch in your school auditorium. Write a notice in not more than 50
words for your school notice board giving a detailed description of the watch. You are
Anirudh/Arundhati of class XII of Springfield School, Pune.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 09 Page 1

Sample Paper 09
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. India’s handloom industry is one of the oldest and most important cottage industries
in the country. It plays a vital role in preserving traditional textile art and providing
employment to millions of weavers across rural and semi-urban areas. Each region of India
has its unique weaving techniques, patterns, and fabrics that reflect the local culture
and heritage. For instance, the bright, intricate designs of Kanjeevaram silk sarees from
Tamil Nadu are distinct from the geometric patterns of the Assamese Mekhela Chador.
2. The handloom industry is largely decentralized, with weavers working out of their homes
or in small cooperative societies. This gives the industry a flexible structure, allowing
artisans to work independently and create personalized, handcrafted textiles. Many
families have passed down their weaving skills for generations, preserving the cultural
identity of their communities. The connection between the weavers and their craft is
deeply personal, with each piece of fabric representing a blend of tradition and creativity.
3. Despite its cultural significance, the handloom sector faces several challenges. With
the rise of mechanized textile mills and mass-produced clothing, handwoven fabrics
have become more expensive and less accessible to the average consumer. This has led
to a decline in demand, leaving many weavers struggling to make a sustainable living.
Additionally, competition from cheaper synthetic fabrics and the lack of market access
for rural weavers have further impacted the industry’s growth.
4. In recent years, there has been a growing movement to revive the handloom industry
through government initiatives, fashion collaborations, and consumer awareness
campaigns. By promoting the use of handloom products and supporting sustainable
fashion, many organizations hope to create a new market for handwoven fabrics. This

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 09 NODIA

shift towards conscious consumption has the potential to preserve traditional weaving
techniques while providing fair wages and better working conditions for weavers.
5. The future of India’s handloom industry depends on balancing the preservation of
its cultural heritage with the modernization of its production methods. Sustainable
practices, coupled with innovative marketing strategies, can help the industry thrive in
a competitive market, ensuring that the art of handloom weaving continues to flourish
for generations to come.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, how does India’s handloom industry contribute to preserving

culture? 1

ii. How does the decentralized nature of the handloom industry benefit weavers, as
mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “a flexible structure” in paragraph 2 suggests that the handloom industry allows
weavers to work independently and craft unique products.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The handloom industry has a flexible structure because _____.
(A) it enables weavers to work from home and follow traditional methods
(B) it allows consumers to access mass-produced textiles

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
The decline in demand for handwoven fabrics is caused by _____.

v. Why does the writer mention government initiatives in paragraph 4? 1

Because
(A) It highlights efforts to revive the handloom industry by creating a new market.
(B) It explains how handloom weavers benefit from modern textile mills.
(C) It describes how mass production has improved the handloom sector.
(D) It shows how mechanized factories are outcompeting weavers.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 3, to support the following : 1
Weavers face difficulties in competing with synthetic fabrics. 1

vii. In the line, ‘The future of India’s handloom industry depends on balancing the
preservation of its cultural heritage with the modernization of its production methods’
(Paragraph 5), what does the phrase ‘balancing the preservation of its cultural heritage’
suggest about the challenges the industry faces? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 4 : 1

weaving: craftsmanship :: handlooms: _____
(A) flexibility (B) tradition
(C) production (D) sustainability

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 09 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘the handloom industry is essential to preserving
India’s cultural heritage’ in paragraph 1 uses factual language? 1
(A) It refers to the historical importance of handwoven textiles in Indian culture.
(B) It explains how mechanized textile mills are improving the industry.
(C) It compares the handloom industry to mass-produced clothing.
(D) It describes the impact of handloom products on rural areas.
x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of modernizing India’s handloom industry, as
suggested in paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. India’s demographic advantage is evident with an average age of just 27 in 2020, meaning
that the country is predominantly youthful. However, despite this, the unemployment
crisis persists. The primary cause is the lack of alignment between the skills that the
youth possess and the demands of new industries, despite the rapidly expanding range
of career options and job roles.
2. One of the key reasons for this skill gap is that many Indian students are only aware of
a limited set of career options, even though 250 career paths exist across the country. A
recent survey conducted by Mindler, an online career-counseling platform, revealed that
students are only familiar with seven career options, leaving them unaware of the diverse
opportunities that could better suit their skills.
3. The survey was conducted among 10,000 participants aged 14-20 and revealed that 93%
of students were aware of only seven career paths: law, engineering, medicine, accounts
and finance, design, computer applications and IT, and management. The figure
included highlights the common career options considered by students, with engineering
as the most preferred at 23.53%, followed by accounts and finance (11.81%), computer
applications and IT (9.56%), and medicine (8.08%).

4. Despite 250 available career paths in 40 domains covering 5,000 job types, Indian
students are largely unaware of the options beyond the most common careers. This lack
of awareness could jeopardize the potential benefits of India’s youthful demographic,
preventing the country from reaping the rewards of its demographic dividend.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 09 NODIA

5. Parents and teachers can play a critical role in expanding their children’s awareness of new
career options. By staying informed and making use of available tools, parents can provide
guidance that aligns with their child’s strengths, rather than pushing them toward the most
familiar career choices.
6. If parents utilize career counseling and technology effectively, they can make better-
informed decisions regarding their children’s future careers, helping them achieve personal
and professional growth.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. Complete the following suitably. 1
In the introduction, the researcher links India’s youthful population with the
unemployment crisis to highlight _____.
ii. What would the following be classified as? 1
To investigate the limited career awareness among Indian students and its effects on
their professional prospects.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why career counseling is critical in the context of India’s
youth, as described in the passage. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘career options’ and ‘skill gap.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘career options’ or ‘skill gap’:
Sentence 1: Students are aware of only a limited number of career choices, even though
more options exist.
Sentence 2: Employers are looking for skills that students do not possess, leading to
unemployment.

v. Read the following : 1

Seema prefers to pursue engineering, which is a popular career option among students.
Her neighbor Mohan is interested in accounts and finance, but struggles with deciding
on a career. Arindam, who lives across the street, is unsure of his choices and feels
pressured to choose management as it seems safer.
Select the option that identifies the correct career paths Seema, Mohan, and Arindam are
considering.
(A) Seema – engineering; Mohan – accounts and finance; Arindam – management
(B) Seema – medicine; Mohan – law; Arindam – engineering
(C) Seema – law; Mohan – design; Arindam – IT
(D) Seema – design; Mohan – engineering; Arindam – medicine

vi. Why is the lack of career awareness among Indian students considered a major issue,
despite having access to 250 career options? 1

vii. Analyse how parental involvement and career counseling can help bridge the skill gap
among Indian students. (Paragraph 5) 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 09 Page 5

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Increase the number of available job roles
(B) Improve career awareness and counseling for students
(C) Reduce the number of common career choices available
(D) Promote traditional career paths like medicine and law

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4
A. You are Sapna Singh, the Secretary of Cultural Committee of your school. Write a notice
in about 50 words inviting students to participate in the Annual Day of the school to be
organized next month.


O
B. You are Man/Mani, secretary of the History Club of K.V. Sr. Sec. School, Badodhra.
Draft a notice in not more than 50 words informing the students of class XI and XII
about a proposed tour to Rajasthan during the coming summer vacations.
4. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4
A. Your school is going to hold its Annual Day celebrations on 18th August at Talkatora
Stadium, New Delhi. You want Mr. Arjun Singh, a noted playback singer to be the chief
guest on this occasion. Write a formal invitation in about 50 words requesting him to
preside over the function. You are Raman/Rani, Headmistress, Don Bosco School, New
Delhi.


O
B. You are opening a coaching institute for students of classes IX-XII. Write an informal
invitation, inviting your best friend for its inauguration. Do not exceed more than 50
words. Invent necessary details.

5. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in 120-150 words. 1#5 = 5
A. You are Pushpit/Pushpa Pandey of 62 B, Mayur Vihar, Delhi. Write a letter to the
editor of the Hindustan Times about ‘Misuse of Computers, TV and Mobile Phones by
Children’.


O
B. You are Rohini/Rohit. You have seen an advertisement for the post of an English
Teacher in Khetan Public School, Raipur. Write a letter in response to the advertisement
applying for the post. Give your detailed resume. Invent necessary details.
6. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B) in 120-150 words. 1#5 = 5
A. You are extremely disturbed by the growing crime against the elderly people in your
city. Write an article commenting upon the reasons for such crimes and how one can
prevent them. Sign yourself as Khoshali Bhardwaj.


O
B. Write a report in 120-150 words for your school magazine describing the prize distribution
ceremony that was held to honour the academic achievers of class XII of the previous
year.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 10 Page 1

Sample Paper 10
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct ques-
tion number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12

1. The ancient oak tree stood proudly in the center of the village square, its wide branch-
es spreading out like open arms. Its trunk was thick and covered in rough, weathered
bark that told tales of time long gone. Over the years, storms and seasons had left their
marks, making the tree look even more majestic. In spring, its leaves were fresh and
green, but now, with autumn arriving, the leaves had turned shades of gold and red.
A few had already fallen, leaving a colorful carpet on the cobblestone path beneath it,
gently rustling with the wind.
2. Underneath the oak tree was a stone bench that wrapped around its base, worn smooth
by generations of villagers. This bench had become a favorite resting place for the towns-
people, who enjoyed the tree’s shade during the day. Elderly villagers often gathered
there to share stories of the past, while children played nearby. It wasn’t uncommon to
find travelers sitting there as well, taking a break from their journey. The soft sound of
leaves fluttering in the wind added to the calming atmosphere.
3. Surrounding the square were small shops with brightly colored awnings. The scent of
freshly baked bread from the nearby bakery often mixed with the smell of the earth and
the crisp autumn air. The marketplace was always busy, with people coming to buy local
produce and crafts. Villagers walked slowly, greeting one another with smiles, enjoying
the warmth of the afternoon sun as they moved through the square. The oak tree, stand-
ing tall in the middle, was like a silent guardian, watching over them.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 10 NODIA

4. As the sun began to set, casting long shadows across the square, the village seemed to
slow down. The golden light of the setting sun made the tree appear even grander, with
its shadow stretching far across the cobblestones. Families often gathered near the tree
in the evening, taking a moment to enjoy the last light of the day. The air was filled with
a sense of peace as the day came to a close.
5. For the villagers, the oak tree was more than just a part of the landscape. It was a sym-
bol of strength and continuity. No matter how much the village changed over time, the
tree remained a constant. It had witnessed the passing of countless seasons and gener-
ations, becoming a part of the village’s identity. The tree was a living reminder of the
past and a connection to the present, standing firm in the heart of the village.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, what do the scars on the oak tree’s trunk symbolize? 1

ii. How does the author describe the role of the stone bench under the oak tree in para-
graph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “a living reminder of the past” in paragraph 5 suggests that the oak tree
represents the village’s history and connection to its past.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The oak tree symbolizes _____.
(A) the village’s continuity and strength
(B) the changing seasons and landscape

iv. Complete the following with ONE reason, with reference to paragraph 3: 1
The marketplace in the village is important because _____.

v. Why does the writer refer to the oak tree as a “silent guardian” in paragraph 3? 1
Because
(A) It has stood for many years, watching over the villagers.
(B) It protects the village from harsh weather.
(C) It represents the village’s wisdom and strength.
(D) It provides a central gathering place for the community.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to prove the following : 1
The oak tree creates a peaceful atmosphere in the village square.

vii. In the line, ‘the village seemed to slow down...’ (Paragraph 4), what does the phrase
‘slow down’ suggest about the mood in the evening? 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 10 Page 3

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 3 : 1

sunlight: warmth :: oak tree: _____
(A) shade (B) wisdom
(C) beauty (D) peace

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘the oak tree had witnessed the passing of count-
less seasons’ in paragraph 5, uses figurative language? 1
(A) It personifies the tree as if it could witness time.
(B) It compares the tree to a human observer.
(C) It exaggerates the impact of the tree on the villagers.
(D) It gives the tree a symbolic meaning in the village.

x. Assess the potential challenges OR benefits of preserving the oak tree, as suggested in
paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Introduction :
In modern agriculture, water management is a critical factor affecting crop productivity
and environmental sustainability. This case study examines the water usage patterns
of different farming communities and evaluates the impact of irrigation techniques on
water conservation.
2. Methodology :
A survey was conducted among various farming communities, ranging from small-scale
to large-scale farmers, to assess their water usage practices. Participants were asked to
share information about their irrigation techniques, water sources, and any challenges
they face regarding water conservation. The data was then analysed to identify trends
and patterns in water usage across different farming practices.
3. Survey Examination :
The survey explored in-depth water management practices, focusing on the types of
irrigation systems used, the frequency of irrigation, and the challenges related to water
availability. Farmers were also asked to provide reasons for their choice of irrigation
methods, offering insights into the factors that influence their decisions, such as cost,
efficiency, and water scarcity.
4. Results :
The survey findings revealed the following trends in water usage:
Farming Group % Using Advanced Reasons for Choosing Irrigation Sys-
Irrigation Systems tems
Small-scale 40% Cost constraints, Simplicity, Limited
access to resources
Medium-scale 60% Efficiency, Cost management, Water
availability
Large-scale 80% High efficiency, Water conservation,
Long-term sustainability

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 10 NODIA

5. Implications for Interventions :

The survey results indicate that more support is needed for small- and medium-scale
farmers to adopt advanced irrigation systems. Providing subsidies or low-interest loans
for purchasing modern irrigation equipment could improve water conservation efforts.
Large-scale farmers can benefit from continued research into even more efficient systems
to maximize water use and maintain environmental sustainability.
6. Conclusion :
This study highlights the need for targeted interventions to promote efficient water
use in agriculture. By addressing the specific needs of different farming communities,
stakeholders can help ensure sustainable agricultural practices and protect vital water
resources for future generations.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links water management with crop productivity and
environmental sustainability to highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To assess water usage practices among different farming communities and evaluate the
effectiveness of irrigation techniques.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Method of analysis (B) Research outcome
(C) Primary objective (D) Secondary objective

iii. Give two points to support why irrigation techniques were included as a focus in the
survey on water usage patterns. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘factors’ and ‘decisions.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘factor’ or ‘decision’:
Sentence 1: Water scarcity pushes farmers to adopt more efficient irrigation systems.
Sentence 2: The cost of advanced systems leads small-scale farmers to stick with tradi-
tional irrigation methods.

v. Read the following : 1

Suresh uses a basic irrigation system for his small farm, citing cost as the main reason.
Ramesh, who manages a medium-sized farm, recently upgraded to a drip irrigation
system due to water scarcity in his area. Meanwhile, Kiran, a large-scale farmer, has
implemented advanced automated irrigation systems to conserve water.
Select the option that identifies the correct farming group for Suresh, Ramesh, and
Kiran.
(A) Suresh – small-scale; Ramesh – medium-scale; Kiran – large-scale
(B) Suresh – large-scale; Ramesh – small-scale; Kiran – medium-scale
(C) Suresh – medium-scale; Ramesh – large-scale; Kiran – small-scale
(D) Suresh – small-scale; Ramesh – large-scale; Kiran – medium-scale

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 10 Page 5

vi. Although both medium- and large-scale farmers have adopted advanced irrigation sys-
tems, why is the percentage highest among large-scale farmers? 1

vii. Analyse how targeted interventions, such as subsidies or loans, can promote better water
management practices in small- and medium-scale farms. (Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Increase crop yields across all farms
(B) Promote sustainable agricultural practices
(C) Reduce water scarcity in large-scale farms
(D) Enhance traditional irrigation methods

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4

A. You lost your wallet in the school playground. Write a notice for your school notice
board giving all the necessary details.


O
B. As Teacher Co-ordinator of the Quiz Club of AMM School, Pune, draft a notice in not
more than 50 words informing students of the inter-class quiz contest asking them to
register their names with the Secretary of the Club within a week.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4

A. You are Riya/Ryan living at 40, Krishna Colony, Manali. You decided to hold a lunch
party to congratulate your grandparents on their golden wedding anniversary. Draft a
formal invitation in not more than 50 words to all family members to attend a grand
lunch at home.


O
B. Draft a formal reply accepting an invitation to be present on the occasion of the wedding
of Ankush S/o Mr & Mrs Shankar of 24, Green Park Road, Kanpur. You are Vikram
Gaur of Raja Ki Mandi, Agra.

5. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in 120-150 words. 1#5 = 5

A. Two main parks in your locality have suffered from neglect on the part of local author-
ities. They have virtually been taken over by undesirable elements. As a result the res-
idents have stopped going to the parks. Write a letter in 120-150 words to the editor of
a local newspaper expressing your concern about the problems the neglect has created
and suggest measures to reclaim the parks for children. You are Gautam/ Gauri of 2,
Gobind Enclave, Meerut.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 11 Page 1

Sample Paper 11
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. Renewable energy sources, such as solar, wind, and hydroelectric power, are becoming
increasingly important in the global effort to reduce carbon emissions and combat climate
change. Solar power harnesses energy from the sun using photovoltaic cells, while wind
power is generated by turbines that convert the kinetic energy of wind into electricity.
Hydroelectric power, on the other hand, uses the flow of water to produce energy,
typically from dams built on large rivers. These energy sources are not only sustainable
but also produce little to no greenhouse gas emissions, making them essential for a
greener future.
2. The growth of renewable energy has led to significant technological advancements. Solar
panels, for instance, are now more efficient and affordable than ever before, allowing
households and businesses to install them on rooftops and generate their own electricity.
Wind turbines have also evolved, with larger and more efficient designs being implemented
in wind farms around the world. Hydroelectric projects, while less common, provide
consistent energy supply, particularly in regions with abundant water resources.
3. Despite the advantages, renewable energy also faces challenges. Solar and wind energy
are intermittent, meaning they only produce power when the sun is shining or the wind
is blowing. This variability requires the development of energy storage solutions, such as
batteries, to ensure a constant energy supply. Additionally, large-scale renewable energy
projects can have environmental impacts, such as habitat disruption or the displacement
of local communities. However, advances in technology and planning are helping to
mitigate these issues.
4. Governments around the world are investing in renewable energy to meet their climate
goals. Many countries have implemented policies such as subsidies for renewable energy

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 11 NODIA

projects, tax incentives for companies that use green energy, and mandates for reducing
carbon emissions. These efforts are part of a global push to transition from fossil fuels
to cleaner, more sustainable energy sources, ultimately aiming to reduce the impacts of
climate change.
5. The future of energy lies in the continued development of renewable technologies. As costs
decrease and efficiencies improve, renewable energy will play a central role in meeting
the world’s energy needs. The shift towards cleaner energy is not just a technological
challenge, but a societal one, requiring collaboration between governments, industries,
and communities to ensure a sustainable energy future for all.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, why are renewable energy sources considered important in

combating climate change? 1

ii. How does the author describe the technological advancements in renewable energy, as
mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “intermittent energy” in paragraph 3 refers to the fact that renewable energy
sources like solar and wind are not always available.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
Intermittent energy sources are challenging because _____.
(A) they require energy storage solutions to ensure a stable power supply
(B) they can only be used in certain parts of the world

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
One challenge faced by renewable energy sources is _____.

v. Why does the writer emphasize government policies in paragraph 4? 1

Because
(A) They reduce the cost of fossil fuels.
(B) They help promote renewable energy development.
(C) They allow companies to continue using non-renewable energy.
(D) They increase competition in the energy market.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
Governments are actively investing in renewable energy to meet climate goals.

vii. In the line, ‘Renewable energy will play a central role in meeting the world’s energy
needs’ (Paragraph 5), what does the phrase ‘central role’ suggest about the future of
renewable energy? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 1 : 1

wind: turbines :: solar: _____
(A) panels (B) cells
(C) rays (D) energy

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 11 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘The future of energy lies in the continued
development of renewable technologies’ in paragraph 5 uses descriptive language? 1
(A) It describes the current trends in the energy industry.
(B) It highlights the importance of renewable energy in the future.
(C) It explains the global energy market.
(D) It focuses on fossil fuels.

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of increasing investment in renewable energy,

as suggested in paragraph 4. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. The internet offers anonymity that makes it easier for bullies to target individuals.
According to a 2021 Pew Research report, 41% of U.S. adults have personally experienced
online harassment, with 75% reporting their most recent experience on social media.
This abuse can often feel inescapable, much like rush-hour traffic.
2. Cyber attackers do not follow conventional behavior. Many victims attempt to reason
with trolls, not understanding that the trolls’ motives are to attract attention, exercise
control, and manipulate others. A 2019 study linked online harassment to traits like
psychopathy, Machiavellianism, sadism, and narcissism—making it clear that trolls often
have deeper psychological issues.

3. Online harassment feels particularly pervasive because it is difficult to avoid. Political

discussions online are rated as 50% more negative than offline discussions. Trolls thrive
in these spaces because they face minimal consequences and can easily overpower well-
meaning individuals who exit the discussion, leaving trolls to dominate.
4. Even though social media is rife with abuse, many people cannot afford to leave these
platforms due to professional or personal commitments. Allowing trolls to drive people
away is akin to allowing bullies to control the playground. Despite this, individuals are
not powerless in dealing with online abusers.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 11 NODIA

5. In cases of threats or hate speech, users can block or report the offending accounts,
although social media platforms have been inconsistent in enforcing their policies.
Ignoring trolls and refusing to engage with them denies them the attention they seek,
whether online or in person. Meeting aggression with silence is often the most effective
response.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. Complete the following suitably. 1
In the introduction, the researcher links internet anonymity with the rise in online
harassment to highlight _____.
ii. What would the following be classified as? 1
To explore the psychological traits associated with online harassers and their behavior.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective
iii. Give two points to support why online harassment is difficult to address, based on the
passage. 2
iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘trolls’ and ‘online harassment.’ 1
Classify the following sentences as ‘trolls’ or ‘online harassment’:
Sentence 1: The majority of harassers online are motivated by the desire for control and
manipulation.
Sentence 2: Many victims report that their most recent harassment occurred on social
media platforms.
v. Read the following : 1
Rina frequently deals with offensive name-calling on social media, while Anjali has
experienced stalking from an unknown person online. Aman, their mutual friend, was
recently a victim of physical threats through direct messages.
Select the option that identifies the correct forms of harassment Rina, Anjali, and Aman
face.
(A) Rina – offensive name-calling; Anjali – stalking; Aman – physical threats
(B) Rina – stalking; Anjali – physical threats; Aman – sexual harassment
(C) Rina – sexual harassment; Anjali – offensive name-calling; Aman – stalking
(D) Rina – physical threats; Anjali – offensive name-calling; Aman – stalking

vi. Although the anonymity provided by the internet enables harassers to act without fear
of repercussions, why is it considered a major factor in the rise of online harassment? 1

vii. Analyse how ignoring online trolls can reduce the impact of harassment. (Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Improve social media engagement by allowing trolls to dominate spaces
(B) Increase users’ awareness of blocking and reporting tools
(C) Promote the use of anonymous accounts on social media
(D) Limit access to social media to reduce harassment

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 12 Page 1

Sample Paper 12
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct ques-
tion number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. In a quiet village in the heart of India, there stood an old house with walls made of
mud and a roof of red clay tiles. The house had seen many seasons come and go, but it
remained strong, standing tall under the shade of a giant peepal tree. Every morning,
as the first rays of the sun touched the village, the house glowed softly in the golden
light. The fragrance of jasmine flowers filled the air, carried by the gentle breeze from
the garden where they bloomed next to marigolds and hibiscus.
2. The house belonged to the Verma family, who had lived there for generations. Grand-
father Verma, now old and wise, often sat in the front courtyard under the shade of the
peepal tree, telling stories to the village children. The stories were about brave kings,
ancient battles, and forgotten legends of the land. His voice was slow and steady, and
the children sat in a circle around him, listening with wide eyes. Even the adults would
sometimes pause in their daily work to hear a story they had known since their child-
hood, yet never tired of.
3. The courtyard was always alive with activity. In the mornings, birds chirped from the
tree branches, and the soft mooing of cows could be heard from the nearby fields. Grand-
mother Verma would be busy in the kitchen, preparing food for the family—chapatis
on the clay stove, dal bubbling in a brass pot, and vegetables freshly plucked from the
garden. The smell of spices, ginger, and coriander filled the air, and it seemed to mix
with the earthiness of the mud walls.
4. As the sun began to set, casting a warm orange glow over the village, the quietness set-
tled in. The sky turned from blue to pink, and the only sounds were the distant laughter
of children and the low hum of crickets. The Verma house, with its familiar rhythms of
life, stood quietly, a symbol of simplicity, tradition, and the passage of time.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 12 NODIA

5. For the villagers, the house was more than just a structure—it was a reminder of their
roots. It was a place where stories were passed down, where life slowed down, and where
the traditions of their ancestors lived on. Even as the world outside changed, the Verma
house remained, standing strong in the heart of the village, untouched by time.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. According to paragraph 1, what natural feature provides shade to the old Verma
house? 1
ii. How does the author describe the role of Grandfather Verma in the village, as mentioned
in paragraph 2? 1
iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1
The phrase “a symbol of simplicity, tradition, and the passage of time” in paragraph 4
suggests that the Verma house is more than just a building; it represents the village’s
connection to its past and a simple way of life.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The Verma house symbolizes _____.
(A) the traditions and history of the village
(B) the changing times and modern life
iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
The Verma family kitchen was filled with the aroma of _____.

v. Why does the writer describe the courtyard as “alive with activity” in paragraph 3? 1
Because
(A) The village children gather to listen to stories.
(B) Birds, cows, and the preparation of food make the courtyard lively.
(C) It is where the family gathers for important discussions.
(D) It represents the heart of the village’s social life.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
The Verma house stands as a reminder of the village’s traditions.

vii. In the line, ‘the quietness settled in…’ (Paragraph 4), what does the phrase ‘quietness
settled in’ suggest about the mood as the evening approaches? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 3 : 1

chapatis: stove :: dal: _____
(A) brass pot (B) garden
(C) mud walls (D) courtyard
ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘the Verma house was more than just a struc-
ture’ in paragraph 5 uses figurative language? 1
(A) It emphasizes the symbolic importance of the house.
(B) It compares the house to a living entity.
(C) It reflects the emotional connection of the villagers to the house.
(D) It personifies the house as something alive and active.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 12 Page 3

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of maintaining the old Verma house, as sug-
gested in paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Introduction :
Climate change has significantly impacted global weather patterns, resulting in more
frequent and severe natural disasters. This case study explores the frequency of various
natural disasters over the last two decades and examines their geographical distribution.
The study aims to understand how regions are affected differently and what measures
can be taken to mitigate the impacts of such disasters.
2. Methodology :
Data was collected from multiple international agencies, tracking the occurrence of natu-
ral disasters such as floods, cyclones, droughts, and earthquakes. The data was analysed
to observe trends in disaster frequency and geographical distribution over the years. A
detailed comparison of regions most affected by each type of disaster was conducted,
leading to actionable insights for disaster preparedness.
3. Survey Examination :
The data from the survey focused on natural disasters that have occurred globally be-
tween 2000 and 2020. The disasters were classified by type, and their frequency in vari-
ous regions was compared. The study aimed to identify which regions are more vulner-
able to specific disasters and why. Factors like climate, geography, and human activities
were examined to understand their roles in increasing disaster risk.
4. Results: The chart below illustrates the frequency of major natural disasters in different
regions of the world over the last 20 years.
Region Floods (%) Cyclones (%) Droughts (%) Earthquakes
(%)
North America 30% 15% 10% 45%
South America 40% 5% 35% 20%
Africa 25% 10% 60% 5%
Asia 35% 40% 15% 10%
Europe 50% 5% 5% 40%
5. Implications for Interventions :
Understanding regional vulnerability to different natural disasters is critical for devising
effective disaster management strategies. Regions like Africa, where droughts dominate,
need to focus on water conservation and sustainable agriculture. In contrast, Asia,
which is prone to cyclones, should invest in early warning systems and coastal defenses.
International collaboration is essential to build resilience and reduce the loss of life and
property from future disasters.
6. Conclusion :
This study highlights the need for targeted interventions based on the types of natural
disasters each region faces. By addressing specific vulnerabilities, regions can improve
their disaster preparedness and reduce the impact of future catastrophic events.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 12 NODIA

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links climate change with natural disasters to high-
light _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To examine the frequency and geographical distribution of natural disasters.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Research outcome
(B) Primary objective
(C) Secondary objective
(D) Method of analysis

iii. Give two points to support why geographical distribution was included as a focus in the
study on natural disasters. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘climate’ and ‘geography.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘climate’ or ‘geography’:
Sentence 1: The high frequency of droughts in Africa is due to prolonged dry seasons.
Sentence 2: The occurrence of earthquakes in North America is due to tectonic plate
movement.

v. Read the following : 1

Sarah lives in North America, where earthquakes are frequent, while her friend Carlos
lives in South America, which is more prone to floods. Meanwhile, Fatima in Africa
struggles with droughts that affect her community’s livelihood.
Select the option that identifies the correct disaster vulnerability for Sarah, Carlos, and
Fatima.
(A) Sarah – cyclones; Carlos – droughts; Fatima – floods
(B) Sarah – floods; Carlos – cyclones; Fatima – earthquakes
(C) Sarah – earthquakes; Carlos – floods; Fatima – droughts
(D) Sarah – droughts; Carlos – earthquakes; Fatima – cyclones

vi. Although Asia and Europe experience different natural disasters, why does Europe have
a higher percentage of floods? 1

vii. Analyse how targeted disaster preparedness interventions can reduce the impact of nat-
ural disasters in regions like Africa and Asia. (Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) To predict future natural disasters with certainty
(B) To build international cooperation for disaster relief
(C) To reduce the loss of life and property from natural disasters
(D) To focus on preventing only specific types of disasters

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 13 Page 1

Sample Paper 13
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12

1. The city park was a serene sanctuary nestled within the bustling urban landscape.
Towering oak trees lined the pathways, their leaves gently swaying in the breeze. The
afternoon sun filtered through the canopy, casting soft, dappled shadows on the ground
below. In the distance, a large fountain gurgled steadily, its water glistening in the
sunlight as it fell into a clear pool below. The air was filled with the fresh scent of grass
and flowers, providing a refreshing contrast to the car fumes and city noise just beyond
the park’s edge.
2. The park was alive with people enjoying the peaceful surroundings. Some sat on
benches, engrossed in books, while others strolled slowly along the winding paths, their
conversations soft and relaxed. In the open lawn, children played freely, their laughter
echoing through the trees. Joggers passed by, their rhythmic footsteps blending with the
sound of birds chirping from the branches overhead. The park provided a temporary
escape from the hustle and bustle of the city, a place where time seemed to move more
slowly.
3. As the afternoon began to fade into evening, the light in the park changed, casting a
golden hue over everything. The bright colors of the flowers seemed to intensify, the
yellows and reds standing out vibrantly against the deep green grass. A light breeze
swept through, carrying the scent of fresh water from the nearby pond, where ducks
swam lazily, leaving ripples in their wake. The park’s beauty was magnified in this light,
and for a moment, it felt as though the city outside had disappeared entirely.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 13 NODIA

4. By dusk, the park was enveloped in a calm stillness. The once busy pathways were now
quieter, with only a few people lingering to enjoy the fading sunlight. The trees stood
tall and silent, their leaves barely moving in the soft evening air. The fountain continued
its steady rhythm, the water shimmering in the dimming light. Streetlamps flickered on,
casting a warm glow along the paths and adding to the tranquil atmosphere. The city’s
noise faded into the background, leaving the park as a peaceful retreat for those who
remained.
5. The transformation of the park from a bustling afternoon hub to a quiet evening retreat
was one of its many charms. It was a place where people could find both energy and
rest, a dynamic space that changed with the time of day. Whether filled with laughter
or silence, the park was always a haven of peace in the heart of the city.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, how does the park contrast with the surrounding city? 1

ii. How does the author describe the atmosphere in the park during the afternoon, as
mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “dappled shadows” in paragraph 1 refers to the way sunlight filters through
the trees.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
Dappled shadows are important because _____.
(A) they create a calming effect as the light filters onto the ground.
(B) they make the park feel cooler than the busy streets outside.

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 2 : 1
The sound of people talking quietly and children laughing shows _____.

v. Why does the writer emphasize the park’s beauty in the evening in paragraph 3? 1
Because
(A) It shows the park’s ability to transform into a peaceful retreat.
(B) It highlights how the park becomes more vibrant in the evening.
(C) It describes how the city disappears at night.
(D) It emphasizes the fading sunlight and the movement of the ducks.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 3, to support the following : 1
The colors of the flowers became more vivid as the evening approached.

vii. In the line, ‘the park’s beauty was magnified in this light’ (Paragraph 3), what does the
phrase ‘magnified in this light’ suggest about the park’s appearance? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 1 : 1

oak trees: pathways :: streetlamps: _____
(A) benches (B) ducks
(C) shadows (D) evening paths

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 13 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘The park was a haven of peace’ in paragraph 5
uses descriptive language? 1
(A) It highlights the contrast between the park and the busy city.
(B) It explains the types of plants growing in the park.
(C) It focuses on the physical layout of the park.
(D) It describes the noise of the park.

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of visiting the park in the evening, as suggested
in paragraphs 4 and 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Climate change is increasingly recognized as one of the most critical issues of our
time. According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), global
temperatures have risen by 1.2°C since pre-industrial times. This rise in temperatures is
already leading to more frequent and severe extreme weather events, such as hurricanes,
wildfires, and prolonged droughts. As temperatures continue to rise, the effects of climate
change are expected to intensify.
2. The global increase in CO2 emissions is one of the major drivers of this temperature rise.
In 2023, the IPCC reported that global CO2 emissions had reached 36.8 billion metric
tons. The accompanying chart shows how different sectors contribute to global carbon
emissions :
Energy production: 40%
Transportation: 24%
Industry: 21%
Agriculture: 9%
Residential: 6%
3. One of the most alarming consequences of climate change is the melting of the polar ice
caps. Over the past century, global sea levels have risen by approximately 20 cm due to
this melting, with projections suggesting further rises in the coming decades. This sea
level rise is already causing severe flooding in low-lying coastal areas, displacing millions
of people and threatening biodiversity. Coastal ecosystems are particularly vulnerable,
as rising saltwater levels disrupt both human settlements and natural habitats.
4. To mitigate these effects, governments and international organizations are increasingly
focusing on renewable energy as a solution. In 2022, renewable energy sources, such
as solar and wind power, accounted for 28% of global electricity production. This is a
significant improvement, but it still falls short of what is needed to meet international
climate goals.
5. The IPCC has emphasized the need for immediate action to limit global warming to
1.5°C. To achieve this, global carbon emissions need to be reduced by 45% by 2030 and
brought down to net-zero by 2050. Without these reductions, the world risks facing
catastrophic environmental, economic, and social consequences.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 13 NODIA

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1
In the introduction, the researcher links rising global temperatures to extreme weather
events to highlight _____.
ii. What would the following be classified as? 1
To assess the contribution of different sectors to global carbon emissions.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why renewable energy is essential in mitigating climate
change, based on the passage. 2

iv. Paragraph 2 includes words – ‘carbon emissions’ and ‘renewable energy.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘carbon emissions’ or ‘renewable energy’:
Sentence 1: Wind and solar power accounted for 28% of global electricity production in
2022.
Sentence 2: Global CO2 emissions reached 36.8 billion metric tons in 2023.

v. Read the following : 1

Meena is concerned about the impact of transportation on climate change, while Rohit
lives in a coastal area and has been affected by rising sea levels. Kabir works in the
energy sector, which is responsible for a large portion of carbon emissions.
Select the option that identifies the correct environmental challenges Meena, Rohit, and
Kabir face.
(A) Meena – transportation emissions; Rohit – rising sea levels; Kabir – energy
production emissions
(B) Meena – energy production emissions; Rohit – transportation emissions; Kabir –
rising sea levels
(C) Meena – rising sea levels; Rohit – energy production emissions; Kabir – transportation
emissions
(D) Meena – carbon emissions; Rohit – energy production emissions; Kabir – renewable
energy

vi. Although renewable energy use has increased, why is this still insufficient to curb climate
change? 1

vii. Analyse how the rise in sea levels, caused by global warming, affects coastal ecosystems.
(Paragraph 3) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Increase global temperatures to reduce emissions
(B) Promote renewable energy to achieve net-zero emissions
(C) Continue using fossil fuels while reducing costs
(D) Halt efforts to limit climate change

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 14 Page 1

Sample Paper 14
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. The sun was setting over the hills, casting a golden glow on the small village nestled
in the valley. As the evening breeze rustled through the trees, the villagers began to
light their lanterns, filling the streets with a soft, warm light. Among them was Mira, a
quiet young woman who often wandered the hills at dusk, seeking solace in the tranquil
beauty of the landscape. The fading sunlight and the cool wind calmed her, offering a
peaceful escape from the busyness of village life. Mira often felt disconnected from the
daily routine, finding more comfort in nature than in the company of others.
2. Mira had always been different from the other villagers, preferring solitude over the
lively gatherings that filled the village square every evening. While the others danced
and shared stories around the fire, Mira would slip away unnoticed, climbing the steep
path that led to her favorite spot on the hill. From there, she could see the entire village
spread out below, the houses glowing faintly under the twilight sky. This was where she
found peace, where the worries of the day seemed to fade away, and she could dream of
a world beyond the hills.
3. Her family didn’t understand her need for solitude. They worried that Mira spent too
much time alone, lost in her thoughts. Her mother, in particular, often tried to coax her
into joining the others in the village, fearing that Mira’s quietness would isolate her from
the community. But Mira didn’t see it that way. She believed that her solitude gave her
a deeper connection to the world around her, to the earth, the sky, and the wind. It was
in these quiet moments, away from the noise of the village, that she felt most alive.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 14 NODIA

4. One evening, as Mira sat on the hill watching the stars appear in the sky, she felt a sense
of belonging she had never known before. It was as if the world had opened up to her,
revealing its secrets in the silence of the night. The stars twinkled brightly above, and
the village below was quiet, save for the occasional flicker of lantern light. For the first
time, Mira didn’t feel alone. She realized that she was part of something much larger
than the village, something vast and infinite, and in that moment, she felt a profound
sense of peace.
5. Days passed, and Mira’s routine remained the same. Each evening, she ventured up the
hill to find comfort in the solitude of the open sky. The villagers noticed her absence
but did not ask. They knew her well enough to understand that she found something
on those hills that they could not provide. While they celebrated their lives in the
village square, Mira celebrated in her own way, under the stars, with the world as her
companion. Over time, she realized that both ways of living were valid, and though her
path was different, it was no less meaningful.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, how does the setting sun affect Mira’s emotions? 1

ii. How does the author describe Mira’s relationship with the village, as mentioned in
paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “Mira’s quietness” in paragraph 3 refers to her tendency to avoid the lively
gatherings.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
Mira’s quietness is important because _____.
(A) It allows her to connect with nature on a deeper level.
(B) It isolates her from the village completely.

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
Mira’s family was concerned because _____.

v. Why does the writer emphasize Mira’s experience on the hill in paragraph 4? 1
Because
(A) It shows her discovery of a deeper connection to the world.
(B) It reveals her loneliness and sense of isolation.
(C) It describes how she feels about the villagers.
(D) It highlights her love for village life.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
Mira felt a sense of belonging she had never experienced before.

vii. In the line, ‘The world had opened up to her’ (Paragraph 4), what does the phrase
‘opened up to her’ suggest about Mira’s transformation? 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 14 Page 3

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 1 : 1

sunlight: day :: lanterns: _____
(A) evening (B) light
(C) hills (D) peace

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘Mira didn’t feel alone’ in paragraph 4 uses
descriptive language? 1
(A) It describes the peace she feels in nature.
(B) It focuses on her desire to escape the village.
(C) It highlights her fear of being disconnected from others.
(D) It explains her interactions with the villagers.

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of Mira’s preference for solitude, as suggested
in paragraphs 3 and 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. The global consumption of single-use plastics has increased dramatically over the last
few decades, leading to a mounting waste crisis. Every year, over 300 million tons of
plastic are produced, with 50% designed for single-use purposes such as packaging,
straws, and cutlery. Unfortunately, only 9% of all plastic waste has ever been recycled,
while 12% is incinerated, and the rest accumulates in landfills or the environment.
2. The majority of plastic waste finds its way into the oceans, where it creates devastating
environmental effects. Marine life is particularly vulnerable, as plastic pollution harms
sea creatures by entangling them or being ingested. According to a study by the Ellen
MacArthur Foundation, by 2050, the ocean could contain more plastic by weight than fish.
3. Countries around the world have implemented policies to address this growing problem.
In 2019, the European Union adopted the Single-Use Plastics Directive, which bans
the use of certain plastic products and promotes the use of sustainable alternatives.
Similarly, several countries, including India, Kenya, and Canada, have introduced bans
on plastic bags, aiming to curb the amount of plastic waste generated.
4. Despite these efforts, the global plastic crisis remains unsolved. One reason is that plastic
is inexpensive to produce, making it a preferred material for industries. Additionally, the
recycling infrastructure in many countries is insufficient to handle the sheer volume of
plastic waste produced.
5. Innovative solutions are emerging to combat the plastic waste problem. Researchers
are developing biodegradable plastics that break down naturally in the environment,
while companies are exploring reusable alternatives to single-use products. However,
widespread adoption of these innovations will require significant investments and changes
in consumer behavior.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links single-use plastics to the growing waste crisis to
highlight _____.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 14 NODIA

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To investigate the environmental and economic impacts of single-use plastics.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why single-use plastics are challenging to manage, based on the
passage. 2
iv. Paragraph 2 includes words – ‘marine life’ and ‘plastic waste.’ 1
Classify the following sentences as ‘marine life’ or ‘plastic waste’:
Sentence 1: Sea creatures are often entangled in or ingest plastic debris.
Sentence 2: Over 300 million tons of plastic are produced globally each year.
v. Read the following : 1
Ravi frequently uses plastic straws and cutlery, while Priya has switched to biodegradable
alternatives. Arjun, their mutual friend, is concerned about marine life being harmed by
plastic pollution.
Select the option that identifies the correct environmental issues associated with Ravi,
Priya, and Arjun.
(A) Ravi – single-use plastics; Priya – biodegradable alternatives; Arjun – marine life
(B) Ravi – marine life; Priya – plastic waste; Arjun – biodegradable alternatives
(C) Ravi – biodegradable alternatives; Priya – single-use plastics; Arjun – plastic waste
(D) Ravi – marine life; Priya – biodegradable alternatives; Arjun – single-use plastics

vi. Although many countries have banned plastic products, why does the global plastic
crisis continue to persist? 1

vii. Analyse how innovations like biodegradable plastics can help reduce plastic waste.
(Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Increase the production of single-use plastics
(B) Implement stronger bans on plastic across all countries
(C) Promote investment in sustainable alternatives and reduce plastic consumption
(D) Encourage the incineration of more plastic waste

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4

A. You are Sahil Sagar, the President of Nehru Yuva Club, Delhi. You have planned to
take a trekking trip for 15 days to Rohtang Pass next month. Write a notice giving all
necessary information to invite participants for trekking programme.


