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 PHUNG HUNG HIGH SCHOOL
ENGLISH 12 – THE SECOND SEMESTER

Họ và tên học sinh: ....................................

Lớp : ....................................

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 PHUNG HUNG HIGH SCHOOL
ENGLISH 12 – THE SECOND SEMESTER

UNIT 9: DESERTS

I. Vocabulary
No. New word Phonetic Meaning
description
Stretch (n) (v) [stret∫]
Acacia (n) [ə'kei∫ə]
aerial (a) ['eəriəl]
Antelope (n) /ˈæntɪloʊp/
cactus (n) /ˈkæktəs/
Camel (n) /ˈkæml/
colony (n) ['kɔləni]
crest (n) [krest]:
dune (n) [dju:n]
expedition (n) [,ekspi'di∫n]
Gazell (n) [gə'zel]
Hummock (n) ['hʌmək]
jackal (n) ['dʒỉkɔ:l]
Rainfall (n) /ˈreɪnfɔːl/
slope (n) [sloup]
Spinifex (n)
tableland (n) /ˈteɪbllænd/
explore (v) [iks'plɔ:]
branch (n) /bræntʃ/
lead (v) [li:d]
Route (n) [ru:t]
grass (n), (v) /ɡræs/
corridor (n) ['kɔridɔ:]
enormous (a) [i'nɔ:məs]
interpreter (n) [in'tə:pritə]
horse (n) [hɔ:s]
crocodile (n) ['krɔkədail]
Lizard (n) ['lizəd]
firewood (n) /ˈfaɪərwʊd/
needle (n)
Cut down

II. Vocabulary exercise:

III. Vocabulary exercise:
1. ________ Sahara of ________ Africa is the world's largest desert.
A. Ø / the B. The / Ø C. A / an D. The / an
2. The Sahara contains complex linear dunes that are ________ by almost 6 kilometers.
A. developed B. separated C. lay D. located
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3. A _______ is a landscape or region that receives very little precipitation.

A. dune B. desert C. sandy area D. shrubland
4. Deserts are often composed of ________ and rocky surfaces.
A. water B. trees C. oil D. sand
5. Three great stretches of sandy deserts almost circle the center of Australia.
A. dunes B. valleys C. lands D. areas
6. Deserts are also classified by their ________ location and dominant weather pattern.
A. geographical B. aerial C. sandy D. facial
7. Thanks to pictures taken by satellites, deserts have not ________ a mystery in our time.
A. hidden B. intended C. remained D. attained
8. Can you make a ________ estimate of how much our expedition in the desert may be?
A. rough B. roughly C. roughing D. roughen
9. Several ________ advanced countries have had plans to make the desert more hospitable.
A. science B. scientific C. scientifically D. scientist
10. In the northern part of the Simpson Desert, the dunes are separated by ________ of low, open
shrubland.
A. streets B. ways C. corridors D. lines
11. A ________ is a small raised area of ground, like a very small hill.
A. slope B. hummock C. dune D. shrub
12. We used to climb up the crest of the hill to get a good view of the surroundings.
A. top B. foot C. middle D. face
13. Scientific ________ help to explore some places and discover more and more remote parts of the
world.
A. survey B. lead C. research D. expedition
14. The wind that blows in the desert comes ________ far away waters.
A. for B. with C. in D. from
15. Some sand dunes may be over 200 meters ________ height.
A. with B. at C. on D. in
IV. Grammar:
CONNECTORS MEANINGS FORMS POSITIONS
vì vậy (biểu thị Clause 1, so + clause 2
SO kết quả tác động
(Tom was too angry, so he left without
của vế thứ nhất) Liên từ này đứng
saying anything)
trước vế thứ 2 trong
nhưng (biểu thị ý 1 câu ghép.
Clause 1, but + clause 2
BUT nghĩa trái ngược
(I tried my best to pass the exam, but I
với vế thứ nhất)
still failed)
- Liên từ này đứng
Sentence 1. Therefore, sentence 2 đầu 1 câu, ngăn
vì vậy (biểu thị
cách với vế câu đi
kết quả của hành Clause 1; therefore, clause 2.
THEREFORE He didn’t study hard. Therefore, he sau bằng dấu phẩy.
động trong câu
failed the exam. - Ngoài ra, nó có thể
trước đó)
He didn’t study hard; therefore, he là từ nối giữa 2 vế
failed the exam. câu trong 1 câu
HOWEVER tuy nhiên (biểu phức. Trong trường
thị ý nghĩa trái Sentence 1. However, sentence 2 hợp này, nó sẽ đi
ngược với ý Clause 1; However, clause 2. sau dấu chấm phẩy
nghĩa trước đó) và đứng trước dấu
Studying E is not easy. However, it is phẩy.
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beneficial.
Studying E is not easy; however, it is
beneficial.
V. Grammar exercise
1) You should keep the milk in the refrigerator_____________ it doesn’t go bad.
A. since B. so that C. because D. after
2) You should say goodbye to your brother _____________ you leave for Europe.
A. despite B. after C. since D. before
3) The class discussion was short;_____________, we gained some knowledge from it.
A. however B. moreover C. although D. therefore
4) The undergone is cheap;_____________, it’s faster than the train.
A. however B. moreover C. but D. so
5) _____________ you study harder, you won’t win the scholarship.
A. Unless B. Because C. If D. In order that
6) The countryside air is fresh,________________, it’s not polluted.
A. however B. whenever C. moreover D. beside
7) ________________ she spoke slowly, I don’t understand her.
A. Since B. Although C. If D. As
8) We will wait her ____________ he comes back.
A. while B. until C. since D. for
9) Our teacher explained the lesson slowly ______________ we might understand him.
A. and B. so that C. if not D. or
10) _____________ it rained heavily, we went to school on time.
A. Even though B. Despite C. Because D. Though not
11) Our visit to Japan was delayed___________ my wife’s illness.
A. because B. because of C. thanks to D. although
12) __________ he goes to the theatre with me, I shall go alone.
A. because of B. because C. unless D. when
13) He tries his best to work hard ______________ help her family get over the difficulties.
A. so as that B. in order that C. in order to D. so as not to
14) We moved to the front row _____________ we could hear and see better.
A. so as that B. because C. although D. so that
15) I made a mistake ____________ I was tired after the work.
A. though B. so that C. because D. if
16) Minh had a terrible headache. __________________, he still wanted to go to school.
A. Therefore B. But C. However D. Although
17) My sister will take the plane to Singapore______________ she dislikes flying.
A. because B. so that C. therefore D. though
18) My car broke down on the way.____________, when I got the airport, the plane had taken off.
A. Because B. However C. Therefore D. Although
19) His mother was sick._________________, Jane had to stay at home to look after her.
A. But B. However C. So D. Therefore
20) They asked me to wait for them; ____________, they didn’t turn back.
A. but B. however C. so D. therefore
21) Many people still believe him very much __________ he sometimes tells lies.
A. because B. since C. although D. despite
22) They were walking on the street _________ there was an accident.
A. when B. while C. because D. so that
23) __________ the darkness in the room, we couldn’t continue our studying.
A. because of B. since C. although D. in spite of
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24) Mary tries to study as hard as possible ___________ she can get the scholarship to study in
England.
A. in order to B. so that C. because D. because of
25) She stopped at the post office ___________ she could send the letter to her parents.
A. although B. so as to C. in order that D. despite
26) He didn’t wear warm clothes __________________ the cold weather in winter.
A. because B. although C. because of D. in spite of
27) What had you done ____________ I phoned you?
A. as soon as B. by the time C. after D. while
28) Tom couldn’t get a job _____________ he couldn’t speak English well.
A. because B. although C. because of D. in spite of
29) _____________ he knew the danger of smoking, he couldn’t give it up.
A. Since B. Though C. Because of D. Despite
30) He knew the danger of smoking;______________, he couldn’t give it up.
A. therefore B. but C. however D. although
31) ____________ their poverty in their family, they live happily together everyday.
A. as B. though C. because D. despite
32) He didn’t drink beer _______________ he was really thirsty.
A. in spite of B. even though C. because D. since
33) We will go without him ____________ he comes here on time.
A. though B. unless C. Because D. If
34) Mike went ot the bank ______________ he cashed his cheque.
A. therefore B. so that C. however D. although
35) The students finish the test well _________________ its difficulties yesterday.
A. therefore B. in spite of C. however D. although
36) She has driven a car _____________ she studied at the university.
A. as soon as B. by the time C. after D. since
37) We started out on the trip ______________ the weather was extremely hot.
A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. although
38) We should wait for her __________ we had much time.
A. though B. unless C. because D. if
39) ____________ we had much time, we shouldn’t wait for her
A. Though B. Unless C. Because D. If
40) The food didn’t look appetizing;______________, many people liked enjoying it.
A. therefore B. so that C. however D. although
41) It was already 6p.m, ______________ we closed our office and went home.
A. therefore B. but C. however D. so
42) Ok! you can take Chemistry as your major.______________, you should remember that it is
not easy to learn.
A. Therefore B. But C. However D. Although
43) John succeeded in the exam ______________ his hard and methodical work.
A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. although
44) He didn’t stop his car ___________ the traffic light turned red.
A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. although
45) She didn’t join our programme _________________ she had to take a summer course at the
college.
A. so that B.because of C. because D. although
46) She wanted to go to bed early ________________ her bad tiredness.
A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. although

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47) _________________ he had to take her mother to the hospital, he still attended our party
yesterday.
A. Because B. In spite of C. Because of D. Although
48) ______________ they had read these books, they went out.
A. As soon as B. Before C. After D. Since
49) The students couldn’t do the test ______________ its complicated problems.
A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. though
50) ______________ it got dark, they continued working.
A. Because B. In spite of C. Because of D. Even though

