PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)

POLITY
CHAPTER-1: BASICS OF POLITY AND SALIENT FEATURES OF CONSTITUTION

1. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent 5. With reference to the Union Government, consider
Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over? the following statements: [UPSC 2021]
(a) C. Rajagopalachari [UPSC 2024] 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested
that a minister and a secretary be designated
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar solely for pursuing the subject of administrative
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari reform and promoting it.
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha 2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was
constituted on the recommendation of the
2. Which one of following statements best reflects Chief Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and
this was placed under Prime Minister’s charge.
purpose of the 'Constitution' of country? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
necessary laws. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a
government. 6. Which of following best defines term “State”?
(a) Community of persons permanently occupying a
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
definite territory independent of external control
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social and possessing organized government.
security [UPSC 2023] (b) Politically organized people of definite territory
and possessing an authority to govern them,
3. Consider the following statements in respect of the maintain law and order, protect their natural
rights and safeguard means of sustenance.
Constitution Day:
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a
Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on definite territory for a very long time with their
26th November every year to promote constitutional own culture, tradition and govt. [UPSC 2021]
values among citizens. (d) A society permanently living in a definite with a
Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the central authority, an executive responsible to the
Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting central authority and an independent judiciary.
Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R.
7. Which of following in Indian polity is feature that
Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. indicates that it is federal in character? [UPSC 2021]
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the (a) Independence of judiciary is safeguarded
above statements? [UPSC 2023] (b) Union Legislature has elected representatives
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct from constituent units
and Statement-II is correct explanation for (c) Union cabinet can have elected representatives
Statement-I from regional parties
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and (d) Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of
Law
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I . 8 Which of the following factors constitutes the best
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
incorrect (a) A committed judiciary
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (b) Centralization of powers
correct (c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers [UPSC 2021]
4. Constitutional government means [UPSC 2021]
9. In the context of India, which one of the following is the
(a) A representative government of a nation with a characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
federal structure (a) Agency for widening the scope of parliamentary
(b) A government whose Head enjoys nominal democracy [UPSC 2020]
powers (b) Agency for strengthening structure of federalism
(c) A government whose Head enjoys real powers (c) Agency for facilitating political stability and
economic growth
(d) A government limited by terms of Constitution (d) Agency for the implementation of public policy
Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 1
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
10. Other than Fundamental Rights, which of following 18. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls
parts of Constitution of India reflects principles and into activity [UPSC 2017]
provisions of Universal Declaration of Human Rights (a) Intelligence and character of ordinary men and
1. Preamble [UPSC 2020] women.
2. Directive Principles of State Policy (b) Methods for strengthening executive leadership.
3. Fundamental Duties (c) A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) A band of dedicated party workers.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 19. The main advantage of parliamentary form of
government is that [UPSC 2017]
11. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the (a) Executive & legislature work independently.
ideal of a Welfare State? [UPSC 2020]
(b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights (c) Executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(c) Preamble (d) Head of the government cannot be changed
(d) Seventh Schedule without election

12. Parliamentary System of Government is one in which 20. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian
(a) All political parties in the Parliament are federalism? [UPSC 2017]
represented in the Government [UPSC 2020] (a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Government is responsible to the Parliament and (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the
can be removed by it. Centre and the States.
(c) Government is elected by the people and can be (c) The federating units have been given unequal
removed by them representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot (d) It is the result of an agreement among the
be removed by it before completion of a fixed term federating units.

13. A constitutional government by definition is a: 21. Out of the following statements, choose the one that
(a) Government by legislature brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form
(b) Popular government of Government: [UPSC 2017]
(c) Multi-party government (a) An arrangement for minimizing criticism against the
(d) Limited Government [UPSC 2020] Government whose responsibilities are complex and
hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
14. In context of polity, which one of following would you (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of
accept as most appropriate definition of liberty? the Government whose responsibilities is
(a) Protection against tyranny of political rulers increasing day by day.
(b) Absence of restraint [UPSC 2019] (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes ensuring collective responsibility of Government to
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head
15. Which one of the following reflects the nicest, of the Government whose hold over the people is
appropriate relationship in law and liberty? in a state of decline.
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty. 22. There is Parliamentary System of Government in
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by people. India because the [UPSC 2015]
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
danger. [UPSC 2018] (b) Parliament can amend the constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
16. One of the implications of equality in society is the (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok
absence of: [UPSC 2017] Sabha
(a) Privileges (b) Restraints 23. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional
(c) Competition (d) Ideology Government is one which? [UPSC 2014]
1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty
17. Which one of following statements is correct? in the interest of State Authority
(a) Rights are claims of State against citizens. 2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the State in interest of individual liberty
the Constitution of a State. [UPSC 2017] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
many.

