Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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AP Human Geography
1. Demography is
A) the study of the relationship between government and population. B) the study of population.
C) the study of population growth. D) the mapping of population characteristics.
E) none of the above
2. Arithmetic density is
A) the number of people per unit of measurement.
B) the number of farmers per square mile of all available land.
C) the number of people per square mile of arable land.
D) the number of farmers per square mile of arable land.
E) the number of people per square mile of inhabitable land.
3. Which of the following countries has the lowest arithmetic density?
A) Brazil. B) United States. C) United Kingdom. D) Canada. E) India.
4. Physiological density is
A) the number of people per square mile of all available land.
B) the number of farmers per square mile of all available land.
C) the number of people per square mile of arable land.
D) the number of farmers per square mile of arable land.
E) the number of people per square mile of inhabitable land.
5. The part of Earth’s surface that is physically suitable for permanent human settlement is known as
A) the ecumene. B) the ecosystem. C) the ecosphere. D) the biosphere. E) the biosystem.
6. The four major population clusters in the world include all of the following regions except
A) South America.
B) South Asia.
C) East Asia.
D) Southeast Asia.
E) Europe.
Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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7. Reasons why women in the United States are having fewer children than 50 years
ago include all of the following except
A) women are getting married later in life.
B) women are becoming more educated.
C) women are more likely to enter the work-force.
D) women have poorer diets.
E) women are more likely to use contraceptives.
8. Since 1950, this part of the developing world has seen a dramatic increase
in population.
A) Urban areas.
B) Rural areas.
C) Non-industrial areas.
D) Areas away from coasts.
E) Agricultural areas.
9. What region of North America is most densely populated?
A) West Coast.
B) Northeast.
C) Pacific Northwest.
D) Upper Midwest.
E) Southeast.
10. Carrying capacity is the
A) limit at which population can be sustained through its resources and trade.
B) maximum number of people an area can support using the theoretical limits of energy production.
C) maximum number of people an area can support using organic agricultural methods and technology.
D) maximum number of people an area can support using all of its available resources and technology.
E) maximum number of people an area can support using traditional agricultural methods.
11. Which statement about overpopulation is true?
A) Overpopulation is unlikely because food production potential is unlimited.
B) Overpopulation occurs when an area’s population is greater than its carrying capacity.
C) Overpopulation can only occur in less-developed areas.
D) Overpopulation is achieved when the physiological density reaches more than 1,000/km.
Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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12. Under what circumstances could high birth rates pose a challenge for a country?
A) If a country’s economy grows at a slower rate than the Crude Birth Rate (CBR).
B) If a country is unable to provide adequate health care for its citizens.
C) If a country’s natural resources are depleted in an unsustainable manner.
D) If a country’s population structure resembles a pyramid.
E) All of the above.
Use the population pyramids below to answer the questions 13-16. The male population is represented by the lines
on the left side of each pyramid. The female population is represented by the lines on the right side of each pyramid.
13. Which population pyramid shows a population that is slowly growing?
A) Pyramid “A”. B) Pyramid “B”. C) Pyramid “C”. D) Pyramid “D”. E.) Pyramid “E”.
14. Which population pyramid shows a population whose working age population is declining?
A) Pyramid “A”. B) Pyramid “B”. C) Pyramid “C”. D) Pyramid “D”. E) Pyramid “E”.
15. Which population pyramid best reflects a less developed country?
A) Pyramid “A”. B) Pyramid “B”. C) Pyramid “C”. D) Pyramid “D”. E) Pyramid “E”.
16. Which population pyramid best reflects a stage 4 country?
A) Pyramid “A”.
B) Pyramid “B”.
C) Pyramid “C”.
D) Pyramid “D”.
E) Pyramid “E”.
17. This is the measurement that shows the average number of people in an area’s population who are not
economically productive (under 15 over 64 in age), who must be supported by the area’s economically productive
population.
A) Employment Ratio. B) Dependency Ratio. C) Industrial Production Ratio. D) Productive Class Ratio.
E) Jobless Ratio.
Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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18. Historically, the world’s population grew
A) very steadily from 1000 CE until the present.
B) slowly until about 1800 CE, before growing quickly between 1800 CE and the present.
C) quickly until about 1800 CE, before slowing down between 1800 CE and the present.
D) slowly until about 1000 CE, before growing quickly between 1000 CE and the present.
E) quickly until about 1000 CE, before declining between 1800 CE and the present.
19. The total change in population of a country’s population is represented by which of the following equations?
A) Total Population Change = Number of Births – Number of Deaths + Number of Immigrants – Number of
Emigrants.
B) Total Population Change = Number of Births – Number of Deaths + Number of Emigrants – Number of
Immigrants.
C) Total Population Change = Number of Births + Number of Deaths – Number of Immigrants + Number of
Emigrants.
D) Total Population Change = Number of Births + Number of Immigrants.
E) Total Population Change = Number of Deaths – Number of Emigrants.