O
B. As the Director, Primary Section, write a notice in about 50 words for the children
announcing the programme for the Children’s Day.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 15 Page 1

Sample Paper 15
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. The small town of Shimla, nestled in the foothills of the Himalayas, wakes up to the soft
glow of the morning sun. The cool mountain air carries the scent of pine trees, and the
narrow streets are quiet, except for the occasional chirping of birds. As the mist lifts
from the surrounding hills, the town comes alive with the clatter of footsteps and the
sound of tea stalls opening for the day. The first rays of sunlight touch the rooftops of
the old colonial buildings, which stand as reminders of a bygone era.
2. Shimla’s charm lies not only in its scenic beauty but also in its rich history. The town
was once the summer capital of British India, and traces of its colonial past can still be
seen in the architecture, from the grand Viceregal Lodge to the small cottages lining the
Mall Road. The streets are lined with tall deodar trees, and at every turn, one can catch
a glimpse of the snow-capped peaks in the distance. Tourists flock to Shimla to escape
the heat of the plains and enjoy the cool mountain air, often spending their afternoons
walking along the winding roads or sitting on the benches overlooking the valley.
3. As the day progresses, the town’s pace quickens. The local market fills with the hustle and
bustle of vendors selling everything from fresh produce to woolen shawls. Tourists haggle
over prices while shopkeepers call out their wares. The scent of street food—hot pakoras
and spicy chaat—fills the air, mixing with the earthy smell of the mountains. Amid the
activity, the town’s clock tower stands tall, its chimes marking the passing hours.
4. By evening, the town slows down again. The golden hues of the setting sun bathe the
hills in a warm glow, and a peaceful stillness settles over Shimla. The streets, once filled
with activity, become quiet as shopkeepers close their stalls and tourists return to their
hotels. The chilly night air begins to settle in, and the lights of the town twinkle against
the darkening sky, giving Shimla a magical, almost timeless, feel.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 15 NODIA

5. Shimla is not just a hill station; it is a place where time seems to slow down, where the
past meets the present, and where nature and history come together to create a sense of
peace and tranquility. For those who visit, Shimla offers a brief escape from the rush of
modern life, allowing them to pause, reflect, and reconnect with the simpler joys of life.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. According to paragraph 1, what does the scent of pine trees in Shimla’s morning air
represent? 1

ii. How does the author describe the connection between Shimla’s colonial past and its
present, as mentioned in paragraph 2? 1
iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1
The phrase “where time seems to slow down” in paragraph 5 suggests that Shimla
provides a sense of calm and escape from the fast-paced modern world.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
Shimla’s atmosphere feels timeless because _____.
(A) it combines natural beauty with historical charm
(B) it is a popular destination for tourists
iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3: 1
The scent of street food in Shimla fills the market because _____.
v. Why does the writer describe Shimla as “a place where nature and history come together”
in paragraph 5? 1
Because
(A) It is a historic hill station with natural beauty and a rich colonial past.
(B) Shimla is known for its popular shopping centers and local markets.
(C) The town is famous for its tea stalls and scenic roads.
(D) It is an important business hub in the mountains.
vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
Shimla becomes peaceful in the evening after a busy day.
vii. In the line, ‘the golden hues of the setting sun bathe the hills in a warm glow’ (Paragraph
4), what does the phrase ‘golden hues’ suggest about the mood as evening approaches? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 3 : 1

tourists: haggle :: shopkeepers: _____
(A) sell (B) buy
(C) stroll (D) rest

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘Shimla offers a brief escape from the rush of
modern life’ in paragraph 5 uses descriptive language? 1
(A) It explains Shimla’s popularity as a tourist destination.
(B) It highlights Shimla’s ability to offer peace and tranquility.
(C) It compares Shimla to other hill stations in the region.
(D) It focuses on the activities people enjoy in Shimla.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 15 Page 3

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of maintaining Shimla’s natural and historical
beauty, as suggested in paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Urbanization has resulted in significant changes in global land use patterns. As more
people migrate to cities, the need for housing, infrastructure, and resources has grown. This
demand often leads to the destruction of natural ecosystems. The case study looks into how
urbanization has impacted land use and the environmental consequences that follow.
2. Data from the United Nations shows that over 55% of the world’s population currently
resides in urban areas, and this is expected to rise to 68% by 2050. Urbanization has been
responsible for the loss of 30% of the world’s forests over the past century. Furthermore,
around 3 million hectares of agricultural land are being converted into urban areas each
year, raising concerns about food security.
3. The study found that urban growth significantly increases the consumption of natural
resources, especially in cities:
60% of the total energy is consumed by the industrial and transportation sectors in
urban areas.
Urban regions are responsible for 75% of global CO2 emissions, which contributes heavily
to climate change and worsening air quality.
This shows that cities, while being hubs of economic activity, are also major contributors
to environmental degradation through their high levels of resource consumption.
4. Urban sprawl has fragmented natural ecosystems, with habitats being divided by
roads, buildings, and other infrastructure. The loss of habitats has led to a decline in
biodiversity, particularly in densely populated regions. The study highlights that 40% of
species in urban areas face extinction due to habitat loss.
5. Efforts to reduce the environmental impacts of urbanization include promoting sustainable
city planning and integrating green infrastructure. Investments in public transportation
can also help minimize the carbon footprint. It is projected that curbing urban sprawl
could reduce CO2 emissions by 15% globally by 2050.
6. The case study emphasizes the need to balance urban development with environmental
preservation. By integrating nature-based solutions into urban planning, cities can
accommodate population growth while reducing environmental damage.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably.

In the introduction, the researcher links urbanization with land use changes to highlight
_____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To examine the effects of urbanization on global land use and the environmental
consequences that follow.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 15 NODIA

iii. Give two points to support why habitat fragmentation was included as a focus in the
study on urbanization. 2
iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘energy consumption’ and ‘biodiversity loss.’ 1
Classify the following sentences as ‘energy consumption’ or ‘biodiversity loss’:
Sentence 1: The expansion of cities has caused habitat loss for many species, reducing
their populations.
Sentence 2: Industries and transportation in urban areas are the largest consumers of
energy.
v. Read the following : 1
Arun works in the transportation sector in a large city, where most energy is consumed
by transportation and industries. His neighbor Suresh prefers living on the city outskirts,
where he enjoys a quiet lifestyle surrounded by forests. Meanwhile, Rina lives in a rapidly
expanding suburb where urban sprawl is leading to habitat fragmentation.
Select the option that identifies the correct demographic Arun, Suresh, and Rina belong
to.
(A) Arun – urban resident; Suresh – rural dweller; Rina – suburban resident
(B) Arun – suburban resident; Suresh – urban resident; Rina – rural dweller
(C) Arun – rural dweller; Suresh – urban resident; Rina – suburban resident
(D) Arun – urban resident; Suresh – suburban resident; Rina – rural dweller
vi. Although both rural and urban areas face environmental challenges, why is biodiversity
loss more prevalent in urban regions? 1

vii. Analyse how integrating green infrastructure into city planning can help mitigate the
environmental impacts of urbanization. (Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) To promote urban growth at the expense of natural ecosystems
(B) To reduce global food production for urban development
(C) To balance urbanization with environmental conservation
(D) To limit urbanization to rural regions

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4
A. You are Shalini/ Shailesh, in charge of the NSS Club of St. Andrew’s School, Bhopal.
Write a notice about a charity show being organized by the club to collect articles and
money for people affected by earthquake in Uttarakhand. Write the notice in about 50
words. Include relevant details such as purpose of the show, kind of events, tickets and
show timing, etc.


O
B. As the Sports Captain of your school, write a notice in about 50 words informing
budding cricketers to attend trials for Under-16 and Under-18 for final selection to the
school teams. Sign off as Sunny Arora. Invent all necessary details as required.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 16 Page 1

Sample Paper 16
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. In the early morning, before the city of Kolkata fully awakens, the Howrah Bridge stands
in quiet majesty over the Hooghly River. The bridge, with its enormous steel beams
and towering pillars, is one of the busiest in the world. As dawn breaks, the first rays
of sunlight glimmer on the surface of the water, and the bridge begins to come alive.
Slowly, the hum of engines and the footsteps of commuters fill the air as people make
their way across, heading to work or returning home after a long night.
2. The Howrah Bridge is not just a structure of steel and iron; it is a lifeline that connects
the twin cities of Howrah and Kolkata. Thousands of vehicles and pedestrians cross it
daily, making it one of the most essential parts of Kolkata’s bustling life. It is more than
just a means of transport; it is a symbol of the city’s resilience and unity. No matter the
time of day, the bridge stands strong, carrying the weight of the city’s hopes, dreams,
and struggles.
3. For those who walk across the bridge early in the morning, the scene is different. The
cool breeze from the river brings a sense of calm, and the city’s noise feels distant.
Fishermen can be seen casting their nets into the Hooghly’s waters, hoping for a good
catch, while boatmen row gently along the river. The bridge, towering above them,
seems to watch over the river, silently witnessing the daily rhythm of life.
4. As the day progresses, the city’s pulse quickens. The once peaceful bridge becomes a hive
of activity. Buses, cars, bicycles, and hand-pulled rickshaws all jostle for space, moving
in a chaotic yet synchronized flow. Street vendors set up their stalls at the foot of the
bridge, selling everything from fruits to newspapers. The Howrah Bridge, now bustling
with life, is a testament to Kolkata’s vibrancy and unyielding spirit.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 16 NODIA

5. By nightfall, the bridge stands lit against the dark sky, its lights reflecting on the water
below. Even in the stillness of night, the Howrah Bridge remains a beacon of the city’s
strength, connecting two sides, two cities, and countless lives. It is not just a bridge; it
is the heartbeat of Kolkata, standing tall against the passage of time.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. According to paragraph 1, what role does the Howrah Bridge play in the daily life of
Kolkata? 1
ii. How does the author describe the significance of the bridge for the people of Kolkata, as
mentioned in paragraph 2? 1
iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1
The phrase “a lifeline that connects the twin cities” in paragraph 2 suggests that the
Howrah Bridge is essential for the daily functioning of Kolkata and Howrah.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The Howrah Bridge is a lifeline because _____.
(A) it carries thousands of vehicles and pedestrians every day
(B) it is the tallest structure in Kolkata

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
The Howrah Bridge provides a sense of calm in the early morning because _____.

v. Why does the writer describe the bridge as a “symbol of the city’s resilience” in paragraph
2? 1
Because
(A) The bridge helps people reach work on time.
(B) The bridge connects the city in both a physical and emotional sense.
(C) It is the most iconic structure in Kolkata.
(D) It helps street vendors set up their stalls every day.
vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
The Howrah Bridge transforms into a busy hub of activity as the day progresses.
vii. In the line, ‘the bridge, towering above them, seems to watch over the river’ (Paragraph 3),
what does the phrase ‘watch over the river’ suggest about the bridge’s presence? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 4 : 1

vehicles: traffic :: street vendors: _____
(A) river (B) stalls
(C) Howrah (D) bridge

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘the Howrah Bridge remains a beacon of the
city’s strength’ in paragraph 5 uses figurative language? 1
(A) It suggests the bridge represents Kolkata’s enduring spirit.
(B) It compares the bridge to a literal beacon.
(C) It emphasizes the physical size of the bridge.
(D) It describes the lights on the bridge.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 16 Page 3

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of maintaining such an important structure,

as suggested in paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Climate change is one of the most pressing challenges facing the world today. Rising
global temperatures have led to extreme weather events, sea-level rise, and ecosystem
disruptions. This case study examines the global trends in greenhouse gas (GHG)
emissions, identifying key sectors contributing to these emissions and evaluating efforts
to reduce them.
2. Data from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) shows that global
GHG emissions have increased by 45% over the last three decades. In developed
countries, emissions have slightly decreased, while in developing countries, emissions
have risen by 60% due to industrialization and population growth. The global average
CO2 emissions per capita is 4.8 tons, with developed countries averaging 10 tons and
developing countries averaging 2.5 tons.
3. The data highlights that 25% of global GHG emissions come from the energy sector,
followed by agriculture at 24%, industry at 21%, and transportation at 14%. In developing
nations, agriculture and energy are the primary sources of emissions, while in developed
countries, industrial and transportation sectors play a larger role. These differences
reflect variations in economic activities and resource use across regions.
4. The study also found that deforestation, which contributes to 12% of global emissions,
is a major concern in regions like South America and Southeast Asia, where forests are
cleared for agricultural purposes. Deforestation, combined with fossil fuel combustion,
accounts for the majority of CO2 emissions globally.
5. Efforts to reduce GHG emissions include transitioning to renewable energy, improving
energy efficiency, and adopting sustainable agricultural practices. In energy production,
solar and wind energy have the potential to reduce CO2 emissions by 30% by 2050, while
reforestation efforts could sequester up to 10% of global emissions annually.
6. This study emphasizes the need for global cooperation to mitigate climate change.
By adopting cleaner energy sources, reducing deforestation, and improving industrial
practices, it is possible to limit global warming to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels and
avoid the most severe impacts of climate change.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links rising global temperatures with climate change
to highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To identify key sectors contributing to global greenhouse gas emissions and evaluate
efforts to reduce them.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Method of analysis (B) Research outcome
(C) Primary objective (D) Secondary objective

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 16 NODIA

iii. Give two points to support why agriculture was included as a focus in the study on GHG
emissions. 2
iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘energy sector’ and ‘deforestation.’ 1
Classify the following sentences as ‘energy sector’ or ‘deforestation’:
Sentence 1: Clearing forests for agriculture leads to higher CO2 emissions.
Sentence 2: Burning fossil fuels for electricity generation is a major source of GHG
emissions.
v. Read the following : 1
James drives a car daily for commuting, which adds to GHG emissions from
transportation. Ravi works in agriculture, where he uses fertilizers that release GHGs
into the atmosphere. Priya, who lives in an industrial area, works in a factory that emits
CO2 due to the production process.
Select the option that identifies the correct sector contributing to emissions for James,
Ravi, and Priya.
(A) James – industry; Ravi – transportation; Priya – agriculture
(B) James – transportation; Ravi – industry; Priya – agriculture
(C) James – transportation; Ravi – agriculture; Priya – industry
(D) James – agriculture; Ravi – transportation; Priya – industry

vi. Although both developing and developed countries contribute to global GHG emissions,
why is the contribution of the energy sector higher in developed countries? 1

vii. Analyse how transitioning to renewable energy could significantly reduce global
greenhouse gas emissions, particularly in the energy sector. (Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Increase emissions in the industrial sector
(B) Transition entirely to solar energy
(C) Limit global warming to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels
(D) Focus solely on reducing transportation emissions

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4
A. You are Shikha Kapoor, General Secretary of Sports Club of Meera Bai School, Dehradun.
Your school has decided to celebrate the Silver Jubilee function of the school in the form
of Annual Sports Day. Write a notice on the school notice board inviting the names of
the students who want to participate in any of the sports activity or to put up any show
on the stage.


O
B. While walking in a park in your neighbourhood you found a small plastic bag containing
some documents and some cash. Write a notice in about 50 words to be put on the park
noticeboard asking the owner to identify and collect it from you. You are Amar/Amrita
943912xxxx.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 17 Page 1

Sample Paper 17
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. India has one of the largest railway networks in the world, spanning over 67,000 kilometers
and serving as a crucial mode of transport for millions of people. Indian Railways,
established during British rule in 1853, has grown to become a lifeline for the nation.
Every day, more than 23 million passengers use Indian Railways, making it one of the
busiest and most essential transport systems globally. From bustling cities to remote
villages, trains connect people across the length and breadth of the country.
2. The Indian Railways operates a variety of trains to meet the needs of different travelers.
High-speed trains like the Vande Bharat Express and Shatabdi Express have made long-
distance travel faster and more comfortable. These trains cater to those looking for speed
and efficiency. On the other hand, local passenger trains provide an affordable mode of
transportation for daily commuters, particularly in rural areas and smaller towns. These
trains are often crowded but remain a lifeline for millions of people who rely on them for
their livelihood and everyday commute.
3. What makes the Indian Railways unique is its vast diversity. Trains travel through a
wide range of landscapes, from the snow-capped mountains of Jammu and Kashmir to
the desert plains of Rajasthan, and the lush green fields of Kerala. The experience of
traveling on Indian Railways is not just about getting from one place to another, but
also about witnessing the geographical and cultural diversity of India. At every station,
passengers are treated to regional food and local flavors, making each journey a blend of
travel and cultural experience.
4. Despite its importance, the Indian Railways faces several challenges. Overcrowding,
delays, and an aging infrastructure are some of the issues that affect passengers. The
government has recognized these challenges and has been investing in modernization

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 17 NODIA

projects. These include the electrification of tracks, upgrading stations, and introducing
more environmentally friendly practices like solar energy in railway stations. The aim is
to make Indian Railways more efficient, safer, and eco-friendly.
5. Indian Railways is more than just a transportation system; it is an integral part of
India’s economy and social fabric. It connects cities, towns, and villages, providing
affordable transport to the common man while also supporting trade and commerce.
As India continues to modernize, the railways will remain a key player in the country’s
development.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, how many passengers use the Indian Railways each day? 1

ii. How does Indian Railways serve different types of passengers, as mentioned in
paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “a lifeline for the nation” in paragraph 1 suggests that Indian Railways plays
an essential role in connecting people across the country.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
Indian Railways is a lifeline because _____.
(A) it connects people across urban and rural areas
(B) it only serves high-speed trains and large cities

iv. Complete the following with ONE reason, with reference to paragraph 4 : 1
The government is investing in modernization because _____.

v. Why does the writer emphasize the diversity of landscapes in paragraph 3? 1

Because
(A) It shows how the trains offer scenic journeys across India’s vast terrains.
(B) It explains why Indian Railways is the largest in the world.
(C) It demonstrates how difficult it is to maintain the railway system.
(D) It shows how regional food plays an important role in train journeys.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
The Indian Railways is improving its infrastructure to meet modern challenges.

vii. In the line, ‘the railways will remain a key player in the country’s development’ (Paragraph
5), what does the phrase ‘key player’ suggest about the role of Indian Railways in the
future? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 2 : 1

local passenger trains: affordability :: high-speed trains : _____
(A) slow journeys (B) crowded compartments
(C) efficiency (D) regional food

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 17 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘Indian Railways is more than just a transportation
system; it is an integral part of India’s economy and social fabric’ in paragraph 5 uses
factual language? 1
(A) It presents the role of railways in connecting people and boosting commerce.
(B) It focuses on how trains operate in urban areas.
(C) It suggests the modernization efforts happening in Indian Railways.
(D) It highlights the scenic routes across the country.

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of modernization projects for Indian Railways,
as suggested in paragraph 4. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Global literacy rates have improved significantly over the past few decades, with
the global average currently at 86%. However, disparities still exist between regions,
especially in developing countries where the literacy rate averages 73%. In contrast,
developed countries boast a 99% literacy rate. This case study explores the literacy rates
across various regions and the factors contributing to these differences.
2. Data was collected from UNESCO and other international education reports to analyze
global literacy rates among individuals aged 15 and above. In developing countries, the
gender disparity in literacy rates is notable, with 80% of males being literate compared
to 70% of females. Factors such as education access, government investment, and rural-
urban divides were considered in understanding their impact on literacy levels.
3. The survey examined the literacy gap between rural and urban populations. In developing
countries, rural areas have a literacy rate of 60%, significantly lower than the 85% rate
in urban regions. The reasons behind low literacy rates in rural areas were primarily
due to poverty and lack of infrastructure. Social inequality also plays a major role, with
females in rural areas disproportionately affected.
4. The results of the survey highlighted significant disparities between regions. In developing
countries, 73% literacy was observed, while developed countries maintained an impressive
99% rate. Gender disparity continues to be a pressing issue, particularly in developing
regions, with 80% of males literate compared to 70% of females. The rural literacy rate,
at 60%, lags significantly behind urban areas, where it stands at 85%.
5. The data shows that, despite global improvements, literacy efforts need to focus
on marginalized communities in developing countries. Government investment in
infrastructure and education, particularly in rural regions, is crucial. Scholarships for
girls, teacher training, and school-building initiatives in rural areas can raise literacy
rates, particularly in areas where gender and geographic disparities persist.
6. The study emphasizes the need for targeted interventions in developing regions to
improve global literacy. Reducing the literacy gap, especially in rural and marginalized
communities, could increase overall global literacy beyond the current 86% average, and
significantly boost development and social equity in those regions.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 17 NODIA

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links global literacy rates with educational policy to
highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To explore the factors contributing to literacy rate disparities between developed and
developing countries.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Research outcome (B) Secondary objective
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why gender disparity was included as a focus in the study on
literacy rates. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘poverty’ and ‘social inequality.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘poverty’ or ‘social inequality’:
Sentence 1: Lack of funds to build schools in rural areas affects literacy rates.
Sentence 2: Girls in developing countries are often denied education due to cultural
norms.

v. Read the following : 1

Ravi lives in a rural area in a developing country, where the literacy rate is 60%. His
sister, Priya, faces additional barriers due to gender disparity, as only 70% of females in
their country are literate.
Select the option that identifies the correct factors affecting Ravi and Priya’s literacy
rates.
(A) Geographic disparity and gender disparity
(B) Poverty and access to technology
(C) Urbanization and economic development
(D) Government investment and cultural norms

vi. Although rural and urban areas both show significant differences in literacy rates, why
is the literacy rate in rural areas much lower? 1

vii. Analyse how targeted interventions in rural areas and among females can significantly
improve literacy rates in developing regions. 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Increase government spending on technology
(B) Close the literacy gap between developed and developing countries
(C) Promote literacy only in urban areas
(D) Focus on higher education programs exclusively

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 18 Page 1

Sample Paper 18
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. The Pacific Ocean, the largest and deepest ocean on Earth, covers more than 63 million
square miles. It holds more water than all of the world’s land above sea level combined.
It stretches from the Arctic Ocean in the north to the Southern Ocean in the south, and
from Asia and Australia in the west to the Americas in the east. The Pacific Ocean is so
vast that it accounts for one-third of the Earth’s total surface area.
2. Due to its size, the Pacific Ocean plays a critical role in regulating the Earth’s climate. It
absorbs a significant amount of heat from the atmosphere, which helps to stabilize global
temperatures. The ocean’s currents, such as the North Pacific Current and the South
Equatorial Current, transport warm and cold water across vast distances, influencing
weather patterns all over the globe. For example, the El Niño phenomenon, which is
caused by variations in Pacific Ocean currents, can lead to drastic changes in weather
conditions, including droughts and floods in different parts of the world.
3. The Pacific Ocean is also home to an extraordinary array of marine life. Its ecosystems
range from coral reefs near tropical islands to the cold, nutrient-rich waters of the
northern regions. Many species of fish, whales, sharks, and sea turtles depend on the
Pacific for food and habitat. However, the ocean is facing numerous threats, including
overfishing, pollution, and climate change. Plastic waste is a growing problem, with large
patches of floating debris, such as the Great Pacific Garbage Patch, posing a severe
threat to marine life.
4. Human activity along the Pacific Rim, where many of the world’s largest cities are
located, also affects the ocean. Coastal development, industrial pollution, and shipping
routes contribute to the degradation of the ocean’s health. Conservation efforts are

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 18 NODIA

underway, including protected marine areas and international agreements aimed at

reducing pollution and protecting biodiversity. Yet, much remains to be done to ensure
the long-term health of the Pacific Ocean.
5. The Pacific Ocean is not just a body of water; it is a vital part of the global ecosystem.
Its influence on weather, climate, and marine life makes it an essential component of life
on Earth. Preserving its health is crucial for the future of the planet.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, how much of the Earth’s surface is covered by the Pacific
Ocean? 1

ii. How does the Pacific Ocean contribute to stabilizing global temperatures, as mentioned
in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “critical role in regulating the Earth’s climate” in paragraph 2 suggests that
the Pacific Ocean is essential in maintaining stable weather conditions globally.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The Pacific Ocean’s influence on the climate comes from _____.
(A) its currents and ability to absorb heat
(B) the presence of marine species like whales

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 2 : 1
The Pacific Ocean affects weather patterns through _____.

v. Why does the writer refer to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch in paragraph 3? 1
Because
(A) It shows the scale of pollution affecting marine life.
(B) It highlights a natural feature of the Pacific.
(C) It explains how the Pacific Ocean forms ocean currents.
(D) It indicates the Pacific’s ability to sustain life.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
Human activity along the Pacific Rim has a significant impact on the ocean’s health.

vii. In the line, ‘much remains to be done to ensure the long-term health of the Pacific
Ocean’ (Paragraph 4), what does the phrase ‘much remains to be done’ suggest about
conservation efforts? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 3 : 1

coral reefs: tropical :: nutrient-rich waters: _____
(A) garbage patches (B) deep ocean
(C) northern regions (D) marine animals

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 18 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘the Pacific Ocean is a vital part of the global
ecosystem’ in paragraph 5 uses factual language? 1
(A) It uses data and information about the ocean’s size.
(B) It is backed by scientific knowledge of the ocean’s importance.
(C) It reflects the opinion of environmental groups.
(D) It focuses on the beauty of the ocean.

x. Evaluate the potential challenges or benefits of international agreements to protect the

Pacific Ocean, as suggested in paragraph 4. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Introduction :
In recent years, the rise of e-commerce has transformed the way people shop, affecting
both consumer behavior and the traditional retail industry. This case study aims to
explore the purchasing preferences of different age groups when it comes to online
shopping versus in-store shopping and their impact on the retail market.
2. Methodology :
A survey was conducted among individuals of varying age groups to determine their
preferred shopping method. Participants were asked to indicate whether they primarily
shop online, in physical stores, or a combination of both. Data was collected and analysed
to observe trends in purchasing behavior and the factors influencing their choices.
3. Survey Examination :
The survey looked into the preferences for online and in-store shopping, focusing on
convenience, product variety, and price comparison. Participants were encouraged to
elaborate on why they favored one method over the other, offering insights into the
influence of technology, accessibility, and personal habits on their shopping choices.
4. Results :
The survey results revealed the following shopping preferences across age groups:
Age Group % Prefer Online Shopping Reasons for Preference
Teenagers 75% Convenience, Technology familiarity,
Peer influence
Young Adults 65% Time-saving, Price comparison,
Product variety
Middle-aged 45% In-store experience, Product inspec-
tion, Customer service
Elderly 30% Familiarity with physical stores,
Trust, Personal interaction
5. Implications for Interventions :
The findings suggest that retail businesses should adopt strategies that cater to the
preferences of different age groups. For example, enhancing the online shopping experience
for younger consumers while improving in-store customer service for older shoppers could
lead to increased customer satisfaction. Retailers can also focus on integrating technology
in physical stores to bridge the gap between online and in-store shopping experiences.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 18 NODIA

6. Conclusion :
This study provides key insights into how the rise of e-commerce is reshaping consumer
habits. By understanding the different shopping preferences across age groups, businesses
can tailor their strategies to meet the needs of both online and in-store shoppers,
ultimately improving customer engagement and competitiveness in the market.

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links e-commerce with consumer behavior and the
retail industry to highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To explore the purchasing preferences of different age groups when it comes to online
shopping versus in-store shopping.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Research outcome (B) Method of analysis
(C) Secondary objective (D) Primary objective

iii. Give two points to support why e-commerce was included as a focus in the survey on
purchasing preferences. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘technology’ and ‘habits.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘technology’ or ‘habit’:
Sentence 1: The familiarity with smartphones and apps leads teenagers to prefer online
shopping.
Sentence 2: Elderly shoppers prefer in-store shopping due to their long-standing habits.

v. Read the following : 1

Aman is a teenager who enjoys the convenience of shopping online. His older brother,
Rohit, prefers the flexibility of comparing prices and buying both online and in stores.
Their father, Rajesh, values the personal interaction he gets from in-store shopping.
Select the option that identifies the correct age group for Aman, Rohit, and Rajesh.
(A) Aman – young adult; Rohit – middle-aged; Rajesh – elderly
(B) Aman – teenager; Rohit – young adult; Rajesh – middle-aged
(C) Aman – teenager; Rohit – middle-aged; Rajesh – elderly
(D) Aman – young adult; Rohit – elderly; Rajesh – teenager

vi. Although young adults and teenagers both show a strong preference for online shopping,
why is the percentage highest among teenagers? 1

vii. Analyse how improving the in-store shopping experience for older age groups can benefit
retailers. (Paragraph 5) 2

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Improve technology used in online shopping
(B) Create a more personalized shopping experience

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 18 Page 5

(C) Increase sales across all shopping platforms

(D) Expand the number of physical stores

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4

A. Water supply will be suspended for eight hours (10 am to 6 pm) on 6th of March for
cleaning of the water tank. Write a notice in about 50 words advising the residents to
store water for a day. You are Karan Kumar/Karuna Bajaj, Secretary, Janata Group
Housing Society, Palam Vihar, Kurnool.


O
B. You are Mahender, Sports Captain, St. John’s School, Lucicnow. Write a notice in 50
words for the school notice board informing students about an Inter School Football
match to be played in your school. Invite them to watch and cheer the teams.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4

A. The literary club of your society is putting up the play ‘Macbeth. As secretary of the
club, draft an invitation inviting the famous writer Rohit Sharma to be the guest of
honour at the function. Write the invitation in about 50 words. You are Gaurav/Garima.


O
B. You have been invited as a judge for a debate competition by New Hope public School.
Draft a formal refusal in about 50 words.

5. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in 120-150 words. 1#5 = 5

A. Write a letter to Editor of local daily, New Delhi about water scarcity in you locality
suggesting ways to improve the condition of water supply. You are Bobby/Babita of
Ghaziabad.


O
B. As a regular commuter by bus from Noida to Delhi, you have been witnessing rash
driving by the bus drivers daily without an exception. Write a letter to the Editor,
‘The Times of India’ drawing the attention of the General Manager, Delhi Transport
Corporation to this problem. You are Priti/Prakash, 15, Udyog Vihar, Noida.

6. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B) in 120-150 words. 1#5 = 5

A. Incessant rain has caused irrecoverable damage in your area. As an active participant in
the flood relief programme, write a report in 120-150 words on the different flood relief
measures carried out. You are Krishan/ Krishna.


O
B. Accidents happen when people violate traffic rules. Careless drivers cause suffering to
themselves and to others. Write an article in 120-150 words on “Safe Driving”.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 19 Page 1

Sample Paper 19
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. India is the largest producer of milk globally, contributing over 22% of the world’s milk
supply. The country’s transformation into a dairy giant began with Operation Flood
in the 1970s, an initiative led by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB).
Operation Flood, also known as the White Revolution, aimed to create a nationwide
milk grid, increase milk production, and establish a reliable dairy infrastructure. As a
result, India moved from being a milk-deficient country to becoming the top producer of
milk, with key dairy-producing states including Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and
Punjab.
2. Milk production in India is largely driven by small-scale farmers who own just a few
cattle. These farmers contribute to a vast network of dairy cooperatives, which collect,
process, and distribute milk across the country. The cooperative model, pioneered by
organizations like Amul, ensures that small farmers receive fair compensation for their
milk. It also provides consumers with affordable dairy products such as milk, butter,
curd, and paneer. Dairy farming is a critical source of income for millions of rural
households, and it plays a significant role in supporting the rural economy.
3. Dairy products hold cultural and economic importance in India. Milk is an essential part
of the daily diet and is used in many traditional dishes, such as kheer, paneer, and ghee.
Milk also has religious and cultural significance, being offered during rituals and used
in festivals and celebrations. Demand for dairy products has grown steadily due to the
country’s increasing population, rising income levels, and urbanization. This growing
demand has fueled the expansion of the dairy industry, leading to the modernization of
milk processing facilities and improvements in cold storage and transportation.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 19 NODIA

4. Despite its success, India’s dairy industry faces several challenges. Fluctuations in
milk prices can destabilize the incomes of small farmers, who depend heavily on the
consistency of dairy sales. Additionally, climate change poses a significant threat, as
rising temperatures and erratic rainfall patterns affect the availability of water and feed
for livestock. The health and productivity of cattle are also ongoing concerns, with a
need for better veterinary services, breeding practices, and nutrition.
5. The future of India’s dairy industry lies in adopting sustainable practices and investing
in technological innovations. Improvements in breeding techniques, cattle feed, and cold
storage systems will be crucial for the industry to meet the growing demand for milk
while ensuring the livelihoods of farmers and protecting the environment.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. According to paragraph 1, what was the goal of Operation Flood in the 1970s? 1

ii. How do dairy cooperatives benefit small-scale farmers, as mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “the cooperative model” in paragraph 2 suggests that India’s dairy industry
is structured in a way that supports farmers through collective efforts.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
The cooperative model benefits small farmers because _____.
(A) it helps them get fair compensation for their milk
(B) it allows them to access milk at lower prices

iv. Complete the following with ONE example, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
Milk is important in Indian culture because _____.

v. Why does the writer mention climate change in paragraph 4? 1

Because
(A) Climate change threatens the sustainability of dairy farming by affecting water and
feed supplies for livestock.
(B) Climate change will boost the dairy industry’s productivity.
(C) It increases the demand for dairy products in rural areas.
(D) It helps stabilize milk prices in India.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
Fluctuations in milk prices affect the incomes of small-scale farmers.

vii. In the line, ‘The future of India’s dairy industry lies in adopting sustainable practices and
investing in technological innovations’ (Paragraph 5), what does the phrase ‘sustainable
practices’ suggest about the future of the dairy industry? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 1: 1

Operation Flood: White Revolution :: dairy cooperatives: _____
(A) government (B) livestock
(C) Amul (D) milk

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 19 Page 3

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘Milk holds cultural and economic importance
in India’ in paragraph 3 uses factual language? 1
(A) It refers to the role of milk in religious rituals and as a part of the daily diet.
(B) It explains how milk consumption is limited to rural areas.
(C) It describes the scientific reasons for milk production.
(D) It highlights the effect of dairy products on climate change.
x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of adopting technological innovations in
India’s dairy industry, as suggested in paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. A large portion of India’s elderly population lacks access to long-term and palliative
care. A United Nations study, conducted in May-June 2018 with 10,000 respondents
across five regions of India, revealed that 62.1% of the elderly do not receive such care.
More than half of these respondents (52.4%) stated they primarily rely on traditional
family support, as reported by the Agewell Research and Advocacy Centre.
2. The elderly population in India faces challenges like disability, limited mobility, loneliness,
poverty, and difficulty accessing care. Rapid population aging, the growing generation
gap, and the fast-paced lifestyle of the younger generation have worsened these issues,
making life a constant struggle for independence for the elderly.
3. According to 64% of elderly respondents, loneliness, marginalisation, and isolation are
the most critical issues for bedridden seniors, as they are unable to interact with relatives
or friends. Himanshu Rath, founder of the Agewell Foundation, highlighted that this
lack of social contact deepens the sense of isolation among the elderly.
4. The study also noted that 67.6% of elderly individuals, cared for by family members, are
often required to help with household chores or babysitting to ensure they receive basic
care and support from their families.
5. About 73.7% of elderly respondents mentioned that taking care of the family’s house or
property guarantees them better care. Additionally, 75% of respondents limit their social
interactions due to pressure from family members to ensure continued support for food
and medicines.
6. Rath also noted that home care for the elderly in India remains a challenge, as unorganised
service providers such as nursing agencies and physiotherapists offer incomplete care,
and geriatric care remains a neglected aspect of the country’s healthcare system.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. Complete the following suitably. 1
In the introduction, the researcher links elderly care in India with the reliance on
traditional family support to highlight _____.
ii. What would the following be classified as? 1
To explore the challenges faced by the elderly in accessing long-term and palliative care
in India.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Research outcome
(C) Method of analysis (D) Primary objective

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 19 NODIA

iii. Give two points to support why family involvement was included as a focus in the study
on elderly care in India. 2
iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘isolation’ and ‘family support.’ 1
Classify the following sentences as ‘isolation’ or ‘family support’:
Sentence 1: Elderly individuals who are bedridden feel lonely due to lack of social interaction.
Sentence 2: Many elderly people help with household chores to receive care from family
members.
v. Read the following : 1
Seema regularly helps her family with household chores to ensure she receives the care
she needs. Mohan, who lives next door, suffers from isolation because he is bedridden
and unable to engage with friends or family. Arindam, their mutual friend, spends much
of his time caring for his family’s property in exchange for support.
Select the option that identifies the correct situations Seema, Mohan, and Arindam face.
(A) Seema – household chores; Mohan – isolation; Arindam – property management
(B) Seema – isolation; Mohan – social interaction; Arindam – family care
(C) Seema – family support; Mohan – independence; Arindam – social isolation
(D) Seema – neglect; Mohan – family care; Arindam – household chores
vi. Although both mobility and poverty contribute to elderly challenges, why is isolation
considered the most critical issue for bedridden seniors? 1
vii. Analyse how the involvement of family in care provision impacts the independence of
elderly individuals. (Paragraph 4) 2
viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) Strengthen the involvement of organised service providers for elderly care
(B) Ensure traditional family care systems are maintained
(C) Focus on improving health insurance coverage for elderly hospitalisation
(D) Limit the role of family in elderly care

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4
A. While walking in a park in your colony you found a small briefcase with some documents
and cash. Write a notice in about 50 words to be put on the park noticeboard asking the
owner to identify and collect it from you. You are Rajat/Rani.

O
B. As the head of Physical Education Department, write a notice in about 50 words
informing the students about the selection of athletes for the coming Zonal Athletic
meet.
4. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4
A. Christ King College, Lalitpur, is celebrating its Annual Day and wants to invite the
parents and other guests to the occasion. Design an invitation card for the same in 50
words. Invent necessary details.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 19 Page 7

i. Which of the following themes is best represented in the given extract?

(A) Depiction of human relationships
(B) Power of imagination
(C) Inevitable relationships
(D) Immortality of art and literature

ii. Where is the poetess going when she said, “home to Cochin last Friday”?

iii. Select the correct option from those given in brackets, to fill in the blank.
The extract discusses fear of _____ (childhood/brotherhood).

iv. Read the assertion and the reason below, with reference to the given extract.
Assertion : The poet is overwhelmed with a painful realization of her mother’s aging.
Reason : The poet immediately accepts the reality of her mother’s old age without any
emotional struggle.
Choose the correct option regarding their relationship:
(A) Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

v. What message do these lines highlight, in the context of familial relationships, and the
speaker’s sense of anxiety and fear at the prospect of losing her mother?

vi. Complete the following suitably.

The daughter cringed with pain at the realisation that her mother _____.

8. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the given two, (A)
or (B). 4#1 = 4
A. MR LAMB : And that’s all true, and you know it.
DERRY It won’t make my face change. Do you know, one day, a woman went by me in
the street-I was at a bus stop-and she was with another woman, and she looked at me,
and she said... whispered... only I heard her... she said, “Look at that, that’s a terrible
thing. That’s a face only a mother could love.”
MR LAMB : So you believe everything you hear, then?
DERRY It was cruel.
(On the Face of It)
i. List the playwright’s purpose of using ellipses (...) in this extract.

ii. Select the option that best describes the reason for using the word ‘cruel’ in conversation.
(A) He feels hurt and pained by the comments of the people on his face.
(B) He feels overheard comments are cruel.
(C) He wants to say so.
(D) He was not aware of the people’s cruelty.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 20 Page 1

Sample Paper 20
English core (301)
Class-XII Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
i. This question paper has 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
ii This question paper contains three sections :
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature.
iii. Attempt all questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
question number and part thereof in your answer sheet.
iv Seperate instructions are given with each question/part, wherever necessary.
v. Adhere to the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 22

1. Read the following passage carefully: 12
1. India is one of the largest producers of tea in the world, with vast tea plantations
spread across the northeastern and southern regions. The states of Assam, West Bengal
(Darjeeling), and Tamil Nadu are especially famous for their tea production. Assam
produces more than half of India’s total tea, known for its strong, bold flavor. Darjeeling
tea, often referred to as the “Champagne of Teas,” is prized for its light, floral taste, and
is one of the most sought-after teas globally.
2. Tea cultivation in India dates back to the early 19th century when the British East India
Company began establishing tea gardens to compete with China’s tea monopoly. The
hilly regions of Assam and Darjeeling were found to have the perfect climate for growing
tea. Today, tea is not only an important agricultural product but also deeply intertwined
with the cultural identity of India. Millions of Indians begin their day with a steaming
cup of chai, often spiced with ginger, cardamom, and other flavors.
3. Tea gardens employ millions of workers across India, with many of them being women.
The work involves plucking the tender leaves by hand, a skill that requires precision and
speed. The freshly plucked leaves are then processed in factories, where they are withered,
rolled, fermented, and dried to produce the final product. Despite its popularity, the tea
industry faces several challenges, including fluctuating market prices, climate change,
and the need to improve working conditions for laborers.
4. In recent years, India’s tea exports have expanded to countries like Russia, the UK,
and the United States, contributing significantly to the nation’s economy. India remains
the second-largest producer of tea globally, after China. However, there is growing
competition from other tea-producing countries like Sri Lanka and Kenya, which are
also major players in the global market.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 20 NODIA

5. The future of India’s tea industry depends on sustainable practices and modernization.
With climate change affecting rainfall patterns and temperatures in key tea-growing
regions, many plantation owners are looking to adapt through eco-friendly farming
techniques and better resource management.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. According to paragraph 1, which Indian states are known for their significant tea
production? 1

ii. How did tea cultivation begin in India, as mentioned in paragraph 2? 1

iii. Read and complete the following sentence suitably. 1

The phrase “intertwined with the cultural identity of India” in paragraph 2 suggests
that tea plays a central role in daily life and tradition for many Indians.
Choose the correct response from the two options to complete the sentence.
Tea is important to India’s culture because _____.
(A) it is only consumed in rural areas
(B) millions of people enjoy it as a daily beverage

iv. Complete the following with ONE reason, with reference to paragraph 3 : 1
Tea plantations employ many workers because _____.

v. Why does the writer mention challenges like climate change in paragraph 3? 1
Because
(A) These challenges affect the production and quality of tea.
(B) The challenges show how tea remains popular despite difficulties.
(C) They explain why tea prices are rising in the global market.
(D) It highlights how other countries are overcoming these issues.

vi. Provide ONE textual evidence with reference to paragraph 4, to support the following : 1
India plays a key role in the global tea market.

vii. In the line, ‘The future of India’s tea industry depends on sustainable practices and
modernization’ (Paragraph 5), what does the phrase ‘sustainable practices’ suggest
about the changes needed for the industry’s survival? 2

viii. Complete the analogy with ONE word from paragraph 1 : 1

Assam tea : strong flavor :: Darjeeling tea: _____
(A) light flavor (B) bold flavor
(C) floral taste (D) spiced taste

ix. Why is it fair to say that the statement ‘Tea cultivation is deeply intertwined with the
cultural identity of India’ in paragraph 2 uses factual language? 1
(A) It shows the popularity of tea in India’s daily life.
(B) It emphasizes the cultural importance of tea production.
(C) It presents data on tea consumption and historical significance.
(D) It highlights the historical impact of the tea industry.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 20 Page 3

x. Assess the potential challenges or benefits of eco-friendly farming techniques in India’s

tea industry, as suggested in paragraph 5. 2

2. Read the following carefully. 10

1. Introduction :
Energy consumption is one of the key factors contributing to global environmental changes,
with varying levels of energy usage across countries depending on industrialization,
population, and economic activity. This case study explores the energy consumption
patterns of different countries and evaluates the sources of energy used, focusing on
renewable versus non-renewable energy.
2. Methodology :
Data was gathered from international energy reports tracking the consumption of energy
in both developed and developing nations. The data was divided into renewable and
non-renewable sources, and the energy consumption trends from 2000 to 2020 were
analysed. The study aimed to understand the dependence on non-renewable resources
and the global shift toward renewable energy.
3. Survey Examination :
The survey categorized countries based on their energy consumption and the proportion
of energy sourced from renewables versus non-renewables. Factors such as government
policies, technological advancements, and geographical resources were also examined to
identify their impact on a country’s energy mix.
4. Results :
The chart below shows the percentage of renewable and non-renewable energy consumption
in different regions as of 2020 :
Region Renewable Energy (%) Non-Renewable Energy (%)

North America 25% 75%

Europe 40% 60%

Asia 20% 80%
Africa 30% 70%
South America 50% 50%

5. Implications for Interventions :

The data shows that despite global efforts to transition to renewable energy, a significant
portion of energy consumption still comes from non-renewable sources, especially in
developing regions. Governments must implement stronger policies to promote renewable
energy use through incentives, subsidies, and public awareness campaigns. Technological
innovation in renewable energy generation can also play a critical role in reducing
dependence on fossil fuels.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 20 NODIA

6. Conclusion :
The findings of this study emphasize the need for a global shift toward renewable energy
to mitigate environmental damage caused by non-renewable energy sources. International
cooperation and investments in clean energy technologies are essential to achieving a
sustainable energy future for all nations.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Complete the following suitably. 1

In the introduction, the researcher links energy consumption with environmental changes
to highlight _____.

ii. What would the following be classified as? 1

To analyse the global patterns of energy consumption and the shift towards renewable
sources.
Select the appropriate response.
(A) Secondary objective (B) Method of analysis
(C) Primary objective (D) Research outcome

iii. Give two points to support why renewable energy was included as a focus in the study
on global energy consumption. 2

iv. Paragraph 3 includes words – ‘technological advancements’ and ‘policies.’ 1

Classify the following sentences as ‘technological advancement’ or ‘policy’:
Sentence 1: The development of solar and wind energy systems helps countries reduce
their reliance on fossil fuels.
Sentence 2: Government subsidies encourage businesses to invest in renewable energy.

v. Read the following : 1

Liam lives in Europe, where renewable energy accounts for 40% of total energy
consumption. His friend Suresh, who resides in Asia, primarily uses non-renewable
energy, which makes up 80% of the total. Meanwhile, Carlos in South America benefits
from an equal split between renewable and non-renewable sources.
Select the option that identifies the correct regional energy consumption for Liam,
Suresh, and Carlos.
(A) Liam – North America; Suresh – Africa; Carlos – Europe
(B) Liam – Europe; Suresh – Asia; Carlos – South America
(C) Liam – South America; Suresh – Asia; Carlos – North America
(D) Liam – Asia; Suresh – Europe; Carlos – Africa

vi. Although Europe and South America both use a significant portion of renewable energy,
why does South America have a higher percentage of renewables? 1

vii. Analyse how targeted policies and technological advancements can help increase the use
of renewable energy in regions like Asia and Africa. (Paragraph 5) 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
CBSE 12th English Core Sample Paper 20 Page 5

viii. What is the ultimate goal for stakeholders, based on the insights from the study? 1
(A) To increase the global use of non-renewable energy
(B) To promote energy consumption regardless of the source
(C) To achieve a global shift toward renewable energy
(D) To limit the use of renewable energy only to developed countries

SECTION B - CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

3. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4

A. You are Vijay Dhawan, a student of Florence Nightingale Convent, Rohtas Nagar,
Aurangabad. Your school is planning an Inter-House poster making competition to
conclude the week-long Environment Week. As the secretary of the school’s cultural
association, write a notice in about 50 words informing students of classes IX-XII about
the competition.