A. Practice test unit 9

Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
1. A. grasses B. stretches C. comprises D. potatoes
2. A. lie B. wide C. circle D. comprise
3. A. compound B. route C. house D. south
4. A. dune B. hummock C. shrub D. buffalo
5. A. west B. between C. growth D. which
B. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the
underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. ________ Sahara of ________ Africa is the world's largest desert.
A. Ø/ the B. The/ Ø C. A/ an D. The/ an
7. Deserts can be defined as areas that receive ________ average annual precipitation of less than
250 mm.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
8. The Sahara contains complex linear dunes that are ________ by almost 6 kilometers.
A. developed B. separated C. lay D. located
9. A _______ is a landscape or region that receives very little precipitation.
A. dune B. desert C. sandy area D. shrubland
10. Deserts are often composed of ________ and rocky surfaces.
A. water B. trees C. oil D. sand
11. Three great stretches of sandy deserts almost circle the center of Australia.
A. dunes B. valleys C. lands D. areas
12. Deserts are also classified by their ________ location and dominant weather pattern.
A. geographical B. aerial C. sandy D. facial
13. Thanks to pictures taken by satellites, deserts have not ________ a mystery in our time.
A. hidden B. intended C. remained D. attained
14. Deserts take ________ one-third of the Earth's land surface.
A. up B. on C. over D. after
15. The Simpson Desert was named _______ Mr. Simpson, President of the South Australian
Branch of the Royal Geographical Society of Australia.
A. with B. at C. after D. for
16. In 1953, Peveril Meigs divided desert regions ________ Earth ________ categories according
to the amount of precipitation they receiveD.
A. through/ in B. from/ with C. on/ into D. in/ for
17. More and more ________ are very excited at discovering as many interesting things in the
deserts as possible.
A. explores B. explorations C. explorers D. exploratory
18. Can you make a ________ estimate of how much our expedition in the desert may be?
A. rough B. roughly C. roughing D. roughen

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19. After Peter had returned from the Sahara desert, he was confined to bed by a ________
disease.
A. mystery B. mysterious C. mysteriously D. mysteriousness
20. I want to work as an interpreter in the future, ________, I am studying Russian at university.
A. but B. so C. however D. therefore
21. I am going shopping for food this evening ________ I do not have to go at the weekend.
A. so B. but C. however D. moreover
22. When she got the news from her family, she could not do anything, ________ cry.
A. but B. and C. so D. however
23. Mrs. Lindon has ________ that she is unable to get a job.
A. but not enough education B. so little education
C. however little education D. such little education
24. That small car, ________, is advertised in many current magazines.
A. so inexpensive and comfortable
B. however inexpensive and comfortable
C. inexpensive but comfortable
D. and inexpensive but comfortable
25. We live in the same building ________ we have hardly seen each other
A. and B. therefore C. but D. so
26. I went to buy a Rolling Stones CD ________ the shop didn't have it.
A. and B. but C. therefore D. so
27. Anna needed some money, ________, she took a part-time job.
A. furthermore B. moreover C. however D. therefore
28. Julie has a guitar ________ she plays it really well.
A. and B. so C. but D. therefore
29. My fingers were injured ________ my sister had to write the note for me.
A. and B. however C. so D. but
30. The concert was canceled ________ we went to a nightclub instead.
A. so B. however C. so on D. but
C. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
A desert is a hostile, potentially deadly environment for unprepared humans. In hot deserts, high
temperatures cause a rapid loss of water due to sweating and the absence of water sources with
which to replenish it can result in dehydration and death within a few days. In addition,
unprotected humans are also at risk of heatstroke.
Humans may also have to adapt to sandstorms in some deserts, not just in their adverse effects on
respiratory systems and eyes, but also in their potentially harmful effects on equipment such as
filters, vehicles, and communication equipment. Sandstorms can last for hours, sometimes even
days.
Despite this, some cultures have made hot deserts 'their homes for thousands of years, including
the Bedouin, Tuareg tribe, and Pueblo people. Modern technology, including advanced irrigation
systems, desalinization, and air conditioning, has made deserts much more hospitable, In the
United States and Israel for example, desert farming has found extensive use.
In cold deserts, hypothermia and frostbite are the chief hazards, as well as dehydration in the
absence of a source of heat to melt ice for drinking. Falling through pack-ice or surface ice
layers into freezing water is a particular danger requiring emergency action to prevent rapid
hypothermiA. Starvation is also a hazard; in low temperatures, the body requires much more
food energy to maintain body heat and to move. As with hot deserts, some people such as the
Inuit have adapted to the harsh conditions of cold deserts.
36. The text is about ________.
A. troubles that human beings have to face in a desert
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B. desert storms and desert inhabitants

C. hot deserts and cold deserts in the United States
D. desert hospitality and environment
37. Which is not a problem for an unprepared man in a hot desert?
A. sandstorm B. loss of water C. irrigation D. heatstroke
38. Sandstorms ________.
A. do no harm to machinery
B. have effects only on the eyes
C. never lasts more than one hour
D. have bad effects on both human beings and machinery
39. Which sentence is true?
A. No one can survive in both hot and cold deserts.
B. Modern technology makes deserts more hospitable.
C. In the United States, all deserts are quite uninhabited.
D. There are no deserts in Israel.
40. Which is not a problem in cold deserts?
A. Starvation B. Hypothermia C. Frostbite D. Body heat
D. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Desert biomes are the (41) _____ of all the biomes. In fact, the most important characteristic of a
desert is that it receives very little (42) _____. Most deserts receive less than 300 mm a year
compared (43) __ rainforests, which receive over 2,000 mm. That means that the desert only gets
10 percent of the rain that a rainforest gets! The temperature in the desert can (44) _____ drastically
from day to night because the air is. (45) _____ dry that heat escapes rapidly at night. The daytime
temperature averages 38°C (46) _____ in some deserts it can get down to -4°C at night. The
temperature also varies greatly depending on the (47) _____ of the desert.
Since desert conditions are so severe, the plants that live there need to have (48) _____ to
compensate for the lack of water. Some plants, such as cacti, (49) _____ water in their stems and
use it very slowly, while others like bushes conserve water by growing few leaves or by having
large root systems to gather water or few leaves. Some desert plant species have a short life cycle
of a few weeks that (50) _____ only during periods of rain.
41. A. coldest B. hottest C. driest D. wettest
42. A. rain B. rainfall C. raindrop D. raincoat
43. A. with B. for C. about D. in
44. A. change B. exchange C. transform D. transfer
45. A. such as B. such C. so much D. so
46. A. when B. while C. as D. because
47. A. part B. region C. area D. location
48. A. adaptations B. agreements C. accepts D. achievements
49. A. place B. put C. store D. hold
50. A. spend B. take C. last D. experience

UNIT 10: ENDANGERED SPECIES

I. Vocabulary
No. New word Phonetic Meaning
description
insect (n) /ˈɪnsekt/
become extinct /ɪkˈstɪŋkt/
=> extinct (a)
=> extinction (n)

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endangered specie
=> (be) in danger
=> endangered (a) /ɪnˈdeɪndʒərd/
globe (n) /ɡloʊb/
=> global (adj)
habitat (n) /ˈhæbɪtæt/
destroy (v) /dɪˈstrɔɪ/
drain (v) /dreɪn/
=> Drainage /ˈdreɪnɪdʒ/
rare species
urbanization (n) /ˌɜːrbənəˈzeɪʃn/
sự đô thị hóa
=> urbanize (v) /ˈɜːrbən/
đô thị hóa
=> urban (a)
construct ( v ) /kənˈstrʌkt/
xây dựng
=> construction (n)
worldwide ( adj) /ˈwɜːrldwaɪd/
toxic chemical
contaminate (v) /kənˈtæmɪneɪt/
=> contamination (n) /kənˌtæmɪˈneɪʃn/
on the verge of
=> (be) driven to the
verge of
lead to
lose (v) /luːz/
=> loss (n)
biodiversity (n) /ˌbaɪoʊdaɪˈvɜːrsəti/
benefit from /‘benifit/
conserve (v) = preserve /kənˈsɜːrv/
(v)
conservation (n) = /ˌkɑːnsərˈveɪʃn/
preservation (n)
vulnerable (adj) ['vʌlnərəbl]
be aware of (a)
=> awareness (n) /əˈwernəs/
protect s.th / s.o from
a wide range of
survive (v) – survival /sərˈvaɪv/
(n)
panda (n) /ˈpændə/
legal (a) # illegal (a) /ˈliːɡl/
biodiversity /ˌbaɪoʊdaɪˈvɜːrsəti/
overhunting

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deforestation (n) [di,fɔris'tei∫n]

enact (v) /ɪˈnækt/
II. Vocabulary exercise:

1. Birds aren’t all the same. There are many different _____.
A. categories B. species C. animals D. plants
2. The rhinoceros will become ___ if people continue to hurt them.
A. extinct B. instinct C. distinct D. extinction
3. Thousands of species of animals and plants are ____ and the number decreases each year.
A. danger B. dangerous C. endanger D. endangered
4. If one species becomes extinct, the whole chain will be ___ seriously.
A. disappeared B. killed C. damaged D. threatened
5. We depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air, and water.
A. popularity B. existence C. development D. variety
6. More than a billion people all over the world are under the threat of desert____.
A. increase B. expansion C. extension D. development
7. Biologists have introduced a global list of endangered and vulnerable animal species.
A. rare and specious B. small but invaluable
C. weak and easily hurt D. strong and unusual
8. The government have passed laws to protect wildlife from commercial trade.
A. enabled B. enforced C. enacted D. ensured
9. The government is now trying to protect gorilla to ensure their ____.
A. life B. existence C. survival D. growth
10. Everyone is worried about the ___ of the rainforests.
A. destruction B. protection C. species D. extinction
11. Without ___ all the resources necessary for life would be damaged, wasted or destroyed.
A. conversation B. biodiversity C. extinction D. destruction
12. Many people are interested in watching ___.
A. wildlife B. wilds C. wilderness D. wildly
13. This species has nearly died out because its ___ is being destroyed.
A. environment B. habitat C. land D. forest
14. The primary causes of species extinction are habitat destruction, commercial ___, and pollution.
A. exploit B. exploiting C. exploitation D. exploitative
15. Toxic chemicals in the air and land have also driven many species to the ___ of extinction.
A. border B. limit C. verge D. edge
16. It is ___ to cross the sea in a small boat.
A. danger B. endanger C. dangerous D. endangered
17. Do you think plants and animals, however small or oversized, all contribute to the ____?
A. conversation B. extinction C. destruction D. biodiversity
18. Many African and Asian nations have set aside land called ___ to protect the habitats of
elephants and other wild animals.
A. reserves B. species C. wildlife D. forest
19. Over 120 ___ of birds have been recorded in this national park.
A. species B. diversity C. animals D. individuals
20. The mountain gorilla is on the verge of ___.
A. extinct B. extraction C. extinguish D. extinction