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 2
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
CHAPTER-2 : HISTORICAL UNDERPINNINGS

1. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, 3. In the Federation established by The Government of
consider the following statements: [UPSC 2024] India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India (a) Federal Legislature [UPSC 2018]
Federation based on the union of the British (b) Governor General
Indian Provinces, and Princely States. (c) Provincial Legislature
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the (d) Provincial Governors
control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. In the context of Indian history, the principle of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only `Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to [UPSC 2017]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Division of tcentral legislature into two houses.
(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central
2. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions and State governments.
of Provincial Government were divided into (c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and
“Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the another in Delhi.
following were treated as “Reserved” subjects? (d) Division of the subjects delegated to the
1. Administration of Justice [UPSC 2022] provinces into two categories
2. Local Self- Government
3. Land Revenue 5. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
4. Police (a) the separation of power between the judiciary
Select correct answer using code given below: and the legislature
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial
(b) 2, 3 and 4 governments
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India
(d) 1, 2 and 4 and the Viceroy
(d) None of the above [UPSC 2015]

CHAPTER-3: PREAMBLE

1. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 3. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is
26th January, 1950? [UPSC 2021] reflected in which of the following? [UPSC 2017]
(a) A Democratic Republic (a) The Preamble
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic (b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic (d) The Fundamental Duties
Republic
4. Which one of the following objectives is not
2. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of
(a) A part of Constitution but has no legal effect India? [UPSC 2017]
(b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal (a) Liberty of thought
effect either (b) Economic liberty
(c) Part of the Constitution and has the same legal (c) Liberty of expression
effect as any other part (d) Liberty of belief
(d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
independently of other parts [UPSC 2020]

CHAPTER-4 : CITIZENSHIP

1. With reference to India, consider the following Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
statements: [UPSC 2021] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
2. Citizen by birth only can become Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be
deprived of it under any circumstances.

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 3
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
CHAPTER-5 : FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

1. Under which of the following Articles of the 6. A legislation which confers on the executive or
Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of administrative authority an unguided and
India places the Right to Privacy? [UPSC 2024] uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 16 application of law violates which one of the following
Articles of the Constitution of India? [UPSC 2021]
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 21
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 28
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 44
2. A writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the
Supreme Court or High Courts to: [UPSC 2024] 7. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of
(a) A government officer prohibiting him from the constitution of India? [UPSC 2021]
taking a particular action. (a) Article 15 (b) Article 19
(b) The Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a (c) Article 21 (d) Article 29
law on Prohibition.
(c) The lower court prohibiting continuation of 8. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat
proceedings in a case. Ratna and Padma Awards. [UPSC 2021]
(d) The Government prohibiting it from following 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under
an unconstitutional policy. Article 18(1) of Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year
1954, were suspended only once.
3. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2023] 3. Number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in max of 5 in a particular year.
some judgments that the reservation policies made Which of the above statements are not correct?
under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of 9. With regards to India, consider following statements:
India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the custody of the concerned magistrate and such
above statements? accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 2. During judicial custody, police officer in charge
and Statement-II is correct explanation for of case is not allowed to interrogate suspect
Statement-I without the approval of the court. [UPSC 2021]
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Statement-1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect 10. With reference to India, consider the following:
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case,
correct parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because
it becomes a matter of his/her right.
4. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners
India, consider following statements: [UPSC 2022] Release on Parole Rules. [UPSC 2021]
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private Which of the statements given above is/are correct? .
organization unless it is entrusted with a public (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
duty. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even
though it may be a Government Company. 11. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to Rights incorporated against untouchability as a form of
move the Court to obtain writ of Quo Warranto. discrimination? [UPSC 2020]
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Right against Exploitation
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) Right to Freedom
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to Equality
5. What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
(a) Legal right available to citizens only 12. Which Article of Indian Constitution safeguards one’s
(b) Legal right available to any person [UPSC 2021] right to marry person of one’s choice? [UPSC 2019]
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only (a) Article 19 (b) Article 21
(d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right (c) Article 25 (d) Article 29