20. A country’s Total Fertility Rate is
A) the average number of children a woman can expect to give birth to during her lifetime.
B) the number of children who are born and survive past their first birthday.
C) the average number of children who are born and survive for a week.
D) the total number of children born per 1,000 population.
E) a theoretical maximum number of children a woman can bear.
21. A country’s Crude Birth Rate (CBR) is
A) the average number of children a woman can expect to give birth to during her lifetime.
B) the number of children who are born and survive past their first birthday.
C) the average number of children who are born and survive for a week.
D) the total number of children born per 1,000 population.
E) a theoretical maximum number of children a woman can bear.
22. Poland’s total fertility rate is 1.2. What impact will this have on Poland’s population?
A) Poland’s population is steadily increasing.
B) Poland’s population is quickly increasing.
C) Poland has reached zero population growth.
D) Poland’s population is decreasing.
E) Poland’s population has a doubling time of about 23 years.
Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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23. A country’s Crude Death Rate (CDR) is
A) the total number of people who die in any given year.
B) the total number of elderly people who die in any given year.
C) the total number of children who are born and die within the first year.
D) the total number of people who die in a given year, excluding infants.
E) the total number of people who die per 1,000 population.
24. The major reason for high growth rates in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) is
A) most people in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) do not have access to birth control.
B) the total fertility rate in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) is nearing 7 children born per woman.
C) people in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) have lower incidence of fatal diseases than people in More
Developed Countries (MDCs).
D) the birth rate in Least Developed Countries (LDCs) has increased dramatically over the past 50 years.
E) advanced medical practices and drugs have dramatically reduced death rates in Least Developed
Countries (LDCs).
25. Thomas Malthus believed that
A) the government should encourage population growth in order to fully staff the factories being built during the
Industrial Age.
B) the world would soon be overpopulated because population grows at an exponential rate while the food
supply increases at an arithmetic rate.
C) the world would find new sources of food production to offset population growth.
D) population increase will continue because many religions discourage the use of contraceptives.
E) all of the above.
26. Life expectancy is
A) the average number of years a person will live at birth.
B) the number of years a person will live.
C) the average number of years a person will live according to their genetic makeup.
D) the number of years a person could theoretically live.
E) the average number of years a person is expected to live.
Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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Use the diagram of the Demographic Transition Model (DTM) below to answer questions 27-30.
27. Which of the following statements about the Demographic Transition Model is TRUE?
A) Line A represents Total Population, Line B represents Birth Rate, Line C represents Death Rate.
B.) Line A represents Total Population, Line B represents Death Rate, Line C represents Birth Rate.
C) Line A represents Death Rate, Line B represents Birth Rate, Line C represents Total Population.
D) Line A represents Birth Rate, Line B represents Total Population, Line C represents Death Rate.
E) Line A represents Birth Rate, Line B represents Death Rate, Line C represents Total population
28. What does the shaded area on the diagram represent?
A) Emigration.
B) Population decrease.
C) Population stability.
D) Population doubling time.
E) Natural increase.
29. Into which stage of the demographic transition model would Mexico currently fit?
A) Stage 1. B) Stage 2. C) Stage 3. D) Stage 4. E) Stage 5.
30. Into which stage of the demographic transition model would Sweden currently fit?
A) Stage 1. B) Stage 2. C) Stage 3. D) Stage 4. E) Stage 5.
31. An example of an anti-natalist population program is
A) China’s One Child Policy.
B) Singapore’s Population and Family Planning Board.
Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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C) India’s sterilization programs.
D) Iran’s programs to encourage small families.
E) All of the above.
32. Reasons why governments promote anti-natalist population policies include
A) controlling the high population growth of a country.
B) preserving the culture of the country.
C) efforts to make women second-class citizens.
D) efforts to stimulate the economy of the area.
E) all of the above.
33. Pro-natalism is
A) a governmental policy that discourages its population to have more children.
B) a government policy that encourages its population to have more children.
C) a government policy that encourages growth through migration.
D) a government policy that encourages zero population growth.
E) none of the above Unit II Population and Migration 19
34. Reasons the government would create pro-natalist population policies include
A) preserving their country’s culture. B) lowering the dependency ratio of the country.
C) insuring that the country has an adequate future workforce.
D) all of the above.
35. The type of migration in which a person chooses to migrate is called
A) chain migration. B) step migration. C) forced migration.
D) voluntary migration. E. channelized migration.
36. According to Ravenstein’s Laws of Migration, which group is most likely to move?
A) Older adults. B) Young adults. C) Children. D) Families. E) All of the above.
37. According to Ravenstein’s Laws of Migration, long distance migrants tend to settle
A) in rural farming areas. B) in the United States. C) in large cities.
D) in small towns. E) all of the above.
38. Migration from a location is called
A) immigration. B) voluntary migration. C) emigration.
D) step migration. E) chain migration.
39. Migration to a location is called
Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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A) immigration. B) voluntary migration. C) mobility. D) emigration E) migration.