III. Grammar:
Model Chức năng Ví dụ Chú ý
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Verbs
Diễn tả khả năng hiện tại
hoặc tương lai là một - Can và Could còn được dùng trong
You can speak Spainish. câu hỏi đề nghị, xin phép, yêu cầu.
Can người có thể làm được gì,
It can rain. Ví dụ: - Could you please wait a
hoặc một sự việc có thể
xảy ra moment?
Can I ask you a question?
Could (quá My brother could speak
Diễn tả khả năng xảy ra -Có thể dùng “be able to” thay cho
khứ của English when he was
trong quá khứ “can hoặc could”
“Can”) five.
Diễn đạt sự cần thiết, bắt
You must get up earily
buộc ở hiện tại hoặc
in the morning.
tương lai
You must be hungry
Must Đưa ra lời khuyên hoặc Mustn’t – chỉ sự cấm đoán
after work hard.
suy luận mang tính chắc
You must be here before
chắn, yêu cầu được nhấn
8 a.m
mạnh
Diễn tả sự cần thiết phải
làm gì nhưng là do kháchI have to stop smoking. Don’t have to= Don’t need to (chỉ sự
Have to
quan (nội quy, quy My doctor said that. không cần thiết)
định…)
Diễn tả điều gì có thể xảy - May và might dùng để xin phép.
May May I call her?
ra ở hiện tại Nhưng might ít được dùng trong văn
nói, chủ yếu trong câu gián tiếp:
May I turn on TV?
Might (quá I wonder if he might go there alone.
Diễn tả điều gì có thể xảy She might not be his
khứ của - Might được dùng không phải là quá
ra ở quá khứ house.
“May”) khứ của May
Where is John? I don’t know. He
may/might go out with his friends.
Diễn đạt, dự đoán sự việc Tomorrow will be
xảy ra trong tương lai sunny.
Will
Đưa ra một quyết định tại Did you buy sugar? Oh, Dùng Will hay Would trong câu đề
thời điểm nói sorry. I’ll go now. nghị, yêu cầu, lời mời
Diễn tả một giả định xảy Will you have a cup of coffee?
She was a child. She
ra hoặc dự đoán sự việc Would you like a cake?
Would would be upset when
có thể xảy ra trong quá
hear this bad news.
khứ
Dùng để xin ý kiến,lời
Where shall we eat
Shall khuyên. “Will” được sử
tonight?
dụng nhiều hơn
You should send this
Chỉ sự bắt buộc hay bổn report by 8th September.
phận nhưng ở mức độ You should call her.
Should nhẹ hơn “Must” She worked hard, she
Đưa ra lời khuyên, ý kiến should get the best
Dùng để suy đoán result.

Ought to Chỉ sự bắt buộc. Mạnh You ought not to eat

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hơn “Should” nhưng candy at night.

chưa bằng “Must”
Needn't have and didn't need to
Có 1 sự khác biệt nhỏ giữa 2 cách
dùng này. Hãy so sánh nhé:
I needn't have arrived at seven. -
Tôi đáng nhẽ không cần phải tới lúc
7h, nhưng tôi đã làm.
( I arrived at seven, but it wasn't
necessary )
You needn’t go yet, need
(1)necessity (negative & I didn't need to arrive at seven. -
Need you?
interrogative Trước đó tôi đã biết mình không
phải tới lúc 7h.
( we don't know when I arrived -
maybe seven or later )
Nhưng thông thường trong văn nói,
người ta thường dùng didn't need to
trong cả 2 trường hợp.
In a speech, have is often contracted
in the forms in this unit.

Chỉ một khả năng ở quá khứ song người nói không dám chắc.
Ví dụ: It might have rained last night, but I’m not sure.
(Có lẽ đêm qua trời mưa)
The cause of death could have been bacteria.
(Nguyên nhân của cái chết có lẽ là do vi trùng)
John might have gone to the movies yesterday.
(Có lẽ John đã tới rạp chiếu bóng ngày hôm qua)

Could + have +P2 (có lẽ đã có thể - nhưng thực tế thì không)

Ví dụ:We could have solved this problem at that time (But we couldn’t in fact)
(Lẽ ra lúc đó chúng tôi đã có thể giải quyết được vấn đề này.)

SHOULD + HAVE + P2 (lẽ ra phải, lẽ ra nên - nhưng thực tế thì

không)
Thành ngữ này tương đương với Was / were / Supposed to.

MUST HAVE P2 - Hẳn là đã

(Chỉ sự suy luận logic dựa trên những hiện tượng có thật trong
quá khứ)
Ví dụ:Paul did so well in his speech today that he could have rehearsed it many times this past week.
(Hôm nay Paul đã có lời phát biểu rất hay, hẳn là tuần qua nó đã diễn tập rất nhiều lần ).

MIGHT HAVE BEEN VERB+ ING - có lẽ lúc ấy đang

(Chỉ sự suy luận logic dựa trên những hiện tượng có thật trong
quá khứ)

Ví dụ: I didn’t hear the telephone ring, I might have been sleeping at that time.

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I didn’t watch that scene on television, I might have been paying attention to the argument.

MUST HAVE BEEN VERB+ ING - chắc hẳn lúc ấy đang

(Chỉ sự suy luận logic dựa trên những hiện tượng có thật trong
quá khứ)
Ví dụ: I didn’t hear you knock, I must have been sleeping at that time.
I didn’t see him this morning, he must have been working in the office.
IV. Grammar exercise:
1. She ___ be ill. I have just seen her playing basketball in the schoolyard.
A. needn't B. shouldn't C. mustn't D. can't
2. Hiking the trail to the peak _____ be dangerous if you are not well prepared for dramatic
weather changes. You _____ research the route a little more before you attempt the ascent.
A. might / can B. may / mustn't C. can / should D. must / needn't
3. Peter has been working for 10 hours. He _______ be very tired now.
A. needn't B. must C. has to D. should
4. He is unreliable. What he says _______ be believed.
A. cannot B. must not C. may not D. might not
5. I _______ find my own way there. You _______ wait for me.
A. should / can't B. have to / must C. can / needn't D. might / mustn't
6. I was reading the book last night before I went to bed. I never took it out of this room. It ____
be lying around here somewhere. Where ___ it be?
A. might / needn't B. can / should C. shouldn't / may D. must / can
7. When you have a small child in the house, you _______ leave small objects lying around.
Such objects _______ be swallowed, causing serious injury or even death.
A. should / must B. should not / might C. needn't / may D. mustn't / can't
8. Jenny's engagement ring was precious! It _______ have cost a fortune.
A. must B. should C. can D. needn't
9. You _____ take your umbrella along with you today. It ______rain later on this afternoon.
A. ought to / mustn't B. needn't / will C. will / must D. should / might
10. I _____be at the meeting by 10:00. I will probably _____ take a taxi if I
want to be on time.
A. must/ have to B. may / must C. should / needn't D. mustn't /
shouldn't
11. You ____ forget to pay the rent tomorrow. The landlord is very strict
about paying on time.
A. needn't B. mustn't C. do not have to D. may not
12. I am not deaf. You _______ shout.
A. must B. mustn't C. need D. needn’t
13. _______ I borrow your lighter for a minute? - Sure, no problem.
Actually, you _______ keep it if you want to.
A. May / can B. Must / might C. Will / should D. Might / needn’t
14. I do not mind at all. You _______ apologize.
A. shouldn't B. needn't C. mustn't D. oughtn't to
15. Ted's flight from Amsterdam took more than 11 hours. He _______
exhausted after such a long flight now.
A. must be B. must be being C. must have been D. should have
been
16. The lamp _______ be broken. Maybe the light bulb just burned out.
A. should not B. might not C. must not D. will not
17. It is a top-secret. You _______ tell anyone about it.
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A. mustn't B. needn't C. mightn't D. won't

18. We have plenty of time for doing the work. We _______ be hurried.
A. needn't B. shouldn't C. mustn't D. mayn't
19. Frank's wallet is lying on the coffee table. He _______ it here last night.
A. must have left B. should have left C. must be leaving D. needn't leave
20. John failed again. He _______ harder.
A. must have tried B. should have tried C. can tried D. may have tried
21. The television isn't working. It _______ during the move.
A. should have been damaged B. needn't be damaged
C. must have been damaged D. ought not be damaged
22. She spoke in a low voice, but I _______ what she was saying
A. can understand B. could understand C. were able understand D. could have
understood
23. Robert arrived without his books. He ________ it.
A. could have lost B. would have lost C. should have lost D. will have lost
24. “ where do you think Roony is today?”. “ I have no idea. He _____ late.”
A. should have left B. would sleep
C. would have sleep D. may have sleep
25. The photos are black. The X-ray at the airport ______ them
A. should have damage B. would have damage
C. would damage D. must have damage
26. The children _________ “thank you” to you when you gave them their gifts
A. will have said B. should have said
C. must say D. should say
27. Jean did very badly on the exam. She _________ harder.
A. must have studied B. could have studied C. should have studied D. must studied
28. These two boys are identical. They _________ twins.
A. must have been B. should be
C. must be D. should have been
29. Had we known your new address, we _________ to see you.
A. came B. will come C. would have come D. would come
30. My car stopped on the high way. It ______ out of gas.
A. may run B. must be C. may have run D. should have run
31. You have been reading for four hours. This book ___ be very interesting.
A. can B. might C. must D. should
32. Don’t phone Ann now. She ___ be having lunch.
A. might B. can C. must D. has to
33. This road is very narrow. It ___to be widened.
A. might B. needs C. mustn’t D. may
34. My mother permitted me to go out at night. She said, “You ___ go out tonight.”
A. may B. have to C. must D. ought to
35. He advised me to take an English course. I ___ it early.
A. should have taken B. should take C. will have taken D. may take
36. You ___ ring the bell; I have a key.
A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. couldn’t D. shouldn’t
37. The line is busy; someone ___ the telephone now.
A. must be using B. must have used C. must use D. must have been using
38. “Are you still going to Florida for vacation?” “Yes, but I really ___because I don’t have much
money.”
A. shouldn’t B. can’t C. mustn’t D. won’t
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39. “Did Peter go downtown by car or by train?” “He ___by train because his car was in the
mechanics.”
A. must go B. has to go C. had gone D. must have gone
40. “Have you seen Kate?” “No, but she ___ be at her desk.”
A. may B. ought C. would D. can
41. “Can I borrow twenty dollars?” “No, you know I ___ lend you money anymore.”
A. might not B. shouldn’t have C. won’t D. not going to
42. ___ you remember what you were doing at this time yesterday?
A. Can B. Must C. May D. Should
43. I ___ understand this letter. Will you translate it for me?
A. mustn’t B. may not C. can’t D. shouldn’t
44. Daisy s parents don t let her go to the late-night disco. She ___ be at home at 9 o’clock in the
’ ’