O
B. In a few days, the country will be celebrating its Independence Day. The Prime Minister
will hoist the national flag of the country from the ramparts of the Red Fort and address
the nation. Massive arrangements for seating and security are in the offing. The Delhi
Traffic Police will be making traffic diversions on the big day in order to avoid incon-
venience to the travellers and commuters, it has issued a public notice about the same.
Reproduce the notice. You are Jayram Patil of Chanakya Puri, New Delhi.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words. 1#4 = 4

A. You are Nidhi Aggarwal, Secretary of the Literary Club called Shakespearewala of your
school. The literary club has produced some great theatre actors in the past and has a
phenomenal repertoire of dramas. Now, it is putting up the famous Shakespeare play ‘The
Taming of the Shrew’. The principal of your school has asked you to draft an invitation
inviting the famous writer Mr. Ruskin Bond to be the Chief Guest at the event. Write the
invitation in not more than 50 words. Invent necessary details as required.


O
B. Your friend, P.V. Nithish, has invited your family to attend the wedding of his sister,
Jaya. You have your board examination on the day of the wedding. Since, south Indian
weddings are traditionally morning events, you will not be able to attend the event.
Write a formal reply in about 50 words to the family expressing your regret. You are
Sushmitha Nair, M-114, Fort Road, Chennai.

5. Attempt ANY ONE of the two, (A) or (B), in 120-150 words. 1#5 = 5

A. After passing the secondary school examination, a candidate has to make a very
difficult choice from a number of streams available to him for further studies at senior
secondary level. There is no valid mechanism to assess the suitability of a candidate for
a particular stream. The aggregate percentage is deemed sufficient to decide the stream

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 1 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 1
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages
1. Read the following text. 12
1. The arts which admit of exact reproduction are such that the disciple is on the same level as the creator,
and so it is with their fruits. These are useful to the imitator, but are not of such high excellence as those
which cannot be transmitted as an inheritance like other substances. Among these, painting is the first.
Painting cannot be taught to him on whom nature has not conferred the gift of receiving such knowledge,
as mathematics can be taught, of which the disciple receives as much as the master gives him.
2. It cannot be copied, as letters can be, in which the copy equals the original. It cannot be stamped, in the
same way as sculpture, in which the impression is in proportion to the source as regards the quality of
the work. It does not generate countless children, as do printed books.
3. It alone remains noble, it alone confers honour on its author and remains precious and unique, and does
not beget children equal to itself. And it is more excellent by reason of this quality than by reason of
those which are everywhere proclaimed. Now do we not see the great monarchs of the East going about
veiled and covered up from the fear of diminishing their glory by the manifestation and the divulgation
of their presence? And do we not see that the pictures which represent the divine deity are kept covered
up with inestimable veils?
4. Their unveiling is preceded by great sacred solemnities with various chants and diverse music. When
they are unveiled, the vast multitude of people who are there flocked together, immediately prostrate
themselves and worship. They invoke those whom such pictures represent that they may regain their lost
holiness and win eternal salvation, just as if the deity were present in the flesh.
5. This does not occur in any other art or work of man. If you say that is owing to the nature of the subject
depicted, rather than to the genius of the painter, the answer is that the mind of man could satisfy itself
equally well in this case, were the man to remain in bed and not make pilgrimages to places which are
perilous and hard to access as we so often see is the case.
6. But if such pilgrimages continually exist, what is then their unnecessary cause? You will certainly admit
that it is an image of this kind, and all the writings in the world could not succeed in representing the
semblance and the power of such a deity.
7. Therefore, it appears that this deity takes pleasure in the pictures and is pleased that it should be loved
and revered, and takes a greater delight in being worshipped in that rather than in any other semblance
of itself. By this reason, it bestows grace and gifts of salvation according to the belief of those who meet
together in such a place.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 1 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Select the option that agrees with the information given in the passage. 1
(a) Painting and mathematics are at par, when it comes to learning.
(b) Painting can only be taught to one who is capable of receiving this knowledge.
(c) Painting cannot be taught except as a form of imitation.
(d) Paintings cannot be transferred as an inheritance.

ii. Which is the statement that shows the writer aimed to change the general outlook about painting,
correctly? 1
(a) It cannot be stamped in the same way as sculptures can in which the impression is in proportion to
the source.
(b) As sculptures are closest to painting and yet there is a fundamental difference.
(c) It cannot be copied as letters can be.
(d) It does not generate countless children in the way printed books can.

iii. Share evidence from the text, in about 40 words to support the view that the writer’s writing style is
descriptive in nature. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately with a characteristic or its description. 1

They invoke those whom such pictures represent that they may regain _____.

v. Select the option that is similar in meaning to ‘pilgrimages’. 1

(a) A journey (b) A holy expedition
(c) A trip (d) An expedition

vi. Explain, in about 40 words, why was the unveiling of painted images is unique? 2

vii. In the line, “... Therefore this deity takes pleasure in the pictures and bestows grace and gifts of salvation
to those who meet together in such a place.” What does the word ‘pleasure’ refer to? 1

viii. What is the core idea that displays the most likely reason for including the line, “It alone confers honour
on its author and remains precious and unique and does not beget children equal to itself.”? Answer in
about 40 words. 2

ix. Read the five headlines (1) to (5) given below : 1

(1) Art is a passion.
(2) Art is in blood.
(3) Art cannot be inherited.
(4) Art can never be copied.
(5) Art is a chanting.
Identify the option that displays the headline/s that correspond/s with the occurrences in the passage.
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2)
(c) Both (3) and (4) (d) (1), (2) and (5)

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 1 CBSE XII English-Core

2. Read the following text. 10

1. A large majority of the elderly in India does not get long-term and palliative care, revealed a study
conducted for the United Nations. The survey of more than 10,000 respondents across Northern,
Southern, Western, Eastern and Central India during May-June 2018, showed that 62.1% of the elderly
did not get such care. More than half of these people, 52.4%, said they primarily need traditional family
support, says a study by Age well Research and Advocacy Centre.
2. Older people in India often face problems such as disability, restricted mobility, loneliness, poverty and
lack of awareness on accessing old-term care. With a fast growing population of older people, the ever-
increasing gap between generations and the fast and demanding lifestyle of young people, for a majority
of older people, life is still a struggle for independence.
3. “According to 64% of elderly respondents, loneliness, marginalisation and isolation are the most critical
issues faced by bedridden, elderly patients as they cannot visit, meet or interact with their relatives,
friends and neighbours,” said Himanshu Rath, founder of Agewell Foundation.
4. The elderly have to compromise and make adjustments in their lifestyle according to the wishes of the
younger members of their families to ensure they are cared for, the study revealed. It highlighted that
67.6% of the elderly being taken care of their family members have to look after the children of the
families. They have to perform tasks such as babysitting in return for proper care and support.
5. “Around 73.7% said they have to take care of the house and other properties of their younger family
members to ensure long-term and palliative care in old age”, the study report said. “Over 75% of
respondents have to limit their personal social interactions as their family members direct them to do
so, otherwise their family members can avoid providing their basic needs of food and medicines.”Most
elderly respondents (68.5%) said breaking up of the joint family system is one of the biggest factors for
the challenges they face in getting long-term palliative care.
6. Healthcare equipment such as wheelchairs, relief material such as adult diapers and care-giving service
should be provided on a regular basis to destitute older people, who are bedridden and suffering from
acute mobility issues, the report said.
“Though providing long-term and palliative care to older persons comes in the purview of family
responsibilities in India, it is observed that older persons, who are financially independent, have a high net
worth or hold property entitlements, are treated comparatively well by their family members” said Rath.
7. “Managing home care for the elderly is a massive challenge as multiple service providers-nursing agencies,
physiotherapists and medical suppliers-are small scale and unorganised and, therefore, provide
incomplete care,” he said. “In India, health insurance coverage is essentially limited to hospitalisation.
The concept of geriatric care has remained a neglected area of medicine so far in the country.”
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. List two essential requirements for older people suffering from mobility issues. 2

ii. Select the option that displays the reason behind financially independent elderly being better off. 1
(a) They are seen as one to be revered.
(b) They are treated with much more care and respect.
(c) They have money to meet their financial needs.
(d) They have medical expenses.


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 1 CBSE XII English-Core

iii. According to the passage, what do you think is the primary need of all the elderly people in India? 1

iv. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option. 1
According to the study, long-term and palliative care comes under the purview of _____.
(a) government responsibilities
(b) liabilities
(c) social responsibilities

v. Select the option that displays the most likely reason for stating that older people who live with family
are no better. 1
It is so because
(a) they have additional burden of responsibility
(b) they have no one who loves or cares for them
(c) they also suffer from loneliness
(d) All of the above

vi. State a point to challenge the given statement : 2

Joint Family System along with the need for private space has brought challenges to the long term
elderly care.

vii. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference from the last paragraph of the passage. 1
The concluding paragraph of the passage makes a clear case for _____.

viii. State whether the given statement is TRUE or FALSE. 1

In order to get proper case and support, the old people have to adjust their lifestyle as per the wishes of
their children.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.

3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. You are the Secretary of your School Literary Association. Write a notice in not more than 50 words for
your school notice board, giving details of the proposed inauguration of the Literary Association of your
school. You are ‘XYZ’ of Jain Vidyashram, Cuddalore.

O
B. You lost your wristwatch in your school auditorium. Write a notice in not more than 50 words for your
school notice board giving a detailed description of the watch. You are Anirudh/Arundhati of class XII
of Springfield School, Pune.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 2 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 2
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. This is the largest Malay house on the peninsula. It is built of wood painted green and white, with bold
floral designs on a white background around some of the circular windows and a very large porch for
followers to wait in, up a ladder of course.
2. Really the upper class of Malay houses show some very good work. The thatch of the steep roof is
beautifully put on and between the sides of finely woven checked matting interspersed with lattice
work and bamboo work, the shady inner rooms with their carved doorways and portieres of red silk,
the pillows and cushions of gold embroidery laid over the exquisitely fine matting on the floors, the
light from the half-shaded windows glancing here and there as the breeze sways the screens, there is an
indescribable appropriateness to the region.
3. I waited for the elephant in a rambling empty house and Malays brought pierced coconuts, buffalo milk
and a great bouquet of lotus blossoms and seed-vessels, out of which they took the seeds and presented
them on the grand lotus leaf itself.
Each seed is in appearance and taste like a hazel-nut, but in the centre, in an oval slit, the future lotus
plant is folded up, the one vivid green seed leaf being folded over a shoot and this is intensely bitter.
4. The elephant at last came up and was brought below the porch of the house. They are truly ugly beasts,
with their grey wrinkled, hairless hides, the huge ragged ‘flappers’ which cover their ears and with which
they fan themselves ceaselessly, the small mean eyes, the hideous trunk which coils itself snakishly
round everything, the formless legs, the piggish back, with the steep slope down to the mean, bare tail,
features so unlike any other familiar and friendly beast.
5. Before I came out from England, I dreamt of howdahs and cloth-of-gold trappings, but my elephant had
neither. In fact there was nothing grand about him but his ugliness. I dropped into one of two baskets on
either side of his back from the porch, a young Malay lad dropped into the other and my bag was tied on
behind with more ropes.
6. My ride was not comfortable. One sits facing forwards with the feet dangling over the edge of the
basket. This edge soon produces a sharp ache or cramp and, when one tries to get relief by leaning back
on anything, the awkward rolling position is so painful that one reverts to the former position till it again
becomes intolerable.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 2 CBSE XII English-Core

7. After we had travelled two hours, the baskets slipped down very dangerously and needed adjustment.
We were forced to dismount while the pack was adjusted. Then, while the elephant was still sitting, the
driver jumped on the elephant’s back and giving me his hands hauled me up over the head, after which
the creature rose gently from the ground and we went on our journey.
8. Soon the driver abandoned the elephant for a gossip and a smoke, leaving the animal to go its own
way for a mile or more. The elephant turned into the jungle, where he began to rend and tear the trees
and going to a mud-hole, he drew what water there was out of it and squirted it with a loud noise over
himself and his riders, soaking my clothes with it. When he turned back to the road again, he several
times stopped and seemed to stand on his head by stiffening his trunk and leaning upon it and when I hit
him with my umbrella he uttered the loudest roar I ever heard. My Malay fellow-rider jumped off and
ran’ back for the driver, at which the baskets both came down on my side of the elephant.
9. On the driver’s return I had to dismount again and this time the elephant was allowed to go and take a
proper bath in a river. He threw large quantities of clear water over himself and took up plenty more with
which to cool his sides as went along. Thick as the wrinkled hide of an elephant is, a very small insect
can still draw blood from it and so, like the water buffalo, he wisely plastered himself with mud from the
river’s edge for protection.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Select the option that explains the reason why the light in the inner room kept changing? 1
(a) Because of the movement inside the room
(b) Because of the changing direction of the sun
(c) Because of the winds that were swaying the screen
(d) Because the screens were being repaired

ii. The writer would agree with the given statements based on paragraph eight, except. 1
(a) The elephant did not like being hit.
(b) The driver of the elephant did not want the elephant to run away.
(c) The speaker was not amused by the water thrown by the elephant.
(d) The driver of the elephant needed to rest.

iii. Share evidence from the text in about 40 words that the author had previously regarded riding on an
elephant as a luxurious means of travel. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately with an appropriate inference, with respect to the following. 1
The writer has described the features of the elephant in paragraph 4 in order to highlight the _____.

v. Select the option that means the same as ‘moves’, from the words used in Paragraph 2. 1
(a) Glancing (b) Matting
(c) Interspersed (d) Sways

vi. The writer did not enjoy the elephant ride. Based on your reading of the passage, list the reasons, in not
more than 40 words, for such an attitude. 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 2 CBSE XII English-Core

vii. In the line “...so, like the water buffalo, he wisely plastered himself with mud from the river’s edge for
protection” the author calls him wise. Explain. 1

viii. List two ways in which the Malay houses are appropriated for the region. Answer in about 40 words. 2

ix. What was the author’s expectations regarding the elephant ride? 1
(1) Exciting
(2) Doubtful
(3) Scornful
(4) Prejudiced
(5) tentative
Codes:
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 4 (d) 3 and 5

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Competition, deregulation, and intervention are all crucial to South Africa’s Road to a true broadband
infrastructure. As of this year, SA had some 67,000 ADSL subscribers. This represents about 0.4% of the
worldwide total, and supports the statement that SA remains, and will remain, way behind the rest of the
world for a long time to come.
2. Broadband penetration in households varies globally, with Korea being the world leader with a
penetration of 68%, the USA having 28%, and the UK 16%. SA shamefully has a broadband household
penetration of 0.3%. The question posed here is why South Africa is so far behind... The answer lies
not, in the unavailability of the technology, but simply in the pricing. Many people think that Telkom’s
ADSL solution is one-step closer to a true broadband solution in this country. However, many industry
specialists disagree.
3. “Telkom’s ADSL offerings are great; however, they just cost too much, and are not viable solutions for
many home users,” says Dave Gale, business development manager at Storm. “South Africa’s broadband
costs may be the butt of global jokes, but to local users, especially individuals, schools, small businesses
and current ADSL users, the affordability factor just makes one’s blood boil,” says Michelle Branco;
product-marketing manager at Internet Solutions.
4. According to Elia Tsouros, an executive at UUNET, the broadband penetration in SA is abysmal
compared to that of other countries. One contributing factor is Telkom’s pricing structure, and, the fact
that SA is so large, and has such a distributed population. The ramifications are vast - a slowing down
of broadband uptake; a barrier for educational institutions; limitation for learners to gain access to the
Internet; poor response times for researchers; limited business and marketing opportunities and the list
goes on. The absence of a wholesale facilities leasing regime for ADSL in South Africa makes it difficult
for ISPs to get a significant portion of the ADSL revenue. ISPs are not entitled to ADSL line rentals at
wholesale prices, and thus subscribers have to rent the line directly from the incumbent, Telkom. This
then further negates the opportunity for ISPs to bundle value-added offerings, such as video and voice
services with the ADSL line. Coupled with the high cost of line rentals is that of international bandwidth.
Telkom international bandwidth charges on the SAT-3 cable are very high, and it is common knowledge
that even though both Telkom and British Telecom’s purchase their bandwidth from the same supplier;
Telkom marks up its costs by 80%, and British Telecoms by only 20%.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 2 CBSE XII English-Core

5. Roman Hogh, product development manager at M-Web Business, says that Icasa should have the power to
audit how much Telkom charges for the cable.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. Suggests two possible reasons in about 40 words behind the statement, ‘SA remains, and will remain,
way behind the rest of the world for a long time to come.’ 2
ii. Which hindrances contribute to the broadband infra of SA? 1
(a) Huge population (b) Competition, interference and irregularity
(c) Unaffordability of telecom (d) Lack of video services

iii. Justify the statement, ‘a barrier for educational institutions : What does the speaker want to convey? 1

iv. Select the correct statement. 1

(a) Small businesses and the common users can afford broadband width easily.
(b) In the absence of getting revenue, ISP’s have to pay the rent directly for the Telkom.
(c) Telkom and the British Telecom purchase the bandwidth from the same supplier.

v. Which of the following country has become the second most powerful country in terms of
computation? 1
(a) India (b) Korea
(c) USA (d) South Africa
vi. Based on the understanding of the above extract, suggest any similarity or dissimilarity between Telkom
and British Telecom. Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

As the population of SA is so large, the perception of broadband has become _____ when we compare
to rest of the countries.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The title, ‘What caused the decline of South Africa, is appropriate for this passage.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4
A. As librarian of Crescent International School, Gwalior, draft a notice in not more than 50 words asking all
students and teachers to return the library books they have borrowed, two days before the commencement
of the examination.


O
B. Your school is organizing a SPICMACAY programme on the occasion of the World Dance Day wherein
the renowned Bharatanatyam dancer, Geeta Chandran would be giving a lecture demonstration. As the
President, Cultural Society of your school, draft a notice in about 50 words, informing the students about
the same. You are Rakhsita/Rohit of MVN Public School.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 3 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 3
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. The art of conversation, like any art, is a skill of elegance, nuance and creative execution. I happen to
believe that there is an art to everything we do, and why not? Without flair and panache most things
become a drudgery. Why settle for drudgery when you can have art?
2. When it comes to the art of conversation, we’ve all met people who seem to have the knack for it. They
can talk to anybody about anything and they seem to do it with complete ease. And while it’s true that
there are those who are born with the gift of the gab, luckily for the rest of us, conversation skills can be
developed and mastered.
3. Conversation is a form of communication; however, it is usually more spontaneous and less formal. We
enter into conversations for purposes of pleasant engagement in order to meet new people, to find out
information and to enjoy social interactions. As far as types of conversation, they vary anywhere from
intellectual conversations and information exchanges to friendly debates and witty banter.
4. While there is more to having good conversation skills than being a comedian, a dramatic actor, or a
great story teller, it is not necessary to become more gregarious, animated, or outgoing.
5. Instead, you can develop the ability to listen attentively, ask fitting questions, and pay attention to the
answers – all qualities essential to the art of conversation. With diligent practice and several good
pointers, anyone can improve his or her conversation skills.
6. People who are genuinely interested in others are usually interesting themselves. Why? Because they
are more open to learning about and understanding new things. Showing interest also encourages the
other person to be relaxed and share information more freely. Display attentiveness by keeping good eye
contact and listening actively.
7. If you happen to be shy and need time to warm up before you share your own views, you can ask
open-ended questions or encourage the other person to elaborate on their insights. This kick-starts the
conversation and before you know it you are engaged in a good conversational flow.
8. To start a conversation, go up to someone and introduce yourself. It is both polite and necessary to start
off things smoothly.
9. When the occasion calls for it, you can offer a handshake and then smile and make eye contact. Being
friendly puts the other person at ease and opens the door for him or her to introduce themselves.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 3 CBSE XII English-Core

10. The art of conversation, like any skill, takes practice. Period. Do not expect to be adept after your first
few attempts. It will take practice as well as exposure to many different social situations.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. Select the option that classifies the narrator’s idea of not being settled to drudgery. 1
(a) Conversation is a form of art.
(b) Without flair and panache most things become drudgery.
(c) Art overcomes drudgery.
(d) Whatever we do is drudgery.

ii. Which quality is not essential to the art of conversation? 1

(a) Paying attention to the answers. (b) Asking fitting questions.
(c) Ability to listen attentively. (d) Writing

iii. Share evidence from the text, in about 40 words to support the view that the narrator’s writing style is
descriptive in nature. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately with its description. 1

Shy people may start open-ended questions or encourage the other person _____.

v. Select the option that is similar in meaning to ‘witty’. 1

(a) dull (b) humorous
(c) boring (d) scratchy

vi. Explain the reason, in about 40 words, showing interest in others leads to interesting conversation. 2

vii. In the line “... with diligent practice and several good pointers, anyone can improve his or her
conversational skills”. What does the word ‘diligent’ imply? 1

viii. “....conversations and information exchanges to friendly debates and witty banter.” What does the author
want to say? Answer in about 40 words. 2

ix. Read the five statements (1)–(5) given below. 1

(1) A good listener always listens to other person attentively.
(2) A person who is interested in others will always listen to others.
(3) Being a comedian or actor, a person needs to be a good listener.
(4) Showing interest in others also encourages the other person to be relaxed and share information
more freely.
(5) A person should speak politely.
Identify the option that displays the statements that DOES/DO corresponds with the listening ability of
a person.
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2)
(c) Both (1) and (2) (d) (3), (4) and (5)

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 3 CBSE XII English-Core

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Politics and now Pollution keep Delhi forever in the news, but a third P (Population Growth) has gone
missing from the discourse on the capital: population growth, which has soared during the last two
decades and its disastrous fallout.
2. Already, India’s capital city is the world’s second most populous urban agglomeration. The future is
even more frightening: a United Nations report released in mid-2018 says Delhi could be the world’s
most populous city by 2028 with 37.2 million people. That is eight million more in just 10 years.
3. According to the report called World Urbanisation Prospects 2018 by the Population Division of the UN
Department of Economic and Social Affairs, the population of Delhi and its immediate neighbourhood
is now estimated to be 29 million, second only to Tokyo with 37 million people. But Delhi will zoom
past Tokyo, whose population is projected to decline to 36.8 million by 2028.
4. Will Delhi be worth living in? Can the city state of Delhi escape the pressures put on it by an ever
expanding National Capital Region (NCR), which touches as far as Alwar now? Are we prepared at all
for this population explosion?

Figure : Population Growth in Major Global Cities

5. In a small office in Delhi’s India Habitat Centre, a group of urban planners – all belonging to the National
Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) – have just started collecting baseline data on land, housing, transport,
environment, heritage, water, among others, for Master Plan for Delhi (MPD) 2041. “Our deadline for
preparing the Master Plan is 2021. But unlike its earlier editions, it won’t be a flat 20 year plan. This
one will be divided into various achievables, say, for every five years,” says Nilesh Rajadhyaksha, lead
coordinator of MPD and urban specialist in NIUA.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 3 CBSE XII English-Core

The NIUA – an autonomous research and advisory body that comes under the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs – has been roped in by the Delhi Development Authority (DDA) to undertake this colossal
strategy plan for Delhi 2041. The current master plan, MPD-2021, which was notified in 2007 and was
prepared by an in-house team of the DDA, would expire in 2021.
6. The concern is that a sense of urgency to fix Delhi is missing. Many crucial elements of MPD-2021 still
remain on paper, with just two years left for the plan to expire. AK Jain, former commissioner-planning
in DDA and key architect of MPD-2021, gives a long list of what have not been implemented. The
master plan talks about brownfield redevelopment of rehabilitation colonies such as Lajpat Nagar, Old
Rajendra Nagar and Mukherjee Nagar, which were originally meant for Partition refugees.
7. Nothing has been done on that front so far. Nor for the redevelopment of 45 resettlement colonies
such as Ambedkar Nagar and Trilokpuri, which were developed during Emergency to rehabilitate slum
dwellers. The rejuvenation of the Yamuna is also on the plan, but the river remains severely polluted in
the Delhi stretch.
8. Will Delhi be liveable? Jain is not very hopeful. He says Delhi won’t be a highly liveable city even if
the master plan is implemented in its entirety. “Delhi is part of the National Capital Region (NCR). So,
Delhi’s development can’t happen in isolation,” he explains.

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Based on reading of the text, state a point to challenge the statement. Answer in about 40 words. 2
Many important respects of MPD-2021 have been implemented.

ii. The urban planners are collecting data based on _____. 1

(a) transport (b) land
(c) heritage (d) All of these

iii. Based on the given graph, choose the option that lists the statements that are true. 1
(a) Beijing and Delhi will see a decline in population growth.
(b) The population of Tokyb’ is ‘expected to remain the same over 10 years.
(c) The population of New York had grown exponentially.

iv. What problem will prevail even if the Master Plan is implemented in its entirety? 1

v. Whom had the Delhi development Authority hired to look into the development of Delhi? 1
(a) NIUA (b) The Urban Planner
(c) MHUA (d) All of these

vi. Describe the crucial issue related to Master plans created for Delhi. Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. Complete the following sentence based on the information given in the passage. 1
The given passage wants to drive attention to _____.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

Currently, Delhi is the third most polluted city in the world.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 4 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 4
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages
1. Read the following text. 12
1. Many of us believe that ‘small’ means ‘insignificant’. We believe that small actions and choices do
not have much impact on our lives. We think that it is only the big things, the big actions and the big
decisions that really count. But when you look at the lives of all great people, you will see that they
built their character through small decisions, small choices and small actions that they performed every
day. They transformed their lives through a step-by-step or day-by-day approach. They nurtured and
nourished their good habits and chipped away at their bad habits, one step at a time. It was their small
day-to-day decisions that added up to make a tremendous difference in the long run. Indeed, in matters
of personal growth and character building, there is no such thing as an overnight success.
2. Growth always occurs through a sequential series of stages. There is an organic process to growth. When
we look at children growing up, we can see this process at work: the child first learns to crawl, then to
stand and walk and finally to run. The same is true in the natural world. The soil must first be tilled and
then the seed must be sowed. Next, it must be nurtured with enough water and sunlight and only then
will it grow, bear fruit and finally ripen and be ready to eat.
3. Gandhi understood this organic process and used this universal law of nature to his benefit. Gandhi
grew in small ways, in his day-to-day affairs. He did not wake up one day and find himself to be the
‘Mahatma’. In fact, there was nothing much in his early life that showed signs of greatness. But from
his mid-twenties onwards, he deliberately and consistently attempted to change himself, reform himself
and grow in some small way every day. Day-by-day, hour-by-hour, he risked failure, experimented and
learnt from mistakes. In small and large situations alike, he took up rather than avoiding responsibility.
4. People have always marvelled at the effortless way in which Gandhi could accomplish the most difficult
tasks. He displayed a great deal of self-mastery and discipline that was amazing. These things did not
come easily to him. Years of practice and disciplined training went into making his successes possible.
Very few saw his struggles, fears, doubts and anxieties or his inner efforts to overcome them. They saw
the victory, but not the struggle.
5. This is a common factor in the lives of all great people: they exercised their freedoms and choices in
small ways that made great impact on their lives and their environment. Each of their small decisions
and actions, added up to have a profound impact in the long run. By understanding this principle, we
can move forward with confidence in the direction of our dreams. Often when our ‘ideal goal’ looks too
far from us, we become easily discouraged, disheartened and pessimistic. However, when we choose to
grow in small ways, taking small steps one at a time, performing it becomes easy.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 4 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Gandhiji followed a process of growth. Which of the following is the third step in this process? 1
(a) Experimentation (b) Learning from mistakes
(c) Risking failure (d) Attempt to change

ii. The main idea in the first paragraph is that 1

(a) overnight success is possible for all of us
(b) small actions and decisions are important in one’s life
(c) big things, big actions and big decisions make a person great
(d) personal changes are not important

iii. What is the one common thing that Gandhiji did in small and large situations? Answer in about 40
words. 2

iv. Complete the following sentence with reference to the extract. 1

The phrase _____ in the first paragraph means ‘to steadily give up bad habits’.

v. Select the option that conveys the opposite of ‘unintentionally’ from words used in paragraph 3. 1
(a) Organic (b) Consistently
(c) Risked (d) Deliberately

vi. Comment on the writer’s reference to the way in which great people transform their lives. Answer in
about 40 words. 2

vii. Describe the ‘universal law of nature’ mentioned in the passage. Answer in about 40 words. 2

viii. What did Gandhiji try to do after he was 25 years old? 1

ix. Pick the option that correctly lists the tone of the writer with reference to the passage. 1
1. Sympathetic
2. Encouraging
3. Wonder
4. Regret
5. Matter of fact
Codes
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 4
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 5

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The United States Postal Service (also known as USPS, the Post Office, informally known as the P.O.,
or the U.S. Mail) is the third largest employer in the United States, after the Department of Defence and
Walmart. It employs over 785,000 workers in over 14,000 U.S. postal facilities.


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 4 CBSE XII English-Core

2. The Postal Service has certainly grown and changed since 1775 when the first Postmaster General
-Benjamin Franklin - was named to head the Post Office Department, the forerunner of the current
USPS. At that time, members of the Second Continental Congress agreed that the Postmaster General
headquarters, or most important offices, would be stationed in Philadelphia, and that the Postmaster
would be paid $1,000 a year for his or her service.
3. As the country grew westward, it became necessary for the railroad system to carry the mail. The Railway
Mail Service (RMS) was initiated in 1862. The RMS workers sorted mail on the train, and became some
of the fastest workers in the system. They sorted about 600 pieces of mail per hour. All the mail had to
be sorted before the train reached the first stop, since some of the mail was destined for that first stop on
the route.
4. By 1918, the Post Office took over air mail from the U.S. Army. The first airplanes used in U.S. air mail
were surplus planes from World War I. The Post Office started with only four pilots flying these leftover
planes in August 1918, but by the end of that year, the Post Office had hired 36 more pilots. By 1920,
over 49 million air mail letters had been delivered.
5. The Post Office has used alternate methods of transmission during its history. It owned and operated the
first telegraph lines from 1884 to 1887 - when the lines were privatized. It utilized “V-Mail” (Victory
Mail) during World War II when U.S. military mail was put on microfilm in the U.S. and printed near
its destination, in order to save space on military transport. During the 1980s, Electronic Computer
Originated Mail, called ECOM, was used for some bulk mailings. Computer generated mail was printed
near its destination, and bore a blue ECOM logo on its special envelopes.
6. In 1970, the Postal Reorganization Act, signed by President Richard Nixon, replaced the Post Office
Department (a Cabinet-level department) with the independent US Postal Service. The independent
US Postal Service has streamlined its workload and modernized operations. Today’s multi-line optical
character readers (MLOCRs) can read the entire address on an envelope, print a barcode on the envelope,
and sort the mail at the rate of nine letters per second. The zip code +4, a four digit code added to the end
of the existing 5-digit code, has decreased the number of times a piece of mail needs to be handled.
7. Special barcode sorters assign an 11-digit zip code to each address, apply a barcode to each letter, and sort
the mail in order of delivery. The Postal Service has installed automated customer-service equipment in
lobbies, and is planning to automate even more of its work, including more machines which will process
parcels and forwarded mail. The price of a first-class stamp-recently approved at 44 cents and good for
up to one-ounce domestic mail- seems relatively inexpensive compared to its predecessor; the first U.S.
postage stamp, issued in 1847. The first stamps, adorned with a picture of Benjamin Franklin, sold for
5 cents apiece. They were used for letters weighing less than one ounce with a travel distance of less
than 300 miles. By way of comparison, pay records available for the 1890s indicate that a typical year’s
pay for a schoolteacher was around $500, or 10,000 times the price of a stamp. Stamp prices then seem
relatively high when compared to today’s average teacher pay, in the $40,000 per-year range, or about
1,000,000 times the price of a postage stamp!
Answer the following questions based on the passage above.
i. How did the mail sorting work in RMS? Answer in about 40 words. 2

ii. The railway mail service was established in 1

(a) 1884 (b) 1980
(c) 1862 (d) 1775

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 4 CBSE XII English-Core

iii. How did the RMS become some of the fastest workers in the service? 1
(a) By using pigeons
(b) By sorting the mail on the train before every stop
(c) By inviting people to sort the mail.

iv. What was the system of transporting mail called? 1

v. Who was the first Postmaster General? 1

vi. The second largest employer in the US is 1

(a) Walmart
(b) Department of Defense
(c) United States Postal Service
(d) Domino’s

vii. How does the independent US Postal service work Answer in about 40 words. 2

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The price of first-class stamp-recently approved at 5 cents apiece.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.

3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. Water supply will be suspended for eight hours (10 am to 6 pm) on 6th of March for cleaning of the
water tank. Write a notice in about 50 words advising the residents to store water for a day. You are
Karan Kumar/Karuna Bajaj, Secretary, Janata Group Housing Society, Palam Vihar, Kurnool.

O
B. You are Mahender, Sports Captain, St. John’s School, Lucicnow. Write a notice in 50 words for the
school notice board informing students about an Inter School Football match to be played in your school.
Invite them to watch and cheer the teams.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. The literary club of your society is putting up the play ‘Macbeth. As secretary of the club, draft an
invitation inviting the famous writer Rohit Sharma to be the guest of honour at the function. Write the
invitation in about 50 words. You are Gaurav/Garima.

O
B. You have been invited as a judge for a debate competition by New Hope public School. Draft a formal
refusal in about 50 words.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 5 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 5
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word sequences
and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny variations in
meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon
to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this
complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-called ‘primitive’ tribes
have clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish
between ‘you and I, ‘several other people and I’ and ‘you, another person and I. In English, all these
meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun ‘we. Grammar is universal and plays a part in every
language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question which has baffled many linguists is - who
created grammar?
2. At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is created,
someone needs to be present at the time of a language’s creation, documenting its emergence. Many
historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order
to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe
how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.
3. Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves from
a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer’s rule. Since they had
no opportunity to learn each others’ languages, they developed a make-shift language called a pidgin.
Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of
grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who
did what to whom. Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood.
Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children
to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. Slave children did not simply copy
the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language.
Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by
children.

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 5 CBSE XII English-Core

4. Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not simply
a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken languages.
Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such language was
documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but
in 1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and
lip reading in the classroom, playgrounds, they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures
that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was
no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign system
was already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based on the signs of the
older children, the younger children’s language was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range
of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way.
A new creole was born.
5. Some linguists believe that many of the world’s most established languages were creoles at first. The
English past tense-ed ending may have evolved from the verb ‘do’ It ended’ may once have been ‘It end-
did. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by children.
Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they
are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex
structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. Why did the narrator say that it is impossible to say who created grammar? Answer in about 40 words. 2

ii. Complete the following sentence appropriately. 1

The language created by children of slaves with complex grammar system is called _____.

iii. All the following sentences about Nicaragua sign language are true EXCEPT : 1
(a) The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
(b) The language is based on speech and lip reading.
(c) The language has been created since 1979.
(d) The language was perfected by younger children.

iv. Sign language is not simply a series of gestures because 1

(a) they were basically pidgin
(b) they incorporated the same grammatical system found in spoken languages
(c) they were developed from the English language
(d) children developed it with lip reading system

v. What was the main disadvantage of the sign language used in the schools for deaf in 1979? 1

vi. Which word in para 3 have the same meaning as “extrapolate”? 1

(a) Complex
(b) Opportunity
(c) Evolved
(d) Deduce
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 5 CBSE XII English-Core

vii. “Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade:’ Justify this statement in
about 40 words. 2

viii. How do children play a role in the creation of a language? Answer in about 40 words. 2

ix. The pidgin language was created so that _____. 1

1. colonisers can speak to the slaves
2. slaves can learn new languages
3. slaves with different languages could communicate with one another
4. to improve existing language of the land owners
5. slaves with different languages could not communicate with one another.
(a) only 1 (b) 2 and 5
(c) only 3 (d) 3 and 4

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Travel today, whether for purposes of business or leisure, takes up 25-30% of the annual budget of
family, according to a survey conducted in 2021.
2. Today, it is trending to spend money on experiences rather than consumables. Travel is no longer looked
at as just visiting a new place. It underlines an ethos, a culture, a pandora’s box full of surprises. People
who love to travel enjoy relaxation, new cultures, foreign food or incredible landscapes different from
their normal surroundings. Some people enjoy the motion of travelling, being on a boat, plane, train
or bus. The list is endless and the reasons range from simple to complex. The study further revealed
changing trends in travel tourism. While some are serious travellers who fall under the category of
medical tourism, a large percentage are splurging on pleasure travel. When questioned on why, what are
the benefits or purpose, the responses can be categorized under a few common headings.
3. Those who do it for fun, for a sense of adventure, to take on risks and challenges are the 18-30 year-
olds. While the 30-40 years bracket couple fun with education, a thirst for knowledge and experience-to
see beautiful places, explore cultures and cuisines. They believe that an ever-changing environment
is stimulating, refreshing and brings endless learning opportunities. Those between the 40-50 years
travelled to expand their minds and challenge perspectives. They want a break from their soul-destroying
lifestyles. The 60 years and above were the NOW travellers-they feel they might drop dead the day
before they retire or be too old and unfit to travel, or take on, physical challenges. The in-between 50-60
years adopt the best of both worlds.
4. The survey concluded that travel has become an integral part of people’s lives, and it provides us our
greatest stories, our most cherished moments and countless learnings that broaden our horizons and
above all teach us about ourselves and others.
Age-wise distribution of holiday-goers in percentages

Age Adventure Education Relaxation Now Travellers

Below 20 39 38 6 17
20 – 30 44 28 12 16
30 – 50 25 24 30 21
Above 50 8 10 40 42

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 5 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Infer two purposes of travelling as mentioned in the given paragraph. Answer in about 40 words. 2

ii. Which of the following options displays the most likely reason for people to make travel budgets? 1
(a) Undertake journeys that give relaxation, adventure or knowledge.
(b) Learn about new people and their language.
(c) Buy the latest designs in the market.
(d) In order to gain relief from work pressure.

iii. Do you think the researchers of the survey aimed to popularize a particular type of tourism? 1

iv. Identify the adventurous traveller from the following three travellers. 1
(a) Roshni – I love to capture photographs while travelling.
(b) Reshma – I love to travel with tight travelling budgets.
(c) Roshan – I love to explore isolated places full of challenges.

v. Which of the following is an example of an opportunity for a sense of adventure? 1

(a) Hiring a taxi or cab (b) Being a tourist
(c) Trying new things full of difficulties (d) Advance booking of the travel tickets

vi. How might the differences in purpose of travellers between adventure and education impact the age
groups offered by researchers in survey? Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

The similarities in the percentage of people belonging to below 20 age group who are interested in
adventure and educational travelling may be due to _____.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The title, “Travelling for Fun”, is appropriate for this passage.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.

3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. You lost your wristwatch in your school auditorium. Write a notice in nbt more than 50 words for your
school notice board giving a detailed description of the watch. You are Anirudh/Arundhati of class XII
of Springfield School, Pune.