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 4
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
13. Which are regarded as main features of Rule of Law Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Limitation of powers (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. Equality before law (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. People’s responsibility to Government
4. Liberty and civil rights [UPSC 2018] 16. Right to vote & to be elected in India is [UPSC 2017]
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) Fundamental Right (b) Natural Right
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) Constitutional Right( d) Legal Right
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17. In India, Judicial Review implies [UPSC 2017]
14. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to (a) Power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the
Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply (b) Power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of
the above statement? [UPSC 2018] the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd (c) Power of the Judiciary to review all the
Amendment to the Constitution legislative enactments before they are assented to
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of state by the President.
Policy in Part IV. (d) Power of Judiciary to review its own judgements
(c) Article 21 and freedom guaranteed in part III given earlier in similar or different cases.
(d) Article 24 and provisions under the 44th
Amendment to the constitution. 18. In the context of India, which one of the following is
the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
15. Which of following are envisaged by Right against (a) Rights are correlative with Duties. [UPSC 2017]
Exploitation? [UPSC 2017] (b) Rights are personal and hence independent of
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced society and Duties.
labour (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for
2. Abolition of untouchability advancement of personality of citizen.
3. Protection of the interests of minorities (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability
4. Prohibition of employment of children in of the State
factories and mines

CHAPTER-6 : DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY

1. Under Indian constitution concentration of wealth 4. With reference to the provisions contained in part IV
violates [UPSC 2021] of Constitution of India, Which of following
(a) The Right to Equality statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2020]
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy 1. They shall be enforceable by courts
(c) The Right to Freedom 2. They shall not be enforceable by any courts
(d) The Concept of Welfare 3. Principles laid down in this part are to influence
making of laws by the state.
2. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is Select the correct answer using the given code below-
enjoined by [UPSC 2020] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Preamble of the Constitution (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(b) Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) Seventh Schedule 5. With reference to the Constitution of India, the
(d) Conventional practice Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
limitations upon: [UPSC 2017]
3. Consider following Statements regarding Directive 1. Legislative function.
Principles of State Policy: [UPSC 2015] 2. Executive function.
1. The principles spell out the socio-economic Which of the above statements is/are correct?
democracy in the country (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Provisions contained in these Principles are not (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
enforceable by any court.
Which of given statements are correct? 6. The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Constitution is enshrined in its [UPSC 2015]
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 5
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
CHAPTER-7 : FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES

1. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? [UPSC 2017]
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties [UPSC 2015]

CHAPTER-8 : CENTRE STATE RELATIONS

1. Which one of the following statements is correct as per Select correct answer using the code given below:
the Constitution of India? [UPSC 2024] (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under 3. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor
the State List. should be an eminent person from outside the State and
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under should be a detached figure without intense political
the Union List. links or should not have taken part in politics in the
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the recent past? [UPSC 2019]
State List. (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission(1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
2. North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the (d) National Commission to Review the Working
amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council of the Constitution (2000)
comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. 3 Members to be nominated by the President
4. The Home Minister of India [UPSC 2024]

CHAPTER-9: EMERGENCY

1. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2023] 2. If President exercises his power as provided under
1. According to Constitution of India, Central Govt has Article 356 in respect of particular state, then
a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. (a) Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved
2. Constitution of India exempts States from (b) Powers of the Legislature of that State shall be
providing legal counsel to person held for exercisable by or under authority of Parliament
preventive detention. (c) Article 19 is suspended in the state [UPSC 2018]
3. According to Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, (d) President can make laws relating to that State
confession of accused before police cannot be
used as evidence. 3. Which of following are not necessarily the
How many of the above statements are correct? consequences of the proclamation of the President’s
(a) Only one rule in a State? [UPSC 2017]
(b) Only two
(c) All three
1. Dissolution of State Legislative Assembly
(d) None 2. Removal of Council of Ministers in State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 6
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2and 3

CHAPTER-10: PRESIDENT AND GOVERNOR

1. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2023]