evening.
A. must B. may C. can D. has to
45. ___ you give me some advice about the language course?
A. Have B. Should C. May D. Could
’
46. Why didn t you give me a call yesterday? We ___ discuss everything together.
A. can B. may C. must D. could
47. Yesterday I ___ finish work because I was very tired.
A. could B. can’t C. couldn’t D. mustn’t
48. Sit down, please. ___ a cup of tea?
A. Do you like B. Do you like to drink C. Would you like D. Will you like
49. Sorry, I ___ stay any longer. I really must go home.
A. mustn’t B. can not C. couldn’t D. may not
’
50. “It ___rain this evening. Why don t you take an umbrella?”
“That’s a good idea. May I borrow yours?”
A. had better B. could be C. must D. might

V. Practice test unit 10

A. PHONETICS
1-5. Pick out the word whose underlined and bold part is pronounced differently from that of
the other words.

1. A. clothes B. gone C. drove D. ghost

2. A. hear B. dear C. pear D. clear

3. A. turn B. burn C. curtain D. bury

4. A. took B. book C. shoe D. would

5. A. achieve B. chemist C. riches D. watch

6 - 10. Pick out the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words.

6. A. money B. receive C. borrow D. Service

7. A. golden B. Science C. rocket D. attain

8. A. provide B. account C. pocket D. protect

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9. A. endangered B. survival C. commercial D. industry

10. A. wildlife B. awareness C. global D. measure

B. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE

11 - 25. Choose the best answer among A, B, c or D that best completes the sentence.
11. They …. satisfaction from their work recently.
A. gain B. get C. derive D. All are correct
12. The panda’s …. habitat is the bamboo forest.
A. nature B. natural C. naturally D. natured
13. A leopard cannot change its ……
A. spots B. marks C. dots D. labels
14. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a vulnerable ………
A. opportunity B. situation C. position D. B and C
15. The wetlands are ……. to a large variety of wildlife.
A. land B. accommodation C. house D. home
16. The …….bird catches the worm.
A. first B. prior C. early D. initial
17. Industry in Britain has been…… decline since the 1970s.
A. in B. at C. on D. for
18. The town …….. a decline after the mine closed.
A. dropped at B. dropped into C. fell at D. fell into
19. They have plenty of time, so they needn’t ……..
A. be hurry B. to hurry C. hurry D. to be hurried
20. You’re having a sore throat. You’d better …… to the doctor.
A. to go B. went C. go D. going
21. I would rather ……. poor but happy than become rich without happiness.
A being B. be C. to be D. was
22. Sit down, please……. a cup of tea?
A. Do you like B. Do you like to drink
C. Would you like D. Will you like
23. “Must you come when your neighbor calls?” “No, I ……..
A. must not B. must
C. don’t have to D. must not come
24. May I have two tickets, please?...... two tickets,-please?
A. You must give me B. You have got to give me
C. Could I have D. You may give me
25. He will have to stay in hospital. That’s what he …….
A has done B. must do
C. must be doing D. must have done
26 - 30. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.

26. They believe in protecting endangered animals and they protect them from controversial ways.
A B C D
27. Biologists still have not real idea how many species of living things exist on Earth.
A B C D
28. I have lost one of my gloves, I must have been dropped it somewhere.
A B C D
29. In the year coming, all the trees in this forest will disappear if nothing is done to protect them.
A B C D
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30. The employer are regretted having to dismiss several of his staff.
A B C D
31-35. Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D w hích has the same meaning as the
given one.
31. ‘I’m grateful to you for looking my children so well.”
A. Thank you very much that you looked after my children so well.
B. Thank you very much because you looked after my children so well.
C. Thank you very much for having looked after my children so well.
D. Thank' you very much about having looked after my children so well.
32. “Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter.
A. Peter suggested that John had better complain to the company.
B. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company.
C. Peter suggested that John had to complain to the company.
D. Peter suggested John to complain to the company.
33. The little boy wasn’t able to reach that picture.
A. The little boy couldn’t reach that picture.
B. The little boy couldn’t have reached that picture.
C. The little boy wouldn’t be able to reach that picture.
D. The little boy didn’t try to reach that picture.
34. I am sure you didn’t lock the door because here’s the key.
A. You couldn’t lock the door because here’s the key.
B. You haven’t been able to lock the door because here’s the key.
C. You can’t have locked the door because here’s the key.
D. You weren’t able to lock the door because here’s the key.
35. The match was canceled because of the heavy rain.
A. If it didn’t rain, the match wouldn’t be canceled.
B. The match was canceled because it rained heavily.
C. Despite the heavy rain, the match was canceled.
D. If it hadn’t been for the heavy rain, the match wouldn’t have been canceled.
C. READING
36 - 45. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the
following passage:
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (36)…... Many species of
animals are threatened, and could easily become (37)…. if we do not make an effort to (38)…..
them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are (39)….. for their fur or for other
valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught (40)…. , and sold as pets. For
many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitats - the place where they live - is (41)…...
More (42)…. is used for farms, for houses and industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there
once were. Farmers use powerful Chemicals to help them grow better (43)…. , but these Chemicals
pollute the environment and (44)… wildlife. The most successful animals on Earth, human beings,
will soon be the only ones (45)….. unless we can solve this problem.

36. A. danger B. threat C. problem D. vanishing

37. A. disappeared B. vanished C. empty D. extinct
38. A. harm B. defend C. protect D. serve
39. A. hunted B. chased C. game D. extinct
40. A. lively B. alive C. for life D. for living
41. A. exhausting B. departing C. escaping D. disappearing
42. A. earth B. soil C. land D. area
43. A. Products B. fields C. herbs D. crops
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44. A. spoil B. harm C. wound D. wrong

45. A. left B. over C. staying D. survived
46 - 50. Choose the item among A, B, C or D that best answers the question about the
passage:

Yong Liang, two years old, is the first giant panda raised from birth in the zoo. Last month zoo
keepers found the panda was suffering from serious anemia, calling for urgent blood transfusion.
The best way, according to the zoo’s experts, to save Yong Liang from anemia would have been to
transfuse blood from another panda. But it was the breeding season for giant pandas, making such a
transfusion very difficult.
But the experts found that there exists close consanguinity, relationship by birth in the same family,
between giant pandas and back bears, so they decided to try to take blood from black bears in the
zoo and transfuse it to Yong Liang.
With the help of hospitals and the Beijing Blood Donor Station, they made an experiment which
proved that the red blood cells in the blood of black bears can be used.
On the afternoon of February 15th, the first red blood cell transfusion was given to the giant panda,
from 600 ml of black bear blood. Immediately the young panda started to recover.

46. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Giant pandas and black bears are of the same race.
B. The transfusion was based on scientific research and experiments.
C. After the transfusion, the young panda began to regain health.
D. The two-year-old panda was probably born in the Beijing Zoo.
47. They decided to try another way to save the panda because ……
A. it was difficult to find other pandas
B. the blood of pandas was too expensive
C. it was the breeding season for the panda, Yong Liang
D. other pandas were producing young at that time
48. The word “transfusion” would probably mean …….
A. changing blood in the body
B. giving some of the blood
C. adding an amount of blood to the body
D. All are correct
49. Anemia is a disease caused by the shortage of ……..
A. red blood cells B. blood
C. white blood cells D. food
50. The best title of the article should be ……..
A. Prying Giant Pandas
B. Yong Liang - A Giant Panda
C. Bear Blood Saved Panda
D. A Successful Transfusion
UNIT 11: BOOKS
I. Vocabulary
No. New word Phonetic Meaning
description
swallow (v) ['swɔlou]
chew (v) /t∫u:/
taste (v) /teist/
digest (v) /dai‘dƷest/
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dip into
in a word = in brief = in sum
(be) on holiday
belong to
advice (n) /ədˈvaɪs/
=> advise (v)
hard-to-put-down
hard-to-pick-up-again
pleasure (n) /‘pleƷə/
=> please (v) /pli:z/
=> pleased (adj)
science fiction
romance (n) /rəυ‘mæns/
=> romantic (adj)
wilderness (n) /‘wildənəs/
personality (n) /ˌpɜːrsə
ˈnæləti/
On the subject of reading
Than ever before
A wonderful source of
II. Vocabulary exercise:
1. Reviewers often ___ books as “hard to put down” or “hard to pick up again”.
A. describe B. illustrate C. classify D. choose
2. Have you got any books on business methods or any similar ___?
A. subject B. content C. author D. matter
3. How are the books in this library___?
A. divided B. named C. gathered D. classified
’
4. Robert s new book will be ___ in August.
A. typed B. published C. broadcast D. announced
5. I’m reading Stephen King’s novel. It’s really exciting and I couldn’t ___.
A. get it off B. put it down C. take it on D. look it up
6. Children tend to read ___ books that tell stories through pictures.
A. novel B. fiction C. science D. comic
7. What kind of readers would you ___ this book?
A. advise B. introduce C. recommend D. persuade
8. Watching videos is becoming a popular form of ___.
A. entertain B. entertainment C. entertainer D. entertaining
9. After talking to Mary for ten minutes, George paused, waiting for her to ___the information.
A. taste B. chew C. swallow D. digest
10. Mr. Johnson was so busy that he only had enough time to ___ the report before he attended the
meeting.
A. dip into B. review C. go over D. pick up
11. The book ___ me of the days I was in the army.
A. remembers B. reminds C. recalls D. recollects
12. Most novels are divided into several___.
A. chapters B. units C. sections D. passages
13. Cambridge University Press is the ___ of the book you are reading.
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A. author B. editor C. printer D. publisher