O
B. Your school is celebrating Grandparents’ Day next week. Write a notice in 50 words to be put up on the
school notice board informing students of the celebration and requesting them to be present with their
grandparents. You are Samir/Suman, Head Boy/Head Girl ABC Sen. Sec. School, Delhi.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 6 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 6
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. Very often, we do not take the first step towards a good cause because we say to ourselves, “The task is
so big. What can I do alone?” So nothing gets done. There is much talk about environmental protection,
air pollution and saving our forests. Do we really care? If we do, here are a few things we can do to make
our surroundings more pleasant.
2. It is good to adopt a two-uses-attitude! By putting an article to a second use, we are giving it a longer
lease of life and using up less raw material from nature. One of the worst things we do is the abuse of
paper. The clean sides of envelopes can be used to write small notes, lists and reminders around the
house. The more paper we use, the more trees will have to be cut down. For the same reason, we should
avoid the use of paper napkins or paper plates. Cloth napkins are just as good, for they can be washed
and used over and over again.
3. Another area which needs the most urgent attention is effective garbage disposal. People who are
conscious about it follow rules and laws strictly. As a result, their neighbourhoods are clean and beautiful.
Similarly, each one of us can contribute to a cleaner environment. All kitchen waste should be collected
separately. Those of you who have green fingers can turn this into valuable manure. Dig a pit and put
the kitchen waste into it. When the pit is a little over half full, cover it up with mud. Let nature do the
rest. Within three or six months, we will have a good garden manure. It can also be done as a community
project by digging a large pit in the colony. Do take help of all the members, for nothing succeeds like
co-operation.
4. A lot of people don’t care about the environment because they don’t understand the adverse effect that
society has on it. It is important to convince people to care about the environment. The first step would
be to convince people to change by providing simple alternative solutions and ways of doing things. The
internet is a powerful tool and a group on social media of like-minded people can be formed. People
can share environmental stories and issues, as well as pool in solutions and alternatives to educate one
another. With the current state that our planet is in, it is imperative that people actively care about the
environment and most importantly to act now.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 6 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Select the option that classifies the reason for not taking first step towards a good cause. 1
(a) Because we feel that we are not responsible for that task.
(b) Because we feel that nothing gets done anyhow.
(c) Because we feel that the task is too big and we cannot do anything alone.
(d) Because we feel that it is not our work to fulfill the task.

ii. What is the significance of two-uses attitude in the given extract? 1

(a) Putting less material from nature.
(b) Putting an article to a second use giving it a longer lease of life.
(c) Putting an article to a second person.
(d) Putting the task apart itself.

iii. Share evidence from the text, in about 40 words, to support the view that the writer’s writing style is
descriptive in nature. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately with a characteristic or description. 1

The internet is a _____ and a group on social media of like-minded people can be formed.

v. Select the option that is similar in meaning to the word ‘succeeds’. 1

(a) happy (b) lost
(c) triumph (d) sad

vi. Explain in about 40 words, what procedure should one adopt for kitchen? 2

vii. In the line, “...a lot of people don’t care about the environment because they don’t understand the adverse
effect that society has on it.” What does the word ‘adverse’ mean here? 1

viii. How does the following impact the reader? 2

‘There is much talk about environmental protection, air pollution and saving our forests’.
Answer in about 40 words.

ix. Read the five options (1)–(5) given below. 1

(1) More paper-less cutting of trees
(2) Ineffective garbage disposal
(3) Internet– a powerless tool
(4) Adopt a two-uses attitude
(5) Make unpleasant surrounding
Identify the option that DOES/DO corresponds with the passage.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) Only (4)
(c) (3) and (4) (d) Only (5)

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 6 CBSE XII English-Core

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The average age of India will be just 27 in 2020, which means that the majority of the country will
comprise young students and youth. But even now with the clock ticking, the unemployment crisis is
raging the country and the main reason behind this problem is that there are a huge number of youth
passing out from schools and colleges every year and there are many new career options and job roles
being added to various industries as well.
2. However, the youth do not have the kind of skills the new industries want which results in a wide skill
gap. A recent survey by Mindler, an online career-counseling platform, has proved that the majority of
Indian students are aware of just seven career paths, even though there are 250 career options that can
be pursued in India - most new and in-demand.
3. The survey on the awareness of career options among Indian students in the age group of 14-20 was
conducted among 10,000 participants. The responses collected in the survey showed that a staggering
93% of the students who participated in the survey were aware of just seven career options -- law,
engineering, medicine, accounts and finance, design, computer applications and IT, and management.

Figure : Common Career Options Considered by Students

4. According to researchers, India has a variety of 250 career options available across 40 domains
covering 5,000 job types. This shocking lack of awareness among Indian students regarding their future
career options can spell a death knell for the economic bonus that could have come to India due to its
demographic dividend the time period where its population is young and earning.
5. Thus, if parents and teachers can build their own awareness regarding new career options coming up,
then they can be a very helpful part in their child’s career decisions rather than being one of those parents
who push their child into one of the most common careers simply because they are unable to understand
which area would be the perfect fit for their child.
6. If parents utilise the available technology and tools available, they can become more aware of which
careers will help their children grow the most and career counselling can help both parties get the desired
satisfaction.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 6 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Do you think the researchers of the study aimed to change the students outlook towards the new career
options? Support your answer with reference to the text. (Answer in about 40 words) 2

ii. What is the main essence of the passage? 1

(a) Only 7 professional field are popular in India.
(b) There is a lack of awareness regarding new professions available.
(c) Parents must be involved in the process of career selection.
(d) There is a huge gap between education and employment opportunities.

iii. Which two fields, according to the survey, was most popular among students? 1

iv. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option. 2
Career counselling can help both the students and _____ to get satisfactory results
(a) survey team
(b) parents
(c) teachers

v. How can parents become more aware? 1

(a) By providing career counselling to their children
(b) By talking to their children
(c) By using the available tools and technology
(d) By finding which career options are the best fit for their children.

vi. Based on the reading of the text, state a point to challenge the given statement. 1
Parents need not be aware of the upcoming career options.

vii. Complete the sentence appropriately 1

Lack of awareness among Indian students regarding their future career options is affecting our country
badly since _____.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The youth of today do have the kind of skills the view industries want.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4
A. You are Vijay Dhawan, a student of Florence Nightingale Convent, Rohtas Nagar, Aurangabad. Your
school is planning an Inter-House poster making competition to conclude the week-long Environment
Week. As the secretary of the school’s cultural association, write a notice in about 50 words informing
students of classes IX-XII about the competition.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 7 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 7
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. Given the standing of some of its institutions of higher learning, the IITs and IIMs, India is a potential
knowledge power. Realising the potential, however, is not going to be easy. The impressive strides
made by Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) notwithstanding, universal access to quality school education- a
minimum necessary condition for any progress towards making India a knowledge society’, as the 2006
report of the National Knowledge Commission (NKC) puts it-remains a distant goal.
2. There is as yet no legislation at the national level to affirm the right to education, a fundamental right
under the Constitution. The number of school buildings for elementary and secondary education falls
far short of requirements and so does the number of qualified teachers. The pressure on government
budgets, which forces governments to hire teachers on contract paying a pittance of a salary, is playing
havoc with quality. While the incursion of the private sector in the field is providing some competition,
mechanisms to enforce the required standards are lacking.
3. Not that there are no national standards or standards-enforcing agencies. We have the National
Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT) to bring out textbooks in various subjects
for school education. The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducts examinations for
schools affiliated to it across the country. The states too have their school boards to conduct exams and
enforce minimum standards. How even the standards vary widely. In their anxiety to show spectacular
performance, some states are overly lenient-in marking answer papers.
4. Questions arise even over the standards applied by CBSE. Going by the number of students securing
90% or more in their higher secondary exam, it would appear India is on the brink of a knowledge
revolution. The numbers are so large that the cut-off point for admission to top colleges is now above
90%. However, admissions to IITs and medical colleges are not based only on CBSE or State Board
Exam results. Leading undergraduate colleges offering non-professional degree courses hold their own
admission tests. Obviously, Higher Secondary School results are not taken to be a reliable index of the
quality of a student’s learning capability or potential.
5. The numbers seem to be growing every year. The standards applied by Higher Secondary Boards like
CBSE seem to have been diluted to the point that leaves a big gap between what students learn at school
and what they have to face on entering institutions of higher learning.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 7 CBSE XII English-Core

6. In an attempt to remedy the situation, NCERT had recently commissioned experts to rewrite textbooks
on economics. Though not entirely free from blemishes, these new texts should go some way in helping
beginners get acquainted with the basic concepts in the subject and their applications.
7. Not surprisingly, their introduction is facing roadblocks. Teachers do not like to be compelled to look
at textbooks they are not familiar with. Those who revel in seeing students score 90% are reluctant of
ushering in something that may stop the rush of such scores.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. Complete the sentence by choosing an appropriate option. 1
Governments have to hire teachers on contract basis due to _____.
(a) the guidelines issued by the Central Government
(b) abundance of teachers in an area
(c) the non-availability of regular teachers
(d) the pressure on government budgets

ii. What is the tone of writer when he remarks “India is on the brink of a knowledge revolution?” 1
(a) Imaginativeq (b) Optimistic
(c) Sarcastic (d) Presumptuous

iii. List the reason in about 40 words, as why India is referred as a potential knowledge power. 2

iv. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inferences with respect to the following. 1
The main factor that has affected the quality of education is _____.

v. Select the option that conveys the opposite of ‘plenty’ from words used in Paragraph 2. 1
(a) Looking (b) Mechanisms
(c) Incursion (d) Pittance

vi. Why do leading undergraduate colleges hold their own admission tests? Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. Based on the information given in the last paragraph, why do you think that teachers are opposing the
introduction of new textbooks? Answer in about 40 words. 2

viii. State the feelings of the writer with reference to the topic concerned in the passage. 1

ix. The writer would not agree with the following statements based on Paragraph 4 EXCEPT 1
(1) a large number of students score more than 90% in their higher secondary school exams.
(2) the cut-off point for admission to top colleges is above 85%.
(3) admissions to IITs are based only on CBSE or state board results.
(4) higher secondary school exam results are taken to be a reliable index of the quality of a student’s
learning capabilities.
(5) a large number of students score less than 90% in their higher secondary school exams.
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (2)
(c) (1) and (3) (d) (1), (4) and (5)

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 7 CBSE XII English-Core

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Inbound tourism the world over was closed for two years. India was no exception and this has taken its
toll on the tourism economy. The DefExpo 2022 scheduled to be held in Gandhinagar has been postponed
citing the Russia-Ukraine war. It may be but it points to a larger picture of the Indian hospitality industry
losing out due to such postponement.
2. So, let’s put a perspective on this thinking. In 2019, which was a normal year for tourism arrivals, India
received over 10.9 million foreign tourists as per government data. On average, foreign tourists spend
seven nights in India and this means at least fifty million room nights were consumed in India, at a
conservative level, the bulk of this spending is in star-rated hotels in India. They are bigger spenders and
consume services of local guides, dine in the hotels and pay a higher room rent compared to domestic
tourists.
3. The year 2020 was a washout for inbound into India, there was a slight recovery in 2021 but nothing
economically significant. Is domestic tourism the panacea of the tourism economy in India? At the most,
it can act as a band-aid to the tourism economy.
4. Indian domestic tourists do not spend much on destination shopping as they are on a tight budget with
inflation eating into their savings. They avoid spending on good hotels too. For the last two years, all
hotels-be they top or average ones, have slashed their rates as were in 2017-18. Only deep-pocketed
hotels are going to survive because around 40% of hotels closed shop by early 2021 and the situation
has only worsened. Even hotels in metros are charging rates prevalent in 2017-18.
5. Domestic tourists book last-minute scouting for discounts whereas foreign visitors lock their rates at
least six months in advance. It’s the foreign tourists that drive the tourism economy as they consume all
forms of services when visiting India and no amount of domestic numbers can make up for the shortfall
in terms of value. This is the best time for the government to open its doors fully to international tourism.
To encourage tourism, the goods and service tax (GST) on tour operators should be levied at about 1.8%
instead of the current 5%.

6. Despite its rich treasure trove and high rankings in cultural and natural resources as well as price
competitiveness, India still ranked 34th in the ‘Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index 2019’ and
could only capture 1.24% of the world’s international tourist arrivals. The country’s share is evidently
a fraction of its potential. We, regrettably, have failed to realize the true impact of Tourism and convert
our natural advantages into potential economic benefits.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 7 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Infer that the foreign tourists are bigger spenders in comparison to domestic tourists. Answer in about 40
words. 2
ii. Select the option that proves that hospitality industry had been facing a deep turmoil in the last two years
and it is not over yet. 1
(a) The DefExpo 2022 was postponed due to Russia-Ukraine war.
(b) Most hotels are offering pre-2019 rates in desperation.
(c) Around 40% of hotels have closed shop.
(d) Only hotels with deep pockets will be able to tide over the tough times.
iii. Based on the reading of the text, state a point to challenge the given statement. 1
Domestic tourists are on a tight budget scouting for discounts till the last moment but tour operators are
in a better position to serve the cause of tourism industry.
iv. Identify the domestic tourist from the following three tourists. 1
(a) Rakesh – WOW! I love this scene.
(b) Lokesh – I will stay here forever now.
(c) Pranjol – I will be here just for a month only.
v. Which of the following should not be in the list if India has to reap potential economic benefits in
tourism sector? 1
(a) GST @ 5 per cent (b) highly-rated cultural resources
(c) competitiveness prices (d) highly-appreciated natural resources
vi. Why do domestic tourists not spend excessively on destination shopping? (Answer in about 40 words) 2
vii. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1
India’s share of world’s international tourist arrivals is _____ proportional to its actual potential.
viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1
Foreign tourists splurge more on star-rated accommodation and services.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4
A. You are Manak/Meera, the Head Boy/Girl of St. Giri Public School, Mathura. Write a notice in about 50
words informing the students about the debate competition in the school on the topic ‘School Uniforms
Should be Banned’.


O
B. You are Health Secretary, Students Council Citizens Public School, Ram Bagh, Varanasi. The Council
has decided to start from the second of October a week-long cleanliness drive around the school. Draft
a notice in about 50 words asking the Class XI students to enrol for the drive.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 8 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 8
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. From the moment a baby first opens its eyes, it is learning. Sight and sensation spark off a learning
process which will determine in large measure, the sort of person it will become. Language stands head
and shoulders over all other tools as an instrument of learning. It is the language that gives man his lead
in intelligence over all the other creatures. No other creature can assemble a list of ideas, consider them,
draw conclusions and then explain his reasoning. Man can do all this because he possesses language.
And if thought depends on language, the quality of an individual’s thought will depend on that person’s
language-rudimentary or sophisticated, precise or approximate, stereotyped or original.
2. Very young babies are soothed by human voice uttering comforting words close to them. This essentially-
emotional response provides early evidence that feeling is an important component of language learning.
Children learn to use language in interaction with other human beings and this learning proceeds best
against a background of affectionate feedback from the person who is closest to them. This is seen to
perfection in the interaction between parent and a baby: eyes locked together, the adult almost physically
drawing ‘verbal’ response from the baby, both engulfed by that unique experience of intimate and joyful
connecting, which sets the pattern of the relationship between two people.
3. Thus, long before they can speak, children are involved in a two-way process of communication, which is
steadily building a foundation on which their later use of language will be based. Constantly surrounded
by language, they are unconsciously building structures in their minds into which their speech and
reading will later fit grammatical constructions, tense sequences and so on. The forms of these structures
will depend on the amount and complexity of speech they hear. Fortunate are those children who listen
to articulate adults, expressing ideas and defending opinions. They will know, long before they can
contribute themselves and understand, that relationships are forged through this process of speaking and
listening; that warmth and humour have a place in the process, as have all other human emotions.
4. Using books is the most important means of ensuring a child’s adequate language development. None
of us can endlessly initiate and maintain speech with very small children; we run out of ideas or just get
plain sick of it. Their lives are confined to a limited circle and they do not have enough experience to
provide raw material for constant verbal interaction.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 8 CBSE XII English-Core

5. Parents and children who share books share the same frame of reference. Incidents in everyday life
constantly remind one or the other of a situation, a character, an action, from a jointly enjoyed book,
with all the generation of warmth and well-being that is attendant upon such sharing. All too often, there
is a breakdown of communication between parents and children when the problems of adolescence
arise. In most cases, this is most acute when the give-and-take of shared opinions and ideas have not
been constantly practised throughout childhood. Books can play a major role in the establishment of this
verbal give-and-take because they are rooted in language.
6. Young children’s understanding greatly outruns their capacity for expression as their speech strains to
encompass their awareness, to represent reality as they see it. Shades of meaning which may be quite
unavailable to the child of limited verbal experience are startlingly talked to toddler. All the wonderful
modifying words-later, nearly, tomorrow, almost, wait, half, lend, etc. begin to steer the child away from
the simple extremes of “Yes” and “No” towards the adult world of compromise from the child’s black
and white world to the subtle shades and tints of the real world. The range of imaginative experience
opened up by books expands the inevitably limited horizons of children’s surroundings and allows them
to make joyful, intrigued, awestruck acquaintance with countless people, animals, objects and ideas in
their first years of life.
7. Books also open children to new points of view, besides their own as they unconsciously put themselves
into other people’s places-if that could happen to him, it could happen to me: This imaginative self-
awareness brings apprehensions and fears as well as heightened hopes and joys.
8. In books, children can experience language which is subtle, resourceful, exhilarating and harmonious;
languages that provide the human ear (and understanding) with a pointed and precise pleasure, the
searing illuminating impact of good and true words.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. What makes a man superior over all the other creatures? 1
(a) Their body-language (b) Their language
(c) Their way of observing things (d) Their skills

ii. What are the most important means of ensuring a child’s adequate language development? 1
(a) Two-way process of communication
(b) Providing raw material for constant verbal interaction
(c) Maintaining speech
(d) Using books

iii. How can language distinguish between human beings and others? Answer in about 40 words. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

The parents can’t rely only on constant verbal interactions because _____.
v. What are the advantages of books mentioned in the above passage? 1
(a) It enables children to see things from other’s point of view.
(b) It creates self awareness in children.
(c) Expose children to a wide range of vocabulary.
(d) All of these
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 8 CBSE XII English-Core

vi. How do children develop language? Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. What is an important component of language learning? 1

viii. What role do books play? Answer in about 40 words. 2

ix. Read the given headlines and identify the option that does not correspond with the message of the
passage. 1
1. Develop new viewpoints through book.
2. Sight and sensation - The spark of learning.
3. No role played by adults in children’s language acquisition.
4. Communication - A two way process.
5. Walk faster - show some hustle.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 3 (d) 2, 3 and 5

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The first Indian woman physician Anandibai Joshi, graduated in 1886. Starting from that single figure,
about 125 years later, Indian women have started to outnumber men in admissions to medical colleges
and the trend continues to grow stronger by the year, particularly over the last five years. During this
period, India has produced 4500 more female doctors than male ones.
2. In India women constituted 51% of the students joining medical colleges, cornering 23,522 seats in 2014-
15, compared to 22,934 men. In fact, in the neighbouring countries such as Pakistan and Bangladesh
there are much higher portions of women in medical colleges, with figures standing at 70% and 60%
respectively.
3. According to the medical journal Lancet, only 17% of all allopathic doctors and 6% of those in rural
areas are women. This is less than one female allopathic doctor per 10,000 population in rural areas,
whereas the ratio is 6:5 in urban areas.
4. According to a paper on women in medicine published in the journal ‘Indian Anthropologis’ by sociologist
Dr Mita Bhadra, the gender gap persists at the postgraduation and doctoral levels. The percentage of
women doctors here is around one-third of male doctors. She also observed that positions of leadership
in academics and administration are still mostly occupied by men.
5. In Pakistan, though 70% of medical students are women, only 23% of registered doctors were females
because a large number of those who graduated never took to practising. The trend of more women
joining the medical profession is welcomed in all these countries as female doctors are seen as committed
and caring. A paper on women in medicine published by Dr Rakesh Chaddha and Dr Mamta Sood of
the psychiatry department of AIIMS noted that medicine has been a male-dominated profession because
it demands long working hours that are disadvantageous to women who, even today, struggle to juggle
career and family responsibilities.
6. Earlier, though women were largely restricted to fields such as obstetrics, gynaecology and paediatrics,
this is changing now. There has always been a preponderance of women in pre-clinical subjects like
anatomy, physiology and biochemistry and paraclinical subjects like pharmacology, pathology and
microbiology, right from the 70s. In departments headed by women, the women faculty was 49% as

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 8 CBSE XII English-Core

compared to just 19% in those headed by men, says Dr Chaddha, giving the example of the neurology
department at the AIIMS, which saw a lot of women faculty joining when the HOD was a woman. ‘It is
probably because the head of the department becomes a role model and more women are encouraged to
join,’ said Dr Chaddha.
7. There are skews within the medical profession in most parts of the world with some medical specialties,
such as surgery and other disciplines requiring emergency duty with irregular hours being male-
dominated. Even in the United Kingdom, though women account for 56% of those opting for medical
education, 49% are public health and only 8% are surgeons, according to a Royal College of Physicians
expert.
8. Among the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development countries (OECD), across ten of
them, predominantly from the erstwhile Eastern Bloc, the proportion of female physicians is more than
50%, ranging from a high 73.8% in Estonia to 50.2% in Spain. In two non-OECD countries, Latvia and
Lithuania, females accounted for over 74% and 70% of physicians. In contrast, only one in five doctors
in Japan and Korea were women. In the United States it is one in three, confirming the fact that the
disproportion among women and men doctors is a universal phenomenon.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. Infer the purpose of the survey as mentioned in the given extract. Answer in about 40 words. 2

ii. What is the number of women joining the medical profession in Pakistan and Bangladesh? 1 1
(a) It equals women doctors in India.
(b) It is growing faster than the doctors in India.
(c) It is much lower than the figures in India.
(d) It is higher than the figures in India.

iii. How does the woman HOD impact faculty? 1

iv. Identify the surgeon from the following three. 1

(a) Roshan: People come to me in fever.
(b) Latasha: I work over tooth of the people.
(c) Suraj: I perform surgeries.

v. By how much did the female doctors have outnumbered the male doctors in 125 years in India? 1
(a) 4500 (b) 4300
(c) 4000 (d) 2383

vi. At what level did the gender gap persist in the extract? What did Dr Mita Bhadra observe? Answer in
about 40 words. 2

vii. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

Pharmacology, pathology and microbiology are termed as _____.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The title, “Studying is disadvantageous to women” is appropriate for the given passage.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 9 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 9
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. Convenient, inexpensive, nutritious, good for you and delicious: they have it all! Peanuts are the most
popular and consumed nuts in the United States and can be found nearly everywhere. Perfect for a quick
snack, a handful of these nuts provide a highly nutrient food for less than 200 calories.
2. According to the Peanut Institute, the peanut plant originated in South America, probably first
domesticated and cultivated in the valleys of Paraguay. Spread by European explorers and traders, the
plant eventually reached Asia, Africa and North America. Millions of peanuts are grown and consumed
around the world. Peanuts started to be produced in large quantities in the 1900s due to the growing
popularity of peanut butter, peanut candies and other peanut products.
3. Although peanuts come in many varieties, four main types can be found in the United States: Virginia
Peanuts, Runner Peanuts, Spanish Peanuts and Valencia Peanuts. Peanuts are a wonderful food, rich
in nutrients and flavour. The combination of fibre and protein in peanuts satiates hunger. Thus, eating
peanuts helps manage weight and provides the key nutrients that are important to diets. Peanuts are also
natural energy boosters that contain healthy fats, proteins and antioxidants. Research shows that eating
peanuts can decrease your risk of heart disease, diabetes and other chronic health conditions. Peanut
butter is also full of the good kind of fat also known as monounsaturated fat that is heart-healthy and
prevents belly fat that people get from carbohydrates or saturated fat.
4. For centuries, peanuts have been used in many culinary applications, including Chinese, African and
Western cooking-in stews, sauces, mixed dishes, boiled or even plain-nourishing various populations
with an enjoyable flavour. The great advantages of using peanuts in the kitchen are their availability and
affordability. Peanut oil is also becoming a popular option for cooking because of its healthy fats and
high cooking temperature.
5. Pureed peanut is also great to infuse nutty goodness into a variety of dishes such as soups, sauces, bread
mixes, salsa recipes, salad dressings and pasta dishes. For those who like hummus, pureed peanuts
and chickpeas are a great combination. On the sweet side, peanuts are commonly used for ice cream,
brownie mix or cake batter. Peanut flour is an asset for pastry chefs because of its ability to act as a fat
binder in confectionery products or to add flavour and extend shelf-life.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 9 CBSE XII English-Core

6. A long-time American favourite, peanuts offer countless healthy properties and natural nutrition to all
populations and age groups, peanuts enhance the flavour and boost the nutritional value of food dishes
from breakfast and snacks to dinner and dessert. As a nut, oil, flour or butter, peanuts are a very versatile
and tasty ingredient.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Select the option that displays the key reason why peanuts are regarded as ‘healthy fats’. 1
(a) It is popular option for cooking at high temperature.
(b) It is full of monounsaturated fats that is heart healthy.
(c) It provides key nutrients for cooking.
(d) It is natural oil and boosts the energy of hearts.

ii. Select the option that conveys the most likely reason for including peanuts in diets. 1
(a) It was found to be healthy food because of its flavours.
(b) It was found that peanuts satiates hunger.
(c) Peanuts decreased the risk of heart disease, diabetes and other heart related problems.
(d) It was found that peanuts in America had four varieties.

iii. Share evidence from the text, in about 40 words to support the view that the writer’s writing style is
descriptive and informative. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately with a characteristic or description. 1

The popularity of peanuts in cuisines across the world is because of their _____.
v. Select the option that is similar in meaning to ‘satiate’. 1
(a) hungry (b) slave
(c) satisfy (d) honourable
vi. Explain, in about 40 words, the reason for peanuts being a favourite with pastry cooks. 2

vii. In the line, “...Peanuts enhance the flavour and boost the nutritional value of food dishes from breakfast
and snacks to dinner and dessert”. What does the word ‘enhance’ mean here? 1

viii. How does the following line impact the readers that ‘the spread of peanuts can be attributed to European
traders and explorers”? Answer in about 40 words. 2

ix. Read the statements (1)-(5) given below. 1

(1) The concluding sentence of the text makes for a clear case of peanuts is a healthy option for all
ages of people.
(2) The concluding sentence of the text makes for a clear case of peanuts is what makes bakers and
cooks in America want to cook.
(3) The concluding sentence of the text makes for a clear case of old and young can together enjoy
cooking and eating peanuts.
(4) The concluding sentence of the text makes for a clear case of as yet no negative conclusions about
peanuts have been drawn.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 9 CBSE XII English-Core

(5) The concluding sentence of the text makes for a clear case of peanuts is an unhealthy option for old
aged people.
Identify the option that displays the correct concluding statements that corresponds with occurences in
the passage.
(a) Only (1)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) Only (5)
(d) (4) and (5)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. India’s labour market is the second largest in the world, after China, with a working age population of
about 520 million people. In 10 years, it is expected to be the world’s largest as China’s population aged
15 to 64 drops from 20.5 to 18.3 percent.
2. While this positive demographic growth should be advantageous for business, only a small portion of
India’s working age population is actually engaged in the formal workforce. The primary reason being
that barely one in four women are part of the country’s workforce. Today, industry estimates show that
women in India only make up five to six percent of directorships at most listed companies; this after
amendments to the Companies Act mandated at least one woman on company boards.
3. These figures underline the highly distorted nature of India’s labour market where women hold 45
percent of university degrees but are either denied employment opportunities or experience much slower
career growth trajectories due to gender-based discrimination.
4. India has the lowest female labour force participation rate in its neighbourhood. At about 27 percent, it
falls well below Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Nepal. While female employment is higher in rural India, it
is mostly as underpaid and temporary labour, though even here the rate of participation is declining.
5. The overall rate of female labour force participation declined as the Indian economy opened up, urbanised,
and diversified with the growth of new industries, unlike most other regions in the world. In fact, rapid
growth experienced by the US and China in the past century illustrate how improving the gender balance
in the workforce contributes to a nation’s economic growth. Female labour force participation is 56
percent in the US and 64 percent in China.
6. The above correlation is also strengthened by a 2017 IMF study, which states that increasing the female
labour force participation will grow India’s GDP by an estimated 27 percent. Contrast this with the
projections made by the government’s big idea reforms ‘Make in India’ and ‘Digital India’, which aim
to boost India’s growth by 16 percent and 5 percent, respectively.
7. Yet, GDP goals aside, the gender imbalance in India’s workforce stunts future prospects for inclusive
growth in the country. It deprives women and girls from positions of role models in the workplace,
reduces their motivation to study further and perpetuates unhealthy socio-cultural attitudes. Leaving out
one half of the population from its workforce will also prolong India’s status as a developing country.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 9 CBSE XII English-Core

Figure : Female Workforce Participation Rate in South Asia

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. According to the passage, what may be a negative factor that can impact the positive growth of the
Indian labour force? Answer in about 40 words. 2
ii. What is the reason for the highly destorted nature of the female workforce in India’s labour market? 1
(a) Women are unskilled and uneducated (b) Women are denied employment opportunities
(c) Women have slower career growth (d) Both (b) and (c)
iii. What is the result of the gender imbalance in India’s workforce? 1
iv. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option. 1
The given passage highlights _____.
(a) gaps in women empowerment in the workforce
(b) need of more women participation in the workforce
(c) the reasons for declining GDP
v. Which of the following statements is NOT substantiated by information in Paragraph 4? 1
(a) Leaving out one half of the population from its workforce will also prolong India’s status as a
developing country.
(b) The female labour force participation declined in the Indian economy.
(c) Female labour force participation is 56 percent in the US and 64 percent in China.
(d) Rapid growth experienced by the US and China in the past century illustrate how improving the
gender balance contributes to a nation’s economic growth.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 5 Sample Paper 9 CBSE XII English-Core

vi. Based on the reading of the text, state a point, in about 40 words, to challenge the statement. 2
Increase in female labour participation will affect our GDP adversely.

vii. Complete the sentence based on the following statement. 1

Women in India experience a much slower growth.
This happens because of _____.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The rapid growth made by UK in the past century was due to the improving gender balance in the
workforce.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4
A. You are Shikha Kapoor, General Secretary of Sports Club of Meera Bai School, Dehradun. Your school
has decided to celebrate the Silver Jubilee function of the school in the form of Annual Sports Day. Write
a notice on the school notice board inviting the names of the students who want to participate in any of
the sports activity or to put up any show on the stage.


O
B. While walking in a park in your neighbourhood you found a small plastic bag containing some documents
and some cash. Write a notice in about 50 words to be put on the park noticeboard asking the owner to
identify and collect it from you. You are Amar/Amrita 943912xxxx.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. You are a student of St. Joseph Public School, Nainital. The school is holding its annual function on
Saturday, the 9th of October, 20xx at 5 p.m. The Education Minister, Dr. M.N. Johri, has consented to
be the Chief Guest. Design an invitation card to be sent to the parents and other invitees.


O
B. You are Rachna Madan. Your friend Archana Gupta has invited you to her engagement ceremony to be
held at Hotel Crowne Plaza on 27th November 20xx at 8 p.m. Draft a reply saying politely that due to
an exam on that day, you cannot attend the engagement ceremony. Wish her a good luck.
5. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5
A. You are Renu of 334, Kirti Nagar. You have just come across an advertisement concerning education
abroad.
The BTN Sussex University in collaboration with its Indian counterpart offers the first year of study in
India and the three subsequent years in the UK.
You joined the above course. Despite having spent a substantial amount, you haven’t been able to
proceed to the UK for your studies. Write a letter in 120-150 words to the editor of a newspaper drawing
attention of the public and the education authorities to such advertisements which befool students.
Suggest measures which could be taken up against unscrupulous vendors of education.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 10 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 10
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. Global warming is the warming up of the Earth due to the trapping of gases like carbon dioxide, carbon
monoxide, methane and nitrous oxide, when the atmosphere fails to perform its function of acting as a
protective blanket. The incoming solar radiation is partly absorbed by carbon dioxide, though a vastly
higher amount of the outgoing radiation is trapped in the atmosphere.
2. Carbon dioxide possesses immense staying properties in the atmosphere. It is being speculated that
carbon dioxide concentrations may double in about a century. This increased carbon dioxide level,
according to predictions, indicates an increase in temperature ranging from 1.5 - 4 degrees Celsius, or a
rise in sea levels by about 50 cms by AD 2100.
3. However, Earth apparently has its own system of checks and balances. Water vapour in the atmosphere
is known to absorb radiation more than any other atmospheric component. A doubling of carbon dioxide
concentration would increase the capacity of the Earth’s surface to absorb infra-red radiation by about 4
watts per square metre, though overall, the levels of absorption would be small.
4. Volcanic eruptions, too, are believed to be responsible for reduction in the carbon dioxide content in
the atmosphere. Cooling through volcanic eruptions is believed to release certain gases, which are
responsible for decrease in the carbon dioxide content in the atmosphere. Measurement of the incident of
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere made in Hawaii indicate that during 1992-93 about two billion tonnes
of the gas was found missing from the atmosphere.
5. As far as the impact of ozone depletion is concerned, it seems to be dictated more by political considerations
than any other factor. The increased burning of fossil fuels for energy is largely responsible for the
increase in temperature through ozone depletion.
6. A tug-of-war has been going on among the industrialised countries and the developing countries on the
share of the blame. In fact, the USA, the erstwhile USSR, Brazil and China account for almost half of
the net global emissions of harmful gases such as CFCs. While North America generates about 5 tonnes
per head of carbon dioxide, Africa, China and India together generate approximately 1 tonne of carbon
dioxide per head.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 10 CBSE XII English-Core

7. However, despite the fact that 1995 was one of the hottest years of the twentieth century, heavy
snowfalls have been recorded in some parts of the world-notably on the Eastern coast of America and
in Jammu and Kashmir. Moreover, during the latter half of the twentieth century, the Arctic climate has
not been undergoing any noticeable temperature changes. In fact, till 1975, global temperatures had been
undergoing a downward trend. Could the recent spurt in temperatures be a natural cyclical process, or a
temporary offshoot of the shifting pressure belts?
8. Given the rising temperatures, growing seasons would be prolonged. Higher temperatures would also
lead to an increased evaporation from oceans, thereby intensifying cloudiness, leading to moderate
temperatures during the day and warmer nights. Warmer temperatures during the night enhance
agricultural productivity. Increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere will also result in an increase
in fertility. Global warming will also have an impact on the El Nino phenomenon-the circulation of
weather disturbances around the world as a result of the warming of Pacific Ocean around the tropics.
9. However, a few questions remain in the ongoing debate on global warming. The process of heat transfer
in the atmosphere-convection-is a field in which a lot of research needs to be done. Secondly, clouds
and vapour are known to be major absorbers of incoming radiation from space. If the cloud cover, as
a result of increased evaporation due to rising temperature, were to increase, it would result in more
containment. Plants, which both absorb and release carbon dioxide, too have a crucial role to play. Their
role, however, has been till now underestimated.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. It is being surmised that carbon dioxide concentrations may _____. 1
(a) increase 100% in about a decade
(b) triple in about a century
(c) increase slightly in about a century
(d) increase 100% in about a century

ii. The writer would not agree with given statements based on the passage EXCEPT 1
(a) Global warming will have an impact on the El Nino phenomenon.
(b) 1996 was one of the hottest years of the twentieth century.
(c) Water vapour in the atmosphere does not absorb radiation.
(d) Higher temperatures would lead to decreased evaporation from oceans.

iii. Describe the impact of rising temperature on the growing seasons. 2

iv. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with respect to the following 1
There is a tug-of-war between the industrialised and developing countries in order to _____.

v. Fill in the blanks appropriately by choosing the correct option. The major reason for the increase in
temperature through ozone depletion is _____. 1
(a) generation of CFCs (b) increased rainfall
(c) increased burning of fossil fuels (d) None of these

vi. List the things that effect global warming. Answer in about 40 words. 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 10 CBSE XII English-Core

vii. What is the result of animal discharge in the atmosphere? 1

viii. How is cloud cover contain carbon dioxide’s percentage in the atmosphere? Answer in about 40 words 2.

ix. Select the option/s that convey/s the opposite of ‘massive’ from words used in Paragraph 8. 1
1. Prolonged
2. Intensifying
3. Enhance
4. Moderate
5. Tropics
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 4 (d) 3 and 5

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Today, India looks like it is on course to join the league of developed nations. It is beginning to establish a
reputation not just as the technology nerve centre and back-office for the world, but also as its production
centre. India’s secularism and democracy serve as a role model to other developing countries. There is
great pride in an Indian that easily integrates with a global economy, yet maintains a unique cultural
identity.
2. But what is breathtaking is India’s youth. Despite being an ancient civilization that traces itself to the
very dawn of human habitation, India is among the youngest countries in the world. More than half the
country is under 25 years of age and more than a third is under 15 years of age.
3. Brought up in the shadow of the rise of India’s service industry boom, this group feels that it can be at
least as good if not better than anyone else in the world. This confidence has them demonstrating a great
propensity to consume, throwing away ageing ideas of asceticism and thrift. Even those who do not have
enough to consume today feel that they have the capability and opportunity to do so.
4. The economic activity created by this combination of a growing labour pool and rising consumption
demand is enough to propel India to double digit economic growth for decades. One just has to look
at the impact that the baby boomers in the US had over decades of economic activity, as measured
by equity and housing prices. This opportunity also represents the greatest threat to India’s future. If
the youth of India is not properly educated and if there are not enough jobs created, India will lose its
opportunity forever. There are danger signs in abundance.
5. Fifty-three per cent of students in primary schools drop out, one-third of children in Class V cannot
read, three quarters of schools do not have a functioning toilet, female literacy is only 45 per cent and 80
million children in the age group of 6-14 do not even attend school.
6. India’s IT and BPO industries are engines of job creation, but they still account for only 0.2 per cent of
India’s employment. The country has no choice but to dramatically industrialize and inflate its domestic
economy. According to a forecast by the Boston Consulting Group, more than half of India’s unemployed
within the next decade could be its educated youth. We cannot allow that to happen.
7. India is stuck in a quagmire of labour laws that hinder employment growth, particularly in the
manufacturing sector. Inflexible labour laws inhibit entrepreneurship so it is quite ironic that laws
ostensibly designed to protect labour actually discourage employment.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 10 CBSE XII English-Core

8. Employment creation needs an abundant supply of capital. Controls on foreign investment have resulted
in China getting five times the foreign direct investment, or an advantage of $200 billion over the past
five years. The growing interest in India by global private equity firms offers well as they represent pools
of patient and smart capital, but they too face many bureaucratic hurdles.
9. When it comes to domestic capital availability, budget deficits adding up to 10 per cent of the national
GDP impede capital availability for investment and infrastructure.
10. Raising infrastructure spending, coupled with rapid privatization, may not only create employment
but also address the growing gaps in infrastructure. China has eight times the highway miles and has
increased roads significantly in the past few years while India has only inched along. Freight costs at
Indian ports are almost double the worldwide average, just to, give two examples.
11. Moreover like the Lilliputians that kept the giant Gulliver tied down there are some 30,000 statutes in
India of which only a portion are even operational and these keep the employment creation engine tied
down. Since there are no sunset provisions in any laws the regulatory morass only grows every year.
12. In the meantime, we as citizens of the world and descendants of India have to make a difference. We
have to ensure that India and its youth attain that potential both through our business pursuits and the
support of educational charities, on-the-ground proponents of participative democracy as well as other
deserving organizations and initiatives.
13. I believe that hope can triumph and that this can be India’s century-not one that will happen as surely as
the sun will rise each day, but one that many willing hands will need to create together.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. India is on its way to establish a reputation as 1
(a) production centre (b) back office to the world
(c) technology nerve centre (d) all of these

ii. Why is India amongst the youngest countries of the world ? Answer in about 40 words. 2

iii. “This confidence has them demonstrating a great propensity to consume” the confidence referred here is : 1
(a) India being the world’s back office.
(b) The feeling that India can be at least as good if not better than anyone else in the world.
(c) India being a young country.
iv. State any one factor that is obstructing the growth of employment in manufacturing sector in India. 1
v. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1
The narrator suggests _____ for creating more employment.
vi. Synonym of the word morass is _____. 1
(a) Quagmire (b) Remorse
(c) Hiatus (d) Problem
vii. According to the narrator, raising infrastructure spending and rapid privatization will create more
employment opportunities. TRUE or FALSE. 1

viii. The narrator states ‘India is stuck in a quagmire of labour laws. Explain in about 40 words. 2
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 11 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 11
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. For lasting and clear eyesight, eyes need care in the form of preventive measures, a continuous life-
long exercise. Eyes don’t just see, they do the talking. This is why of all our senses the most precious is
eyesight. Eyes need care in the form of prevention, and knowing some preventive methods in eye care
can make your eyes look bright and healthy and leave you with excellent eyesight.
2. How do we keep eyes bright and healthy? Eat good helpings of vegetables, fruits, omega-3 fatty acids,
beta carotenes with vitamins A, C and E, enjoy good sleep and avoid direct sunlight. Therefore, good
habits and good general health care does play a major role in eye care. Eyes are windows to the human
body; while you look out through this window, we, the eye doctors, can look in to find conditions such
as glaucoma, abnormal blood pressures, diabetes, heart diseases and other health concerns much before
you notice its adverse impact, and help you take preventive measures.
3. It is never too early to begin eye checkups. Throw a torchlight from different directions and look for
fixation in newborns and, if in doubt, take the baby to an eye specialist. By the time a child is four, it is
imperative to have a check up every year to look for squint, signs of opacity brought in by cataracts and
minus or plus powers to decide whether or not glasses are needed. Ultraviolet- protective sunglasses
from childhood can help protect eyes from the harmful UV rays. Once in the teens, contact lenses can
be worn in place of glasses, but never sleep with them on as they reduce the supply of air and blood to
the cornea and can damage eyes. When in 20s, you can get rid of glasses with lasers, Lasik or permanent
contact lenses.
4. An emerging and alarming trend is the Computer Eye Syndrome, which appears to be catching on in
early adult life. We cannot escape the use of computers but, sadly, our eyes are not designed to cope with
these screens. Continuous staring at the monitors reduces blinking, causes strain to the eyes and can lead
to dry eyes as well. Therefore, it is always better to take a break of 10 minutes every hour and look at
distant objects such as the landscapes or even television.
5. Glaucoma or raised pressure in eyes and diabetic retinopathy are silent killers of eyesight. Therefore,
checking eyes once every six months is essential. If afflicted with diabetes, diet, exercise and drugs are
to be remembered in that order to keep the doctor away.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 11 CBSE XII English-Core

6. Around the age of 40, more or less everybody requires reading glasses, a condition known as presbyopia.
But now you can get rid of these glasses as well, with lasers called INTRACOR and SUPRACOR. One
can develop cataract- defined as the loss of transparency in the natural lens of the eye-at any age, but
it usually strikes in old age. It’s treated by replacing the opaque lens with an artificial lens called the
intraocular lens. The latest incataract removal techniques is called femtosecond laser assisted cataract
surgery, which is blade-free, hands-free and makes the operation precise, safe and accurate.
7. That said, eye care is, inevitably, a continuous exercise through life.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Select the option that may become a preventive measure for eyes as given in paragraph 1. 1
(a) Eyes need care and continuous life-long exercises.
(b) Eyes need Vitamin C as a preventive measure.
(c) Eyes are designed to cope up with screens.
(d) Eat good amount of vegetables.

ii. What is the significance of eyes as windows to human body? 1

(a) Eye doctors find out major health problems while seeing in our eyes.
(b) Eye doctors also look at this window.
(c) Eye doctors find various health conditions such as glaucoma, etc.
(d) Eyes are windows to human health.

iii. Share evidence from the text, in about 40 words, to support the view that the Computer Eye Syndrome
is an alarming trend. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately with a characteristic or description. 1

Eating good amount of vegetables, fruits, omega-3 fatty acids, beta carotenes with vitamins A, C and E,
enjoy good sleep and avoid direct sunlight helps _____.

v. Select the option that is similar in meaning to ‘grievously affected especially by disease’ from paragraph
5. 1
(a) blink (b) inevitably
(c) intelligently (d) afflicted

vi. Explain in about 40 words, why “...contact lenses can be worn in place of glasses, but never sleep with
them on”. 2

vii. In the line, ‘That said, eye care is, inevitably, a continuous exercise through life’, the word `inevitably’
refers to whom? 1

viii. How does the following impact our eyes? 2

‘Monitors are bad for our eyes.’
Answer in about 40 words.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 11 CBSE XII English-Core

ix. Read five statements (1) to (5) given below. 1

(1) Eyes don’t just see, they do the talking.
(2) It is never too early to begin eye checkups.
(3) Once in the teens, contact lenses can be worn in place of glasses, but never sleep with them on as
they reduce the supply of air and blood to the cornea and can damage eyes.
(4) Glaucoma or raised pressure in eyes and diabetic retinopathy are silent killers of eyesight.
(5) Around the age of 20, more or less everybody requires reading glasses, a condition known as
presbyopia.
Identify the option that displays the statement that DOES NOT correspond with the occurrence in the
given passage.
(a) Only (1)
(b) (1) and (2)
(c) (3) and (4)
(d) Only (5)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. A number of citizens suffer from a variety of diseases that can be linked to tobacco addiction. In a recent
check-up camp organised by the Cancer Patients Aid Association (CPAA), 830 street children were
examined and the following grim picture was established
• All the boys, young and old, smoked ganja.
• Girls consumed supari or burnt tobacco powder.
• ‘Solutions’ or ‘white ink’ or ‘erasing fluids’ are also inhaled by these children to get a ‘high’
• These substances are easily accessible, legal and cost a mere ` 2.
But this trend is not only confined to any particular segment of society. According to doctors, consumption
of gutkha and smoking is quite rampant amongst children from higher income groups.
2. According to CPAA officials, consumption of gutkha has gone up considerably in the last few years. Since
there is no restriction on the advertisements of this product, even during Ganesh festivals, companies
producing gutkha sponsor events and display huge ads.
3. Over 50% of the people screened so far are addicted to tobacco. The most common form of tobacco use
is gutkha and chewing tobacco. Gutkha is being consumed by people of all ages, upto 22 times a day.
4 million people die every year due to tobacco related causes. Unparalleled expansion of tobacco
production and its aggressive and unrestricted promotion, especially in our country, confirms the fears
that by the year 2030, approximately 10 million people will die every year of tobacco related causes.
4. Even though governments are now recognising and accepting the fact that tobacco harms their economies
and kills their countrymen prematurely, not all governments are able to or want to introduce strong
effective legislation and contribute in other ways to tobacco control.
5. More and more young smokers are being recruited into the ranks of the tobacco habituated by deceptive
and manipulative advertising. Though the industry claims that use of tobacco is a decision made by
informed individuals, the true picture is that today’s youth is making an uninformed choice when it
comes to tobacco consumption.
6. This is because the promotion of tobacco by the industry hides the truth about the effects of tobacco and
goes to great lengths to make tobacco use seem to be the key to a healthy, happy, social life.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 11 CBSE XII English-Core

7. Cancer patients Aid association (CPAA) in its survey gave the following information :
• Children between ages of 7 and 8 smoked bidis.
• The youngest smoker was 6 years old.
• 87 children had already acquired pre-cancerous lesions.
• Over 50% of people are addicted to tabacco.
• 4 million people die every year due to tabacco realted causes.
• By the year 2030, approximately 10 million people will die every year of tabacco related causes.