1. If the election of the President of India is 3. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2018]
declared void by Supreme Court of India, all acts 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted
done by him/her in the performance of duties of against Governor in any court during his term of
his/her office of President before the date of office.
decision become invalid. 2. Emoluments and allowances of Governor shall
2. Elections for post of President of India can be not be diminished during his office.
postponed on ground that some Legislative Which of statements given above is/are correct?
Assemblies have been dissolved and elections (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
are yet to take place. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. When Bill is presented to President Constitution
prescribes time in which he has to give assent. 4. With regard to election of President, consider
How many of the above statements are correct? following: [UPSC 2018]
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
1. Value of vote of each MLA varies from state to
state.
2. Consider following in respect of election of 2. The value of vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is
President: [UPSC 2023] more than the value of the vote of MPs of the
1. Members nominated to either House of Rajya Sabha.
Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of Which of statements given above is/are correct?
States are also eligible to be included in the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Electoral College. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats,
higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that 5. What are discretionary powers of Governor
State. 1. Sending report to President to impose President’s
3. Value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh rule
is greater than that of Kerala. 2. Appointing the Ministers: [UPSC 2014]
4. Value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State
higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because Legislature for consideration of the President
ratio of total population to total number of 4. Making rules to conduct the business of State Govt
elective seats in Puducherry is greater than that Select correct answer using code given below.
of Arunachal Pradesh. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
How many of above statements are correct? (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four