14. Ernest Hemingway is one of my ___ American writers.
A. best B. favorite C. ideal D. most popular
’ ’
15. I d like to ___ that book when you ve read it.
A. borrow B. hire C. lend D. loan
’
16. The plot of the novel was exciting, but I didn t find the ___ very interesting.
A. characters B. figures C. people D. persons
’
17. The dictionary is too expensive for me. I can t ___ it.
A. spend B. cost C. afford D. pay
’
18. ___ books tell stories from the author s imagination.
A. Fiction B. Picture C. Coloured D. Long
19. If you can’t find what you are looking for in the book, use the ___.
A. index B. list C. preface D. directory
20. He’s a ___ boy. He knows everything from books never gives any logical and practical solutions.
A. bookworm B. bookish C. bookbinder D. book-keeper

III. Grammar
* Present / Future Modals:
Active Passive
will / will not (won’t) will / will not (won’t)
can / can not (can’t) can / can not (can’t)
may / may not may / may not
might / might not might / might not
should / should not (shouldn’t) should / should not (shouldn’t)
ought to + ought to + be + V3 /
V1 V-ed
must / must not (mustn’t) must / must not (mustn’t)
need / need not (needn’t) need / need not (needn’t)
could / could not (couldn’t) could / could not (couldn’t)
would / would not (wouldn’t) would / would not (wouldn’t)
have / has to have / has to
Ex: Mary will invite Tom to the party. Tom will be invited to the party by Mary.
Thuy can’t cook this dish. This dish can’t be cooked by Thuy.
* Past Modals :
Modal + have been + V3 / V-ed

Active Passive
will / will not will / will not
can / can not can / can not
may / may not may / may not
might / might not might / might not
should / should not should / should not
ought to have + ought to have been + V3 /
V3/V-ed V-ed
must / must not must / must not
need / nedd not need / nedd not
could / could not could / could not
would / would not would / would not
have / has to have / has to
Ex: The secretary should have typed this report yesterday.
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This report should have been typed by the secretary yesterday.

IV. Practice test unit 11
I. Pronunciation:
Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. book B. good C. wood D. school
2. A. digest B. wilderness C. reunite D. describe
3. A. chew B. few C. nephew D. continue
4. A. swallow B. sweater C. sword D. switch
5.A. incredible B. fascinating C. difficult D. carefully
II. Language focus:
A.Choose the one word or phrase -a, b, c, or d- that best complete the sentences:
6. It was such a great book that I couldn’t put it……
A. on B. off C. out D. down
7. She’s busy writing a book…….astrology.
A. in B. of C. on D. for
8. The novel was set……a small village in France.
A. in B. on C. off D. by
9. Books that give facts about real events, things, or people are called……..
A.novel B. biography C. romance D. non- fiction
10. Fiction is a type of literature that describes………people and events.
A. imaginary B. real C. historic D. important
11. A……….novelist, she wrote more than forty books.
A. famous B. popular C. prolific D. neglected
12. …….knowledge can be acquired from books, skills must be learned through practice.
A. Whereas B. Whereof C. Whereby D. Wherefore
13. I have only had time to……….the report before going to the meeting.
A. taste B. dip into C. chew D. swallow
14. Have you read the book by Nelson Mandela,……Long Way to Freedom?
A. reviewed B. revised C. illustrated D. entitled
15. if you want to learn how to operate, you should read its……..
A. reference book B. guidebook C. instruction manual D. craft book
16. Nellie Ross of Wyoming was the first woman_____ governor in the United States.
A. was elected B. who elected C. to be elected D. to elect as
17. A driver’s license can………from the Licensing Bureau at the corner of Pine Street and 5 th
Avenue.
A. obtain B. be obtaining C. have obtained D. be obtained
18. Since the 1930’s chemical insecticides such as D.D.T……..very effective in destroying disease-
carrying insects.
A. proved B. was proved C. has proved D. have proved
19. I shouldn’t………..so much coffee last night. I was wide awake until four in the morning.
A. drink B. drank C. be drunk D. have drunk
20. I didn’t see anyone but I felt as though I……
A. have been watched B. was being watched C. be watched D. am watched
21. The profits are supposed…………among the shareholders.
A. to divide B. to be divided C. dividing D. being divided
22. This popular TV game show……….by about 10 million people every Saturday evening.
A. has been watching B. is watching C. watches D. is watched
23. When you are on duty, your uniform must……at at all times.
A. wear B. be wear C. be worn D. be wearing
24. The crew of the tanker was fortunate…….just a minute before it sank in heavy seas.
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A. rescuing B. to rescue C. to have rescueD. to have been rescued

25. While the builders were repairing the roof they……the bathroom window.
A. break B. broke C. have broken D. was broken
26. You promised her letter; you ought to…….. days ago.
A. write B. be writing C. have written D. be written
27. My computer is broken.- really? Why don’t you have it………..?
A. repair B. repairing C. repaired D. for repairing
28. The professor has not written a book……to the masses to generate interest from a publisher.
A. enough appealing B. appealing enough C. appeal enough D. enough appeal
29. Oh! Look at that beautiful vase on the floor. How did it…….?
A. get broken B. break C. broken D. got broken
30. After the test papers….to the students in class tomorrow, the students….their next assignment.
A.will return-will be given B. will be returned-are given
C. are returning-are giving D. are returned-will be given
C. Identify the one underlined word or phrase- a, b, c or d- that must be changed for the sentence to
be correct.
31. According many cities, Mark Twain’s novel Huckleberry Finn is his greatest work and is
A B
one of the greatest American novels ever written.
C D
32. For decades, journalist Theodore H.White wrote books described American presidential
elections.
A B C D
33. Zoonoses are diseases that can transmit to human beings by animals.
A B C D
34. Raymond Chander’s detectives story are admired both by critics and general readers.
A B C D
35. The naturalist Edwin Teal illustration his books with photographs he had taken himself.
A B C D
III. Reading:
A. Fill in each blank with one appropriate word from the box:

Based screen sympathy standards basic familiarity simple animated examined

Disappointed highlighted series

Many people believe that watching television has resulted in lower reading (36) in schools.
However, the link between television and printed books is not as.................. (37) as that. In many
cases, television actually encourages people to read: for example, when a book is turned into a TV
(38) .................., its sales often go up.
One study of this link.................. (39) six-year-old children who were viewing a special series of
15-minute programs at school. The series was designed to encourage the love of books, as well as
to develop the.................. (40) mechanical skills of reading. Each program is a(n) ..................
( 41) film of a children’s book. The story is read aloud while certain key phrases from the book
appear on the.................. ( 42), beneath the picture. Whenever a word is read, it is also..................
( 43) on the TV screen.
One finding was that watching these programs was very important to the children. If anything
prevented them from seeing a program, they were very.................. ( 44). What’s more, they wanted
to read the books which the different parts of the series were .................. (45).on.
The program also gave the children more confidence when looking at these books. AS a result of
their .................. (46) with the stories, they would sit in pairs and read the stories aloud to each
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other. On one occasion, the children showed great .................. (47) when discussing a character in a
book because they themselves had been moved when watching the character on television.
B. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answer:
Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today.
Thousands of these How-to books are useful: in fact, there are about four thousand books with titles
that begin with words “How to”. One book may tell you how to earn more money, another may tell
you how to save or spend it, and another may explain how to give your money away.
Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to
succeed in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book How to Turn Failure into Success. If you
would like to become very rich, you can buy the book How to Make a Millionaire. If you never
make any money at all, you may need a book called How to live on Nothing.
One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you
want to have a better love of life, you can read How to Succeed in Love Every Minute of Your Life.
If you are tired of books on happiness, you may prefer books which give step- by step instructions
on how to redecorate or enlarge a house.
Why have How- to books become so popular> Probably because life has become so complex.
Today people have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve.
How- to books help people deal with modern life.
48. From the first passage, we know How-to books are…………….
A. only about four thousand copies B. right on the money
C. very helpful in life D. needed a lot
49. The passage tell s us that How- to books sell well on how………….
A. to succeed in career B. to solve personal problems
C. to deal with business D. to make money
50. If you often read How-to books,you…………………..
A. will be sure to get something you need. B. will not know how to help yourself in life
C. will become a man in life D. needn’t think any more in the world.
51. How- to books appear only because…………….
A. people have more free time to spend than before
B. people meet more problems than their parents.
C. people may have more choices from How-to books than any other books
D. modern life is more difficult to deal with.
52. Which of the followings is NOT true about How-to books?
A. How- to books cost a lot of money.
B. There is wide range of How-to books
C. How- to books help people achieve success in life.
D. More and more people enjoy reading How – to books nowadays.
IV. Writing: Choose the sentence – a, b, c or d- which is built from the word given.
53. reading books / regard / relaxing past- time//
A. Reading books is generally regarded to be a relaxing past- time.
B. Reading books is generally regarded as being a relaxing past-time
C. Reading books is generally regarded of being a relaxing past- time
D. Reading books is generally regarded to being a relaxing past- time.
54. reading / test / several different ways/ it / draw / multiple types / knowledge//
A. Reading can test in several different ways because it draws on multiple types of knowledge.
B. Reading can be tested in several different ways because it is drawn on multiple types of
knowledge.
C. Reading can be tested in several different ways because it draws on multiple types of knowledge.
D. Reading can be testing in several different ways because it is drawn on multiple types of
knowledge.
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55. test / vary / depend / they / use / test / children / adults//

A. Tests also vary depending on whether they are used to test children or adults.
B. Tests also vary depend upon whether they are used to test children or adults
C. Tests also vary depending on whether they used to be tested children or adults.
D. Tests also vary to depend on whether they are used to test children or adults.