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Do you think that putting a stop on manipulative advertising regarding tobacco can help in reducing its
consumption? Support your answer with reference to text in about 40 words. 2
ii. Which of the following assumptions does the passage negate? 1
(a) Consumption of tobacco is considered illegal
(b) Consumption of tobacco is limited to only lower income families
(c) With the ban of tobacco, its consumption has decreased
(d) Tobacco consumption is rampant in only males
iii. According to the CPAA, what is main cause of increasing consumption of Gutkha? 1
(a) Lack of restrictions on its consumption
(b) Lack of restriction on its production
(c) Lack of restrictions on its advertisements
(d) Lack of economic stability in the poor groups
iv. Based on the reading of the text, complete the following statement. 1
As a part of manipulative advertising, youngsters are made to believe that tobacco is _____.
(a) a key to happy and healthy life
(b) a key to a reclusive life
(c) a symbol of higher status
v. How are people attracted towards tobacco? 1
vi. Complete the sentence approximately with one/two words. 1
The government knows the effects of tobacco consumption but it does not _____ its consumption.
vii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1
The promotion of tobacco by the industry reveals the ill-effects of tobacco consumption.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 5 Sample Paper 11 CBSE XII English-Core

viii. Based on the theoretical reading of the text, state two points to challenge the given statement in about 40
words. 2
Addiction of tobacco afflicts only the elder (18+) stratum of the society.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.

3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. You are, Aditi Mohan, School Prefect. Draft a notice for the noticeboard about a trekking holiday that
your school is organising, giving all necessary details in about 50 words and asking the interested
students to give their names.

O
B. You are Niti Singhal, studying at Bright Future High School, Mysuru and an active member of the
school sports club. Recently, your school had organized an Inter-School Cricket Championship. After
the final match was over, you found an unclaimed cricket kit on your school playground and have been
asked to draft a notice to locate its owner.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. You are David/Disha, the Secretary of the English Literary and Cultural Society of St. Joseph’s Academy,
Agra. You have to organize an Inter-zonal extempore competition at the +2 level. You wish to invite Dr.
Hansa Bhogle, an eminent educationist, to preside over the function to be held on 15 October at 9:30
a.m. at Govt. Model Sr. Sec. School, Agra. Draft an invitation in about 50 words requesting her to come
and grace the occasion.


O
B. Your friend Antriksh is staying in the school hostel. You wish to invite him at your house for Diwali
celebration. Invite him in not more than 50 words. Invent necessary details.

5. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5

A. You are Srikhant, living at 7C-189, Ist floor, Ramjas Colony, Muzzafarpur. Write a letter to the Editor of
a newspaper about the burden of heavy bags the young children carry to school.

O
B. Draft an application for the post of an accountant in Gurukul Public School that was advertised in the
Times of India. Also, include your biodata. You are Anil/Anita.

6. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5

A. Deepak/Deepa has been involved as a student volunteer in the ‘Adult Literacy Drive’ and has been
working in the slums for the last six months. He/She has to write an article in about 120-150 words on
the ‘Need for a Literate Nation’.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 12 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 12
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. The monsoon is such a welcome respite from the scorching summer thanks to the overcast sky, gentle
rain and lush greenery all around. Almost all of us love to savour spicy and crunchy food items, such
as fritters (pakoras) and chaats like panipuri, sevpuri teamed with cutting chai as the rainwater lashes
against the windowpane. However, the season also brings along a lot of diseases, such as dengue, malaria,
conjunctivitis, typhoid, viral fever, pneumonia, gastrointestinal disturbances, diarrhea, food poisoning,
cholera, cough and cold and jaundice due to the presence of bacteria in the environment. The challenge
lies in going about your daily routine without falling ill. If you suffer from low immunity, you are at a
higher risk of contracting these diseases. However, the right dietary tips can strengthen your immunity
and help you stay hale and hearty.
2. Due to the humid climate, you may not feel too thirsty and consume just one litre of water every day.
But you need to be well hydrated as sweat doesn’t evaporate quickly in monsoon. Consequently, this
prevents the body from releasing heat. So consume a lot of water as it helps to flush out toxins from the
body. Ensure that the water is clean, pure and safe to drink. Avoid aerated drinks; instead consume warm
beverages, such as green tea with holy basil leaves, ginger, pepper and honey as they have anti-bacterial
properties. A bowl of hot vegetable soup is also a good option. The hot beverages increase your body
temperature (which will in turn give you warmth) while the ingredients will boost your immunity.
3. Consume fruits, such as cherries, bananas, apples, pomegranates, plums, litchis and pears as they are
packed with anti-oxidants and are rich in vitamin A, E, C and minerals. Vegetables, such as cauliflower,
potatoes, cluster beans, ladyfingers, kidney beans, pigeon pea and sprouted grains get spoilt easily
due to the humidity. So, they should be avoided. Opt for cooked or steamed veggies. Avoid salads as
they comprise raw vegetables that contain active bacteria which lead to various infections and affect
the body’s immunity. Avoid strong smelling or extra sweet fruits, such as mangoes and jack-fruit that
attract flies as their excess intake can cause skin irritation and stomach ache. It’s also important to store
vegetables the right way during the rains. Do not wash the veggies thoroughly before storing, as the
moisture will attract pathogenic fungus. These bacteria can spread to other susceptible food items as
well, making them unhygienic. Instead, pat dry and store separate food items in different containers. Buy
them in limited portions and use them as soon as possible.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 12 CBSE XII English-Core

4. Dehydration makes your hair brittle and scanty. So hydrate yourself. Zinc and iron help to keep your
tresses healthy and beautiful. Consume nuts, eggs and walnuts to maintain hair strength. Walnuts are
rich in biotin and vitamin E, which are excellent antioxidants. Proteins are important for hair strength
too. So add curd to your diet, as it is a great source of protein. Amla juice, oranges and other citrus fruits
are rich in vitamin C. Vitamin C keeps your hair strong as it helps in production of collagen that among
other things strengthens the hair capillaries (ensuring proper nutrient supply to our hair). Also, ensure
that you wash your locks on alternate days and cover them well during the monsoon. Dried apricots,
roasted sunflower seeds and lentils are better foods to consume during monsoon than other iron-rich
foods which are susceptible to microbial attack. Do not forget to eat yummy corn on cob as corn is also
rich in iron and zinc.
5. So, the secret to enjoy the rains, without the fear of affecting your health is to go light on eating. Have a
safe and healthy monsoon.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. The correct way to store veggies is to : 1

(a) wash them properly before storing
(b) buy them in bulks
(c) pat them dry, store separate items in different food containers
(d) soak them in water

ii. Choose an appropriate heading for the given passage. 1

(a) How to Store Your Food During the Rainy Season
(b) Beat the Monsoon Woes by Eating Right
(c) Monsoon Sickness
(d) Hair Fall Remedy

iii. Raw vegetables should be avoided because _____. 1

iv. List any two benefits of drinking water. 1

v. Which of these statements is false? 1

(a) Warm beverages like soup is healthier option than aerated drinks.
(b) Vegetables such as cauliflower, bean sprouts, ladyfingers are more likely to get spoilt.
(c) Amla juice, oranges and other citrus fruits are rich in vitamin D.
(d) Iron and Zinc helps in keeping our hair healthy.

vi. Give two merits and two demerits of monsoon. Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. How can different beverages help in monsoon? Answer in about 40 words. 2

viii. Discuss about the hair care during monsoons. Answer in about 40 words. 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 12 CBSE XII English-Core

ix. Read the headlines (1)-(5) given below and identify the option that corresponds with message of the
passage. 1
(1) Rains mean crispy pakoras and cutting chai
(2) The Rains do not bring diseases
(3) Maintain your physical well-being during rains
(4) The best hair days are rainy days
(5) A rainy day comes as a relief after a hot summer day.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) only (4)
(c) (1), (2) and (5) (d) only (3)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. News-If you can’t remember the last time, you saw a teenager reading a book, newspaper or magazine,
you’re not alone. In recent years, less than 20 per cent of teen report reading a book, magazine or
newspaper daily for pleasure. More than 80 per cent say they use social media every day, according to a
research published by the World Psychological Association.
2. ‘Compared with previous generations, teens in the 2010s spent more time online and less time with
traditional media, such as books, magazines and television,” said lead author of the book yGen and
professor of psychology at ABC University. ‘Time on digital media has displaced the time that was once
spent enjoying a book or watching TV’
3. Swaner and her colleagues analyse data concluded from an ongoing study of a nationally representative
sample of approximately 50,000 eighth, tenth and twelfth grade students annually. They looked at survey
results from 1976 to 2016, representing more than 1 million teenagers. While the study started with only
twelfth-graders in the 1970s, eighth and tenth-graders were added in 1991.
4. Use of digital media increased substantially from 2006 to 2016. Among twelfth-graders, internet use
during leisure time doubled from one to two hours per day during that period. It also increased 75 per
cent for tenth-graders and 68 per cent for eighth-graders.
5. “In the mid-2010s, the average twelfth grader reported spending approximately two hours a day texting,
just over two hours a day on the internet which included gaming and just under two hours a day on social
media,” said Swaner. That’s a total of about six hours per day on just three digital media activities during
their leisure time.
6. In comparison, tenth-graders reported a total of five hours per day and eighth-graders reported four hours
per day on those three digital activities. Consequently, the spent time in the digital world is seriously
degrading the time they spend on more traditional media such as print book and newspapers.
7. The decline in reading print media was especially steep. In the early 1990s, 33 per cent of tenth-graders
said they read a newspaper almost every day. By 2016, that number was only 2 per cent. In the late
1970s, 60 per cent of twelfth-graders said they read a book or a magazine almost every day; by 2016,
only 16 per cent did. Twelfth-graders also reported reading fewer books each year in 2016 compared to
how much they read in 1976 and approximately one-third did not read a book (including e-books) for
pleasure in the year prior to the 2016 survey.
8. There’s no lack of intelligence among young people. However due to over dependence on digital media
they find it difficult to focus for long periods of time and to read long-form text. Subsequently, they find
it challenging to understand complex issues and develop critical thinking skills.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 12 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Infer two possible ways that the survey, mentioned in the given extract, could be beneficial. Answer in
about 40 words. 2

ii. Select the option that displays the most likely reason for the study of this research. 1
(a) To know about reading choices of teenagers
(b) To know about digital competency of teenagers
(c) To know about speed of reading text
(d) To know about the decline of time spent on traditional media

iii. Do you think that the researchers of this study added eighth and tenth graders to the survey, deliberately?
Support your answer with reference to the text. 1

iv. Identify the person who uses social media from the three following people. 1
(a) Anchal – I’m using WhatsApp since morning.
(b) Babita – I’m reading books since night.
(c) Daisy – I’m watching television for two hours.

v. Which of the following is the correct option for what does the author mean by degrading the time? 1
(a) Spending less time
(b) Wastage of time
(c) Consuming more time
(d) Saving time

vi. What are the various digital activities in which the twelfth graders indulge in the mid-2010s? Answer in
about 40 words. 2

vii. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

Traditional media has been replaced by digital. We can say this because _____.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The title, ‘Social Media Usage by Age’ is appropriate for this passage.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 13 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 13
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. While there is no denying that the world loves a winner, it is important that you recognise the signs of
stress in your behaviour and be healthy enough to enjoy your success. Stress can strike anytime, in a
fashion that may leave you unaware of its presence in your life. While a certain amount of pressure is
necessary for performance, it is important to be able to recognise your individual limit.
2. Stress is a body reaction to any demands or changes in its internal and external environment. Whenever
there is a change in the external environment such as temperature, pollutants, humidity and working
conditions, it leads to stress. In these days of competition, when a person makes up his mind to surpass
what has been achieved by others, there is an imbalance between demands and resources, which causes
psycho-social stress.
3. Stress reduces productivity and pressure to the management of organisations. Today companies
prefer women to men as employees because of the hope that they bring additional qualities such as
innovation, patience and dedication in the workplace. But due to increased pressure for women both at
the workplace and at home, they face stress. Thus, any employee will make the maximum effort and give
the maximum contribution when kept happy and without any stress. Hence, to increase productivity, it
is the responsibility of the employer to keep the employees free from stress. Hence, it is essential to take
steps to minimise the effects of determinants of stress and help individuals and organisations evolve
newer and more effective coping strategies.
4. Stress takes a different meaning, depending on the stage of life you are in. The loss of a toy or a reprimand
from the parents might create a stress shock in a child. An adolescent who fails in examination may
feel as if everything has been lost and life has no further meaning. In an adult, the loss of his or her
companion, job or professional failure may appear as if there is nothing more to be achieved.
5. Such signs appear, in the attitude and behaviour of the individual, as muscle tension in various parts
of the body, palpitation and high blood pressure, indigestion and hyperacidity. Ultimately the result
is self-destructive behaviour such as eating and drinking too much, smoking excessively or relying
on tranquilisers. There are other signs of stress such as trembling, shaking, nervous blinking, dryness
of throat and mouth and difficulty in swallowing. The professional under stress behaves as if he is a
perfectionist.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 13 CBSE XII English-Core

6. A person under stress reacts in different ways and the common ones are flight, fight or flee depending
upon the nature of the stress and capabilities of the person. The three responses can be elegantly chosen
to cope with stress so that stress does not damage the system and become distress.
7. When a stress crosses the limit peculiar to an individual, it lowers his performance capacity. Frequent
crossings of the limit may result in chronic fatigue, in which a person feels lethargic, disinterested and
is not easily motivated to achieve anything. This may make the person mentally undecided, confused
and accident prone as well. Diet, massage, food supplements, herbal medicines, hobbies, relaxation
techniques and dance movements are excellent stress busters.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. The writer would not agree with the given statements based on paragraph three EXCEPT 1
(a) An employee will give an average contribution when kept happy and without stress.
(b) Women face stress only due to increased pressure at home.
(c) Stress increases productivity.
(d) To increases productivity the employer should keep his/her employees free from stress.

ii. Complete the sentence by choosing an appropriate option. 1

A certain amount of pressure is _____.
(a) necessary for performance (b) necessary for under performance
(c) not necessary for performance (d) necessary for failure

iii. List the symptoms of stress in individuals. Answer in about 40 words. 2

iv. Complete the given sentence with an inference with respect to the following. 1
The writer quotes the example of a child, an adolescent and an adult in Paragraph 5 in order to highlight
that _____.

v. Select the option that conveys the opposite of ‘praise’ from words used in Paragraph 5. 1
(a) shock (b) loss
(c) stage (d) reprimand

vi. What causes psycho-social stress? 1

vii. When does ‘chronic fatigue’ occur? How does it affect a person? Answer in about 40 words. 2

viii. Road the five descriptions (1)-(5), given below. 1

How can the solutions suggested in the last paragraph best be described?
(1) Practical
(2) Presentable
(3) Popular
(4) Prejudiced
(5) Given below.
(a) only 1 (b) only 4
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 4

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 13 CBSE XII English-Core

ix. List the ways in which a person under stress behaves. Answer in about 40 words. 2

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Air pollution is a major threat to human health. The United Nations Environment Programme has
estimated that, globally, 1.1 billion people breathe in unhealthy air. The World Health Organization
(WHO) has estimated that urban air pollution is responsible for approximately 800,000 deaths and 4.6
million people lose their lives every year around the globe.
2. Traffic and transportation problems, inadequate drainage facilities, lack of open spaces, carbon emission,
and the accumulation of waste aggravate the problem. Air pollution is associated with increased risk
of Acute respiratory Infections (ARI), the principal cause of infant and child mortality in developing
countries.
3. Urban air quality in most mega cities has been found to be critical and Kolkata is no exception to this.
An analysis of ambient air quality in Kolkata was done by applying the Exceedance Factor (EF) method,
where the presence of listed pollutants’ (RPM, SPM, NO, and SO2) annual average concentration are
classified into four different categories; namely critical, high, moderate, and low pollution. Out of a total
of 17 ambient air quality monitoring stations operating in Kolkata, five fall under the critical category,
and the remaining 12 locations fall under the high category of NO2 concentration, while for RPM,
four record critical, and 13 come under the high pollution category. The causes of high concentration
of pollutants in the form of NO, and RPM have been identified in earlier studies vehicular emission
(51.4%), followed by industrial sources (24.5%) and dust particles (21.1%).
4. Later, a health assessment was undertaken with a structured questionnaire at some nearby dispensaries
which fall under areas with different ambient air pollution levels. Three dispensaries have been surveyed
with 100 participants. It shows that respondents with respiratory diseases (85.1%) have outnumbered
waterborne diseases (14.9%) and include acute respiratory infections (ARI) (60%), chronic obstructive
pulmonary diseases (COPD) (7.8%), upper tract respiratory infection (UTRD) (1.2%), Influenza (12.7%),
and acid-fast bacillus (AFB) (3.4%).
5. To live a healthy life and have better well-being, practising pollution averting activities in one’s day-to-
day activities is needed. These pollution averting practices can only be possible when awareness among
the masses is generated that the air they breathe outdoors is not found to be safe.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 13 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on the given passage.

i. Infer main idea of the survey in about 40 words, highlighted in the given passage. 2

ii. Select the option that displays the correct ‘cause and effect’ relationship. 1
(a) Cause : air pollution :: effect respiratory diseases
(b) Cause : lack of open spaces :: effect : mega cities
(c) Cause: traffic and transportation problem :: effect : 4.6 million deaths
(d) Cause : air quality monitoring stations :: effect : emission of NO2

iii. How many people lose their lives due to air pollution every year in India? 1

iv. Identify the person suffering from a disease caused due to air pollution. 1
(a) Roshani – I’m suffering from fever since last week.
(b) Ciara – I’m suffering from baldness.
(c) Hamid – I’m suffering from respiratory disorders.

v. Which of the following is the correct opinion of the researcher on the development of mega cities? 1
(a) Mega cities are the right spots to study air pollution.
(b) Urbanization leads to deterioration of air quality.
(c) Cities face transportation problems due to heavy traffic.
(d) Cities face the problem of congestion.

vi. What is the recommendation to the readers from researcher’s point of view? Answer in about 40 words 2.

vii. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

Pollution caused by transports is much more than _____.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The use of diesel generator is responsible for more than fifty per cent of air pollution.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.

3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. You are Sapna Singh, the Secretary of Cultural Committee of your school. Write a notice in about 50
words inviting students to participate in the Annual Day of the school to be organized next month.

O
B. You are Man/Mani, secretary of the History Club of K.V. Sr. Sec. School, Badodhra. Draft a notice in
not more than 50 words informing the students of class XI and XII about a proposed tour to Rajasthan
during the coming summer vacations.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 14 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 14
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. In India, the performing arts are closely associated with every aspect of people’s lives. Dance, music and
song are associated with the occupation of people such as harvesting, sowing, fishing, grinding of grain
as also with celebrating the seasons or describing nature such as animals, birds and flowers.
2. Bihu dance, a seasonal festival celebrated by the farmers in Assam, centres around the agricultural
activity of the region. Rows of dancers move backwards and forwards showing the transplanting of
paddy and the harvesting of rice. Simple rhythms, body movements in perfect synchronisation and the
costumes add to the beauty of the dance.
3. The Wangala dance is performed by women who create formations of circles and semi-circles dancing
to rhythm which is provided on large horizontal drums played by men.
4. In the Chang Lo dance of Nagaland, men and women gather together in community tribal dances that
strengthen the bonds of relationships. The movements of the dance begin with a slow pace gradually
becoming faster to the beat of drums. The dancers create formations of circles and semi-circles, all of
them following the same steps.
5. The origin of the martial dance of Manipur is associated with the myth of creation. Most of the
practitioners of martial arts learn and perform with both spear and sword.
6. The Bhutia is a community in Sikkim having their distinct culture, religion, tradition, custom and
language. Their dance is called Shabdo, the brisk movement of feet. Their songs describe the natural
beauty of the land, holy lakes, sacred caves, serene monasteries, and rich flora and fauna.
7. Chu Faat or Lepcha dance also belongs to Sikkim. The literary meaning of Chu Faat is the worship of
snowy range. This age-old folk dance is performed in the honour of Mount Kanchenjunga, the third
highest mountain. Carrying butter lamps and green bamboo leaves, the dancers perform this dance to the
accompaniment of songs.
8. Chakri, the most popular group song form of Kashmir’s folk music, is sung to the accompaniment of the
nout (geger), ruhab, sarangi and tumbaknaer – an earthen pot with a high neck.
9. Nati is a common name given to many types of dances performed in Himachal Pradesh. During the
Dussehra festival which is very popular in Himachal Pradesh, the temple deities are taken out in
procession in Kulu with gods accompanied by dancers and musicians.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 14 CBSE XII English-Core

10. The Bhangra dance of Punjab is performed after harvesting to celebrate the fruit of their labour and hard
work. Vigorous movements and simple acrobatics are accompanied by the drum beat.
11. In the Munda tribal dance of Jharkhand, the Munda women form a chain by linking arms around one
another’s waists and move in unison to the beat of the drums played by the Munda men.
12. In India there are three types of Chhau dances practised in Orissa, Bihar and West Bengal.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Select the option that describes the movements of Wangala dance. 1
(a) Formation of circles and semi-circles all to the beat of large horizontal drums.
(b) Formation of semi-circles and then making larger circles all to the rhythm of the Wangala drum.
(c) Formation of circles within semi-circles, while dancing.
(d) Formation of horizontal lines all to the beat of circular and semi-circular drums.

ii. Which of the following statements is relevant to the context? 1

The Indian lifestyle is contextualised around _____.
(a) the occupations during festivals and for describing their natures
(b) the occupations of people, their celebrations and their descriptions of nature
(c) dance, music and song for all seasons
(d) the occupations of dancing, singing and celebrating on every opportunity

iii. State how the dances of the Lepchas and the Bhutias differ from those of the northeast of India in about
40 words. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately with a characteristic or its description. 1

The subject matter of the passage indicates _____.

v. Select the option that is similar in meaning to ‘vigorous.’ 1

(a) robust
(b) feeble
(c) accompaniment
(d) popular

vi. State how the Manipur dance differs from other dance forms of this region. Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. In the line, “In India, the performing art are closely associated with every aspect of people’s lives.” What
does ‘aspect’ mean here? 1

viii. How does the following, impact the reader? 2

“Bihu dance, a seasonal festival celebrated by the farmers in Assam, centres around the agricultural
activity of the region.”
Answer in about 40 words.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 14 CBSE XII English-Core

ix. Read the five options (1)-(5) given below. 1

(1) Performing arts - associated with every aspect of people’s lives
(2) Performing arts - not a good thing
(3) Dance - a way of bonding
(4) Dance - not related to movement
(5) Dance - only materialistic
Identify the option that corresponds with the above passage.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1) and (3)
(c) (4) and (5) (d) (3) and (4)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. To understand how the richness of the mammal kingdom has changed, we need a metric that captures a
range of different animals and is comparable over time. We could look at their abundance-the number
of individuals we have-but this is not ideal. We would be counting every species equally, from a mouse
to an elephant, and this metric would therefore make an ecosystem taken over by the smallest mammals
look much richer than one in which bigger mammals roam. If the world’s mouse populations multiplied
and multiplied-maybe even to the detriment of other animals-then this abundance metric might suggest
that these ecosystems were thriving.
2. Instead, ecologists often use metric biomass. This means that each animal is measured in tons of carbon,
the fundamental building block of life. Biomass gives us a measure of the total biological productivity
of an ecosystem.
3. If we go back to around 100,000 years ago-a time when there were very few early humans and only
in Africa-all of the wild land mammals on Earth summed up to around 20 million tons of carbon. This
is shown as the first column in the chart. The mammoths, European lions, and ground sloths were all
part of this. By around 10,000 years ago, we saw a huge decline in wild mammals. This is shown in the
second column.

4. It wasn’t just that we lost a lot of mammals. It was almost exclusively the world’s largest mammals that
vanished. This big decline of mammals is referred to as the Quaternary Megafauna Extinction (QME).
The QME led to the extinction of more than 178 of the world’s large mammals (‘megafauna’).

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 14 CBSE XII English-Core

5. Many researchers have grappled with the question of what caused the QME. Most evidence now points
towards humans as the primary driver. Most of this human impact came through hunting. There might
also have been smaller local impacts through fire and other changes to natural landscapes. When our
ancestors arrived in Europe, the European megafauna went extinct; when they arrived in North America,
the mammoths went extinct; then down to South America, the same.
6. What’s most shocking is how few humans were responsible for this large-scale destruction of wildlife.
There were likely fewer than 5 million people in the world. Around half the population of London today.
7. A global population half the size of London helped drive tens to hundreds of the world’s largest mammals
to extinction. The per capita impact of our hunter-gatherer ancestors was huge. The romantic idea that
our hunter-gatherer ancestors lived in harmony with nature is deeply flawed. Humans have never been
‘in balance’ with nature. Tracing the footsteps of our ancestors will help reveal the level of extinction.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. The writer states, ‘Humans have never been in balance with nature. What do you understand by this?
Answer in about 40 words. 2

ii. The writer used the term ‘metric’ to refer to _____. 1

(a) a degree of temperature (b) a degree of education
(c) a degree of measurement (d) a degree of freedom

iii. What do you think is the main theme of the given passage? 1
(a) Humans are the primary cause of most mammal extinction.
(b) Humans deserve to live longer than most mammals.
(c) The Quaternary Megafauna Extinction is a result of time lapse.

iv. What are the main causes of mammal extinction in nature? 1

1. weakness
2. hunting
3. natural causes
4. fire
5. accidents
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

v. What is the QME? 1

vi. Consider the statement : 1

When our ancestors arrived in Europe, the European megafauna went extinct; when they arrived in
North America, the mammoths went extinct; then down to South America, the same.
What can you infer from this statement?

vii. State whether TRUE or FALSE. 1

Based on the two columns, it can be seen that there is a 5 million tons of carbon decline in the biomass
of mammals.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 5 Sample Paper 14 CBSE XII English-Core

viii. What do you think the writer meant when using the word ‘romantic idea to refer to the relationship of
humans with nature? Answer in about 40 words. 2

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4
A. You, as the School Secretary of the Social Service Club, have to write a notice to be put up on the school
noticeboard regarding the need to raise funds for lepers in your city. Funds collected will be sent to the
Red Cross, New Delhi. Each donor will be issued a formal receipt for the donation. The Red Cross will
award a Red Cross to the donor donating more than `500.

O
B. You are Jairam Reddy, the Head of the English Club. On the occasion of the International Day of English
Language, your school has decided to organize English Week. You are required to call a meeting of the
officer bearers of the English Language Club to plan arrangements for the event. Draft a notice for the
same.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. Your parents have completed 25 years of happy married life. Invite your uncle, living in Surat, to join
you in the silver jubilee celebrations of their marriage at your residence C-4/Sector 9, Kumar Enclave,
Sagar.


O
B. You are Sunil/Sunita Bhasin, a celebrated illustrator. You have been invited by the literacy club, S.K.
School, Jaipur, to deliver a lecture on ‘Life Skills’. Draft a letter of formal acceptance of the invitation
in about 50 words. Address it to the Director of the school.

5. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 120-150 words. 5

A. You are Anushka/Amit staying at A-23/1, Ashok Nagar, Delhi. You find it disturbing that despite a ban
on smoking in public places, people are seen smoking in cities. It shows a lack of civic sense in the
people. Write a letter to the editor of a national daily expressing your concern about indifference of
people to their own as well as others’ health. It is harmful to the environment too. Suggest some ways to
sensitize city dwellers about the safe environment.

O
B. You see a classified advertisement in a leading daily inviting application for the post of an accountant.
Write a letter along with resume in 120-150 words to the Manager, Rockfield Pvt. Ltd., Bhopal, offering
your candidature.
You are Raman Mehta/Reshma Mehta.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 16 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 16
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages
1. Read the following text. 12
1. Many of us believe that “small” means “insignificant”. We believe that small actions and choices do
not have much impact on our lives. We think that it is only the big things, the big actions and the big
decisions that really count. But when you look at the lives of all great people, you will see that they
built their character through small decisions, small choices and small actions that they performed every
day. They transformed their lives through a step-by-step or day-by-day approach. They nurtured and
nourished their good habits and chipped away at their bad habits, one step at a time. It was their small
day-to-day decisions that added up to make tremendous difference in the long run. Indeed, in matters of
personal growth and character building, there is no such thing as an overnight success.
2. Growth always occurs through a sequential series of stages. There is an organic process to growth. When
we look at children growing up, we can see this process at work: the child first learns to crawl, then to
stand and walk, and finally to run. The same is true in the natural world. The soil must first be tilled, and
then the seed must be sowed. Next, it must be nurtured with enough water and sunlight, and only then it
will grow, bear fruit and finally ripen and be ready to eat.
3. Gandhi understood this organic process and used this universal law of nature to his benefit. Gandhi
grew in small ways, in his day-to-day affairs. He did not wake up one day and find himself to be the
“Mahatma”. In fact, there was nothing much in his early life that showed the signs of greatness. But from
his mid twenties onwards, he deliberately and consistently attempted to change himself, reform himself
and grow in some small way every day. Day by day, hour by hour, he risked failure, experimented and
learnt from mistakes. In small and large situations alike, he took up rather than avoid responsibility.
4. People have always marvelled at the effortless way in which Gandhi could accomplish the most difficult
tasks. He displayed great deal of self-mastery and discipline that was amazing. These things did not
come easily to him. Years of practice and disciplined training went into making his successes possible.
Very few saw his struggles, fears, doubts and anxieties, or his inner efforts to overcome them. They saw
the victory, but not the struggle.
5. This is a common factor in the lives of all great people: they exercised their freedoms and choices in
small ways that made great impact on their lives and their environment. Each of their small decisions
and actions, added up to have a profound impact in the long run. By understanding this principle, we can
move forward, with confidence, in the direction of our dreams. Often when our “ideal goal” looks too
far from us, we become easily discouraged, disheartened and pessimistic. However, when we choose to
grow in small ways, taking small steps one at a time, performing it becomes easy.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 16 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Select a proverb that echoes the statement, 1
‘Each of their small decisions and actions, added up to have a profound impact in the long run.’
(a) Look before you leap (b) Rome was not built in a day
(c) Too many cooks spoil the broth (d) A stitch in time saves nine
ii. Complete the sentence appropriately with referring to the word underlined. 1
Based on the information given in the excerpt about Gandhi ji, the narrator infers ‘These things did not
come easily to him. ‘These’ refers to _____.

iii. Explain in about 40 words, how did the great people build their life and character through small actions
with small decisions. 2
iv. After the reading the above passage, select the word that means the same as ‘trivial’. 1
(a) Omnipotent (b) Valuable
(c) Magnificent (d) Insignificant
v. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1
‘The child first learns to crawl, then to stand and walk, and finally to run: We call this process _____.
vi. Explain in about 40 words, how does ‘our ideal goals’ make us disheartened and discouraged. 2
vii. Based on the information given in the excerpt, select the suitable title for the given passage. 1
(a) How to conquer Self- Doubt (b) A closer Look in Self-Growth
(c) What Makes Great Men Great (d) Gandhi and his Struggle in his Early Days

viii. Explain in about 40 words, how did Gandhi ji realize the universal law of nature in his life. 2
ix. ‘Struggles, fears, doubts and anxieties. Which of the following words given below can you add in the
given line that agrees to the general theme? 1
(1) Dexterity
(2) Certainty
(3) Acceptance
(4) Insecurities
(5) Tremendous
Codes :
(a) only 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 5 (d) only 4

2. Read the following text. 10

1. India is a major producer of several agricultural/food items in the world but only less than 10 percent
of that is processed. Demand for processed food items is set to increase in India in the coming years
providing opportunities for greater value addition, lower wastages and alternative employment
opportunities. Analysis of corporate data shows that food processing firms have been profitable, but the
value addition component needs to increase significantly.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 16 CBSE XII English-Core

2. India has made vast progress overtime in providing food security for its people and has become largely
self-reliant in agriculture. Accordingly, the policy focus has shifted from attaining self-sufficiency to
generating higher and stable income for the farming population. Food Processing Industry (FPI) is one
area which has the potential to add value to farm output, create alternate employment opportunities,
improve exports and strengthen the domestic supply chain.
3. India, with about 11.2 percent of total arable land in the world, is ranked first in the production of milk,
pulses and jute, second in fruits and vegetables and third in cereals (Government of India, 2019). It is
also the sixth largest food and grocery market in the world (Law, et al., 2019). Recognising the immense
potential of FPI in promoting inclusive growth, it has been identified as one of the key thrust areas under
the ‘Make in India’ programme.
4. Food processing is defined as transforming agricultural products into food that are in consumable form
or transforming one food item into another by adding value to it (Government of India, 2019). Based
on physical properties of the final product, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries categorises food
processing under two sub-categories, viz. (i) manufactured processes, whereby the original physical
properties of the product undergo a change through a process involving employees, power, machines
or money and the transformed product is edible and has a commercial value and (ii) other value-added
processes where the product does not undergo any manufacturing process, but gains significant value
addition like increased shelf life, shelled and ready for consumption, etc.
5. Depending on the type and extent of value addition, it is categorised as primary and secondary processing.
Primary processing relates to conversion of raw commodity to one that is fit for consumption. It involves
steps such as drying, threshing, cleaning, grading, sorting, packing, etc. Secondary processing involves
creation of value added products like bread, wine, sausages, etc.
6. The importance of processed food items in the consumer basket has increased globally over time.
With higher income, urbanisation, demographic shifts, improved transportation and changed consumer
perceptions regarding quality and safety, food consumption patterns have changed over the years.
Further, advertising through mass media/social media is also found to have resulted in a higher demand-
led Food Processing Industry (FPI) growth in India.

Figure : Pattern of Processed Food Trade

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 16 CBSE XII English-Core

7. The share of processed food in world especially Indian exports in value terms has remained stable over
the years. In 2018, it accounted for 6.5 percent of total world processed exports and 5.7 percent of total
world exports.
8. With the increasing importance of processed food in consumers’ food basket, quality standards have
also emerged as an important factor with new regulations. The food system is being regulated through
a mix of private-public standards which provide the basis of competitive strategies while also proving
to be entry barriers. The implementation of quality standards has been an issue of contention between
developed and developing countries.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.
i. List two advantages of processed food as mentioned in the passage. Answer in about 40 words. 2
ii. Which of the following leads to a change in the food consumption pattern? 1
(a) Urbanisation (b) Demographic shifts
(c) Improved transportation (d) All of these
iii. What are drying threshing and grading a part of? 1
iv. According to the passage, why India has become self-reliant? 1
(a) Agriculture
(b) Stable income
(c) Employment opportunities
v. Based on the reading of the text, state a point to challenge the given statement. Answer in about 40
words. 2
Quality standards do not play an important role in FPI.
vi. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option. 1
What does the given passage highlight?
(a) The system of imports and exports (b) The growing demand of processed food
(c) The food capacity of India (d) The share of Indian exports in food market
vii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1
In the future, the demand for processed food items in Northern India is going to increase.
viii. Complete the sentence appropriately with One Word. 1
‘Arable’ land mentioned in Paragraph 3 means _____.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4
A. You are planing a four-week course for the children of your housing society complex for developing
their soft skills as part of school project. Prepare a notice to be put up on the society’s noticeboard
stating the purpose of the course and giving all necessary details asking the children to join the course.
You are Yashika/ Yasu, studying in Class XII in a reputable public school.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 17 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 17
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages
1. Read the following text. 12
1. The therapeutic value and healing powers of plants were demonstrated to me when I was a boy of
about ten. I had developed an acute persistent abdominal pain that did not respond readily to hospital
medication. In total desperation my mother took me to Egya Mensa, a well-known herbalist in my
hometown in the Western province of Ghana.
2. After a brief interview, he went out to the field. He returned with several leaves and the bark of a tree and
one of his attendants immediately prepared a decoction. I was given a glass of this preparation, it tasted
extremely bitter, but within an hour or so I began to feel relieved. Within about three days, the frequent
abdominal pain stopped and I recall gaining a good appetite. I have appreciated the healing powers of
medicinal plants ever since.
3. In fact, demographic studies by various national governments and inter-governmental organisations
such as the World Health Organisation (WHO) indicate that for 75 to 90 per cent of the rural populations
of the world, the herbalist is the only person who handles their medical problems.
4. In African culture, traditional medical practitioners are always considered to be influential, spiritual leaders
as well, using magic and religion along with medicines. Illness is handled with the individual’s hidden
spiritual powers and with application of plants that have been found especially to contain healing powers.
5. Over the years, I have come to distinguish three types of medicinal practitioners in African societies
and to classify the extent to which each uses medicinal plants. The first is the herbalist, who generally
enjoys the prestige and reputation of being the real traditional medical professional. The second group
represents the divine healers. They are fetish priests whose practice depends upon their purported
supernatural powers of diagnosis. Thirdly, the witch doctor, the practitioner who is credited with ability
to intercept the evil deeds of a witch.
6. From the drugstores in New Delhi, I picked up some well-packaged bark and roots of Rauwolfia
Serpentina, a plant that was very well known in ancient Asiatic medicine. The storekeeper said that it
cures hypertension.
7. For health, social and economic reasons, it seems clear that developing countries should begin an
extensive programme aimed at an examination and research into the properties of the most important
medicinal plants. In most countries, the information on such plants is dispersed and unorganised. Much
of it is in the heads of aging herbalists, who represent a dying breed.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 17 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Select the option that tells about the special thing in the plant Rauwolfia Serpentina that influences the
mind. 1
(a) Metals (b) Mind
(c) Alkaloids (d) Alkalies

ii. Which parts of the plant Rauwolfia Serpentina are used to cure hypertension? 1
(a) Stem and roots (b) Leaves and flowers
(c) Bark and roots (d) Flowers and stem

iii. In desperation, where did the mother take her suffering son? and why? Answer in about 40 words. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately with a characteristic or its description. 1

Based on the information given in the extract, one can infer that the author was suffering from _____.

v. Select the option that is similar in meaning to the word ‘well-off’. 1

(a) established (b) ill
(c) affluent (d) non-affluent

vi. Explain, in about 40 words, what do the WHO demographic studies display? 2

vii. In the line, “I was given a glass of this preparation, it tasted extremely bitter, but within an hour or so I
began to feel relieved.” What does the word ‘bitter’ refer to? 1

viii. In the line, “I picked up some well-packaged bark and roots of Rauwolfia Serpentina, a plant that was
very well-known in ancient Asiatic medicine.” How is Rauwolfia Serpentina useful? Answer in about 40
words. 2

ix. Read the five statements (1)-(5) given below: 1

(1) From the drugstores in New Delhi, I picked up some well-packaged bark and roots of Rauwolfia
Serpentina, a plant that was very well-known in ancient Asiatic medicine.
(2) The storekeeper said that it cures hypertension.
(3) In African culture, traditional medical practitioners are always considered to be influential, spiritual
leaders as well, using magic and religion along with medicines.
(4) Illness cannot be handled with the group’s hidden spiritual powers and with application of plants
that have been found especially to contain healing powers.
(5) In most countries, the information on such plants is not dispersed and organised.
Identify the option that displays the statement that correspondences with occurrences in the passage.
(a) Only (1)
(b) (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (4) and (5)
(d) Only (5)

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 17 CBSE XII English-Core

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The Municipal Corporation of Gurugram recently admitted before the National Green Tribunal that
untreated sewage from the city mixes with treated wastewater in the drains into the Yamuna. The putrid
river that flows through New Delhi is only one of the many severely polluted surface water bodies in the
country. Government agencies estimate that as much of 80% of India’s surface water is contaminated
and most of it comes from sewage.
2. The effects of this contamination are immediately felt with the onset of the monsoons. No sooner had
the rains begun the reports of water-borne diseases like diarrhoea and cholera breakouts trickled in
from Delhi, Pune, Varanasi and Chennai as broken water pipes and flooding allowed fecal sludge mix
(polluted water) into potable water.
3. The Central Pollution Control Board in 2009 calculated that major cities and towns together generate more
than 38 billion litres of sewage everyday, of which only 30% is collected. Less than 20% of this is treated
because that’s all the treatment capacity available. The rest is just emptied into rivers, lakes, seas and ponds.
4. A soon-to-be-released report by Water Aid India on fecal sludge management documents the chinks
(gaps) in India’s sewage system. Seventeen million, or roughly 20%, of urban households, lack sanitation
facilities, the report says. Among those that have access to sanitation only 32% are connected to a
sewage network, the rest depending on septic tanks and pit latrines. There are more numbers to raise a
stink about. More than 5 lakh pit latrines are unsanitary, being nothing more than open pits. More than
9 lakh toilets empty directly into drains. Among the 18% of urban household that don’t have access to
individual toilets, more than 12% resort to open defecation.
5. The story gets murkier beyond the numbers. Where sewers exist, they often leak or overflow. Instead
of being cleaned every few years, septic tanks are left to accumulate fecal sludge that percolates into
ground water. When the tanks are cleaned the black water is disposed off in fields and water bodies, once
again contaminating open fresh water.
6. The Water Aid report looks at sanitation systems in six states and offers a snapshot of how much wastewater
is dumped untreated. Delhi, for instance, uses 4,346 million litres of water per day of which 87% returns
as waste. However, Delhi has the capacity to treat only 61% of the total wastewater it generates. The class
I cities of Maharashtra together consume water three times as much as Delhi does, turn 80% of that into
sewage and treat less than half of their total wastewater. The statistics are far worse for class II cities.