CHAPTER-11: PARLIAMENT AND STATE LEGISLATURE

1. How many Delimitation Commissions have been 4. Amendment to a Money Bill suggested by the
constituted by the Government of India till December Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok
2023? [UPSC 2024] Sabha.
(a) One (b) Two Select correct answer using the code given below:
(c) Three (d) Four
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Which of the following statements are correct in (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
respect of Money Bill in Parliament? [UPSC 2024]
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in 3. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari
respect of Money Bills. Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: [UPSC 2024]
1. Provisions will come into effect with 18th Lok
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the
Sabha.
Council of States. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or Act.
suggest changes but cannot reject it. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats
for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota
reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 7
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
Which of the statements given above are correct? (b) 1 and 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
4. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, 8. With reference to Finance and Money Bill in Indian
consider the following statements: [UPSC 2024] Parliament, consider following: [UPSC 2023]
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to
of the Lok Sabha is under consideration the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
1. He/She shall not preside. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the can only make recommendations.
resolution in the first instance. 3. In case of disagreement between Lok Sabha and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Bill, but it becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
5. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider (c) All three (d) None
the following statements: [UPSC 2024]
9. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2022]
1. Prorogation of House by President does not
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee,
require advice of Council of Ministers. the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. Prorogation of House is generally done after 2. Constitution of India empowers Supreme Court and
House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
to President prorogating a House in session.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the and Criminal Contempt.
President of India who, save in exceptional 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers
circumstances, does so on the advice of the to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Council of Ministers. Which statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
10. Which of following are exclusive power(s) of Lok
Sabha? [UPSC 2022]
6. With reference to Union Budget, consider the 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency:
following statements: [UPSC 2024] 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the
1. Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Council of Ministers
Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement 3. To impeach the President of India
before both the Houses of Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. At Union level, no demand for a grant can be (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
made except on recommendation of President. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 11. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha,
consider the following statements: [UPSC 2022]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy
7. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker
following statements: [UPSC 2024]
may fix.
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election
dissolution. of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in shall be from either the principal opposition party
the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of or the ruling party.
the Lok Sabha. 3. Deputy Speaker has same power as of Speaker
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India when presiding over House and no appeal lies
notified his/her intention to summon the against his rulings.
Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the 4. Well established parliamentary practice for
dissolution of the Lok Sabha. appointment of Deputy Speaker is that motion is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? moved by Speaker and duly seconded by PM.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 8
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
(a) 1 and 3 only 2. According to the representation of people act,
(b) 1, 2 and 3 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence
(c) 3 and 4 only and sentenced to imprisonment for at least five
(d) 2 and 4 only years is permanently disqualified from contesting
an election even after his release from prison.
12. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
British model, but how does our model differ from (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
that model? [UPSC 2021] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is
supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of 17. With reference to funds under Members of Parliament
the parliament to legislate is limited. Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which
2. In India, matters related to constitutionality of of the following statements are correct? [UPSC 2020]
Amendment of an Act of Parliament are referred 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable
to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. assets like physical infrastructure for health,
Select the correct answer using the code given below. education, etc.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis
13. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2021] and the unused funds cannot be carried forward
to the next year.
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10%
from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from
of all works under implementation every year.
three constituencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. As per existing rules, if a candidate contests in
one Lok Sabha election from many
18. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2020]
constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost
1. President of India can summon a session of the
of bye-elections to constituencies vacated by him
Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
in event of him winning in all the constituencies.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not
Question cancelled by UPSC
mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
(a) 1 only
3. There is no minimum number of days that the
(b) 2 only
Parliament is required to meet in a year.
(c) 1 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
14. Along with Budget, Finance Minister also places
other documents before Parliament which include
19. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2019]
‘Macro Economic Framework Statement’. Aforesaid
1. Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act,
document is presented because this is mandated by]
1959 exempts several posts from disqualification
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention
on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of Constitution
2. Above- mentioned Act was amended five times.
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
3. ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in Constitution.
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Budget Management Act, 2003 [UPSC 2020
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
(a) matter of creating new All India Services
20. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State
(b) amending the Constitution
in India, consider the following statements:
(c) the removal of the government
1. The Governor makes a customary address to
(d) making cut motions [UPSC 2020]
Members of the House at the commencement of
the first session of the year. [UPSC 2019]
16. Consider the following statements [UPSC 2020]
2. When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule
1. According to Constitution of India, A person
who eligible to vote can be made a minister in a on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha
state for six months even if he/she is not a rule on that matter.
member of the legislature of that state Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 9
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
(a) 1 only 3. Supplementary questions [UPSC 2017]
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2018] 26. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2017]
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the
vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the
member of the Assembly. votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, 2. According to the provisions laid down in the
the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately. Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
22. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2018] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in
the opposition was the Swatantra Party. 27. For Lok Sabha election, nomination paper can be
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” filed by
was recognised for the first time in 1969. (a) Anyone residing in India. [UPSC 2017]
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a (b) A resident of the constituency from which the
minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be election is to be contested.
recognised as the Leader of the Opposition. (c) Any citizen of India whose name is in electoral
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? roll of constituency
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (d) Any citizen of India.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
28. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
23. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its
statements is not correct? [UPSC 2018] prorogation. [UPSC 2016]
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be money bill if it 2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not
contains only provisions related to imposition, been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on
abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
any tax. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the Consolidated Fund of India or the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with appropriation of 29. Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on
moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. any item in the State List in the national interest if a
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of resolution to that effect is passes by the [UPSC 2016]
borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee (a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of total membership
by the government of India (b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-
thirds of its total membership
24. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the (c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total
following statements: [UPSC 2017] membership
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-
Member of Parliament who is not elected but thirds of its members present and voting
only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been 30. Consider following statements: [UPSC 2015]
passed in the Parliament of India for the first 1. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to
time in its history. amend a Money Bill
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on Demands for Grants.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Rajya Sabha cannot discuss Annual Financial
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement.
Which statements given above is/are correct?
25. The Parliament of India exercises control over the (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
functions of the Council of Ministers through (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 10
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
31. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the (a) 1 and 2 only
Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) A simple majority of member present and voting (c) 2 only
(b) 3/4 majority of member present and voting (d) 1, 2, and 3
(c) Two-thirds majority of the House 34. Consider the following statements regarding a No-
(d) Absolute majority of the House [UPSC 2015] Confidence Motion in India: [UPSC 2014]
32. Consider following statements: [UPSC 2015] 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion
1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be in the Constitution of India.
larger in size than half of the Legislative 2. A Motion of No- Confidence can be introduced
Assembly of that particular state. in the Lok Sabha only.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman Which of statements given above is/are correct?
of the Legislative Council of that particular state. (a) 1 only
Which statements given above is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 35. Consider following statements: [UPSC 2014]
1. The President shall make rules for the more
33. With reference to the Union Government consider the convenient transaction of the business of the
following statements. [UPSC 2015] Government of India, and for the allocation
1. Deptt of Revenue is responsible for preparation among Ministers of the said business.
of Union Budget that is presented to Parliament 2. All executive actions of the Government of India
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the
Consolidated Fund of India without the Prime Minister.
authorization of Parliament of India. Which of statements given above is/are correct?
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account (a) 1 only
also need the Authorization from the Parliament (b) 2 only
of India (c) Both 1 and 2
Which statements given above is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