UNIT 12: WATER SPORTS

I. Vocabulary
No. New word Phonetic description Meaning
water polo (n)
vertical post (n)
crossbar (n) /ˈk/net/ rɔːsbɑːr/
net (n)
goalie = goalkeeper /ˈɡoʊlkiːpər/
advance (v) /ədˈvæns/
sprint (v) /sprɪnt/
defend (v) /dɪˈfend/
=> defense (n)
=> defensive (adj, n) /dɪˈfensɪv/
interfere (v) = intervene (v) /ˌɪntərˈfɪr/
(be) allowed + to-inf
opponent (n) /ə’pəunənt/
movement (n) /ˈmuːvmənt/
major (adj) # minor (adj) /ˈmeɪdʒər/
foul /faul/ (n) /faʊl/
penalize (v) /‘pi:nəlaiz/
=> penalty (n) /‘penəlti/
eject (v) /Ι‘dƷekt/
punch (v) /pʌntʃ/
quarter (n) /ˈkwɔːrtər/
tie (n) /taɪ/
referee (n) /refə‘ri:/
decide (v) /dɪˈsaɪd/
=> decision (n)
scuba-diving (n)
windsurfing (n) /ˈwɪndsɜːrfɪŋ/
rowing (n) /ˈroʊɪŋ/
synchronized swimming
commit the fouls/ commit the
crime
make a decision on

II. Vocabulary exercise:

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1. Runners from eight different countries will be competing in the next ___.
A. race B. place C. record D. course
2. It is common knowledge that sportsmen ___ themselves in good form by regular swimming.
A. put B. make C. take D. keep
3. Synchronized swimming is a sport in which groups of swimmers ___ in patterns in the water to
music.
A. go B. move C. dive D. jump
4. Windsurfing is a common term for two similar ___ sports: sail-surfing and sailboarding.
A. water B. wind C. sail D. board
5. Volleyball, basketball, football are ___ games.
A. team B. group C. crowd D. class
6. Rowing is the sport or activity of traveling in a boat by using ___.
A. air tanks B. sails C. boards D. oars
7. Unlike football, a water polo game is ___ into quarters.
A. divided B. separated C. cut D. played
8. In 1918, Smith ___ the record for the world’s longest flight by flying 2,350 miles from Cairo to
Calcutta.
A. smashed B. split C. cracked D. broke
9. One of the four periods of time in which a game of American football is divided is known as a
___.
A. part B. half C. quarter D. stage
10. The ___ is the official who controls the game in some sports.
A. player B. captain C. referee D. defender
11. In water polo, holding balls with two hands and punching ball are ___.
A. errors B. fouls C. faults D. mistakes
12. A kick taken as a penalty in the game of football is called a penalty kick or ___ kick.
A. punishment B. foul C. opposition D. spot
13. Any players who commit 5 personal fouls will be ___.
A. rejected B. ejected C. sacked D. dismissed
14. In water polo, the ball can be ___ by passing with one hand.
A. advanced B. forwarded C. thrown D. kicked
15. No player except the ___ can hold the ball with two hands.
A. goalie B. referee C. defensive player D. striker
16. Katherine Curtis developed the ___ for the competition of synchronized swimming.
A. regulations B. formula C. laws D. principles
17. The whole audience objected to their foul play during the football match.
A. clumsy B. dependent C. imperfect D. unfair
18. The match ended in a ___.
A. foul B. tie C. range D. penalty
19. William won first ___ in the tennis competition.
A. medal B. prize C. reward D. position
20. If you ___ the goalie, there are seven players in a team.
A. gather B. conclude C. collect D. include

III. Grammar
A. COMPARATIVE :
1- Tính từ ngắn : ( Short adjectives )
Ex1: Today is hotter than yesterday.
Ex2: He runs faster than I do.
- So sánh hơn nhiều ‘much’ hoặc ‘far’.
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Ex3: Today is much hotter than yesterday.

S + V + ( much / far ) + Adj / Adv + er + than
- Hầu hết là tính từ có một âm tiết hoặc tính từ dài có hai âm tiết tận cùng là : “ y, er, ow,
ple, tle ”.Cấu trúc sử dụng là:

Ex : - Happy ---- > happier - Simple ---- > simpler

- Gentle ---- > gentler - Easy ---- > Easier
- Clever ---- > cleverer
 Note: : + Đối với tính từ ngắn có một phụ âm tận cùng (trừ w,x,z) và trước đó là
một nguyên âm, ta phải gấp đôi phụ âm cuối rồi thêm “ er ”
Ex: - big - bigger; - red - redder , - hot - hotter
- fat - fatter , - sad - sadder, - thin-thinner
2- Tính từ dài : ( long adjectives )
Ex1 : The test A is more difficult than the test B
Ex2 : He speaks English more fluently than I do.
1. S + tobe ( is /am / are ) + more + Adj(dài) + than ...

2. S + V(thường) + more + Adv + than .......

 Note: - So sánh kém hơn

Ex1: My TV is less beautiful than yours.
Ex2: He drives less carefully than I think.
B. SUPERLATIVE :
1- Tính từ ngắn : ( Short adjectives ).

Ex1: This is the cleanest room in the house

S + V + the + Adj / Adv + est + N

2- Tính từ dài ( long adjectives )

Ex2: First class is the most expensive way to travel
S + V + the + most + Adj / Adv + N

 Note: - So sánh kém nhất:

Ex3: Those shoes are the least expensive of all.
Một số adj / adv bất qui tắc:

- good/ well better the best

- bad/ badly worse the worst
- many/ much more the most
- little less the least
- far farther the farthest (về khoảng cách)
further the furthest (về thời gian)
- near nearer the nearest (về khoảng cách)
the next (về thứ tự)
- late later the latest (về thời gian)
the last (về thứ tự)
- old older the oldest (về tuổi tác)
elder the eldest( về cấp bậc)

C. SO SÁNH BẰNG : (SIMILARITY)

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Ex1: He is as tall as his father

Ex2: His car runs as fast as a race car.
Ex3: John sings as well as his sister.
1. S + tobe ( is /am / are ) + as + Adj + as ...

2. S + V(thường) + as + Adv + as .......

 Note: - Nếu là câu phủ định, as thứ nhất có thể thay bằng so.
Ex1: He is not so tall as his father.
- Khi so sánh bằng danh từ, sử dụng cấu trúc sau:
Ex2: My house is as high as his.
=> My house is the same height as his.

S + V + the + same + N + as + N

IV. Grammar exercise:

1. My English this term is ............. than that of last year.
A. good B. gooder C. better D. best
2. Her math result is .............. than her English result.
A. bad B. badly C. worse D. well
3. Detective books are..................... than science fiction ones.
A. more interesting B. interestingly C. interesting D. interesting
4. Lan is ................... than her sister.
A. lazy B. lazily C. lazier D. lazilier
5. He feels ........... than last year because his study results are .....................
A. happy/ good B. happier/gooder C. more happy/more good D. happier/better
6. He is ............. at maths than at any other subjects.
A. better B. more good C. goodlier D. gooder
7. Phuong can speak English ........... than Minh.
A. more fluent B. fluently C. fluent D. more fluently
8. Her voice is ................. than her sister’s.
A. beautiful B. more beautiful C. beautifully D. more beautifully
9. Her literature result is much ................... than it was last year.
A. good B. well C. more well D. better
10. Cinderella danced ............... than any other girls at the ball.
A. more graceful B. gracefuler C. gracefully D. more gracefully
11. Chemistry is ................. than physics.
A. easy B. easily C. easier D. more easily
12. Rabbits run.................. than tortoises.
A. fast B. fastly C. fastlier D. faster
13. Nam is bad at art but Minh is even ..........................
A. badder B. bad C. worse D. worser
14. Lan is her.................... sister.
A. old B. elderly C. elder D. oldly
15. She can pronounce English words ............. than she could last term.
A. correctlier B. more correct C. more correctly D. correcter
16. The country is .............. than the city.
A. quieter B. more quiet C. more quietly D. quietlier
17. In this class, the students are talking ............... than the teacher.
A. loudly B. more loud C. loudlier D. louder.
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18. We shouldn’t be..................... on any subjects.

A. lazy B. lazier C. lazily D. lazilier
19. I can learn a subject ............... if I like it and ............ if I don’t like it.
A. good/ bad B. better/ worse C. better/ badlier D. gooder/worse
20. I will take these shoes. What’s the .................?
A. price B. fare B. cost D. fee
21. My Dinh is the national ................. of Viet Nam.
A. city B. theatre C. stadium D. cinema
22. She is the most ................. girl in our class.
A. intelligent B. intelligentest C. tall D. tallest
23. That T-shirt is the ............... we have in stock.
A. big B.bigger C. small D. smallest
24. I think Smatcafe is ............... than other kinds of coffee.
A. best B. better C. badder D. worst
25. This hat is the .................. of all.
A. expensivest B. more expensive C. cheapest D. cheaper
26. Of all the stories I have, this is the most .............. one.
A. better B. best C.interesting D. interestingest
27. That is the most ................ bed in the shop.
A. wide B. widest C. comfortable D. comfortables
28. Food becomes .............. during the time of the flood.
A. more scarcer B. most scarce C. scarcest D. scarce
29. Have you got any ................... shirt?
A. cheapest B. cheaper C. expensiver D. expensivest
30. The shop faces its most ............. time of the year when sales have fallen by half.
A. difficult B. difficultest C. easy D. easiest
31. Lan is the most ................ student in my class.
A. hard-work B. hard-working C. good D. best
32. The blue shirt is as ............... as the red one.
A. long B. longer C. more long D. longest
33. Mai dances as ................. as Lan.
A. gracefully B. gracefuly C. graceful D. graceless
34. This book is the ..................... of all
A. bored B.boring C. more boring D. most boring
35. Mary speaks English very ......................
A. fluent B. fluently C. more fluently D. most fluently
36. Tom runs faster than John and David runs the ............ in the group.
A. fast B. most fast C. fastest C. most fastly
37. She has ........... books than I do.
A. least B. fewer C. more few D. fewest
38. I work as ................. as you do.
A. hard b .hardly C. harder D. more hard
39. She looks ........... than me.
A. thinner B. thin C. thinnest D. thinly
40. He is one of the .............. men in the world.
A. rich B. richer C. richest D. more rich.
41. A train is not so .............. as a bus.
A. quick B. quicker C. quickest D. more quick
42. The economic conditions today are .............. they were in the past.
A. much more good B. much better than
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C. much better D. the best than