Figure

: Percentage of Total Wastewater that is Treated
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 17 CBSE XII English-Core

7. Even with the creation of the National Urban Sanitation Policy in 2008 and several thousands of crores
being spent by states on sewage networks, the problem has grown worse in the last five years.
The Water Aid report recommends enforcing a national building code, public promotion campaigns
and decentralising sewage treatment plants as remedies to the sewage problem. Water experts, for years
have been calling for freeing up the flow of rivers to allow them to rejuvenate. So the good news for the
moment is water resources Minister Uma Bharti’s announcement that no new dams will be sanctioned
on the Ganga if the project interrupts flow of the river.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the revealation by the Municipal Corporation of Gurugram point to? Answer in about 40
words. 2
ii. Which of the following is the reason for Yamuna being the most polluted rivers in the country? 1
(a) Lack of proper sewage systems
(b) Lack of treatment of contaminated water
(c) Flooding with the onset of rains
(d) Improper sanitation facilities

iii. Why does the presence of septic tanks result in contamination of ground water? 1

iv. Which of the following facts can be inferred from the given graph? 1
(a) The sewage treatment capacity of the country needs to be increased.
(b) The condition of treatment of sewage is still better in class II cities.
(c) The maximum contamination of water takes place in Delhi.

v. What is true regarding the contaminated water? 1

(a) Less than 20% of the contaminated water is treated.
(b) Most of the contaminated water is dumped into the water bodies.
(c) Contaminated water is the reason for the lack of potable water.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

vi. What information does the Water Aid report present? Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

The state of _____ in the country has the lowest treatment percentage.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

Delhi has the capacity to treat 61% of the wastewater it generates.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 18 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 18
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. We often make all things around us the way we want them. Even during our pilgrimages we have begun
to look for whatever makes our heart happy, gives comfort to our body and peace to the mind. It is as
if external solutions will fulfil our needs, and we do not want to make any special efforts even in our
spiritual search. Our mind is resourceful-it works to find short-cuts in simple and easy ways.
2. Even pilgrimages have been converted into tourism opportunities. Instead, we must awaken our
conscience and souls and understand the truth. Let us not tamper with either our own nature or that of
the Supreme.
3. All our cleverness is rendered ineffective when nature does a dance of destruction. Its fury can and will
wash away all imperfections. Indian culture, based on Vedic treatises, assists in human evolution, but
we are now using our entire energy in distorting these traditions according to our convenience instead of
making efforts to make ourselves worthy of them.
4. The irony is that humans are not even aware of the complacent attitude they have allowed themselves
to sink to. Nature is everyone’s Amma and her fierce blows will sooner or later corner us and force us
to understand this truth. Earlier, pilgrimages to places of spiritual significance were rituals that were
undertaken when people became free from their worldly duties. Even now some seekers take up this
pious religious journey as a path to peace and knowledge. Anyone travelling with this attitude feels and
travels with only a few essential items that his body can carry. Pilgrims traditionally travelled light,
on foot, eating light, dried chickpeas and fruits, or whatever was available. Pilgrims of olden days did
not feel the need to stay in special AC bedrooms, or travel by luxury cars or indulge themselves with
delicious food and savouries.
5. Pilgrims traditionally moved ahead, creating a feeling of belonging towards all, conveying a message
of brotherhood among all they came across whether in small caves, ashrams or local settlements. They
received the blessings and congregations of yogis and mahatmas in return while conducting the dharma
of their pilgrimage. A pilgrimage is like penance or sadhana to stay near nature and to experience a
feeling of oneness with it, to keep the body healthy and fulfilled with the amount of food, while seeking
freedom from attachments and yet remaining happy while staying away from relatives and associates.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 18 CBSE XII English-Core

6. This is how a pilgrimage should be rather than making it like a picnic by taking a large group along and
living in comfort, packing in entertainment, and tampering with environment. What is worse is giving a
boost to the ego of having had a special darshan. Now alms are distributed, charity done while they brag
about their spiritual experiences!
7. We must embark on our spiritual journey by first understanding the grace and significance of a pilgrimage
and following it up with the prescribed rules and rituals - this is what translates into the ultimate and
beautiful medium of spiritual evolution. There is no justification for tampering with nature.
8. A pilgrimage is symbolic of contemplation and meditation and acceptance, and is a metaphor for the
constant growth or movement and love for nature that we should hold in our hearts.
9. This is the truth !
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Select the option that is similar to narrator’s expression, “Nature is everyone’s Amma”? 1
(a) All mothers are nature.
(b) Nature is the only supreme power.
(c) Nature is motherly.
(d) Mother and nature are same.

ii. Pick out the option that is TRUE about the pilgrimages, as discussed in the above passage. 1
(a) One should avoid eating food while on a pilgrimage.
(b) Pilgrimages should be performed at the young age only.
(c) Pilgrimages have been converted into tourism nowadays.
(d) Pilgrimages should be done for the purpose of fun only.

iii. How does nature show its anger? Answer in about 40 words. 2

iv. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

The word ‘Amma’ used by the writer signifies _____.

v. As per your understanding of the passage, choose the words that best describe the response of nature
against cleverness shown by us. 1
(a) Catastrophic and Gratifying
(b) Gratifying and Detrimental
(c) Buoyant and Gratifying
(d) Detrimental and Catastrophic

vi. How does the human of today act? Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. As given in the passage, it states that most of the time, people prefer to do _____. 1

viii. Describe the traditional pilgrim. Answer in about 40 words. 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 18 CBSE XII English-Core

ix. Pick out the option that is not true according to the passage. 1
A pilgrim can keep his body healthy
1. by travelling a lot of places
2. by travelling light
3. by keeping free from attachment
4. by eating small amount of food
5. by eating snacks and rich food
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) only 2
(c) 1, 3, 4, and 5 (d) only 4

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Our history makes it evident that the Indian Plastics Industry made a vigorous beginning in 1957 but
it took more than 30 years for it to pervade Indian lifestyles. In 1979, ‘the market for plastics’ was just
being seeded by the state-owned Indian Petro-Chemicals and it was only in 1994 that plastic soft drink
bottles became a visible source of annoyance.
2. In the same year, people in other cities were concerned about the state of public sanitation and also urged
regulatory bodies to ban the production, distribution and use of plastic bags. However, the challenge was
greater than it appeared at first.
3. The massive generation of plastic waste in India is due to rapid urbanisation, spread of retail chains,
plastic packaging from grocery to food and vegetable products, to consumer items and cosmetics. The
projected high growth rates of GDP and continuing rapid urbanisation suggest that India’s trajectory of
plastic consumption and plastic waste is likely to increase.

4. According to the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) report of 2018, India stands among
few other countries like France, Mongolia and several African countries that have initiated total or
partial national-level bans on plastics in their jurisdictions. On World Environment Day in 2018, India
vowed to phase out single-use plastics by 2022, which gave a much needed impetus to bring this change.
5. In this context, thereafter ten states (Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka,
Madhya Pradesh, Meghalaya, Odisha, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu) are currently sending their collected
waste to cement plants for co-processing, twelve other states/UTs are using plastic waste for polymer
bitumen road construction and still four other states are using the plastic waste for waste-to-energy

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 18 CBSE XII English-Core

plants and oil production. A world of greater possibilities has now opened up to initiate appropriate and
concrete actions to build up the necessary institutions and systems before oceans turn, irreversibly into
a thin soup of plastic.
6. However there is no one single masterstroke to counter the challenges witnessed by the staggering
plastic waste management in the country. The time is now to formulate robust and inclusive National
Action Plans and while doing so, the country will establish greater transparency to combat the plastic
jeopardy in a more sustainable and holistic way.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Infer what does our history make evident, as mentioned in paragraph 1. Answer about in 40 words. 2

ii. Why do people demand a ban on plastics? 1

(a) Because of political pressure.
(b) Because of personal interests.
(c) Because of rapid decrease in plastic bottles.
(d) Because people are concerned about public sanitation.

iii. What can one conclude about the production of plastics in 2019? Answer with reference to the graph
given in the extract. 1

iv. Identify the user who did not accept the ban of plastic bottles in India. 1
(a) Sunaina – I am buying a soft drink tin can as plastic bottles after use create foul smell.
(b) Shivam – I am drinking soft drink in plastic bottle as it is cheaper than tin can.
(c) Harpreet – I love soft drinks, therefore, I am buying a tin can.

v. Which of the following is an example that is currently sending its collected waste to cement plants for
co-processing, as per the extract? 1
(a) Goa
(b) Delhi
(c) Madurai
(d) Andhra Pradesh

vi. What step must be taken to combat the challenges of plastic waste management? Answer in about 40
words. 2

vii. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

The time is now to formulate robust and inclusive National Action Plans to combat the plastic jeopardy
in a _____.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The projected growth rates of GDP and continuing rapid urbanisation suggest that India’s trajectory of
plastic consumption is likely to decrease tremendously.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 19 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 19
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. Globalisation is largely the result of planning by statesmen to break down borders hampering trade to
increase prosperity and interdependence, thereby decreasing the chance of future war. Their work led
to the Bretton Woods Conference, an agreement to lay down the framework for international commerce
and finance and the founding of several international institutions intended to oversee the process of
globalisation. These institutions include the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(the World Bank) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
2. Globalisation, the integration of the world economy, has been a persistent theme of the past thirty years.
Growth of cross border economic activity has changed the structure of economics and the political and
social organisation of countries. Not all effects of globalisation can be measured directly. But the scope
and pace of change can be monitored along four key dimensions - trade in goods and services, financial
blows, movement of people and communication.
3. In the last two decades of the 20th century, developing countries have adopted globalisation and
liberalisation as the medium to strengthen their poor economic condition and to increase foreign
investment. This worldwide change brought social and cultural calamity in India. The worst effect was
on the Indian culture, the transition being from traditional to modern, national to global, old to new.
4. Another unfortunate effect is the alienation of the younger generation as expressed in their rejection
of culture and tradition and loss of faith in the social, political and cultural tradition. Modern youth
is drifting away from familial ties. They wish for independence, privacy and space. As a result, the
traditional joint family system has given way to a nuclear family system.
5. The foreign channels propagate violence, vulgarity and promiscuity in the name of entertainment for
gaining wide viewership. The Indian media blindly and blatantly copies their eroticism better than
them. As a result, the national channels defining the Indian culture and broadcasting education-oriented
programmes have been sidelined.
6. Another impact of globalisation is associated with the problem of unemployment. It has brought
machines, new factories and new approaches into the Indian market. Everything is computerised. The
most vulnerable section of society, that is women, are being exploited continuously.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 19 CBSE XII English-Core

7. Over the past five decades, the world has seen several models and paradigms which have failed to
provide concrete results. What we really need is a globalised economy, but one which is placed in a
human context. The policies should be introduced in such a way that they boost the economy and do not
affect the very essence of Indian culture. The developing countries need to improve healthcare. literacy
rate, education and most importantly, restore the cultural heritage, because it is culture which identifies
a country.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Which one of the following is not a key dimension of globalisation? 1

(a) Social organisation of countries (b) Communication
(c) Trade in goods and services (d) Movement of people

ii. Globalisation is associated with the issue of all of the following except 1
(a) unemployment (b) environment
(c) traditional systems (d) computerisation

iii. List any two ways in which Indian culture has been damaged. Answer in about 40 words. 2

iv. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with respect to the following. 1
The concept of globalisation means _____.

v. Select the option that conveys the opposite of the word ‘ resilient’ from words used in Paragraph 6. 1
(a) computerised (b) sterile
(c) vulnerable (d) exploited

vi. Globalisation was essential to avoid any possibility of future wars. Give reason in about 40 words for
your answer. 2

vii. How has computerisation affected women? 1

viii. Comment on the writer’s belief that globalisation started the destruction of the Indian culture? Answer
in about 40 words. 2

ix. Pick the option that correctly lists the final feelings of the writer with reference to the process of
globalisation. 1
1. Happy
2. Satisfied
3. Disillusioned
4. Regretful
5. Enlightened
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 5
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 19 CBSE XII English-Core

2. Read the following text. 10

1. This isn’t a mountain region of mere subjective beauty. Nor one, which claims its greatness, based on
just an overwhelming opinion of a large majority. For Sikkim, it is a treasure that few know about.
However, the facts of its remarkable geography bear enough testimony to pitch Sikkim in a slot that no
other mountain region anywhere in the world could duplicate or rival. What Everest is to peaks, Sikkim
is to the mountains. Tragically, a region so wild and exotic and with such geographic and climatic
extremes, that its amazing wilds and not its unremarkable hill stations, ensure its accessibility to the
adventurous only.
2. Just delve on these facts a bit. From the plains, in a mere 80 kms as the crow flies, the altitude reaches
28,168 feet at the very top of Kanchenjunga, the third highest peak in the world. Such a sharp elevation
is unrivalled anywhere else and is the first geographical claim of Sikkim.
3. The second is an offshoot of the first. Nowhere else do so many 7,000 metre plus peaks crowd up such a
confined space. And the third is really a consequence of the first and the second with the sharp gradation
creating the most variegated flora and fauna possible anywhere in the mountains. The fourth uniqueness
is also a consequence of the first and the second and lies in the extremes of the climate which ranges from
the tropical to the typical arctic type. And the fifth claim is its thin permanent population and relatively
fewer travellers by virtue of its remote far-eastern Himalayan location. The startling facts about Sikkim
never seem to end. For starters, all of Sikkim lies in a mere 110 kms by 65 kms of mountains, peaks,
glaciers, rivers and forests. A little dot on the map at a latitude 27 degrees North and longitude 88
degrees East. Its 7,000 sq. kms make it about as large as the National Capital Region of India! To the
North and extending to the East of Sikkim, is Tibet/China and to the West is Nepal. To the South are the
Himalayan and sub Himalayan regions of West Bengal. It is, in fact, these geographical extremes and
the resulting ambience, that makes mountaineers trek here, when they are not climbing, besides fuelling
mountaineering dreams in the minds of trekkers, what with the closest possible proximity to magnificent
peaks while trekking.
4. On the subject of trekking here, it is strange but true that acclimatisation is much tougher in Sikkim than
elsewhere. It may have something to do with being closer in latitude to the Tropic of Cancer, beside the
rather sharp stages involved in each day of trekking. The closeness to the Tropic of Cancer has meant
that On the subject of trekking here, it is strange but true that acclimatisation is much tougher in Sikkim
than the snowline will always be much higher and therefore human settlements are seen even at altitudes
of 16,000 feet!

Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. What makes Sikkim such a unique place? Mention two points. 2

ii. Which proverb resonates the idea of “subjective beauty” given in the first line? 1
(a) Too many cooks spoil the broth
(b) A rolling stone gathers no moss
(c) Beauty lies in the eyes of the beholder
(d) All that glitters is not gold

iii. Why is acclimatisation much tougher in Sikkim than elsewhere? 1

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 19 CBSE XII English-Core

iv. Which of these statements is incorrect? 1

(a) Sikkim lies in a mere 110 kms by 65 kms of mountains, peaks, glaciers, rivers and forests.
(b) Sikkim is about 7000 sq. km.
(c) Sikkim shares its eastern border with Nepal.

v. Complete the sentence appropriately. 1

Synonym of ‘unrivalled’ is _____.
(a) riddled (b) outstanding
(c) unfit (d) hideous

vi. The narrator states “in a mere 80 kms as the crow flies....’. What is significant about this statement? 2

vii. Give an appropriate title for the given passage. 1

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

Sikkim isn’t a mountain region of mere subjective beauty?’ What does “this” stand for in the line?

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4
A. You are Sahil Sagar, the President of Nehru Yuva Club, Delhi. You have planned to take a trekking
trip for 15 days to Rohtang Pass next month. Write a notice giving all necessary information to invite
participants for trekking programme.


O
B. As the Director, Primary Section, write a notice in about 50 words for the children announcing the
programme for the Children’s Day.

4. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4

A. You are the secretary of the Alumni Club, S.K. International School, Roshan Road, Raipur. Using the
information given below, write an invitation letter to all the old students of the school on the Alumni
Meet.
Alumni Meet on 25th December-Dinner-DJ-Mahek Hotel-Raipur-6 PM to 10 PM-confirm your seats.

O
B. Write an invitation to your friend inviting him on the inauguration ceremony of your new house. Use the
information given below.
Inauguration of home - Hawan ceremony - Lunch

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 1 Sample Paper 20 CBSE XII English-Core

Sample Paper 20
Class XII Exam 2023-24
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
2. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 22

Reading Comprehension Through Unseen Passages

1. Read the following text. 12

1. Self-respect is very different than relying on one’s ego or False Self persona that serves as a cover to
show the world only “the good stuff” of a person’s personality. It is the gift we give ourselves when we
become less motivated to please others in order to get their approval and more motivated to live a life of
authenticity and personal integrity despite whatever anyone else thinks about us.
2. The dismal fact is that self-respect has nothing to do with the approval of others–who are, after all,
deceived easily enough; has nothing to do with reputation which is something that people with courage
can do without. It is to know the difference between the price of things and their value and the courage
to own your mistakes.
3. In brief, people with self-respect exhibit a certain toughness, a kind of moral nerve; they display what
was once called character, a quality which, although approved in the abstract, sometimes loses ground to
other, more instantly negotiable virtues. Its slipping prestige is dismissed when one sees people coveting
success or money or fame at all costs. Nonetheless, character–the willingness to accept responsibility for
one’s own life–is the source from which self-respect springs.
4. To live without self-respect is to lie awake some night, beyond the reach of warm milk, phenobarbital, and
the sleeping hand on the coverlet, counting up the sins of commission and omission, the trusts betrayed,
the promises subtly broken, the gifts irrevocably wasted through sloth or cowardice or carelessness.
However long we postpone it, we eventually lie down alone in that notoriously uncomfortable bed, the
one we make ourselves. Whether or not we sleep in it depends, of course, on whether or not we respect
ourselves.
5. To have that sense of one’s intrinsic worth which, for better or for worse, constitutes self-respect, is
potentially to have everything: the ability to discriminate, to love and to remain indifferent. To lack it is
to be locked within oneself, paradoxically incapable of either love or indifference. If we do not respect
ourselves, we are on the one hand forced to despise those who have so few resources as to consort with
us, so little perception as to remain blind to our fatal weaknesses. On the other, we are peculiarly in
thrall to everyone we see, curiously determined to live out-since our self-image is untenable–their false
notions of us. We flatter ourselves by thinking this compulsion to please others an attractive trait: a gift
for imaginative empathy, evidence of our willingness to give.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 20 CBSE XII English-Core

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. Select the option that states the false self persona in a person according to the author. 1
(a) self-respect
(b) a person’s true personality
(c) unauthentic mask
(d) ‘real good stuff’

ii. The writer would not agree with the given statements based on paragraph three, EXCEPT _____. 1
(a) self-respect is a virtue not appreciated in modern times.
(b) it used to be a non-negotiable virtue.
(c) self-respect has stood its ground come what may.
(d) it is losing ground to more instantly negotiable virtues.

iii. Why is it fair to say that the intrinsic worth of a person and self-respect have to go hand-in-hand?
Answer in about 40 words. 2

iv. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with respect to the following. 1
Character– the willingness to accept responsibility for one’s life is the source _____.

v. Select the option that conveys the opposite of ‘logical’, from words used in paragraph two. 1
(a) intrinsic (b) paradoxical
(c) consort (d) untenable

vi. Comment on the writer’s reference to self-respect as a gift we give ourselves. Answer in about 40
words. 2

vii. In the line “... people with self-respect exhibit a certain toughness, a kind of moral nerve, they display
what was once called character ...”, What does the word ‘nerve’ mean here? 1

viii. Based on your understanding of paragraph 4, interpret the metaphor used by the author in the given
statement. in about 40 words. 2
‘However long we postpone it, we eventually lie down alone in that notoriously uncomfortable bed, the
one we make ourselves.’

ix. Read the five statements (1)–(5) given below. 1

(1) If you don’t stand for something, you’ll fall for anything.
(2) Handsome is as handsome does.
(3) Putting backbone into someone.
(4) Neither fish, nor fowl.
(5) Rolling stone gathers no moss.
Identify the option that displays the title/s that DOES/DO correspond with the passage.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) Only (1)
(c) (2) and (3) (d) Only (5)

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 3 Sample Paper 20 CBSE XII English-Core

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The internet has become the integral part of today’s generation of people; from communicating through
instant messages and e-mails to banking, travelling studying and shopping, internet has touched every
aspect of life. With the growing use of the internet by people, protecting important information has
become a necessity. A computer that is not having appropriate security controls can be infected with
malicious logic and thus any type of information can be accessed in moments.
2. Hacking of important data, network outages, computer viruses and other cyber related threats affects
our lives that range from minor inconvenience to serious incidents. Cyber threats can be caused due
to negligence and vulnerabilities, or unintentional accidents. Such hackers are a part of what is called
Cybercrime. With the increasing use of net, the number of cybercrime complaints has seen a rise by
350% from 2013 and by over 44% from 2016, according to cyber cell statistics.
3. Most crimes are related to online banking, emphasising why policymakers are concerned about digital
security as the government pushes for a more cashless economy and card-based or wallet-based
transactions. As many as 3,474 cybercrime complaints have been registered in the past 10 months till
October, 2017. A total of 2,402 such complaints were registered last year and 760 in 2013. Cyber cell
cops said the online transaction was by cyber offenders who used IMPS/RTGS transfer after blocking
Kumar’s SIM, which was linked to his bank account.
4. The number of online banking fraud-related complaints had increased nearly nine times in the last five
years. The number jumped from 248 in 2013 to 2,095 in 2017 (till October). While online banking and
credit card fraud tops the list, social networking-related crime, email hacking, online sexual harassment,
lottery fraud, data-theft and job-related fraud are also frequent. Social networking related complaints have
doubled from 2016. Cyber cell cops blame ease of access to information and technological advancement
for the spurt in cybercrime cases. Net-banking has made it easy for criminals to siphon off money from
accounts. Bank-related fraud takes time to solve and constitute the maximum of cybercrime cases lying
unsolved with the police, said an official with the cyber cell.
5. As the number of data networks, digital applications, as well as internet and mobile users are growing,
so do the chances of cyber exploitation and cyber crimes. Even a small mistake in securing data or bad
social networking can prove to be extremely dangerous. If accounts are not properly secured, it makes
easier for hackers or unauthorised users to spread viruses or social engineered attacks that are designed
to steal data and even money. Such types of issues highlight the need for cyber security as an essential
approach in protecting and preventing data from being used inappropriately.
6. In simple language, Cyber security of Information technology security means protecting data, networks,
programs and other information from unauthorised or unintended access, destruction or change. It
encompasses all the mechanisms and processes that protect digital equipment, information and records
from illegal or unintended access, manipulation or destruction.
In today’s dynamic environment, cyber security has become vital for individuals and Jar .flies, as well
as organisations (such as military, government, business houses, educational and financial institutions,
corporations and others) that collect and store a wide range of confidential data on computers and
transmit that to other computers across different networks. For families, protection of children and
family members from cyber crime has become substantially important.
Answer the following questions, based on given passage.

i. Do you think that cyber security alone would be able to reduce cyber crimes? Give reasons for your
answer. in about 40 words. 2

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 20 CBSE XII English-Core

ii. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option. 1
Regarding the increasing cybercrimes, the cyber cell blames _____.
(a) the unlimited access to internet (b) technological advancement
(c) lack of cyber wall (d) lack of investment in cyber security

iii. Based on the reading of the text, state a point to challenge the given statement. The internet can easily
become secure if we teach people about its correct usage. 1

iv. Select the option that displays the list of people who could be a cybercriminals. 1
(a) Tech-savvy youth
(b) Unemployed youth
(c) Poorly paid people

v. What has made it easy for people to illegally take out money from banks? 1
(a) Aadhar numbers (b) Smart cards
(c) Net-banking (d) Mobile numbers

vi. Ease of access to information and technological advancement is the reason for the spurt in cybercrime
cases. Give a reason for such a claim. Answer in about 40 words. 2

vii. Complete the sentence based on the following statement. 1

According to the passage, if accounts are not properly secured, hackers can easily _____.

viii. State TRUE or FALSE. 1

The government’s push for a more cashless economy and card-based or wallet-based transactions is not
a well thought of decision.

SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 18

Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for assessment purpose.
3. Attempt ANY ONE of two, in about 50 words. 4
A. Recently there has been an increase in the cases of kidnappings, especially of children. On closer
investigation it has been found that domestic helps or some persons familiar with the family were
involved in most cases. You are the Secretary of the Residents’ Welfare Association. Write a notice in
about 50 words to be put up on the noticeboard of the colony informing the citizens about the following:
• Police verification of servants, identity cards to be made
• Register entry of visitors at the gate
• Installation of CCTV in the premises


O
B. You are the president of the Malviya Nagar Residents’ Welfare Association, Block A and you are
organising a “New Year Party” in your area. Draft a notice as Dharam Sethi informing the residents of
your block of the same. Include details which you deem necessary for the purpose.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 1 Page 1

Sample Paper 1
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A- READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10
1. That large animals require luxuriant vegetation has been a general assumption which has passed from
one work to another; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it has vitiated the
reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in the ancient history of the world. The prejudice
has probably been derived from India, and the Indian islands, where troops of elephants, noble forests,
and impenetrable jungles, are associated together in everyone’s mind. If, however, we refer to any work
of travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall find allusions in almost every page either to
the desert character of the country, or to the numbers of large animals inhabiting it. The same thing is
rendered evident by the many engravings which have been published of various parts of the interior.
2. Dr. Andrew Smith, who has lately succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs me that, taking
into consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt of its being a sterile
country. On the southern coasts there are some fine forests, but with these exceptions, the traveler may
pass for days together through open plains, covered by a poor and scanty vegetation. Now, if we look at
the animals inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their numbers extraordinarily great, and their bulk
immense.
3. It may be supposed that although the species are numerous, the individuals of each kind are few. By the
kindness of Dr. Smith, I am enabled to show that the case is very different. He informs me, that in lat. 24,
in one day’s march with the bullock-wagons, he saw, without wandering to any great distance on either
side, between one hundred and one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses - the same day he saw several herds
of giraffes, amounting together to nearly a hundred.
4. At the distance of a little more than one hour’s march from their place of encampment on the previous
night, his party actually killed at one spot eight hippopotamuses, and saw many more. In this same river
there were likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a case quite extraordinary, to see so many great animals
crowded together, but it evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers. Dr. Smith describes the
country passed through that day, as ‘being thinly covered with grass, and bushes about four feet high,
and still more thinly with mimosa-trees:

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 1 Class XII English-Core

5. Besides these large animals, anyone the least acquainted with the natural history of the Cape has read
of the herds of antelopes, which can be compared only with the flocks of migratory birds. The numbers
indeed of the lion, panther, and hyena, and the multitude of birds of prey, plainly speak of the abundance
of the smaller quadrupeds: one evening seven lions were counted at the same time prowling round Dr.
Smith’s encampment. As this able naturalist remarked to me, the carnage each day in Southern Africa
must indeed be terrific! I confess it is truly surprising how such a number of animals can find support in
a country producing so little food.
6. The larger quadrupeds no doubt roam over wide tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly consists of
underwood, which probably contains much nutriment in a small bulk. Dr. Smith also informs me that the
vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed, than its place is supplied by a fresh stock.
There can be no doubt, however, that our ideas respecting the apparent amount of food necessary for
the support of large quadrupeds are much exaggerated. The belief that where large quadrupeds exist, the
vegetation must necessarily be luxuriant, is more remarkable, because the converse is far from true.
7. Mr. Burchell observed to me that when entering Brazil, nothing struck him more forcibly than the
splendour of the South American vegetation contrasted with that of South Africa, together with the
absence of all large quadrupeds. In his travels, he has suggested that the comparison of the respective
weights (if there were sufficient data) of an equal number of the largest herbivorous quadrupeds of each
country would be extremely curious. If we take on the one side, the elephants, hippopotamus, giraffe, bos
caller, elan, five species of rhinoceros; and on the American side, two tapirs, the guanaco, three deer, the
vicuna, peccari, capybara (after which we must choose from the monkeys to complete the number), and
then place these two groups alongside each other it is not easy to conceive ranks more disproportionate
in size.
8. After the above facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability that among the mammalia
there exists no close relation between the bulk of the species, and the quantity of the vegetation, in the
countries which they inhabit.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

i. The author is primarily concerned with _____.

(a) discussing the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of vegetation in their
habitats
(b) contrasting ecological conditions in India and Africa
(c) proving that large animals do not require much food
(d) describing the size of animals in various parts of the world

ii. According to the author, the ‘prejudice’ (Para 1) has led to _____.
(a) errors in the reasoning of biologists
(b) false ideas about animals in Africa
(c) incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists
(d) doubt in the mind of the author

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 1 Page 3

iii. The flocks of migratory birds (Para 5) are mentioned to _____.

(a) describe an aspect of the fauna of South Africa
(b) illustrate a possible source of food for large carnivores
(c) contrast with the habits of the antelope
(d) suggest the size of antelope herds

iv. Darwin quotes Burchell’s observations in order to _____.

(a) counter a popular misconception
(b) describe a region of great splendor
(c) prove a hypothesis
(d) illustrate a well-known phenomenon

v. Among the mammalia, there is no close relation between _____.

(a) bulk of the species
(b) quantity of the vegetation
(c) countries they inhabit
(d) all of these
vi. What prejudice has vitiated the reasoning of geologists?

vii. Why does Dr. Smith refer to Africa as a sterile country?

viii. What is the ‘carnage’ referred to by Dr. Smith?

ix. What does Darwin’s remark, ‘if there were sufficient data’ indicate?

x. To account for the ‘surprising’ number of animals in a ‘country producing so little food, what partial
explanation does Darwin suggest?
II. Read the passage given below. 10
1. Classical dance evolved from Tamil Nadu’s temples across centuries. The revived and reformed
Bharatanatyam keeps the art born of these ancient temples alive even to this day. Once sustained and
nurtured in temples as part of a rich and vibrant temple tradition, classical dance in South India has
remained over centuries a dynamic, living tradition that is continuously renewed.
2. Even 2000 years ago, dance in India was a highly evolved and complex art. It was an integral part of
ancient Indian theatre as established by the Natya Shastra, the oldest and exhaustive treatise on theatre
and dramaturgy. Dance dramas were performed in temple precincts. Dance movements were crystallised
in stone as karanas in temple sculpture. Following the Bhakti movement in the 6th century, dance and
music became powerful vehicles of veneration. The deity was treated like a much-loved king, praised
and royally entertained with music and dance, as part of the daily sacred rituals of worship. Gifted,
highly educated temple dancers or devadasis were supported by the temples that were richly endowed by
the rulers. Some 400 temple dancers were dedicated to and maintained by the Brihadeswarar Temple in
Thanjavur. Dance evolved as a composite art in temples as dancers, nattuvanars (dance gurus), musicians,
poets, composers, architects, sculptors and painters shared a holistic approach to all the arts.


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 1 Class XII English-Core

3. The evolution of Bharatanatyam derives from the invaluable contribution of The Tanjore Quartet. The
four Pillai brothers - Chinnayya, Ponnayya, Sivanandam and Vadivelu - served as court musicians at
the kingdom of Maratha king, Serfoji II in the early 19th century. Their legacy to Bharatanatyam has
been their restructuring of the dance repertoire into the margam format and their vast and diverse music
compositions set specifically for dance. Some of their descendants like Guru Meenakshisundaram Pillai
evolved the famous Pandanallur bani (style) and trained many eminent dancers.
4. From the temples, dance made its way into the courts of kings and dancers were not just devadasis,
but also rajanartakis. By the early 17th century dance forms like sadir or chinna melam, precursors to
Bharatanatyam as we know it today, had become popular in the courts of the Maratha rulers in Thanjavur.
However, in the 19th century, colonial propaganda perceived such dance as vulgar and immoral. It
led to the Anti-Nautch Movement and legislation against temple dance and dancers. Divested of all
patronage and temple support, devadasis were thrown into dire straits. In the early 20th century, thanks
to enlightened visionaries like EV Krishna Iyer and later, Rukmini Devi Arundale, and the dedication of
a handful of devadasis and nattuvanars, classical dance was resuscitated and revived as bharatanatyam.
Today, apart from a few cultural festivals in some temples, dance has left the temple for the proscenium
stage.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

i. According to the passage, what kept Bharatnatyam alive even to the present day ?

ii. Pick the option that lists statements that are not true according to the passage.
1. In India, dance has always been an integral part of ancient theatre.
2. Dancing forms has never been changed or reformed but it is liked by all in its nascent stage only.
3. Although the classical dance has evolved so much that its forms like sadir or chinna reached from
temples to courts but it was perceived as vulgar by the colonials.
4. Today, apart from few cultural festivals dance is restricted to the temples only.
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

iii. The word ‘repertoire, as used in paragraph 3, means the same as

(a) legacy (b) movement
(c) collection (d) perception

iv. As given in the passage, what does the word ‘nattuvanars’ mean?

v. Pick out the option which is not stated correctly according to the passage.
(a) The Guru Meenakshisundaram, descendent of Pillai brothers, has evolved dance style called
pandanallur bani.
(b) The Pillai brothers served the kingdom of Maratha King in the early 12th century.
(c) Dance movements were also crystallised in stone as karanas in the structure of temples.
(d) In south India, classical dance has remained over centuries a dynamic and living tradition.

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 1 Page 5

vi. In the sentence “dance has left the temple for the proscenium stage”, what does the phrase ‘proscenium
stage’ refer to ?

vii. “...the dedication of a handful of devadisis and nattuvanars classical dance was resuscitated and revived
as Bharatnatyam.” What does the word ‘resuscitated’ mean in the context of the passage?

viii. ‘...the Bhakti movement in the 6th century, dance and music became powerful vehicles of veneration”
The phrase ‘vehicles of veneration’ here referred to as
(a) the medium to gain respect
(b) the rich and vibrant tradition
(c) the evolving art form
(d) the handful of devadasis

ix. According to the passage, in India, dance was established by whom?

x. The word ‘evolve(d)’ in the 1 paragraph has the same meaning as

(a) decrease
(b) diminish
(c) slacken
(d) progress

III. SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely
coincidental.
1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5
A. You are the Secretary of your School Literary Association. Write a notice in not more than 50 words for
your school notice board, giving details of the proposed inauguration of the Literary Association of your
school. You are ‘XYZ’ of Jain Vidyashram, Cuddalore.

O
B. You lost your wristwatch in your school auditorium. Write a notice in not more than 50 words for your
school notice board giving a detailed description of the watch. You are Anirudh/Arundhati of class XII
of Springfield School, Pune.
2. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5
A. You are the President, Literary Society of Sunshine International School. Draft an invitation to author,
Ms Manjul Bajaj requesting her to conduct a workshop on creative writing in your school. You are
Romi/Rohit of Zenith Public School. (50 words)

O
B. Write a formal reply accepting an invitation to be present in the birthday celebrations of your friend,
Suresh’s daughter, who lives at 1231, Chattarpur, Delhi. You are Abhishek Khanna. (50 words).
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 2 Page 1

Sample Paper 2
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A- READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10

1. One of the greatest sailing adventures of the past 25 years was the conquest of the Northwest Passage,
powered by sail, human muscle, and determination. In 100 days, over three summers (1986-88), Canadians
Jeff Maclnnis and Mike Beedell accomplished the first wind-powered crossing of the Northwest Passage.
2. In Jeff Maclnnis’s words...Our third season. We weave our way through the labyrinth of ice, and in the
distance we hear an unmistakable sound. A mighty bowhead whale is nearby, and its rhythmic breaths
fill us with awe. Finally we see it relaxed on the surface, its blowhole quivering like a volcanic cone, but
it senses our presence and quickly sounds. We are very disappointed. We had only good intentions - to
revel in its beautiful immensity and to feel its power. Mike thinks how foolish it would be for this mighty
beast to put any faith in us. After all, we are members of the species that had almost sent the bowhead
into extinction with our greed for whale oil and bone. It is estimated that as many as 38,000 bowheads
were killed off eastern Baffin Island in the 1800s; today there are about 200 left.
3. The fascinating and sometimes terrifying wildlife keeps us entertained during our explorations. Bearded
harp and ring seals greet us daily. The profusion of bird life is awesome; at times we see and smell
hundreds of thousands of thick-billed murres clinging to their cliff side nests. Our charts show we are
on the edge of a huge shoal where the frigid ocean currents ups well and mix nutrients that provide a
feast for the food chain. At times these animals scare the living daylights out of us. They have a knack
of sneaking up behind us and then shooting out of the water and belly flopping for maximum noise and
splash. A horrendous splash coming from behind has a heart-stopping effect in polar bear country.
4. We have many encounters with the “Lords of the Arctic:’ but we are always cautious, observant, and
ever so respectful that we are in their domain. In some regions the land is totally devoid of life, while
in others the pulse of life takes our breath away. Such is the paradox of the Arctic; It’s wastelands flow
into oasis’ that are found nowhere else on the face of the earth. Many times we find ancient signs of Inuit
people who ‘lived here, superbly attuned to the land. We feel great respect for them; this landscape is a
challenge at every moment.

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 2 Class XII English-Core

5. We face a 35 mile open water passage across Prince Regent Inlet on Baffin Island that will take us to our
ultimate goal - Pond Inlet on Baffin Bay. The breakers look huge from the water’s edge. Leaning into
the hulls, like bobsledders at the starting gate, we push as hard as we can down the gravel beach to the
sea. We catch the water and keep pushing until we have plunged waist deep, then drag ourselves aboard.
Immediately, we begin paddling with every ounce of effort. Inch by agonizing inch, Perception moves
offshore. Sweat pours off our bodies. Ahead of us, looming gray-white through the fog, we see a massive
iceberg riding the current like the ghost of a battleship. There is no wind to fill our sails and steady the boat,
and the chaotic motion soon brings seasickness. Slowly the wind begins to build. Prince Regent Inlet now
looks ominous with wind and waves. The frigid ocean hits us square in the face and chills us to the bone.
6. We were on the fine edge. Everything the Arctic had taught us over the last 90 days was now being
tested. We funneled all that knowledge, skill, teamwork, and spirit into this momentous crossing... If we
went over in these seas we could not get the boat back up. Suddenly the wind speed plummeted to zero
as quickly as it had begun.... Now we were being pushed by the convulsing waves toward sheer 2,000
foot cliffs. Two paddles were our only power. Sailing past glacier capped mountains, we approached the
end of our journey. At 05:08 in the morning of our hundredth day, speeding into Baffin Bay, the spray
from our twin hulls makes rainbows in the sun as we complete the first sail powered voyage through the
Northwest Passage.
7. We have journeyed through these waters on their terms, moved by the wind, waves and current. The
environment has always been in control of our destiny; we have only tried to respond in the best possible
way. We’ve been awake for nearly 23 hours, but we cannot sleep. The joy and excitement are too great.
Our Hobie Cat rests on the rocky beach, the wind whistling in her rigging, her bright yellow hulls radiant
in the morning sunlight. She embodies the watchword for survival in the Arctic - adaptability.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. The passage is about the _____.
(a) author’s sailing adventure through the Northwest passage
(b) flora and fauna of the Arctic
(c) survival skills needed while sailing
(d) saving the Arctic

ii. “Lords of the Arctic:’ (Para 4) refers to _____.

(a) wind breakers
(b) bearded seals
(c) polar bears
(d) bowhead whales

iii. The author’s sailing vessel is named _____.

(a) Prince Regent
(b) Hobie Cat
(c) Perception
(d) Arctic


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 2 Page 3

iv. ‘We were on the fine edge’ refers to _____.

(a) the Prince Regent Inlet
(b) the ominous sail
(c) the frigid ocean
(d) their expedition

v. _____ embodies the watchword for survival in the Arctic-adaptability.

(a) Hobie Cat
(b) Destiny
(c) Perception
(d) None of these

vi. Why does the author feel disappointed to see the bowhead whale disappear into the ocean?

vii. How does his sailing partner rationalise it?

viii. What are the author’s thoughts about wildlife?

ix. What is the paradox of the Arctic?

x. What skills helped the author and his partner survive the adventure?