CHAPTER-12 : PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEES

1. Which of the following statements about the Ethics (c) 3, 4 and

Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? (d) 2 and 5
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a 3. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of
complaint relating to unethical conduct of a the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes
member of the Lok Sabha. and reports to the house whether the powers to make
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred
which is sub-judice. [UPSC 2024] by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament
are being properly exercised by the Executive within
Select correct answer using the code given below:
the scope of such delegation? [UPSC 2018]
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Rules Committee
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Business Advisory Committee

2. In India, which of the following review the 4. Which one of the following is the largest Committee
independent regulators in sectors like of Parliament? [UPSC 2014]
telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? (a) The Committee on Public Accounts
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament (b) The Committee on Estimates
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing (c) Committee on Public Undertakings
Committees (d) The Committee on Petitions
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms
Commission
5. NITI Aayog [UPSC 2019]
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 11
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)

CHAPTER-13 : JUDICIARY

1. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law' mean? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law 6. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2019]
(c) Fair application of law 1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme
(d) Equality before law [UPSC 2023] Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker
2. With reference to India, consider the following of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry)
statements: [UPSC 2022] Act, 1968.
1. Government law officers and legal firms are 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives
recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and
and patent attorneys are excluded from proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the
recognition as advocates. Supreme Court of India.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down rules 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the
relating to legal education and recognition of Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given
law colleges. in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only taken up for voting, the law requires the motion
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 to be backed by each House of Parliament and
supported by a majority of total membership of
3. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the that House and by not less than two-thirds of
following statements. [UPSC 2021] total members of that House present and voting.
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of (a) 1 and 2
India with prior permission of the President. (b) 3 only
2. A High court in India has the power to review its (c) 3 and 4 only
own judgement as the Supreme Court does. (d) 1, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 7. With reference to the Constitution of India,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in
ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or
4. India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal limitations on the constitutional powers under Article
services to which of the following type of citizens? 142. It could mean which one of the following?
1. Person with an annual income of less than (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission
Rs1,00,000 of India while discharging its duties cannot be
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than challenged in any court of law. [UPSC 2019]
Rs 2,00,000 (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with the exercise of its powers by laws made by the
an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000 Parliament.
4. All Senior Citizens [UPSC 2020] (c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the
Select correct answer using the code given below: country, the President of India can declare a
(a) 1 and 2 only Financial Emergency without the counsel from
(b) 3 and 4 only the Cabinet.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain
(d) 1 and 4 only matters without the concurrence of the Union
Legislature.
5. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2020]
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic 8. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider
structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, the following statements: [UPSC 2019]
fundamental rights and democracy. 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial declare any central law to be constitutionally
review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to invalid.
preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India
based. cannot be called into question by the Supreme
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Court of India.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 12
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) The Supreme Court of India

9. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which 11. The power to increase the number of judges in the
of following statements is/are correct? Supreme Court of India is vested in: [UPSC 2014]
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only (a) The President of India
civil cases and not criminal cases (b) The Parliament
2. The Act allows local social activists as (c) The Chief Justice of India
mediators/reconciliators (d) The Law Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: [UPSC 2016] 12. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only disputes between the Centre and the States falls
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 under its [UPSC 2014]
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
10. Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the (b) Appellate jurisdiction.
Constitution of India? [UPSC 2015] (c) Original jurisdiction
(a) The President of India (d) Writ jurisdiction
(b) The Prime Minister of India

CHAPTER-14 : AMENDMENT PROCEDURE

1. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the 3. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2022]
Parliament may amend any provision of the 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior
Constitution by way of: [UPSC 2024] recommendation of the President of India.
1. Addition 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is
2. Variation presented to the President of India, it is
3. Repeal obligatory for the President of India to give
Select correct answer using the code given below: his/her assent.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a
special majority and there is no provision for
2. In India, which one of following Constitutional joint sitting.
Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to Which of the statements given above are correct?
overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Rights? [UPSC 2023] (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1st Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment (d) 86th Amendment

CHAPTER-15 : CENTRAL COUNCIL OF MINISTERS

1. Consider following statements: [UPSC 2022]

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with
Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15
percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

CHAPTER-16: ANTI DEFECTION LAW

1. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: [UPSC 2022]
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being
appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time- frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 13
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
CHAPTER-17: PANCHAYATI RAJ