43. Peter is the ............. student in my class.
A. taller than B. so tall as C. the tallest D. tallest
44. The deep oceans contain some of the .................. of all living creatures.
A. strangest B. strange C. as strange as D. stranger
45. Jane is not ……………..her brother.
A. more intelligent as B. intelligent as
C. so intelligent as D. so intelligent that.
46. He drives as ………….his father does.
A. careful as B. more carefully C. the most careful D. carefully as
47. What’s the ………….film you’ve ever seen?
A. good B. best C. better D. the best
48. Jane is ……………age as Marry/.
A. as same B. the most same C. the same D. more same
49. I’ll be there ………….. I can.
A. sooner as B. no sooner as C. as soon as D. soonest as
50. The shirt and that one……………
A. alike B. are alike C. as alike as D. the same
51. I want to buy some shoes………….the ones you have on.
A. like B. are like C. are alike D. likely
52. Mary and her mother do not…………….
A. alike B. look like C. look alike D.like
53. Sharon………….from other women I know.
A. different B. as different C. differs D. more different
54. This one is prettier, but it costs………….. as the other one.
A. as much as B. twice as much C. as many D. twice as many
55. You can take…………..books as you want.
A. as many B. as much C. so much D. too many
56. Of the two sisters, Linda ………
A. is beautiful B. the most beautiful C. is more beautiful D. is so beautiful
as .
57. The …………..accident in the history of the city occurred last night on the Freeway.
A. badest B. most bad C. worse D. worst.
58. He finished the test …………..of all.
A. rapidly B. the most rapidly C. most rapidly D. more rapidly
59. Many chemicals react ……………..in acid solutions.
A. more quick B. more quickly C. quicklier D. as quickly more
V. Practice test unit 12
TEST 1
A. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced
differently from the rest.
1. A. interfered B. allowed C. visited D. played
2. A. water B. swimming C. between D. rowing
3. A. lie B. goalie C. achieve D. belief
4. A. punch B. synchronized C. March D. touching
5. A. caps B. meters C. swimmers D. lines
B. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence,
substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. How many players are there in _______ water polo team?
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
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7. _______ swimming is considered to be a good way of losing weight.

A. Ø / a B. The / a C. A / the D. The / the
8. They are going to _______ the pool to 1.8 meters.
A. deep B. depth C. deepen D. deeply
9. The referee had no hesitation in awarding the visiting team a _______.
A. penalty B. penalize C. penal D. penalization
10. The crowd cheered as the goalkeeper deflected the _______.
A. shoot B. shooting C. shooter D. shot
11. _______ defense, the players work to regain possession of the ball and prevent a goal
A. About B. Over C. Without D. On
12. Players can move the ball by throwing it _______ a teammate or swimming while pushing
the ball in front of them.
A. for B. into C. to D. from
13. Shots usually succeed when the goalie is out _______ position.
A. into B. for C. of D. off
14. In water polo, a shot is successful if the ball completely passes between the goalposts and
underneath the _______.
A. net B. crossbar C. ball D. goalie
15. A defensive player may only hold, block or pull a / an _______ who is touching or holding
the ball.
A. audience B. referee C. goalie D. opponent
16. If a defender _______ a foul within the five-meter area that prevents a likely goal, the
attacking team is awarded a penalty throw or shot.
A. commits B. interferes C. punches D. touches
17. The more' goals the players _______, the more exciting the match became.
A. marked B. made C. scored D. sprinted
18. After a tie, there are two overtime periods of three minutes each.
A. penalty B. draw C. score D. goal
19. The goalkeeper can also be ejected for twenty seconds if a major foul is committed.
A. advanced B. sprinted C. played D. excluded
20. A goalie who aggressively fouls an attacker in position to score can be charged with a
_______ shot for the other team.
A. penalty B. preventing C. scoring D. ranging
21. _______ is a sport in which people or teams race against each other in boats with oars.
A. Rowing B. Windsurfing C. Swimming D. Water polo
22. I have never taken part in any water sports _______ I cannot swim.
A. because B. because of C. due to D. partly because of
23. Many people do not like scuba diving _______.
A. because it is dangerous B. because of it is dangerous
C. because its danger D. due to it is dangerous
24. New Zealand _______ 1,000 miles southeast of Australia.
A. lies about B. is lain C. is lying D. is laid about
25. John _______ across the lawn.
A. danced wildly B. was wildly danced
C. was dancing wild D. was being danced wildly
26. John _______ every summer.
A. plays softball and tennis B. plays with softball and tennis
C. is played softball and tennis D. is played with softball and tennis
27. The eagle _______ higher and higher in the sky.
A. soar B. soared C. is soared D. was soared
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28. The ship _______ during the night.

A. has remained the harbor B. was remained the harbor
C. remained the harbor D. remained in the harbor
29. The baby _______.
A. was sleeping depth B. was slept deeply
C. slept in-depth D. was sleeping deeply
30. They _______ by the sea.
A. are staying at a hotel B. are staying a hotel
C. are being stayed a hotel D. are being stayed at a hotel
C. Error Identification.
31. Windsurfing, which is a water sport combining elements of surfing and
A B
sailing first developed in the United States in 1968 and also called boardsailing.
C D
32. The windsurfer stands on a board that is propelled and steering by
A B
means of a sail attached to a mast that is articulated at the foot.
C D
33. Since 1984 the sport has included in the Olympic Games as part of the
A B C D
yachting events.
34. The sport was became very popular in Europe and by the late 70s
A B
there was windsurfing fever in Europe with one in every three
C
households having a sailboard.
D
35. The first world championship of windsurfing held in 1973. Windsurfing
A B C
first became an Olympic sport in 1984 for men and 1992 for women.
D
D. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
There is very little documentation about the origins of water polo. It is known, however, that the
sport originated in the rivers and lakes of mid-19th century England as an aquatic version of rugby.
Early games used an inflated rubber ball that came from India known as a "pulu" (the single Indian
word for all "balls"). Pronounced "polo" by the English, both the game and the ball became known
as "water polo." To attract more spectators to swimming exhibitions, the London Swimming
Association designed a set of water polo rules for indoor swimming pools in 1870. At first, players
scored by planting the ball on the end of the pool with both hands. A favorite trick of the players
was to place the five-to-nine inch rubber ball inside their swimming suit and dive under the murky
water, they would then appear again as close to the goal as possible. The introduction of the rules
by Scottish players changed the nature of water polo. It became a game that emphasized swimming,
speed, and passing. Scottish rules moved from a rugby variant to a soccer-style of play. Goals
became a cage of 10x 3 feet and a goal could be scored by being thrown. Players could only be
tackled when they "held" the ball and the ball could no longer be taken underwater. The small
rubber ball was replaced by a leather soccer ball. If the player came up too near the goal, he was
promptly jumped on by the goalie, who was permitted to stand on the pool deck. Games were often
nothing more than gang fights in the water as players ignored the ball, preferring underwater
wrestling matches that usually ended with one man floating to the surface unconscious. Water polo
was first played in the USA in 1888. The game featured the old rugby style of play which
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resembled American football in the water. "American style" water polo became very popular and
by the late 1890s was played in such venues as Madison Square Garden and Boston's Mechanics
Hall, attracting 14,000 spectators to national championship games.
36. According to the text, _______.
A. the origins of water polo are written thoroughly in a lot of documents
B. water polo is an aquatic version of rugby
C. water polo first appeared somewhere outside England
D. people have played water polo since the early 19th century.
37. The present rules of water polo were invented _______.
A. by Scottish players B. by Indian players
C. the London Swimming Association D. in 1870
38. In water polo, the players score a goal by _______.
A. swimming B. passing C. catching D. throwing
39. The present water polo ball is made of _______.
A. rubber B. leather C. bone D. wood
40. Water polo became popular in America in _______.
A. the middle of the 19th century B. in 1870
C. in 1888 D. by the late 1890s
E. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Rowing is a sport in which athletes race' against each other on river, lakes or on the ocean, (41)
_____ on the type of race and the discipline. The boats are propelled by the reaction forces on the
oar blades (42) _____ they are pushed against the water. The sport can be both recreational,
focusing (43) _____ learning the techniques required, and competitive where overall fitness plays a
large role. It is also one of (44) _____ oldest Olympic sports. In the United States, Australia and
Canada, high school and collegial rowing are sometimes referred to as crew.
(45) _____ rowing, the athlete sits in the boat facing backward, towards the stern, and uses the oars
which are held in (46) _____ by the oarlocks to propel the boat forward, towards the bow. It is a
demanding sport requiring strong core balance as well as physical (47) _____ and cardiovascular
endurance.
Since the action of rowing (48) _____ fairly popular throughout the world, there are many different
types of (49) _____. These include endurance races, time trials, stake racing, bumps racing, and the
side-by-side format used in the Olympic Games. The many different formats are a result of the long
(50) _____ of the sport, its development in. different regions of the world, and specific local
requirements and restrictions.
41. A. depending B. creating C. interesting D. carrying
42. A. but B. because C. as D. as soon as
43. A. of B. on C. with D. about
44. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
45. A. Over B. Of C. During D. While
46. A. area B. sight C. part D. place
47. A. strong B. strongly C. strength D. strengthen
48. A. was become B. has become C. is become D. is becoming
49. A. competition B. examination C. test D. round
50. A. work B. history C. period D. race

TEST 2
A. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. water B. football C. begin D. meter
2. A. personal B. penalty C. defensive D. vertical
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3. A. award B. prevent C. visit D. except