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. Suspense was over when my high school results finally came out. But I was upset. I had not done as well as
I had expected. My father tried to console me. “Why are you worried? You have done very well my dear.”
“No, I have not Baba,” I protested, controlling my tears, and wondering if I had disappointed him. “It does not
really matter,” he assured me. “Do you know what I got when I finished high school?” I looked into Baba’s
face and waited for the answer to his own question. “You know:’ he told me “I have never told you this. I got
just a third division. But, look at me, I have done quite well:’ Baba got a third division! I was almost in shock,
but the thought of my having done a lot better than that made me realize that I had no reason to complain. I
certainly felt better! “Everything is under control!” said Baba, smiling. That was his favourite phrase. Posted
in Kolkata, my father was then a senior official in the Indian Railway Service, and an expert in goods traffic
operations. He was soon to become a director with the Railway Board. By the time he retired in 1981, he was
general manager of the Central Railways. By the time Baba passed away in November 2000, his name had
found place in several hearts as well. He was open, easy to know, and full of life. We were extremely close,
but I had so much more to learn about him from many things I came to know after his death.
2. In September 2000, he was in hospital for treatment of cancer and given just two months to live. When
he found out, his reaction was an extremely rational one. He asked me to fetch files from his cupboard, so
that he could explain the details of my mother’s pension. He also dictated his will from his hospital bed.
“Everything is under control!” After Baba’s death, Satish, our old family retainer, was inconsolable. We
tried to cheer him up. “Your Baba had scolded me only once in all these years!” he cried. Satish pointed to


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 2 Class XII English-Core

the watch on his left hand. “I had been coming late for work and everyone in the family was complaining
about it,” said Satish. “Then, one day, your Baba gave me this watch and told me, ‘Now that you have a
watch, you can’t be late’. “ That was the scolding Satish received. On the fourth day after Baba’s death,
my sister and I had to perform a ceremony. Since several relatives were expected, we decided to order
lunch from a caterer in our locality, reputed for his home cooked food. But, when we went to pay to
owner, we got a surprise. He refused to accept any money! “When I wanted to start my catering business,
it was your father who lent me money:’ he told us. It seems Baba never asked for it back. Now, after four
or five years, the caterer wanted to repay that debt. Of course, we made him accept the full payment for
the fine food and service. “It was Baba’s gift and it ought to remain so,” I told him.
3. Some days later, there was yet another piece of information as we were preparing for the main ceremony.
Vikram, my brother drove me to the local market. On recognizing our car, the parking assistant, in his
twenties, came running towards us and asked why he had not seen its owner for long. We had to break
the news to him and to our utter surprise, he started crying. We were really surprised by this reaction
from a stranger - until the man told us that Baba used to pay his daughter’s school fees and buy her
books. It seems, it was on my father’s advice that he had even started sending the child to school. More
than three years after Baba’s death, as we were looking into Baba’s personal things, we came across an
old file with Baba’s certificates and I found among them, his high school diploma from 1937, the one he
told me about 30 years earlier, about the third division that had made no difference in his life or career.
It had made me see beyond mere marks and first classes as the main road to success. But there was one
more fact. Baba had actually got a first division, a rare achievement in his day. Today, years after his
passing, when I think of Baba, I see a man who was able to sympathise with others so easily and touch
their lives in such a special way.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Father’s revelation of his high school result to the narrator, was to _____.
ii. “I was almost in shock ...”
Pick the option in which the meaning of shock[ed] is not the same as it is in the passage.
(a) Julie was deeply in shock by her grandmother’s death.
(b) He completely shocked everyone with his news.
(c) When she went to China, She experienced culture shock.
(d) When the doctor noticed that the health of the patient was not improving, he suggested the shock
therapy.
iii. Based on your reading of the passage choose the option that lists the correct sequence of the events.
1. The narrator’s result was declared.
2. The narrator’s father told him about his high-school result.
3. The narrator went to the market with his brother, Vikram.
4. Baba passed away.
5. The narrator realised that his father had actually got a first division.
(a) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
(c) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
(d) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 2 Page 5

iv. After the reading of the passage, it can be concluded that the narrator’s father had a _____ approach
towards the people and society.

v. How did father react to the narrator’s high school result?

vi. According to the passage, what does the narrator’s disappointment after seeing his result show?

vii. Pick the option that correctly states what DID NOT happen after the narrator’s father passed away.
(a) No one turned out for Baba’s condolence.
(b) Everybody in the nearby area praised Baba for his helping nature.
(c) The caterer refused to take the money.
(d) The narrator found Baba’s old file with the certificates and his high school diploma in it.

viii. According to the passage, the narrator’s high school result was _____.

ix. Pick out the option that correctly lists the final feelings of the narrator after finding his father’s old file.
1. frustrated
2. satisfied
3. hopeful
4. arrogant
5. pessimistic
6. disappointed
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 4 and 6
(c) 1 and 5 (d) 5 and 6

x. Choose the correct synonym of ‘rational’ as given in para 2, from the options given below.
1. logical
2. reasonable
3. agitated
4. thoughtless
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2

III. SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely
coincidental.
1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5
A. As librarian of Crescent International School, Gwalior, draft a notice in not more than 50 words asking all
students and teachers to return the library books they have borrowed, two days before the commencement
of the examination.


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 3 Page 1

Sample Paper 3
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A- READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below 10
1. Nuclear capability gives a status to the country in the community of nations. No nation can afford to
make destructive use of the nuclear energy without risking a World War. That is why America did not
make use of nuclear weapon in the Vietnam War though it had become a matter of prestige for her.
Similarly Russia preferred to pull out her missile bases from Cuba instead of coming in direct conflict
with a nuclear power, America. But India, since she started adopting nuclear technology, had decided to
make only peaceful use of nuclear energy. The fear expressed by Pakistan and the comments made in the
Chinese press are more for the sake of propaganda than for the projection of truth.
2. India needs nuclear energy in order to meet her power shortage. She has been depending upon hydroelectric
power which is undependable because of the uncertainty of rainfall. Good quality of coal which is another
source of energy cannot be extracted commercially because it lies very deep and the cost of extraction is very
high. India is not producing much of oil, rather she has to import nearly 74 per cent of her total consumption. So
the only alternative with India is to have a cheaper and more dependable source of energy. The known reserves
of thorium in India are sufficient to last many hundred years. That is why India has already commissioned two
nuclear power stations, one at Tarapur and the other at Rana Pratap Sagar. Each one has the installed capacity
of producing 420 M.W. of electricity. Two other at Kalpakkam, are operational. This energy will be able to
meet the power shortage throughout the country. If industries work at their full capacity, production will be
higher and so per capita income will increase and inflation will be neutralized.
3. With the help of controlled nuclear explosions, artificial dams can be made. In fact, for building a dam
there should be two huge mountain walls enclosing a deep valley just near the course of a river. These
conditions are not available at all the places. So with the help of controlled nuclear explosions mountains
can be blown up. This can also help in laying roads in the mountainous areas. In fact, some of the borders
of India have mountainous terrain and the movement of the army is quite difficult. So even for the sake
of national security it is necessary to have roads in those areas.
4. With the help of radiation the shelf life of vegetables and fruits can be increased. In the tropical countries
like India, it is necessary that the perishable fruit stuffs are preserved for a long time. Radiation can
check the sprouting of onions and potatoes which are much in demand in foreign countries. Similarly
fruits like bananas and mangoes which have much export potential can be preserved for a very long time.
The texture and taste of the fruit do not undergo any change.


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 3 Class XII English-Core

5. Nuclear technology can also be harnessed for medical purposes. It is said that radioactive iodine is used
for detecting the disease of the thyroid glands. Similarly, ‘India of U.N. experts, radiated vaccine which
can immunize sheep from lungworm disease, which used to take a heavy toll of sheep every year.
6. Properly processed nuclear fuel is also used for artificial satellite in space. Weather satellites can predict
cyclones and the rainfall with extreme accuracy. Communication satellites can help in conveying the
messages to very long distances. In a huge country like India, communication satellites are necessary.
7. Radiation is also used for preparing the mutant seeds. Many varieties of rice and some cereals have been
prepared at Tarapur laboratory. This will increase our agricultural production and help India to become
economically better off. So for India it is necessary to make peaceful uses of nuclear energy.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. India needs nuclear energy in order to _____.
(a) gain status in the community of nations
(b) meet her power shortage
(c) increase her might
(d) frighten the hostile countries

ii. Coal, another source of energy, cannot be extracted commercially because _____.
(a) it lies very deep
(b) the cost of extraction is very high
(c) it lies very deep and the cost of extraction is very high
(d) it is risky for the miners to extract it

iii. In India _____ are sufficient to last many years.

(a) nuclear power stations
(b) reserves of thorium
(c) vegetables and fruits
(d) radioactive iodine

iv. _____ is also used for preparing mutant seeds.

(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Artificial satellites
(c) Radiation
(d) None of these

v. India is making _____ use of nuclear energy.

(a) peaceful
(b) satellite
(c) medical
(d) explosive


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 3 Page 3

vi. Hydroelectric power is not dependable because _____.

vii. How can radiation be helpful?

viii. How does nuclear technology help in the field of medicine?

ix. In what way can nuclear energy boost our communication?

x. Mention one condition for building a dam.

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. We often make all things around us the way we want them. Even during our pilgrimages we have begun
to look for whatever makes our heart happy, gives comfort to our body and peace to the mind. It is as
if external solutions will fulfil our needs, and we do not want to make any special efforts even in our
spiritual search. Our mind is resourceful-it works to find shortcuts in simple and easy ways.
2. Even pilgrimages have been converted into tourism opportunities. Instead, we must awaken our
conscience and souls and understand the truth. Let us not tamper with either our own nature or that of
the Supreme.
3. All our cleverness is rendered ineffective when nature does a dance of destruction. Its fury can and will
wash away all imperfections. Indian culture, based on Vedic treatises, assists in human evolution, but
we are now using our entire energy in distorting these traditions according to our convenience instead of
making efforts to make ourselves worthy of them.
4. The irony is that humans are not even aware of the complacent attitude they have allowed themselves
to sink to. Nature is everyone’s Amma and her fierce blows will sooner or later corner us and force us
to understand this truth. Earlier, pilgrimages to places of spiritual significance were rituals that were
undertaken when people became free from their worldly duties. Even now some seekers take up this pious
religious journey as a path to peace and knowledge. Anyone travelling with this attitude feels and travels
with only a few essential items that his body can carry. Pilgrims traditionally travelled light, on foot, eating
light, dried chickpeas and fruits, or whatever was available. Pilgrims of olden days did not feel the need
to stay in special AC bedrooms, or travel by luxury cars or indulge themselves with delicious food and
savouries.
5. Pilgrims traditionally moved ahead, creating a feeling of belonging towards all, conveying a message
of brotherhood among all they came across whether in small caves, ashrams or local settlements. They
received the blessings and congregations of yogis and mahatmas in return while conducting the dharma
of their pilgrimage. A pilgrimage is like penance or sadhana to stay near nature and to experience a
feeling of oneness with it, to keep the body healthy and fulfilled with the amount of food, while seeking
freedom from attachments and yet remaining happy while staying away from relatives and associates.
6. This is how a pilgrimage should be rather than making it like a picnic by taking a large group along and
living in comfort, packing in entertainment, and tampering with environment. What is worse is giving a
boost to the ego of having had a special darshan. Now alms are distributed, charity done while they brag
about their spiritual experiences!

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 3 Class XII English-Core

7. We must embark on our spiritual journey by first understanding the grace and significance of a pilgrimage
and following it up with the prescribed rules and rituals - this is what translates into the ultimate and
beautiful medium of spiritual evolution. There is no justification for tampering with nature.
8. A pilgrimage is symbolic of contemplation and meditation and acceptance, and is a metaphor for the
constant growth or movement and love for nature that we should hold in our hearts.
9. This is the truth !
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Pick out the option that is not true according to the passage.
A pilgrim can keep his body healthy
1. by travelling a lot of places
2. by travelling light
3. by keeping free from attachment
4. by eating small amount of food
5. by eating snacks and rich food
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) only 2
(c) 1, 3, 4, and 5
(d) only 4

ii. As given in the passage, it states that most of the time, people prefer to do _____.

iii. Pick out the option that means the same as ‘render’ given in paragraph 3.
(a) withhold
(b) suppress
(c) return
(d) conceal

iv. Pick out the option that is TRUE about the pilgrimages, as discussed in the above passage.
(a) Pilgrimages have been converted into tourism nowadays.
(b) Pilgrimages should be performed at the young age only.
(c) One should avoid eating food while on a pilgrimage.
(d) Pilgrimages should be done for the purpose of fun only.

v. As per your understanding of the passage, choose the words that best describe the response of nature
against cleverness shown by us.
1. Catastrophic
2. Gratifying
3. Buoyant
4. Detrimental
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 3 Page 5

vi. The word Amma’ used by the writer signifies _____.

vii. As the word ‘Brotherhood’ can be replaced with ‘fraternity, the word ‘sisterhood’ can be replaced with
_____.

viii. According to passage, how do we satisfy our ego?

ix. What is the antonym for ‘contemplation’?

x. Choose the word from the given options which means the same as ‘complacent’.
(a) Very traditional
(b) Very satisfied
(c) Very cruel
(d) Very lethargic

III. SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely
coincidental.
1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5
A. You lost your wallet in the school playground. Write a notice for your school notice board giving all the
necessary details.


O
B. As Teacher Co-ordinator of the Quiz Club of AMM School, Pune, draft a notice in not more than 50
words informing students of the inter-class quiz contest asking them to register their names with the
Secretary of the Club within a week.
2. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below : 5
A. You are Riya/Ryan living at 40, Krishna Colony, Manali. You decided to hold a lunch party to congratulate
your grandparents on their golden wedding anniversary. Draft a formal invitation in not more than 50
words to all family members to attend a grand lunch at home.

O
B. Draft a formal reply accepting an invitation to be present on the occasion of the wedding of Ankush S/o
Mr & Mrs Shankar of 24, Green Park Road, Kanpur. You are Vikram Gaur of Raja Ki Mandi, Agra.
3. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below : 5
A. Two main parks in your locality have suffered from neglect on the part of local authorities. They have
virtually been taken over by undesirable elements. As a result the residents have stopped going to the
parks. Write a letter in 120-150 words to the editor of a local newspaper expressing your concern about
the problems the neglect has created and suggest measures to reclaim the parks for children. You are
Gautam/ Gauri of 2, Gobind Enclave, Meerut.


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 4 Page 1

Sample Paper 4
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10

1. Millions of people in the United States are affected by eating disorders. More than 90% of those afflicted
are adolescents or young adult women. Although all eating disorders share some common manifestations,
anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating, each have distinctive symptoms and risks. People
who intentionally starve themselves (even while experiencing severe hunger pangs) suffer from anorexia
nervosa.
2. The disorder, which usually begins around the time of puberty, involves extreme weight loss to at least
15% below the individual’s normal body weight. Many people with the disorder look emaciated but are
convinced they are overweight. In patients with anorexia nervosa, starvation can damage vital organs
such as the heart and brain. To protect itself, the body shifts into slow gear: Menstrual periods stop,
blood pressure rates drop, and thyroid function slows. Excessive thirst and frequent urination may occur.
Dehydration contributes to constipation, and reduced body fat leads to lowered body temperature and
the inability to withstand cold. Mild anemia, swollen joints, reduced muscle mass, and light-headedness
also commonly occur in anorexia nervosa.
3. Anorexia nervosa sufferers can exhibit sudden angry outbursts or become socially withdrawn. One in
ten cases of anorexia nervosa leads to death from starvation, cardiac arrest, other medical complications,
or suicide. Clinical depression and anxiety place many individuals with eating disorders at risk for
suicidal behavior.
4. People with bulimia nervosa consume large amounts of food and then rid their bodies of the excess
calories by vomiting, abusing laxatives or diuretics, taking enemas, or exercising obsessively. Some
use a combination of all these forms of purging. Individuals with bulimia who use drugs to stimulate
vomiting, bowel movements, or urination may be in considerable danger, as this practice increases the
risk of heart failure. Dieting heavily between episodes of binging and purging is common.
5. Because many individuals with bulimia binge and purge in secret and maintain normal or above normal
body weight, they can often successfully hide their problem for years. But bulimia nervosa patients-even
those of normal weight can severely damage their bodies by frequent binge eating and purging. In rare
instances, binge eating causes the stomach to rupture; purging may result in heart failure due to loss of
vital minerals such as potassium. Vomiting can cause the esophagus to become inflamed


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 4 Class XII English-Core

and glands near the cheeks to become swollen. As in anorexia nervosa, bulimia may lead to irregular
menstrual periods. Psychological effects include compulsive stealing as well as possible indications of
obsessive-compulsive disorder, an illness characterized by repetitive thoughts and behaviors. Obsessive
compulsive disorder can also accompany anorexia nervosa. As with anorexia nervosa, bulimia typically
begins during adolescence. Eventually, half of those with anorexia nervosa will develop bulimia. The
condition occurs most often in women but is also found in men.
6. Binge-eating disorder is found in about 2% of the general population. As many as one-third of this group
is men. It also affects older women, though with less frequency. Recent research shows that binge-eating
disorder occurs in about 30% of people participating in medically supervised weight-control programs.
7. This disorder differs from bulimia because its sufferers do not purge. Individuals with binge eating
disorder feel that they lose control of themselves when eating. They eat large quantities of food and do
not stop until they are uncomfortably full. Most sufferers are overweight or obese and have a history of
weight fluctuations. As a result, they are prone to the serious medical problems associated with obesity,
such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure, and diabetes.
8. Obese individuals also have a higher risk for gallbladder disease, heart disease, and some types of cancer.
Usually they have more difficulty losing weight and keeping it off than do people with other serious
weight problems. Like anorexic and bulimic sufferers who exhibit psychological problems, individuals
with binge-eating disorder have high rates of simultaneously occurring psychiatric illnesses, especially
depression.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Majority of people suffering from eating disorders are _____.
(a) adolescents
(b) young adult women
(c) obese people
(d) both (a) and (b)

ii. Obese individuals also have a risk of _____.

(a) heart disease
(b) some types of cancer
(c) gallbladder disease
(d) all of these

iii. How many cases of anorexia nervosa can have fatal consequences?
(a) 90 per cent
(b) Ten out of twenty
(c) 50 per cent
(d) 1 in 10

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 4 Page 3

iv. “Many people with the disorder look emaciated but are convinced they are overweight. The word
‘emaciated’ here means _____.
(a) fat
(b) skeletal
(c) nervous
(d) depressed

v. According to the passage, which of the following is correct?

(a) Among the suffers of anorexia nervosa, half of them will eventually develop bulimia.
(b) Binge eating disorder is found mainly in children.
(c) People with bulimia nervosa keep themselves in starvation.
(d) More than 90% of those afflicted with eating disorders are men and old-age people.

vi. The word ‘binge’ means _____.

vii. What is the most common consequence due to anorexia nervosa?

viii. To what slow gears do the body shift?

ix. What makes people socially withdrawn?

x. What danger do the people with bulimia who use drugs face?

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. We sit in the last row, bumped about but free of stares. The bus rolls out of the dull crossroads of the city,
and we are soon in open countryside, with fields of sunflowers as far as the eye can see, their heads all
facing us. Where there is no water, the land reverts to desert. While still on level ground we see in the
distance the tall range of the Mount Bogda, abrupt like a shining prism laid horizontally on the desert
surface, it is over 5,000 meters high, and the peaks are under permanent snow, in powerful contrast to
the flat desert all around. Heaven Lake lies part of the way up this range, about 2,000 metres above sea-
level, at the foot of one of the higher snow-peaks.
2. As the bus climbs, the sky, brilliant before, grows overcast. I have brought nothing warm to wear: it is
all down at the hotel in Urumqi. Rain begins to fall. The man behind me is eating overpoweringly smelly
goat’s cheese. The bus window leaks inhospitably but reveals a beautiful view. We have passed quickly
from desert through arable land to pasture, and the ground is now green with grass, the slopes dark with
pine. A few cattle drink at a clear stream flowing past moss-covered stones; it is a Constable landscape.
The stream changes into a white torrent, and as we climb higher I wish more and more that I had brought
with me something warmer than the pair of shorts that have served me so well in the desert. The Stream
(which, we are told, rises in Heaven Lake) disappears, and we continue our slow ascent. About noon, we
arrive at Heaven Lake, and look for a place to stay at the foot, which is the resort area. We get a room in
a small cottage, and I am happy to note that there are thick quilts on the beds.


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 4 Class XII English-Core

3. Standing outside the cottage we survey our surroundings. Heaven Lake is long, sardine-shaped and fed
by snowmelt from a stream at its head. The lake is an intense blue, surrounded on all sides by green
mountain walls, dotted with distant sheep. At the head of the lake, beyond the delta of the inflowing
stream, is a massive snow-capped peak which dominates the vista; it is part of a series of peak that
culminate, a little out of view, in Mount Bogda itself.
4. For those who live in the resort there is a small mess-hall by the shore. We eat here sometimes, and
sometimes buy food from the vendors outside, who sell kabab and naan until the last buses leave. The
kababs, cooked on skewers over charcoal braziers, are particularly good; highly spiced and well-done.
Horse’s milk is available too from the local Kazakh herdsmen, but I decline this. I am so affected by the
cold that Mr. Cao, the relaxed young man who runs the mess, lends me a spare pair of trousers, several
sizes too large but more than comfortable. Once I am warm again, I feel a pre-dinner spurt of energy -
dinner will be long in coming - and I ask him whether the lake is good for swimming in.
5. “Swimming?” Mr. Cao says. “You aren’t thinking of swimming, are you?”
6. “I thought I might,” I confess. “What’s the water like?”
7. He doesn’t answer me immediately, turning instead to examine some receipts with exaggerated interest.
Mr. Cao, with great off-handedness, addresses the air. “People are often drowned here:’ he says. After a
pause, he continues. “When was the last one?” This question is directed at the cook, who is preparing a
tray of mantou (squat white steamed bread rolls), and who now appears, wiping his doughy hand across
his forehead. “Was it the Beijing athlete?” asks Mr. Cao.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

i. According to the narrator, the advantage of sitting in the last row of the bus is that _____.

ii. What did the narrator see soon after reaching the countryside?
(a) Fields of sunflower
(b) A shining prism
(c) Tall range of Mount Bogda
(d) Green pastures

iii. The word ‘brilliant’ as given in paragraph 2 means

1. dazzling
2. talented
3. ingenious
4. shining
5. virtuous
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 5

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 4 Page 5

iv. Pick out the options that explains how the scene looked like a constable landscape?
1. The ground filled with green grass.
2. The rising full-moon.
3. The slopes dark with pine.
4. The flowing Heaven lake in the middle of the landscape.
5. A few cattle drinking at a clear stream flowing past mass-covered stones.
(a) 1, 3, and 5
(b) Both 2 and 4
(c) only 5
(d) 2, 4 and 5

v. Which word means the same as ‘steep’ from paragraph 1?

vi. What did the narrator wish for as the bus climbs higher?
(a) That he must not be travelling alone.
(b) That he had brought some eatables with him.
(c) He was scared and thought that he should not have come to this trip.
(d) That he had brought some warm clothes with him.

vii. The pair of trousers that Mr. Cao sent for the narrator was
(a) fitted nicely to him.
(b) very comfortable
(c) too short for him
(d) too large but more than comfortable for him.

viii. The correct antonym of the word ‘arable’ is _____.

ix. Mr. Cao warned the narrator against swimming in the lake because _____.

x. Mantou is a kind of bread, traditionally used in _____.

III. SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5
A. Water supply will be suspended for eight hours (10 am to 6 pm) on 6th of March for cleaning of the
water tank. Write a notice in about 50 words advising the residents to store water for a day. You are
Karan Kumar/Karuna Bajaj, Secretary, Janata Group Housing Society, Palam Vihar, Kurnool.

O
B. You are Mahender, Sports Captain, St. John’s School, Lucicnow. Write a notice in 50 words for the
school notice board informing students about an Inter School Football match to be played in your school.
Invite them to watch and cheer the teams.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 5 Page 1

Sample Paper 5
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10
1. If you enjoy watching crime shows on TV, you know that fingerprints play a large role in identifying
people. But you might be surprised to find out that using fingerprints for identification is not a new
science. In fact, it is very old - dating back at least as far as 1885-1913 B.C.E. In Babylon, when people
agreed to a business contract, they pressed their fingerprints into the clay in which the contract was
written. Thumbprints have also been found on clay seals from ancient China.
2. In 14th century Persia, which is now Iran, a government doctor recognized that all fingerprints are
different. In 1684, a British doctor, Nehemiah Grew, spoke about the ridged surfaces of the fingers. In
1686, a professor of anatomy (the study of the structure of the human body) named Marcello Malpighi,
wrote about the ridges and loops in fingerprints. Malpighi’s work was considered so important that a
layer of skin found on the fingertips was named after him. This layer of skin is called the Malpighian
layer. Although scientists had studied fingerprints, the value of fingerprinting in the identification of
individuals did not become clear until later.
3. Sir William James Herschel is generally thought to be the first European to realize that fingerprints
were unique to each person. In his work as chief magistrate in the Hoogly district in Jungipoor, India,
Herschel asked people to put their handprints on contracts. Herschel believed that personal contact with
the contracts made people more likely to honor their commitments, or to keep their promises. As he
looked at more and more handprints, he began to see that all the handprints were different. He started to
believe that fingerprints were unique, which means they are all different from each other, and permanent,
which means that they do not ever change. To prove that they never change, Herschel kept track of his
own fingerprints over his entire lifetime.
4. Dr. Henry Faulds, a British surgeon at a Japanese hospital, began studying the furrows (also called ridges)
on fingertips in the 1870s. He published an article in a scientific journal about the use of fingerprints as a
tool in identification. He also devised, or invented, a system of classifying fingerprints. He wrote Charles
Darwin about his findings, but Darwin was getting too old to work on the findings. So, he promised to
pass the information to his cousin, Sir Francis Galion. Using Henry Faulds’ findings, Galton published
a major book on classifying fingerprints based on arches, loops, and whirls. His work with Sir Edward
R. Henry on fingerprint classification was the basis of a classification system which is still used by law
enforcement agencies in English-speaking countries.


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 5 Class XII English-Core

5. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) now uses a variation of the Galton- Henry system. Although the
use of fingerprinting in identification originated in Britain, it has been developed in the United States. In
1924, two large fingerprint collections were combined to form the foundation of the Identification Division
of the FBI. Within the Identification Division, the Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification Systems
(IAFIS) can search and find fingerprints anywhere in the United States within thirty minutes. The IAFIS
can compare results with automated fingerprint systems in countries around the world. The IAFIS has the
fingerprints of more than 250 million people on file.
6. About one in six Americans has fingerprints on file with the FBI. But not all the fingerprints are related
to criminal investigations. People need to have their fingerprints taken for many other reasons. People
have their fingerprints taken for employment, licenses, and adoption. For example, when people want
to work for the government in classified, secret jobs, their fingerprints are checked to be sure they do
not have a criminal background. When prospective parents adopt a child, their fingerprints are matched
against those of all criminals for the safety of the child.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

i. The science of using fingerprints dates back to

(a) 1684
(b) 1686
(c) 1870s
(d) 1885-1913 BCE

ii. A layer of skin is called _____ layer.

(a) Marcello
(b) Malpighi
(c) Malpighian
(d) Henry

iii. _____ spoke about ridged surfaces of fingers in 1684.

(a) Malpighi
(b) Nehemiah Grew
(c) James Herschel
(d) Henry Faulds

iv. In the 14th century Persia, a government doctor found that _____
(a) all fingerprints are different
(b) fingerprints change with time
(c) fingerprints are useful to check criminal record only
(d) fingerprints are never helpful in any kind of investigation

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 5 Page 3

v. According to Galton-Henry, fingerprints’ classification varies into

1. shapes
2. sizes
3. arches
4. loops and whirls
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) only 2
(c) Both 3 and 4
(d) only 4

vi. “Usage of fingerprints for identification is not a new science.”

What does the above expression mean?

vii. How were fingerprints used in ancient era?

viii. Who wrote about ridges and loops?

ix. What did Sir William James Herschel realise?

x. Who didn’t take up the research of fingerprints?

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. Among the natural resources which can be called upon in national plans for development, possibly
the most important is human labour. Since the English language suffers from a certain weakness in its
ability to describe groups composed of both male and female members, this is usually described as
“manpower”.
2. Without a productive labour force, including effective leadership and intelligent middle management, no
amount of foreign assistance or of natur al wealth can ensure successful development and modernization.
3. The manpower for development during the next quarter of century will come from the world’s present
population of infants, children and adolescents. But we are not sure that they will be equal to task. Will
they have the health, the education, the skills, the socio-cultural attitudes essential for the responsibilities
of development?
4. For far too many of them the answer is no. The reason is basic. A child’s most critical years, with regard
to physical, intellectual, social, and emotional development, are those before he reaches five years of
age. During those critical formative years he is cared for almost exclusively by his mother and in many
parts of the world the mother may not have the capacity to raise a superior child. She is incapable of
doing so by reason of her own poor health, her ignorance and her lack of status and recognition of social
and legal rights, of economic party of independence. One essential factor has been overlooked and
ignored. The forgotten factor is the role of women. Development will be handicapped as long as women
remain second class citizen, uneducated without any voice in family or community, decisions without
legal or economic status, married when they are still practically children, and henceforth producing one
baby after another, often to see half of them die before they are of school age.


Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 5 Class XII English-Core

5. We can enhance development by improving ‘women power, by giving women the opportunity to develop
themselves. Statistics show that the average family size increases in inverse ratio to the mother’s years
of education- is lowest among college graduates, highest among those with only primary school training,
or no education. Malnutrition is most frequent in large families, and increases in frequency with each
additional sibling. The principle seems established that an educated mother has healthier and more
intelligent children, and that is related to the fact that she has fewer children. The tendency of educated,
upper class mothers to have fewer children operates even without access to contraceptive services.
6. The educational level of women is significant also because it has a direct influence upon their chances
of employment, and the number of employed women in country’s total labour force has a direct bearing
on both the gross national product and disposable income of the individual family. Disposable income,
especially in the hands of women, influences food purchasing and therefore the nutritional status of the
family. The fact that the additional income derives from the paid employment of women provides a
logical incentive to restrict the size of the family.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

i. According to the passage, the development can be enhanced by improving _____.

ii. Human labour is usually described as ‘manpower’ because _____.

iii. According to the passage, which are the most critical years for a child’s development?

iv. Pick out the option that is not true with reference to the above passage.
1. In many parts of the world, a woman is not capable to raise a superior child due to her poor health.
2. Mother plays an important role in over all development of a child.
3. Development can never be improved till the time women are considered second class citizen.
4. The larger a family is, the healthier it will be since it has more members to work and earn money.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) only 4
(c) only 3
(d) Both 2 and 3

v. According to the passage, malnutrition is most common in

(a) small families
(b) large families
(c) nuclear families
(d) joint families

vi. As per the principle mentioned in the above passage, it seems that a/an _____ mother has healthier and
more intelligent children.

Continue on next page.....

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 5 Page 5

vii. What factor is there that weakens a woman’s identity as an individual?

1. Consideration of women as a second class citizen.
2. Responsibilities that are laid on a woman’s shoulder.
3. Marriage at a very young age.
4. Ignorance in her social and legal rights.
5. Being financially independent.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) 2, 4 and 5

viii. The educational level of women is significant and it also has a direct bearing on
1. her personal statue
2. the gross national product
3. disposable income of the individual
4. the marketing of local products
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

ix. The above passage gives stress on _____.

x. Disposable income, in the hands of a woman ensures the _____ status of a family.
(a) emotional
(b) nutritional
(c) financial
(d) none of these

III. SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. You lost your wristwatch in your school auditorium. Write a notice in nbt more than 50 words for your
school notice board giving a detailed description of the watch. You are Anirudh/Arundhati of class XII
of Springfield School, Pune

O
B. Your school is celebrating Grandparents’ Day next week. Write a notice in 50 words to be put up on the
school notice board informing students of the celebration and requesting them to be present with their
grandparents. You are Samir/Suman, Head Boy/Head Girl ABC Sen. Sec. School, Delhi.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 6 Page 1

Sample Paper 6
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10
1. Narmada Bachao Andolan was initiated by Medha Patkar along with other colleagues. Medha Patkar
is a postgraduate in social work, who moved to live among the tribals of the Narmada valley in the
mid-1980s and alerted them to the fate that awaited them with the dam. Having founded the NBA, she
remains one of its main catalysts, strategists and mobilisers. During the Narmada struggle, Patkar faced
repression and was arrested several times. She also undertook many satyagrahas (pledges for truth) and
long fasts. In a confrontation between NBA supporters and pro-dam forces in 1991, her 21-day fast
brought her close to death.
2. Baba Amte (1914-2008) was one of India’s most respected social and moral leaders. He devoted most
of his life to the care and rehabilitation of leprosy patients. His community of a few thousand patients at
Anandwan has done much to dispel prejudice against the victims of leprosy. In 1990, he left Anandwan
with the words: “I am leaving to live along the Narmada. Narmada will linger on the lips of the nation
as a symbol of all struggles against social injustice.
3. The decade-long struggle in the Narmada valley has resulted in suspension of the work on the Sardar
Sarovar dam project through the movement as well as the Supreme Court’s intervention. The NBA
questioned and compelled the World Bank that supported the dam with a US $450 million loan to review
the Sardar Sarovar project. The NBA has also exposed fraud in the environment compliance reports
and massive corruption in the rehabilitation leading to a judicial inquiry. Even if the wall is complete
(122 m high in 2009), the further erection of 17 m high radial gate was not permitted, due to non-
compliance on rehabilitation and environmental measures. There are more than 200,000 people in the
submerged area of this single dam with the best of agriculture and horticulture and all community life
going on with temples, mosques, trees, schools, dispensaries, government buildings, etc.
4. The NBA has also spread to other large dams in the valley, such as Indira Sagar, Maheshwar and
Omkareshwar. For two of these dams, the High Court of Jabalpur stopped the filling of the reservoir
until land-based rehabilitation is done.
5. The issues of land for the displaced, the rehabilitation policy at a national level and development planning
without displacement have become national issues with NBA interventions, influencing policy-making and
mass movements. The NBA has been effective in its multiple strategies at the executive, legislative and
judicial level, campaigning against the destruction and displacement caused by large dams and for the rights
of the affected people—farmers, labourers, fishermen and others.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 6 Class XII English-Core

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Choose the most appropriate statement to complete the sentence
Medha Parkar founded the Narmada Bachao Andolan and remains _____.
(a) one of its followers, promoters and mobilisers
(b) one of its members, promoters and educators
(c) one of its founders, promoters and critics
(d) one of its main promoters, strategists and mobilisers

ii. What is the general consensus of opinion about the active role of Patkar in this movement?

iii. List two reasons why Baba Amte went to live and join the Narmada Movement.

iv. Select the antonym for the word ‘confrontation’ in para 1 of the text.
(a) account (b) accord
(c) accordion (d) accordment

v. Based on your understanding of the text what are the various actions that have come about through the
Narmada Movement?

vi. With which statement given below would the readers of the passage agree?
The Narmada Bachao Andolan ( NBA) has also spread large dams in the valley and for other two of
them, stopped the filling of the reservoir till _____.
(a) the rehabilitation of the people was complete
(b) the rehabilitation was started
(c) the rehbailitation was cancelled
(d) till the rehabilitation was examined once again

vii. What are the two aspects that are now commonly made the agenda of movements like the NBA?

viii. Choose the conclusion for the given sentence, by choosing the most appropriate option.
The NBA has been effective in working out national strategies at the _____.
(a) grassroots level and the national level
(b) government level and the private level
(c) legislative, executive and judicial level
(d) national and international level

ix. Mention why the 17 m high radial gate at the Narmada Sluice was not permitted.

x. Which of the titles suggested below is a worthy one for this passage?
(a) The NBA’s Relentless Push
(b) The Achievements of Medha Patkar
(c) Medha Patkar and the Narmada Bachao Andolan
(d) The Plight of the Narmada

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 6 Page 3

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. Online education startup Byju’s is in advanced stages of talks to raise $200 million in fresh capital from US-
based investors T Rowe Price and BlackRock at a valuation of $12 billion, a person directly aware of the
matter said. BlackRock is an existing investor in the firm.
2. The development comes less than two months after Byju’s raised $500 million from top global technology
investment firms Silver Lake Partners, DST Global and others at a valuation of close to $11 billion.
Once formally closed, the latest round would take Byju’s total fund-raise to over $1 billion this year
as demand for online education remains high amid the pandemic. T Rowe Price has previously backed
large Indian internet firms like Paytm and Flipkart.
3. The Bengaluru-based Byju’s had announced the investment from Silver Lake Partners last month, but
did not comment on DST Global’s participation.
4. Silver Lake has been in the news for its recent investments in Reliance Retail as well as Reliance’s Jio
Platforms.
5. “This round should be closed in the coming few weeks,” the person mentioned earlier said. A spokesperson
of Byju’s declined to comment, while emails to T Rowe Price and BlackRock did not elicit any response.
6. Byju’s has other marquee investors including Tencent, Prosus Ventures, Sequoia, Mary Meeker’s Bond
Capital, and General Atlantic. The capital being raised would be used for global expansion as well as
to finance acquisitions to strengthen its offerings. Earlier this year, it acquired code-learning startup
WhiteHat Jr in a $300-million cash deal.
7. With the pandemic accelerating the adoption of online education in India, the sector has seen an increase
of nearly four times in investments at $1.5 billion in the first nine months of 2020, compared to $409
million in the whole of 2019, according to data from Venture Intelligence. Unacademy, Vedantu and
Eruditus are some of the other prominent names in the space that have raised capital from investors like
SoftBank, US-based Coatue and South Africa’s Prosus Ventures.
MAY USE CAPITAL FOR MORE ACQUISITIONS

8 Byju’s was started by Byju Raveendran in 2007 as an offline coaching class for the Common Admission
Test (CAT) to enter IIMs. Later in 2009, several of his students joined him to start Think & Learn, which
tried the tablet-based format and eventually found significant traction after launching as an app in 2015.
According to the company, it has doubled its revenues from $189 million in the financial year ending
March 2019 to $378 million in the financial year ending March 2020. In September, it said it has 64 million
registered students, of which 4.2 million are paid subscribers.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 6 Class XII English-Core

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Does the following statement agree with the information given in paragraph 1? Online education startup
Byju’s would take its total fund-raise to over $1 billion this year.
Select from the following :
(a) True - if the statement agrees with the information
(b) False - if the statement contradicts the information
(c) Not Given - if there is no information on this
(d) Can’t say
ii. Do you think the fact that fresh capital from US-based investors T Rowe Price and two months later
from global technology investment firms Silver Lake Partners, DST Global is going to have a direct or
indirect impact on the Indian education system? Support your answer with reference to the text.

iii. Select the option that displays the most likely reason for T Rowe Price backing large Indian internet
firms like Paytm and Flipkart in the recent past.
(a) The number of online shoppers has grown substantially.
(b) The number of online transactions has grown substantially.
(c) Every other Indian has a mobile phone.
(d) The graph of online transactions will go further north in India.

iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statement.

Statement : Byju’s is already financing its new acquisitions to strengthen its offerings, thanks to the
millions raised as capital.
We can say this because _____.

v. Select the option that displays the key consequence of the effect of the pandemic on school education
according to the passage.
(a) Schools will now offer classes in a hybrid mode.
(b) Students will be able to take online classes.
(c) The option for offline coaching remains popular as well.
(d) Online education is not only here to stay but expanding exponentially.

vi. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.
Byju’s had announced the investment from Silver Lake Partners last month, but did not comment on
DST Global’s participation because _____.
(a) DST Global probably wanted the deal to be secret.
(b) Silver Lake had also invested in Reliance Retail and Reliance Jio.
(c) Byju’s did not want to disclose its acquisition plans.
(d) Byju’s may use this capital for purposes other than education.

vii. Byju’s has other marquee investors including Tencent, Prosus Ventures, Sequoia, Mary Meeker’s Bond
Capital, and General Atlantic.
Give one reason why having influential investors is a factor that would enormously impact the prospects
of the company.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 6 Page 5

viii. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.
Byju Raveendran’s vision to start Think & Learn on the tablet-based format and eventually launching
the same as an app in 2015 demonstrates _____.
(a) his resourcefulness and foresightedness.
(b) his credibility as a businessman.
(c) his ability to invest well.
(d) his talent of using his student base.

ix. Complete the sentence appropriately with one/two words.

In the context of the concluding sentences in the passage, the word ‘paid subscribers’ refers to _____.

x. Based on the reading of the text, state a point to challenge the given statement.
Indians are spending as much on ordering food or a cab online as on online educational services.

III. SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely
coincidental.
1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5
A. You are Vijay Dhawan, a student of Florence Nightingale Convent, Rohtas Nagar, Aurangabad. Your
school is planning an Inter-House poster making competition to conclude the week-long Environment
Week. As the secretary of the school’s cultural association, write a notice in about 50 words informing
students of classes IX-XII about the competition.

O
B. In a few days, the country will be celebrating its Independence Day. The Prime Minister will hoist the
national flag of the country from the ramparts of the Red Fort and address the nation. Massive arrangements
for seating and security are in the offing. The Delhi Traffic Police will be making traffic diversions on the
big day in order to avoid inconvenience to the travellers and commuters, it has issued a public notice about
the same. Reproduce the notice. You are Jayram Patil of Chanakya Puri, New Delhi.

2. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. You are Nidhi Aggarwal, Secretary of the Literary Club called Shakespearewala of your school. The
literary club has produced some great theatre actors in the past and has a phenomenal repertoire of
dramas. Now, it is putting up the famous Shakespeare play ‘The Taming of the Shrew’. The principal
of your school has asked you to draft an invitation inviting the famous writer Mr. Ruskin Bond to be
the Chief Guest at the event. Write the invitation in not more than 50 words. Invent necessary details as
required.


O
B. Your friend, P.V. Nithish, has invited your family to attend the wedding of his sister, Jaya. You have your
board examination on the day of the wedding. Since, south Indian weddings are traditionally morning
events, you will not be able to attend the event. Write a formal reply in about 50 words to the family
expressing your regret. You are Sushmitha Nair, M-114, Fort Road, Chennai.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 7 Page 1

Sample Paper 7
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10

1. Online teaching is evidently different from that in a classroom teaching. It may seem difficult to envision
not teaching the way in which you would in your standard classroom setting, however, remote education
is an alternate arrangement with benefits, which requires a different teaching methodology. In order to
make the most of this time, help your students with a variety of written texts from existing sources or
online course readings, articles, websites, recordings from trustworthy resources. Teachers can also
make their own content, including lengthy discussions, visually appealing slideshows, or other course
materials. Since all of this can be reused, the effort required presently will pay off in future years.
2. Another way to maximise on written content is to point out the significant parts of your static content.
And then in the video lessons later, you could feature things you need your students to concentrate on
in a concentrated manner. In asynchronous teaching, quizzes and other assignments assist students in
connecting with the course content and show off their learning skills. Also, ensure whether the students
have understood the written material, give immediate feedback, or even organize more tests with a
limited time setting.
3. An all-around planned online-teaching session makes solid social interaction among students as well
as encourages and extends their learning. Prepare questions that are debatable to urge them to relate
new ideas to their own lived experiences or give clear guidelines, agendas, or topics with the goal that
students know what you need them to do, when, and how. Get into conversations with them on one-to-
one or non-to-many levels every week, so you can encourage their co-development of information with
more questions, explanations, and understanding.
4. When you are teaching in a traditional classroom setup, you do a great deal of things to assist students
with feeling welcome and pleasant. You welcome them. You grin. You look. You even answer questions.
You show your help in innumerable manners. And when the physical classroom is not appealing
anymore, you do a great deal to improve the atmosphere to make it progressively pleasing again and,
in this manner, it increasingly helps in learning. Apply that equivalent rule to your online classes. A
conscious effort to make them more welcoming is probably going to bring out the best in both you and
your student. Make education more inspiring so that students can prevail with the assistance of visuals,
media, intuitive apparatuses, and learning exercises.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 7 Class XII English-Core

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

i. Complete the sentence by choosing appropriate and all-inclusive options.