40. Reasons why a person feels compelled to leave his or her home area is called
A) push factors. B) pull factors. C) place utility factors.
D) economic indicator factors. E) none of the above.
41. Reasons why a migrant is attracted to a specific destination is called
A) push factors. B) pull factors. C) place utility factors.
D) economic indicator factors. E) none of the above.
42. All of the following would be considered pull factors except
A) religious tolerance in a migrant’s chosen destination.
B) a stable government in a migrant’s chosen destination.
C) acceptance towards immigrants in a migrant’s chosen destination.
D) religious persecution in a migrant’s chosen destination.
E) plentiful jobs in a migrant’s chosen destination.
43. Over the past 30 years, the number of undocumented immigrants in the United States
A) has increased because of the demand for menial laborers in the United States has grown.
B) has increased because of more relaxed border security since September 11, 2001.
C) has decreased because of greater border security.
D) has decreased because of poor economic conditions in the United States.
E) A and B only.
44. The largest source of international immigrants to the United States is from
A) China. B) India. C) Canada. D) Mexico. E) Russia.
45. The process of migrants moving to a specific location because relatives or members of the same culture have
already migrated and settled there is known as
A) channelized migration. B) undocumented migration. C) step migration.
D) chain migration. E) none of the above
46. Over a period of years, a person moves from his farm to a small town, from his small town to a small city, and
finally from the small city to a large city. This is an example of
A) chain migration. B) step migration. C) forced migration.
D) voluntary migration. E) channelized migration
47. A physical landscape feature or political policy that hinders migration is
A) a migratory barrier. B) a natural barrier. C) an intervening opportunity.
D) an intervening obstacle. E) none of the above.
Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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48. Which of the following was an example of forced migration?
A) Spanish migration to the Western Hemisphere.
B) Chinese traders’ migration to Southeast Asia.
C) India-Pakistan migration after gaining independence.
D) Trans-Atlantic Slave Trade.
E) Settlement of the western frontier in the United States.
49. The difference between a migrant and a refugee is
A) migrants seek to move permanently; refugees usually seek to return to their home.
B) migrants move to improve their lives; refugees move as a result of catastrophic events in their homeland.
C) migrants carefully plan their move; refugees have to move on a moment’s notice.
D) migrants are usually young and single; refugees are people of all ages.
E) all of the above.
50. Which statement regarding interregional migration in the United States is most accurate?
A) People are migrating from the East Coast and West Coast to the Southeast and the West.
B) People are migrating from the West and Midwest to the East Coast and the South.
C) People are migrating from the East and South to the West and the Midwest.
D) People are migrating from the Northeast and the Midwest to the West and the South.
E) People are migrating from the Midwest and West to the East Coast and the South.
51. All of the following are examples of a “Brain Drain” except
A) migration of Russian scientists after the fall of the Soviet Union.
B) migration of German aerospace experts following World War II.
C) migration of Cuban doctors after the rise of Fidel Castro.
D) migration of Mexican farmers to the United States.
E) graduate students from Least Developed Countries (LDCs) who choose to stay in the U.S. after graduation.
52. In developed countries, guest worker programs
A) are used because native workers cost too much to hire.
B) recruit workers from less developed countries to fill a need for unskilled labor.
C) encourage the diversification of culture in a country.
D) often have negative consequences to a country’s birth rate.
E) all of the above.
Unit II Test (Population & Migration) Name:
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53. Which of the following is an example of counter-urbanization?
A) Rural to urban migration. B) Urban to rural migration. C) Suburban to urban migration.
D) Urban to suburban migration. E) Rural to suburban migration.
54. Undocumented immigrants
A) are migrants who circumvent the process to enter the destination
country illegally.
B) are migrants who enter a country through guest worker programs.
C) are international migrants who move to a new country, but do not become citizens.
D) are always from Mexico.
E) all of the above.
FRQ Pick 2 of the 3 FRQ's to answer. Completely answer each question to the best of your ability. (Take time
to make an outline so that your responses flow and are awesome! - Mr. Line)
1. Population growth rates vary around the world. Given this fact, answer the following:
A) Define Crude Birth Rate (CBR), Crude Death Rate (CDR), Total Fertility Rate (TFR), and Natural Increase Rate
(NIR).
B) Explain why population growth rates vary between countries with different levels of development.
C) Name one developing country that has a population growth rate comparable to the industrialized world’s rates
and explain how that country has accomplished this.
2. The Demographic Transition Model (DTM) helps explain why population is increasing at different rates in
various parts of the world.
A) Describe in detail how and why a country transitions from Stage I to Stage IV.
B) Some demographers argue for a Stage V. What characterizes Stage V, and what countries and/or regions are now
in this stage? Why are they in this new stage?
3. Define chain migration.
A) Give two examples with regard to the impact chain migration has had on urban areas of the United States.
B) Give two examples with regard to the impact chain migration has had on rural areas of the United States.