1. Local self-government can be best explained as 3. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to
exercise in [UPSC 2017] ensure which among following? [UPSC 2015]
(a) Federalism 1. People’s participation in development
(b) Democratic decentralisation 2. Political accountability
(c) Administrative delegation 3. Democratic decentralization
(d) Direct democracy 4. Financial mobilization
Select correct answer using given code
2. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2016] (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
1. Min age prescribed for being a member of (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature
dissolution continues only for the remainder
period.
Which of given statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

CHAPTER-18 : ATTORNEY GENERAL

1. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2022]

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are
allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the
Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

CHAPTER-19 : SCHEDULES OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION

1. Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends

the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include 3. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider
which of the following languages? [UPSC 2024] the following statements: [UPSC 2023]
1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 1. Within a State, notification of an area as Scheduled
3. Nepali 4. Maithili Area takes place through an Order of the President.
Select correct answer using the code given below: 2. The largest administrative unit forming the
schedule area is the district and the lowest is the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
cluster of villages in the Block
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
3. CM of the concerned states are required to submit
annual reports to the union home ministry on the
2. Which of the following statements are correct about administration of schedule areas in the states.
the Constitution of India? [UPSC 2024] How many of the above statements are correct?
1. Powers of Municipalities are given in Part IX (a) Only one (b) Only two
A. (c) All three (d) None
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII.
3. Provisions related to amendment of 4. If a particular area is brought under 5th Schedule of the
Constitution of India, which of the following statements
Constitution are in Part XX.
best reflects the consequence of it? [UPSC 2022]
Select the answer using the code given below: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal
(a) 1 and 2 only people to non-tribal people.
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) This would create a local self-governing body in
(c) 1 and 3 only that area.
(c) This would convert that area into UT.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 14
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a 2. The validity of a law passed in the Ninth
Special Category State. Schedule cannot be examined by any court and
no judgment can be made on it.
5. Under which Schedule of Constitution of India can Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
be declared null and void? [UPSC 2019] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Third Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule (d) Twelfth Schedule
8. Provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule
6. Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of in the Constitution of India are made in order to:
India during the prime ministership of [UPSC 2019] (a) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) Determine the boundaries between states
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) Morarji Desai (c) Determine the powers, authorities, and
responsibilities of Panchayats [UPSC 2015]
7. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2018] (d) Protect the interests of all the border States
1. Parliament of India can place a particular law in
the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
CHAPTER-20 : MAJOR AMENDMENTS

1. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2019] 2. Which principle among the following was added to the
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd
India introduced an article placing the election Amendment to the Constitution? [UPSC 2017]
of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and
2. Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th women
amendment to the Constitution of India as being (b) Participation of workers in the management of
violative of the independence of the judiciary industries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 work to workers

CHAPTER-21 : CONSTITUTIONAL AND NON CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES

1. Consider following organizations/bodies in India: 3. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2017]
1. National Commission for Backward Classes 1. Election Commission is a 5 member body.
2. National Human Rights Commission 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the
3. National Law Commission election schedule for the conduct of both general
4. National Consumer Disputes Redressal elections and bye- elections.
Commission [UPSC 2023] 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes
How many of the above constitutional bodies? relating to splits/mergers of recognised political
(a) Only one parties.
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Only three (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(d) All four (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

2. Consider the following: [UPSC 2023] 4. With Reference to Fourteenth Finance Commission,
1. Demographic performance which of the following statements is/are correct?
2. Forest and ecology 1. It has increased the share of States in the central
3. Governance reforms divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent
4. Stable government 2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-
5. Tax and fiscal efforts specific grants. [UPSC 2015]
For horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Commission used how many of the above as criteria (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
other than population area and income distance? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only two
(b) Only three 5. Govt of India has established NITI Aayog to replace
(c) Only four (a) Human Rights Commission
(d) All five (b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission [UPSC 2015]

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 15
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
CHAPTER-22 : MISCELLANEOUS

1. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2024] 5. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise
1. It is the Government of the State who Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct? [UPSC 2024]
recognizes and declares any community of that 1. This was a joint military exercise between
State as a Scheduled Tribe. India and Bangladesh.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
a State need not to be so in another State. 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? operations was a goal of this operation.
(a) 1 only 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
(b) 2 only Select correct answer using the code given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) Neither 2 nor 2 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

2. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff 6. Who of the following is the author of the books “The
(CDS) as Head of the Department of Military India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?
Affairs? [UPSC 2024] (a) Bhupendra Yadav
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff (b) Nalin Mehta
Committee. (c) Shashi Tharoor
2. Exercise military command over the three (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar [UPSC 2024]
Service Chiefs.
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister 7. Consider the following pairs: [UPSC 2024]
on all tri-service matters. Country Reason for being in the news
Select correct answer using the code given below. 1. Argentina Worst economic crisis
(a) 1, 2 and 3 2. Sudan War between the country’s
(b) 1 and 2 only regular and paramilitary forces
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Turkey Rescinded NATO membership
(d) 1 and 3 only How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
3. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs
of the local population in remote areas to include
addressing of their basic needs is called: 8. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2024]
(a) Operation Sankalp Statement-I: There is instability and worsening
(b) Operation Maitri security situation in the Sahel region.
(c) Operation Sadbhavana Statement-II: There have been military
(d) Operation Madad [UPSC 2024] takeovers/coups detat in several countries of the
Sahel region in the recent past.
4. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in Which one of the following is correct in respect of
terms of equivalent rank in the three services of the above statements?
Indian Defence forces? [UPSC 2024] (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Army Airforce Navy and Statement-II explains Statement-I
1. Brigadier Air Commodore Commander (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct,
2. Major Air Vice Marshal Vice Admiral but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
General
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
3. Major Squadron Leader Lieutenant incorrect
Commander
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
4. Lieutenant Group Captain Captain
correct
Colonel
Select correct answer using the code given below.
9. With reference to Home Guards, consider following
(a) 1 and 4 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards
(b) 1 and 3 Act and Rules of Central Govt. [UPSC 2023]
(c) 2, 3 and 4 2. The role of Home Guards is to serve as an
(d) 3 only auxiliary force to police in maintenance of
internal security.

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 16
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
3. To prevent infiltration on international border/ Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height
coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards (width) of Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
Battalions have been raised in some States.
the above statements? [UPSC 2023]
How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(a) Only one and Statement-II is correct explanation for
(b) Only two Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(c) All three
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
(d) None for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
10. With regards to India consider following [UPSC2023] incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
Action Act
correct
1 Unauthorised wearing of Official Secrets
police or military uniforms Act, 1923 13. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s
2 Knowingly misleading of The Indian Organization (CCO)? [UPSC 2022]
1. CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in
otherwise interfering with Evidence Act, Government of India.
police or military officer 1872 2. It monitors progress of development of Captive
when engaged in duties Coal/ Lignite blocks.
3 Celebratory gunfire which can Arms 3. It hears any objection to Govt’s notification
relating to acquisition of coal- bearing areas.
endanger personal safety of (Amendment) 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver
others Act, 2019 coal to end users in prescribed time.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Select correct answer using code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only one
(b) 3 and 4
(b) Only two (c) 1 and 2
(c) All three (d) 1,2 and 4
(d) None of the above
14. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the
following statements: [UPSC 2022]
11. Consider the following statements: 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State 2. It is a regulatory body attached to Ministry of
Govts with their own rules and regulations for day- Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. Its Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
to-day administration of prisons. 4. It has overseas offices at Dubai & Moscow.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by Which of statements given above are correct?
Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject (a) 1 and 3
of prisons in control of Provincial Govts (b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
Which one of the following is correct in respect of (d) 1 and 4
the above statements? [UPSC 2023]
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and 15. At national level, which ministry is nodal agency to
Statement-II is correct explanation for Statement-I ensure implementation of Scheduled Tribes & Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Rights) Act, 2006? [UPSC 2021]
Statement-II is not correct explanation for (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic
StatementI change.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
incorrect (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
16. One common agreement between Gandhism and
12. Consider following statements in respect of National Marxism is [UPSC 2020]
Flag of India According to Flag Code of India, 2002 (a) The final goal of a stateless society
(b) Class struggle
Statement-I: One of the standard size of the
(c) Abolition of private property
National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. (d) Economic determinism

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 17
 PRELIMS PYQs - (Indian Polity)
17. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2016] 19. Which of the following is/are the function/functions
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by of the Cabinet Secretariat? [UPSC 2014]
the Governor of that State. 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
Which of statements given above is/are correct? 3. Allocation of financial resources to Ministries
(a) 1 only Select correct answer using code given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
18. Consider the following statements: [UPSC 2015]
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is
vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman
of the Civil Services Board.
Which of statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

____________________________

Content made from Every word of Previous Year Paper | www.sunyaias.com | 8279688595 Page. 18