Online teaching is different from classroom teaching primarily in the way _____.
1. it requires effective use of technology
2. it uses static content more effectively
3. it requires richer content and visually appealing slideshows
4. it is a better way of learning if implemented well
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

ii. Comment on the writer’s inference that collating online teaching materials and personal course content
made by a teacher are investments with dividends even in the future.

iii. List the two ways in which a teacher can make the most of their time preparing and collating online
resources.
1. __________
2. __________

iv. Select the option that conveys the opposite of ‘asynchronous’, from words used in paragraph two.
(a) concurrent
(b) chronological
(c) digital
(d) relative

v. The writer would not agree with the given statements based on paragraph two, EXCEPT _____.
(a) only static content can be maximized while teaching
(b) static content can be supplemented with online resources
(c) teachers should treat dynamic content as having more potential
(d) static and dynamic content can complement each other

vi. Online teaching sessions help in extending the learning of students in different ways. Based on your
understanding of paragraph 3, list another major advantage that these have for both teachers and learners.

vii. Why is it fair to say this about regular interactions between teachers and students- ‘The more you
converse, the better is the depth and graph of their learning.’

viii. Complete the given sentence with an appropriate inference, with respect to the following.
A teacher puts _____ class to hold the interest of the pupils.

ix. How can the solutions, suggested in paragraph four best be described?
(a) ordinary (b) extraordinary
(c) doable (d) far-fetched

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 7 Page 3

x. Select the most suitable option that substantiates the statement: Apply that equivalent rule to your online
classes.
(a) grinning and pleasing
(b) appealing and smiling
(c) welcoming and inspiring
(d) helping and answering

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. The Bermuda Triangle, a region of the Atlantic Ocean defined roughly as the area between Florida,
Puerto Rico, and Bermuda, is a hotspot of legend and mystery for navigators and writers alike. Countless
airplane and ship disappearances have been credited to the ominous forces of the Bermuda Triangle. Long
before the Triangle even had a name, William Shakespeare was inspired by the stories of this Caribbean
mystery when he wrote one of his most famous plays, The Tempest. Despite the long history of wrecks and
disappearances in this patch of ocean, story and myth persist around the reason why the Bermuda Triangle
claims so many tragedies. Few can decide which tale to believe. One rather explosive theory points to the
geochemical action of methane gas on the seafloor. When soils on the seafloor shift, methane gas that was
trapped underneath can erupt in a flurry of bubbles. Some theorize that the “bubbly” ocean water from
such a release could decrease the density of the water, making it harder for a passing ship to stay afloat. If
the highly flammable methane gas could rise into the atmosphere, some believe that a passing plane could
explode from the interaction of the plane engines with the methane.
2. This theory would explain why so many ships and airplanes seem to disappear without a trace in the
Bermuda Triangle. Unfortunately, the enormous distances the methane gas would have to travel from
seafloor to atmosphere cast doubt on the feasibility of this theory. Some blame the Bermuda Triangle’s
turbulent history on the perilous Sargasso Sea that lies within the Triangle’s boundaries.
3. This sea is unique in that its borders are defined not by land, but by the powerful currents that surround it.
In the middle of these currents, the still nearly windless waters harbour dense mats of floating seaweed.
It’s no wonder that even today, abandoned ships are found trapped by coiling plants. With no winds to
move ships safely onwards, the Sargasso Sea has long posed a danger to ships that rely on the power of
the winds for propulsion and steering.
4. While the Sargasso Sea may explain some of the dangers ships face when navigating the Bermuda
Triangle, it fails to account for the dozens of planes and ships that have disappeared without a trace.
Skeptics claim that the disappearances of the Bermuda Triangle are unremarkable when the physical
and weather-based challenges travellers face in this portion of the ocean are considered. The Triangle is
prone to storms and hurricanes that can confuse navigators and cause equipment to malfunction. Some
parts of the Triangle are full of sharp coral that can rip holes in ships and cause them to sink. Deep
pockets and trenches in the ocean floor may hide the remains of wreckages that are commonly believed
to have disappeared without a trace. Whatever the true cause of the Bermuda Triangle tragedies, this area
will indisputably be a source of lore and intrigue for years to come.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Choose the most appropriate statement to complete the sentence.
Story and myth persist around the countless reasons _____.
(a) why the bermuda triangle originated in this part of the ocean
(b) why it claims lives at sea and not on land
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 7 Class XII English-Core

(c) why Shakespeare wrote about the Caribbean mystery

(d) Why the Bermuda Triangle claims so many lives

ii. What is the general consensus of opinion about the Bermuda Triangle?

iii. Select the option that conveys the idea of an aeroplane above the Bermuda Triangle.
(a) such a plane would sink downwards with the methane gas exploding in the air
(b) such a plane would suck up the methane gas rising into the atmosphere
(c) such a plane could explode in mid air with the methane gas from the sea bed here, rising into the
atmosphere
(d) such a plane would provide a horrifying experience for the passengers in the plane

iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statement.

Some blame the Bermuda Triangle’s turbulent history on the _____.

v. Select the option that defines the perilous conditions in the sea bottom of the Bermuda Triangle.
(a) The windless waters of the area are the homes of dangerous seaweeds.
(b) The windless waters within the surrounding currents contain dense mats of floating seaweed.
(c) The windless waters within the surrounding seaweed contain enormous amounts of shipwrecked
sailors.
(d) The windless waters contain enormous amounts of currents from the Sargasso Sea.

vi. Give one favourable explanation about the mystery of the Bermuda Triangle and the disappearance of
aircraft.

vii. The explanations provided about shipwrecks at the Bermuda Triangle include _____.
(a) the presence of sharp edged coral and the remains of shipwrecks
(b) the presence of deep seated reefs rising to the surface
(c) the presence of floating masses of shipwrecks that wreck havoc on passing vessels
(d) the presence of a combination of debris from shipwrecks, dead coral and dense seaweed

viii. What is the major takeaway from the mystery of the Bermuda Triangle?

ix. Complete the sentence appropriately.

William Shakespeare was inspired _____.
(a) by this Caribbean accident when he wrote the famous play, ‘The Tempest’.
(b) by the Bermuda Triangle and began to imagine it in a play about tempests
(c) by this Caribbean mystery when he wrote the famous play ‘The tempest’.
(d) by this Caribbean Mystery and decided to make it eternal in his plays.

x. State a point to challenge the given statement.

The Bermuda Triangle is a hotspot of legend and mystery for navigators and writers alike.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 8 Page 1

Sample Paper 8
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10
1. People being what they are get practical about creating their own currency as long as it is honoured. In
Africa sea shells were used until the 19th century as money. But gold — practically useless but known
for its short supply and lasting quality — has been the most popular non-currency form of money and is
a standard for central banks.
2. Now in the age of the Internet and digital technologies, money is undergoing an exciting makeover
with talk of virtual currencies, mobile wallets and software apps that pretty much do what gold has
been doing for centuries and currency notes have been doing for a while. Technologies such as near-
field communications are being used to make the mobile phone an instrument of payment without the
customer having to sign a credit card voucher, thus making it more secure.
3. In general, software apps are being developed to substitute for money in various ways. Some companies
like Starbucks allow ‘digital tipping’ of its baristas through a mobile app. Pre-paid cash cards are being
used as swipe instruments where customers do not need credit cards or even bank accounts. The NextGen
ATM machines will recognize your face through facial biometric technologies.
4. Bitcoin, the most popular virtual currency, started circulating in 2009. Its current market value has
been estimated at around $8 billion, about 80,000 transactions occurring daily, according to reputable
accounting firms. However, Washington’s Internal Revenue Service ruled that bitcoin is not currency but
more like property — and thus subject to capital gains tax.
5. Meanwhile other virtual currencies are taking off — and influencing politics. In Iceland, which saw
its banking system more or less wiped out, during the 2008 global financial crisis, there emerged the
eurocoin, a new currency, now estimated to be worth $11.37 billion. This currency is aimed at fighting
capital controls imposed by the Iceland government.
6. Cryptocurrencies are a very important milestone in this fight for liberty from political control. They
bring the hope of a new era of free currencies immune to the meddling of politicians.
7. In addition, money is undergoing an exciting makeover through innovations galore. Telecom companies
the world over, for instance, with support from their central banks are offering customers ‘mobile
money’ as a service. Another innovation that is much talked about is the mobile wallet and companies
are helping their customers carry the equivalent of cash in their handsets much like one carries travellers’
cheques.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 8 Class XII English-Core

8. Thus more and more practical solutions are being spawned across the planet to focus not so much on
money’s ‘store of value’ but as a medium of exchange.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Does the following statement agree with the information given in paragraph 1?
The contents of para 1 state the people are getting smarter about creating their own currency that will
downgrade the gold standard of currency.

ii. Do you think the findings about currencies will change the way for money transactions in India? Select
which of the given options gives an authentic answer.
(a) Practical usage of money shapes its use.
(b) Everyone in India is computer and internet literate.
(c) The digital learning in money is making transaction less fraudulent.
(d) Gold is gradually getting to the stage of digital currency.

iii. State what are the types of software available to substitute for money.

iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statements.

Bitcoin is not currency because the Internal revenue service, Washington, rules that _____.

v. Select the option that best describes the linkages between government control and cryptocurrencies.
(a) Other virtual currencies are taking off and influencing politics.
(b) The eurocoin emerged to curb controls on capital by the Icelandic government.
(c) Cryptocurrencies will ban national currencies.
(d) Crypto is money exchange only.

vi. What does the writer mean by freedom for cryptocurrencies?

vii. What is the offer being made by telecom companies?

(a) They are offering mobile money.
(b) They are offering support from their respective central banks.
(c) They are offering mobile money which has the support of their central banks.
(d) They are offering central banking services.

viii. Complete the given sentence.

Gradually the shift is from money’s financial value to _____.

ix. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.
Central banks are encouraging their customers to switch to mobile wallets because _____.
(a) it is equal to travellers’ cheques
(b) it allows travellers to carry cash in the same manner as travellers’ cheques
(c) it is an exchange in the form of travellers’ cheques
(d) it is a handset built for carrying money

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 8 Page 3

x. Based on the reading of the text, state a point whereby you can challenge the statement below.
Cryptocurrencies are a way of freeing oneself from the impediments imposed by national currencies.
(a) Besides controls by national currencies, there is also political control to contend with, when it
comes to currencies.
(b) Besides different currencies in different countries, there is also, international money exchange to
contend with.
(c) National currencies are a way of providing customers availability of money in an easy format.
(d) Cryptocurrencies can topple governments.

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. While the Centre plans to offer JEE (Main) in regional languages too, results of NEET-UG 2020 reveal
that of the nearly 7.7 lakh candidates who qualified, over 1.3 lakh took the test in 10 Indian languages,
with 25,701 such students among the top 1 lakh.
2. The healthy percentage of successful students in various languages shows that domain knowledge is
not limited to those fluent in English. However, such students often face a major language hurdle as
technical lessons are imparted in English. They should be given free English tuitions to enable them to
keep pace with the course. Efforts can also be made to publish technical books in other Indian languages.
3. Apart from English, NEET-UG is offered in 10 Indian languages—Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati,
Kannada, Marathi, Odia, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. Experts say if these exams had not been conducted
in regional languages, many candidates would have struggled to qualify as they may have not have been
comfortable in English.

4. Welcoming the plans to offer JEE (Main) in regional languages, experts said this would help candidates
who study in vernacular language at the senior secondary level. Educationist and CBSE ex-chief Ashok
Ganguly said since admission to engineering colleges is based on one exam, students in vernacular
medium shouldn’t be deprived of a level-playing field.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 8 Class XII English-Core

5. “But these students will definitely find it difficult to appear in JEE (Advanced). It would be better to
fix some state quota for colleges like NITs and their exam be held separately with option to appear in
regional languages but for national quota, the medium should only be English. In any case, a student
from vernacular medium will find it difficult to continue in HT. So JEE (Advanced) must be continued
in English medium.”
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Does the following statement agree with the information given in paragraph 1?
The writer believes that the government is not on the right track in offering the medium of vernacular
languages in engineering entrance exams.

ii. Do you think a good percentage of successful students in vernacular languages shows that this option
plays to the advantage of the candidates appearing for entrance exams directly or indirectly? Support
your answer with reference to the text.

iii. Select the option that displays the most likely reason for the students doing better in vernacular medium
especially in engineering and NEET exams according to the 2020 study.
(a) NEET-UG is offered primarily in English.
(b) NEET-UG is offered in 10 Indian languages.
(c) Many students are not comfortable with English.
(d) After English, Hindi, Gujarati and Bengali are the most preferred languages.

iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statements.

To encourage students’ participation in NEET-UG through regional languages, it is suggested that _____.
1. English should be abolished in NEET as a medium.
2. efforts should be made to publish technical books in regional languages.
3. the regional candidates should be trained separately for the entrance exam.
4. the regional candidates should be given free English tuitions.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 4

v. Select the option that does not substantiate the information given in the last paragraph.
(a) For national quota, exams should be conducted in English only.
(b) Some quota for regional language students may be fixed in NITs.
(c) The percentage of successful students in various languages shows that domain knowledge is not
limited to English only.
(d) JEE (Advanced) should be continued to be conducted in English only.

vi. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option. The NEET-UG 2020 graphic
chart on rank-range reveals that the number of _____.
(a) qualifying candidates in Hindi and English medium doubled in the first slab.
(b) qualifying candidates in English medium remained almost static as the range increased.
(c) qualifying candidates in Hindi medium dipped as the range increased.
(d) qualifying candidates in both mediums increases as the range increases.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 8 Page 5

vii. There seems to be a dichotomy when we talk about the medium of examination in NEET-UG. How does
the author show this?

viii. Complete the given sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.
In the concluding sentence in paragraph four, the author talks of a ‘level-playing field.’ It means _____.
(a) collaboration amongst all.
(b) equal opportunities for all.
(c) regional medium for all.
(d) international medium for all.

ix. Complete the sentence appropriately with one/ two words.

The least number of candidates qualify in Section B (Writing) these vernacular languages _____.

x. Based on the reading of the text, state a point to support the given statement.
But these students will definitely find it difficult to appear in JEE (Advanced) and thereafter.

III. SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely
coincidental.
1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. You are Amit/Amita, Head Boy/Girl of your school (Zenith Public School). Write a notice for your
school notice board requesting for entries from students for Britannia Quiz Contest to be held in your
school. (Word limit : 50)


O
B. Gandhi Education Society, a charitable organization, is coming to your school to distribute books for the
needy students. As Head Boy/Head Girl, write a notice in not more than 50 words asking such students
to drop the list of books they need in the box kept outside the Principal’s office. You are Akhilesh/
Abhilasha of Modern Public School, Ghaziabad. Give all necessary details.

2. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. You are Radhika Sinha, D/0 Dinesh Sinha of Lajpat Nagar, New Delhi. Your father wants you to draft
a formal invitation to be sent on the occasion of your brother, Akshat Sinha’s marriage. Prepare the
invitation with all necessary details in not more than 50 words.

O
B. You are Rahul/Radhika of Krishna Nager, Chennai. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your
uncle’s daughter/your cousin. Send a reply confirming your acceptance to the invitation in not more than
50 words.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 9 Page 1

Sample Paper 9
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10
1. During his recent visit to India, the world golf champion Tiger Woods was all praise for the players at
the Delhi Golf Club. As golf gains ground as a corporate sport in India, many top-level Indian corporates
will be heading for a game with professionals, such as Tiger Woods. Participating in these events, where
amateurs play with professionals, comes for a hefty fee.
2. The long-term advantages of these fleeting interactions on the golf course with professionals are
debatable. But for corporates playing besides a powerhouse of talent can definitely up their game. This
was the general opinion even among the spectators who had watched Tiger Woods in Delhi. Munjal, the
amateur player along with him, was also impressed with his game.
3 But even those who cannot afford the hefty charges of a top professional, investing in their game by
hiring a professional coach has benefits. According to other golf consultants, a number of Indians
are also attending ‘golf clinics’ abroad for specific programmes to improve their game. According to
Butch Harmon the professional, who has worked with Tiger Woods and has even helped five American
Presidents improve their game, a short course generates more power in the swing and in aligning shots.
These changes though minor have long-term benefits. In golf, marginal improvements are subtle and
small changes like tweaking the position of the hand on the club, or learning how to aim your body
before swinging the club, can be mastered during these short-term interactions, yield results.
4. Another way for Indian golfers to keep connected internationally is through the online golf community.
According to Sandeep Sarkar, who has been travelling abroad to train for last six years, his experience at
the British coach David Leadbetter’s academy was most fruitful. ‘They showed me a video of my game
and I saw how bad I was in some positions.’
5. As golf is a technical game, unlike football or other sports, playing every day will not necessarily improve
one’s game. Hence, amateur golfers are also travelling to Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia, Singapore and
Dubai, for sessions that combine a three-day course play with a one-day clinic with a professional golfer.
This is a huge improvement from the standard of coaching available in India. As most Indian trainers are
caddies turned coaches, they teach by trial and error. That kind of training does not work for corporates
who are short on time. Besides, most of these coaches are themselves medium-quality players who
don’t have the time to get as good as they want. Others, who have benefited from attending professional
coaching abroad claim that their game has become consistent after training at these academies.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 9 Class XII English-Core

6. But others caution against expecting too much from these coaching sessions. They argue that one cannot
buy a golf swing and the effort that goes into remodelling it from attending a coaching session, however
sophisticated and technically perfected it might be. Besides, most amateurs in India are not aiming to
play like the champs. They play to enjoy themselves. Even the professionals who come to play exhibition
matches such as the one in which Tiger Woods participated, the aim is slightly different. According to
Munjal, who had hosted Tiger’s visit to India, the world champion had not really come to demonstrate
his play or to coach. The world champion had long wanted to make the trip to simply enjoy its sights and
sounds and perhaps play a game or two on the side.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Choose the most appropriate statement to complete the sentence.
The gaining ground of golf playing as a corporate sport will _____.
(a) make professionals better players among Indian corporates
(b) top level Indian corporates will play the sport as professionals
(c) top level Indian corporates will seek professionals
(d) top level Indian corporates will be heading for a game with professionals

ii. What is the general consensus of opinion about amateurs playing with professionals in golf?

iii. List two reasons why hiring a professional golfer even for a short course helps these players in generating
more power in their swing and in aligning their shots.
1. __________.
2. __________.
iv. Select the antonym for the word ‘hefty’ in pars 3 of the text.
(a) loathe (b) lithe
(c) light (d) little

v. Based on your understanding of the text what are the various advantages of small changes in the game of
golf?
vi. With which statement given below would the readers of the passage agree?
(a) Golf being a technical game like football, will not improve the players.
(b) As golf is a technical game, playing everyday, will not improve the game.
(c) Golf is a game with many technicalities, unlike football.
(d) Golf is a technician’s game, unlike football.

vii. What is common between Sandeep Sarkar and Butch Harmon? What is different?

viii. Choose the conclusion for the given sentence, by choosing the most appropriate option.
Amateur golfers travel to Dubai and elsewhere to _____.
(a) combine a one day play with a three day clinic with a professional golfer
(b) combine a three-day play with a one day clinic with a professional golfer
(c) combine a three day play with a day of shopping
(d) three day course play with one day clinic play

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 9 Page 3

ix. Mention how Munjal had assessed Tiger Woods’ play in India.

x. Which of the titles suggested below is a worthy one for this passage?
(a) The Tiger’s Visit
(b) Amateur players and professional golf trainers
(c) Golf a learning curve for amateurs
(d) The scope of professional golf in India

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. Delhi’s air quality is gradually deteriorating and may turn “poor” by the first week of October, with stubble
burning likely to start contributing soon. The local dust is the primary factor now, with north-westerly
winds raising dust over the past couple of weeks. “Delhi has seen no rain recently and conditions are
dry. Local sources are also contributing, leading to a spike in pollution. Stubble burning is not playing a
significant role yet, but may contribute next month,” added Srivastava.

2. “The overall Delhi AQI is in the middle-end of the moderate category as forecast. “Stubble burning has
started in some regions of Punjab and Haryana. Similar fire events were observed in late September in
2019 as well, but it did not impact Delhi’s air quality as the region experiences southwesterly winds
during the time. Satellite-derived fire events’ data over the last few years indicate that stubble burning
reaches a peak between end-October and early-November. During this period, the wind direction
changes to northwesterly, which aids in carrying smoke from farm fires in Punjab and Haryana to NCR
and beyond,” added Kurinji.
3. Delhi has been witnessing its cleanest year in terms of air quality, with the lockdown contributing to a
major extent. The capital has already recorded five “good” air days this year, the most since 2015, when
the AQI was launched. Four such days were recorded in the month of August alone.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 9 Class XII English-Core

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Does the following statement agree with the information given in para 1?
Delhi’s air quality will soon turn _____.
(a) poorer with stubbles coming in October
(b) poorer as stubble burning begins in October
(c) poor, as stubble burning begins in October
(d) poor with the air turning to stubble burning
ii. Write whether the following statement is true or false.
The local dust emanating from the north westerly winds is the prime contributor to the current pollution,
as the rains over Delhi have been delayed by the past few weeks.
iii. Select the option that conveys the most likely reason for Delhi’s AQI being in the middle of the moderate
category.
(a) Fire events did not impact the climate as the region experiences south-westerly winds at this time.
(b) Fire events do not occur as the region has south-westerly winds blowing.
(c) Fire events are doused as the south-westerly winds are blowing at this time.
(d) Fire and wind are blowing simultaneously in the region at this time.
iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statement.
Satellite data as regards stubble burning has shown that _____.
(a) stubble burning reaches a peak from end-October to early-November
(b) stubble burning is a ritual from end October to early November
(c) all stubble burning takes place from mid October to early November
(d) stubble burning is a peak season event
v. What phenomenon is seen during the stubble burning time?
vi. Give one reason why Delhi has been witnessing clean air in recent times.
vii. What are the responses to Delhi’s clean air quality?
viii. Complete the sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.
The concluding sentence of the text makes for a clear case of _____.
(a) Delhi’s air quality being linked to air pollution
(b) Delhi’s air quality being linked to stubble burning
(c) Delhi’s air quality affected by the northweterly winds
(d) Delhi’s air quality being dependent on the weather
ix. Complete the sentence appropriately.
The falling of rain in Delhi _____.
(a) helps to keep Delhi’s air quality satisfactory.
(b) helps to keep India’s air quality satisfactory.
(c) helps to keep Delhi’s air quality unsatisfactory.
(d) helps to increase water quality.
x. State a point to challenge the given statement.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 10 Page 1

Sample Paper 10
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10
1. Have you ever caught yourself scratching your head, twitching your ear, tapping your foot or playing with
your keys or pen? If you have, you are a sure fidgeter. And it is very likely that the habit has carried over
from childhood, when your wriggling probably exasperated—and sometimes amused—your parents and
teachers. It is not a pleasant sight to see a grown-up person fidgeting; in fact, it is a distraction.
2. Recently, some doctors in Britain have discovered that not only is fidgeting quite normal, it even does
you good.
3. Almost everybody fidgets when hot, cold, hungry, thirsty or tired. Being kept waiting also brings us
to fidgets. Most of this is normal but then with some this translates into exaggerated mannerisms, that
is where we have a problem. When the British doctors wired up volunteers to an electric fidgetmeter’,
followed by a gruelling interview, some stayed almost completely still. Others made up to 57 movements
in half a minute. Since the rate went up when disturbing topics were raised, it seemed that those who
fidgeted more were the anxious types, needing to release nervous energy.
4. This is what led to the conclusion that fidgeting has its uses too—since it helps get rid of stress that could
sometimes lead to headaches, muscle pain or even ulcers. Fidgeting is also believed to fight the flab. Add
up all those little movements made by fidgeters during their waking hours and they burn up as much
energy as a jog, the report said.
5. While British doctors may feel that fidgeting is an expression of anxious behaviour, doctors here do not
necessarily agree.
6. Meanwhile a former assistant professor in Los Angeles opines that fidgeting is a sign of “some underlying
tension which is causing anxiety”. While one cannot make generalised statements, some experts feel
that pencil-suckers yearn for babyhood, teeth-grinders and fist clenchers seem to be holding back their
aggression, foot tappers wish to be on the move and people who scratch may wish to injure themselves.
7. A leading psychiatrist gives a positive side to the anxiety angle. According to him, “a bit of anxiety
is not harmful since it induces one to do better. It often brings out the best in people—while meeting
deadlines, submitting reports or at interviews and examinations.” He gives the example of tennis players
who play with “manageable anxiety”, but warns that when the fidgets turn to restlessness, it might affect
performance. Often, he says, a person suffering from a neurological illness ends up fidgeting deliberately,
“mainly to distract his companion from his actual problem. It could be something as harmless as the
shaking of the hand or twitching of the eye.”
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 10 Class XII English-Core

8. Refuting this, another psychiatrist insists that fidgeting in no way should be considered good. “It may be
innocuous unless it is harming the fidgeter or annoying others, but, what fidgeting really reveals is a lack
of confidence and even social phobia, besides, of course, anxiety. It, in fact, sends non-verbal messages
to people who then treat the person accordingly — as nervous or anxious individuals,” he adds.
9. Unfortunately, fidgeters often find it hard to kick the habit, even when it’s socially unacceptable.
10. While those fidgeting are themselves perturbed by the habit, efforts in controlling it could cause other
problems, because, “the person could get hypertense or worried about being unable to tackle it and get
more fidgety in the process.” Experts, in the meantime, keep suggesting remedies or tricks to get out
of fidgeting habits, like playing with a coin in your pocket or glove, or wearing a ring which you can
rub without others noticing. In Greece, many taxi-drivers carry worry-beads which they click while
waiting to combat fidgeting, while some stores in London’s West End once sold pieces of polished stone
designed for gently stroking with the thumb.
11. Dr James Buyers, a neurologist of London, hopes for a more lasting and practical solution. “Anything
that will stop the speed of modern life for even half a minute will definitely be beneficial,” he says.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.
i. Choose the most appropriate statement to complete the sentence.
The habit of fidgeting in a grown up person is _____.
(a) a childish habit in a grown up
(b) a sign of exasperation and amusement
(c) not a pleasant sight and a distraction
(d) is normal and does good

ii. According to the author, what were the findings of British doctors using a fidgetmeter?

iii. State two ways by which people were assessed through the fidgetmeter.

iv. Select the antonym for the word ‘gruelling’, in para 3 of the text.
(a) facile (b) facial
(c) faceted (d) factice

v. Based on your understanding of the text, how does fidgeting help individuals?

vi. What are some commonalities noticed among various kinds of fidgeters?

vii. What are the positive speculations that the author makes about anxiety?

viii. Give below are some ways by which people who fidget can rid themselves of the habit with a lasting
solution. Select the practical solution given by Dr Buyers.
(a) Playing with a coin in one’s pocket
(b) Stopping the speed of life for even half a minute
(c) Clicking on worry beads like Greek taxi drivers
(d) Stroking polished stones with one’s thumb

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 10 Page 3

ix. The person who visualizes a newer way of controlling fidgeting is _____.
(a) the Greek driver
(b) Dr James Buyers, a London neurologist
(c) expert on fidgeting and knows how to control it
(d) An Assistant Professor in Los Angeles

x. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

(a) The Curative Remedies for Fidgeting
(b) The Jury is Still Out on Fidgeting
(c) Tennis Players and Their Manageable Anxiety
(d) The Many Aspects of Fidgeting

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. Imagine a situation — you have five different bosses and each of them gives you different assignments
to be finished on the same day! Seems chaotic? But working with multiple bosses is increasingly
becoming a reality in today’s corporate world. All organisations that operate across more than one
country, with more than one product, serving more than one customer group, operate in a matrix
format. The matrix creates a place for everyone and interconnects them where all have a ‘real’ boss
and a ‘virtual one’.
2. But employees find it extremely challenging to work with multiple bosses. According to experts, with
more than one person assigning you work, the workload increases and you have to work more. Another
challenge is that of dealing with conflicting messages — different bosses have different expectations and
you might find it impossible to satisfy all clients.
3. Another challenge encountered is with respect to reporting the same thing over and over again
to the bosses and possibly answering all their questions efficiently and to their satisfaction. In a
professional organisation it’s very important that you don’t let their egos clash, and enjoy working
with all of them.
4. With the organisational structure changing and more organisations adopting a flat structure and
concentrating on specific projects, employees are expected to work with several bosses. So experts
suggest looking at the positives and learning to manage multiple bosses effectively as the way forward,
rather than cribbing about the challenges. It is quite beneficial to have multiple supervisors, especially
for the younger employees who are embarking on their leadership journey. Employees get to see
different leadership styles as well as learn from varied insights and perspectives. This also helps them to
collaborate effectively with multiple stakeholders in the long run.
5. Experts say that getting to know your ultimate boss, who makes decisions about your career with respect
to performance review, compensation, etc. is important. Also, handling the challenges proactively is the
way forward. The employee needs to keep in mind that in general, most supervisors are aligned and
focused towards achieving the organisation’s common goals. If they can communicate seamlessly and
build strong credibility with multiple supervisors, they could gain immensely by being able to reach out
to more than one mentor as they grow in their careers.”
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 10 Class XII English-Core

i. Choose the most appropriate statement to complete the sentence.

Working with multiple bosses is _____.
(a) gives you different assignment to be finished in a day
(b) becoming a reality in today’s corporate world
(c) having more than one boss, working across more than one country and working with more than
one product
(d) interconnecting with a real and a virtual world

ii. What is the general consensus of opinion about having multiple bosses?

iii. Select the option that conveys the best way of dealing with the challenge of multiple bosses .
(a) don’t let egos clash and enjoy working with multiple bosses
(b) report the same thing to all the bosses
(c) answer all the questions put up satisfactorily
(d) have different expectations to satisfy all bosses

iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statement.

The way forward in today’s multiple organisation is _____.

v. Select the option that displays the benefits of multiple bosses for junior employees.
(a) They get to see different leaders and their varied styles.
(b) They encounter different perspectives and insights within the same bosses of the organisation.
(c) They get to work with different leadership styles under varied perspectives enjoyed by these leaders.
(d) They get to see different leadership styles and learn varied perspectives and insights.

vi. Give one favourable outcome for juniors for working with different leadership styles.

vii. The lessons that one gathers about the attitude of most supervisors is _____.
(a) are not aligned towards achieving the company’s goals
(b) are aligned towards achieving the company’s goals
(c) are somewhat indifferent towards achieving the company’s goals
(d) have already been aligned towards achieving the company’s goals

viii. Complete the sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.

The concluding sentence of the text makes for a clear case of _____.

ix. Complete the sentence appropriately.

If they wish to reach out and learn from more than one mentor, _____.
(a) youngsters should build a strong credibility with multiple supervisors
(b) youngsters should work a credibility among all the supervisors and bosses they meet
(c) youngsters should build a strong credibility with their bosses and not with their supervisors
(d) youngsters should build ultimate credibility about themselves

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 10 Page 5

x. State a point to challenge the given statement.

In a professional organisation it is very important that you don’t let egos clash.

III. SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely
coincidental.
1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. You are Shalini/ Shailesh, in charge of the NSS Club of St. Andrew’s School, Bhopal. Write a notice
about a charity show being organized by the club to collect articles and money for people affected by
earthquake in Uttarakhand. Write the notice in about 50 words. Include relevant details such as purpose
of the show, kind of events, tickets and show timing, etc.

O
B. As the Sports Captain of your school, write a notice in 50 words informing budding cricketers to attend
trials for Under-16 and Under-18 for final selection to the school teams. Sign off as Sunny Arora. Invent
all necessary details as required.

2. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. You are Dr. Swarupa Mitra, an eminent oncologist working at Rajiv Gandhi Cancer and Research
Institute. You have the honour of being invited as the chief guest at a public function. However, due to
sudden illness you are unable to attend the same. Draft a suitable reply in about 50 words.

O
B. You are Rohana/Rohit. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your friend’s brother. Respond to
the invitation regretting your inability to attend it. Invent necessary details and do not exceed 50 words.

3. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. You are Bhavjeet Kaur of 25/A, Defence Colony, New Delhi. You are deeply concerned about the
growing apathy of people towards eve-teasing in local buses. Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper
expressing your concern and suggesting ways in which are women can ensure their own safety. (Word
limit: 120-150)


O
B. During summer months after your exams are over, you want to utilize your time by working in a leading
chain of superstores. You are Gunjeet/ Gagan. Write an application for the post of a supervisor giving
your complete bio-data to the HR Manager, Apna Ghar, GK Part II, New Delhi. (Word limit: 120-150)

4. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. Every day you read in the newspaper about the increasing rate of crimes in Delhi. You live in Delhi and
feel really bad about it. As Chinar Gulati, write an article for your school magazine on the topic. (Word
limit: 120-150)
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 11 Page 1

Sample Paper 11
Class XII Exam 2022-23
English-Core (301)
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. 15-minute prior reading time allotted for Q-paper reading.
2. The Question Paper contains THREE sections READING, WRITING and LITERATURE.
3. Attempt question based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct question number in your
answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.

SECTION A-READING SKILLS 20

I. Read the passage given below. 10

1. Though more than seven years have passed since the E-waste (Management and Handling) Rules came
into effect in May 2012, their implementation is still iii a nascent stage, at least in Varanasi, one of the
major cities of Uttar Pradesh. In fact, the state ranks fourth among the 10 largest e-waste generating
states in the country.
2 The E-waste (Management and Handling) Rules 2011 mandate for safe disposal of electronic and
electrical wastes through private bodies. According to a UPSPCB official, it is mandatory for the
municipal corporation to provide a site to the private firm for proper disposal of e-waste. The site for this
purpose has been made available in Ram Nagar area, he said. The E-waste (Management and Handling)
Rules 2011 also suggest that it is the responsibility of the municipal corporation to ensure that e-waste,
if found to be mixed with municipal solid waste, is properly segregated, collected and channelized to
either authorized collection centre or dismantler or recycler.
3 The Research Unit of the Rajya Sabha has compiled a comprehensive report on e-waste in India.
According to the report, there are 10 states that contribute up to 70 per cent of the total e-waste generated
in the country, while 65 cities generate more than 60 per cent of the total e-waste in India. Among the
10 largest e-waste generating states, Maharashtra ranks first followed by Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh,
Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Delhi, Karnataka, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Punjab.
4 All over the world, the quantity of electrical and electronic waste generated each year, especially by
computers and televisions, has assumed alarming proportions.
5 Globally, about 20-50 MT (million tonnes) of e-wastes is disposed of each year, which accounts for
5% of all municipal solid waste. A report of the United Nations predicted that by 2020, e-waste from
old computers would jump by 400 per cent on 2007 levels in China and by 500 per cent in India.
Additionally, e-waste from discarded mobile phones would be about seven times higher than 2007 levels
and, in India, 18 times higher by 2020. Such predictions highlight the urgent need to address the problem
of e-waste in developing countries like India where the collection and management of e-waste and the
recycling process is yet to be properly regulated.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Page 2 Sample Paper 11 Class XII English-Core

6. E-waste releases many toxic substances that are serious health hazards. Unless suitable safety measures
are taken, these toxic substances can critically affect the health of employees and others in the vicinity —
who manually sort and treat the waste — by entering their body through respiratory tracts, through the
skin, or through the mucous membrane of the mouth and the digestive tract. Therefore, the health impact
of e-waste is evident. There is no doubt that it has been linked to the growing incidence of several lethal
or severely debilitating health conditions, including cancer, neurological and respiratory disorders, and
birth defects.
7. This impact is found to be worse in developing countries like India where people engaged in recycling
e-waste are mostly in the unorganized sector, living in close proximity to dumps or landfills of untreated
e-waste and working without any protection or safeguards. Many workers engaged in these recycling
operations are the urban poor and unaware of the hazards associated with them.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

i. Choose the most appropriate statement to complete the sentence.

Despite E-waste management rules coming into effect in May 2012, _____.
(a) their implementation has yet to take off, at least in Varanasi
(b) Varanasi at least has been able to take off its implementation rules
(c) their implementation is still in a ascent stage, at least in Varanasi
(d) their implementation is now out of control, at least in Varanasi

ii. According to the UPSPCB, what are the rules under which municipal bodies mandated to provide?

iii. State the responsibilities of municipal bodies after the passing of the e-waste Management Handling
Rules of 2011.

iv. Select the antonym for the word ‘generating’ in para 3 of the text.
(a) disturbing
(b) destroying
(c) disbursing
(d) deflating

v. Based on your understanding of the text, what does the comprehensive study done by the Research Unit
of the Rajya Sabha state?

vi. Some commonalities that are found all over the world is that e-waste from computers and TVs _____.
(a) have reached alarming proportions
(b) have alarming side-effects
(c) have alarmed the industry
(d) have achieved alarming attention

vii. What are the speculations about e-waste made by the U. N. in 2020.

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 11 Page 3

viii. Below are given the health hazards faced by e-waste handlers, working without proper safety measures,
with e-waste entering their bodies _____.
(a) through respiration, digestive tract. Shin of the leg and the membrane of the skin
(b) through the skin, the mouth, the digestion and through the respiratory tract
(c) through the respiratory tract, the digestive tract, the skin of the mouth
(d) through the respiratory tract, the skin, the mucous membrane of the mouth and the digestive tract
ix. Suggest why the impact of e-waste is worse in countries like India.
x. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
(a) The Bane of e-waste in India and the World
(b) India a Computer Hub or e-waste Dump
(c) The Urban Poor and e-waste
(d) Urgent Measures for e-waste Management

II. Read the passage given below. 10

1. In India, the performing arts are closely associated with every aspect of people’s lives. Dance, music and
song are associated with the occupation of people such as harvesting, sowing, fishing, grinding of grain
as also with celebrating the seasons or describing nature such as animals, birds and flowers.
2. Bihu dance, a seasonal festival celebrated by the farmers in Assam, centres around the agricultural
activity of the region. Rows of dancers move backwards and forwards showing the transplanting of
paddy and the harvesting of rice. Simple rhythms, body movements in perfect synchronisation and the
costumes add to the beauty of the dance.
3. The Wangala dance is performed by women who create formations of circles and semi-circles dancing
to rhythm which is provided on large horizontal drums played by men.
4. In the Chang Lo dance of Nagaland, men and women gather together in community tribal dances that
strengthen the bonds of relationships. The movements of the dance begin with a slow pace gradually
becoming faster to the beat of drums. The dancers create formations of circles and semi-circles, all of
them following the same steps.
5. The origin of the martial dance of Manipur is associated with the myth of creation. Most of the
practitioners of martial arts learn and perform with both spear and sword.
6. The Bhutia is a community in Sikkim having their distinct culture, religion, tradition, custom and
language. Their dance is called Shabdo, the brisk movement of feet. Their songs describe the natural
beauty of the land, holy lakes, sacred caves, serene monasteries, and rich flora and fauna.
7. Chu Faat or Lepcha dance also belongs to Sikkim. The literary meaning of Chu Faat is the worship of
snowy range. This age-old folk dance is performed in the honour of Mount Kanchenjunga, the third
highest mountain. Carrying butter lamps and green bamboo leaves, the dancers perform this dance to the
accompaniment of songs.
8. Chakri, the most popular group song form of Kashmir’s folk music, is sung to the accompaniment of the
nout (geger), ruhab, sarangi and tumbaknaer — an earthen pot with a high neck.
9. Nati is a common name given to many types of dances performed in Himachal Pradesh. During the
Dussehra festival which is very popular in Himachal Pradesh, the temple deities are taken out in
procession in Kulu with gods accompanied by dancers and musicians.
Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.
Click Here To Install
Page 4 Sample Paper 11 Class XII English-Core

10. The Bhangra dance of Punjab is performed after harvesting to celebrate the fruit of their labour and hard
work. Vigorous movements and simple acrobatics are accompanied by the drum beat.
11. In the Munda tribal dance of Jharkhand, the Munda women form a chain by linking arms around one
another’s waists and move in unison to the beat of the drums played by the Munda men.
12. In India there are three types of Chhau dances practised in Orissa, Bihar and West Bengal.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below.

i. Which of the following statements is relevant to the context?

The Indian lifestyle is contextualised around _____.
(a) dance, music and song for all seasons
(b) the occupations of people, their celebrations and their descriptions of nature
(c) the occupations during festivals and for describing their natures
(d) the occupations of dancing, singing and celebrating on every opportunity

ii. What are the different movements of Bihu dancing?

iii. Select the option that describes the movements of Wangala dance.
(a) Formation of circles within semi circles, while dancing.
(b) Formation of semi circles and then making larger circles all to the rhythm of the Wangala drum.
(c) Formation of circles and semi-circles all to the beat of large horizontal drums.
(d) Formation of horizontal lines all to the beat of circular and semi circular drums.

iv. Complete the sentence based on the following statement.

The Chang Lo dance of Nagaland is an attempt to _____.
(a) strengthen the beat of drums for forming circles and semi circles
(b) strengthen the beat of drums from a slow to fast pace to create circles
(c) bring the men and women of the community into stronger bonds of friendship
(d) bring the dances of the community to unite together

v. State how the Manipur dance differs from other dance forms of this region.

vi. State how the dances of the Lepchas and the Bhutias differ from those of the northeast of India.

vii. State one reason for the popularity of the Nati dance in Himachal Pradesh.

viii. Complete the sentence by selecting the most appropriate option.

The Bhangra dance of Punjab is performed _____.
(a) simple acrobatics and vigorous movements, to the accompaniment of drum beats
(b) simple vigorous movements to the accompaniment of vigorous drum beats and acrobatics
(c) simple acrobaticas, vigorous drum beating and movments
(d) simple drum beats, simple dance steps and simple acrobatics

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install
Class XII English-Core Sample Paper 11 Page 5

ix. The subject matter of the passage indicates _____.

(a) the varieties of dances in India
(b) dance as a medium of friendship and celebration
(c) dance as a way of bonding, celebrating harvests and praising the bounties of nature
(d) dance and music as a way to express human feelings

x. State a point to challenge the following statement.

Linking their arms is a common feature in several forms of Indian dancing.

III. SECTION B- CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 20

All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely
coincidental.
1. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5
A. You are, Aditi Mohan, School Prefect. Draft a notice for the noticeboard about a trekking holiday that
your school is organising, giving all necessary details in about 50 words and asking the interested
students to give their names.


O
B. You are Niti Singhal, studying at Bright Future High School, Mysuru and an active member of the
school sports club. Recently, your school had organized an Inter-School Cricket Championship. After
the final match was over, you found an unclaimed cricket kit on your school playground and have been
asked to draft a notice to locate its owner.

2. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. You are David/Disha, the Secretary of the English Literary and Cultural Society of St. Joseph’s Academy,
Agra. You have to organize an Inter-zonal extempore competition at the +2 level. You wish to invite Dr.
Hansa Bhogle, an eminent educationist, to preside over the function to be held on 15 October at 9:30
a.m. at Govt. Model Sr. Sec. School, Agra. Draft an invitation in about 50 words requesting her to come
and grace the occasion.


O
B. Your friend Antriksh is staying in the school hostel. You wish to invite him at your house for Diwali
celebration. Invite him in not more than 50 words. Invent necessary details.

3. Attempt ANY ONE from A and B given below. 5

A. You are Srikhant, living at 7C-189, Ist floor, Ramjas Colony, Muzzafarpur. Write a letter to the Editor of
a newspaper about the burden of heavy bags the young children carry to school. (120-150 words)

O
B. Draft an application for the post of an accountant in Gurukul Public School that was advertised in the
Times of India. Also, include your biodata. You are Anil/Anita. (120-150 words)

Install NODIA App to See the Solutions.

Click Here To Install