4. A. goalie B. advanced C. above D. depend
5. A. overtime B. decision C. period D. penalize
B. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the
underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. Water polo is played in _______ pool 1.8 meters deep.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
7. The goalie tried to catch _______ ball, but he failed.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
8. The final I _______ was 3-0.
A. score B. scoring C. scorer D. scores
9. The referee's _______ is the most important in any sport competition.
A. decide B. decisive C. decision D. decider
10. _______ players are not allowed to interfere with the opponent's movements unless the
player is holding the ball.
A. Defense B. Defensive C. Defender D. Defensively
11. _____ the start of each period, both teams line up on their own goal line.
A. In B. For C. From D. At
12. A water polo ball is constructed of waterproof material to allow it to float ______ the water.
A. upon B. over C. above D. on
13. There are six field player positions and a goalkeeper ______ each team.
A. on B. with C. from D. for
14. _______ is a sport in which two or more people perform complicated and carefully planned
movements in water in time to the music.
A. Rowing B. Windsurfing
C. Diving D. Synchronized swimming
15. If the tie is not broken after two overtime _______, a penalty shootout will determine the
winner.
A. opponents B. waves C. parts D. periods
16. Minor _______ occur when a player impedes or otherwise prevents the free movement of an
opponent including swimming on the opponent's shoulders, back or legs.
A. penalties B. shots C. fouls D. motions
17. _______ is a game played in a swimming pool in which two teams of swimmers try to score
goals with a ball.
A. Water polo B. Rowing C. Swimming D. Water skiing
18. Offensive players may be called for a foul by pushing off a defender to provide space for a
_______ or shot.
A. pass B. crossbar C. box D. goal
19. A penalty shot is _______ when a major foul is committed inside the 5-meter line.
A. prevented B. awarded C. committed D. ranged
20. A dry pass, meaning the ball does not _______ the water is thrown a few inches above the
head of the catching player.
A. catch B. hold C. swim D. touch
21. _______ is a sport in which you move along the surface of the sea or a lake on a long narrow
board with a sail on it.
A. Water polo B. Diving C. Windsurfing D. Scuba diving
22. Water polo balls _______ with a special texture so it will not slip from the hands of a player.
A. cover B. are covered C. are being covered D. covered
23. Alexis _______ next week.
A. is swimming in the state championship
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B. is swimming the state championship

C. is swum the state championship
D. is swum the state championship
24. The news of war _______ and the world.
A. was shocked the nation B. was shocked by the nation
C. shocked the nation D. shocked by the nation
25. The player _______.
A. will reward for his hat-trick
B. will be rewarded for his hat-trick
C. will reward his hat-trick
D. will be rewarded his hat-trick
26. Before the end of the term, I _______ all the required reading.
A. was finished by B. had been finished by
C. had finished D. had been finished
27. The player was ejected because he committed a foul.
A. as B. due to C. despite D. provided
28. John could not continue the match _______ his badly injured leg.
A. because B. since C. as D. because of
29. They cancelled the match _______.
A. due to it rained heavily B. because of the heavy rain
C. because of it rained heavily D. because the heavy rain
30. You need proper shoes to go hiking in the mountains, _______ the ground is rough and hard.
A. though B. due to C. because of D. because
C. Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
31. He could escape from hurt because he was wearing protective clothes.
A. Thanks to his protective clothes, he could escape from hurt.
B. His protective clothes made him hurt.
C. Due to his protective clothes, he was hurt.
D. His being hurt made his unable to wear protective clothes.
32. We were unable to type the contract because the computer malfunctioneD.
A. Despite a computer malfunction, we managed to finish typing the contract.
B. The computer malfunction helped us complete the contract.
C. The fact that the computer malfunction prevented us from typing the contract.
D. Thanks to the computer malfunction, we could type the contract.
33. The roads were slippery because it snowed heavily.
A. It snowed too heavily to make the roads slippery.
B. The heavy snow prevented the roads from-being slippery.
C. Thanks to the slip of the roads, it snowed heavily.
D. The heavy snow made the roads slippery.
34. The accident happened because she was careless.
A. The accident was prevented due to her carelessness.
B. Her carelessness was responsible for the accident.
C. It was the accident that made her careless.
D. The more careless she was, the less accident happeneD.
35. I did not understand what the lecturer was saying because I had not read his book.
A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understanD.
B. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understanD.
C. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
D. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
D. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
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Water sports are as challenging as they are fun. Although water sports are not as popular as
basketball or football, activities such as parasailing, water skiing, water polo, wakeboarding, jet
skiing and competitive swimming interest many people. Ail water sports have an element of danger
involved, which is why it is important to follow these safety tips before you dive in.
Step 1: Learn how to swim. Sure, it seems obvious, but it is also extremely important. Do not even
think about skiing, tubing, wakeboarding or water polo if you cannot stay afloat in water deeper
than your height.
Step 2: Check your equipment and your life safety tools. Count your life vests and have floatation
devices nearby. If you are engaging in a sport that requires a lot of equipment, such as
wakeboarding, go over every piece to ensure proper functioning.
Step 3: Be physically fit. Put your pride aside and get in shape. Most water sports are incredibly
strenuous and require the player to have physical endurance. It can be dangerous to participate in a
water sport, such as water skiing or wakeboarding, when your body isn't ready.
Step 4: Save the tricks for the professionals. If you are an amateur, do not attempt water sport tricks.
It is tempting to push to the next level with sports like skiing and sailing, but train heavily first.
Step 5: Recruit a spotter. When you do water sports, always have an extra person on hand to spot for
you. This includes indoor sports like' water polo, diving and competitive swimming.
36. Water sports are much more popular than basketball and football.
A. True B. False C. No information
37. Sometimes it is dangerous to playa water sport.
A. True B. False C. No information
38. The first thing you have to do is to learn how to swim if you want to take up a water sport.
A. True B. False C. No information
39. You need to have a boat right beside all the time if you want to take up a water sport.
A. True B. False C. No information
40. There are tricks which amateur players cannot play.
A. True B. False C. No information
E. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Sailing or boating may seem to be very interesting with the high level of technical elements (41)
_____ in the sport. Whether you choose a small (42) _____ or a catamaran, whether you choose
lake or ocean sailing, there are (43) _____ number of things you need to master before you can start
enjoying the pure (44) _____ of being on the water.
Getting the sailing skills which you need to start sailing your own boat is easy if you just sign up
with a sailing school. You can learn to sail (45) _____ any age. There are no (46) ____. The best
schools and instructors will teach you all you need to know about sailing in a friendly and pleasant
manner. As with all sports, sailing will get you into (47) _____ with new friends. There is a
closeness that develops out at sea, however, (48) _____ not many other sports have. Being on the
water in any capacity demands a healthy outlook and way of life. Sailing and boating are two sports
that (49) _____ all our senses to be at their peak. Sailing calls upon physical strength, intelligence
and intuition. It is one sport that allows you to leave all your daily concerns and (50) _____ back on
the land and to be off with only your bare self.
41. A. invented B. consisted C. involved D. contained
42. A. fleet B. submarine C. ferry D. boat
43. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
44. A. please B. pleasure C. pleasant D. pleasantly
45. A. with B. at C. in D. for
46. A. investment B. disappearance C. discoveries D. restrictions
47. A. allowance B. pace C. contact D. keeping
48. A. which B. that C. when D. whom
49. A. ask B. say C. tell D. demand
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50. A. cultures B. habits C. traditions D. customs

TEST 3
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
1. A. sprint B. line C. divide D. ride
2. A. swimming B. post C. decision D. score
3. A. style B. penalty C. pretty D. typical
4. A. pool B. good C. look D. book
5. A. foul B. house C. amount D. adventurous
Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined
part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. Where can people play _______ water polo?
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
7. No _______ water polo player except _______ goalie can hold the ball with both hands.
A. a / the B. the / Ø C. the / a D. Ø / the
8. The main task of a defender in a sport game is to _______ the opponents from scoring.
A. prevent B. preventing C. prevention D. preventable
9. Many young men prefer scuba-diving because it is _______.
A. adventure B. adventurous C. adventurously D. adventurist
10. I _______ think that scuba diving is more of danger than adventure.
A. person B. personal C. personally D.
personalize
11. What kind of sport one chooses to play mostly depends _______ his preference and health.
A. with B. for C. in D. on
12. Most referees often wears _______ black.
A. in B. for C. with D. on
13. In water polo game, only the goalie can hold the ball _______ two hands.
A. at B. in C. with D. from
14. If the score is tied at the end of regulation play, two _______ periods of three minutes each
are played.
A. half B. halftime C. quarter D. overtime
15. A water polo cap is used to ____ the players' heads and to identify them.
A. tie B. penalize C. protect D. move
16. lf a defender _______ with a free throw, holds or sinks an attacker, he is excluded from the
game for twenty seconds.
A. punches B. passes C. plays D.
interferes
17. Water polo is a team water game, with six field players and one goalie in each team. The
winner of the game is the team that scores more _____.
A. nets B. goals C. plays D. balls
18. As all field players are only allowed to touch the ball with one hand at a time, they must
develop the ability to catch and _______ the ball with either hand.
A. throw B. point C. score D. cross
19. _______ is the activity of swimming underwater using special breathing equipment.
A. Synchronized swimming B. Rowing
C. Water polo D. Scuba diving
20. When the offense takes possession of the ball, the strategy is to _______ the ball down the
field of play and to score a goal.
A. create B. ride C. advance D.
eject
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21. The referee signals with a whistle and by lowering his arm, and the player taking the
penalty _______ must immediately throw the ball with an uninterrupted motion toward the
goal.
A. arm B. shot C. net D. goal
22. Some of the students began to fall asleep _______ the lecture was boring and irrelevant.
A. as B. due to C. because of D. on account of
23. Tommy joined the English Club _______ to increase his circle of friends.
A. because his desire B. because of his
desire
C. because of he desired D. due to he desired.
24. _______, I do not consider this composition acceptable.
A. Because of so many errors
B. Because of there were so many errors
C. On account of there were so many errors
D. As so many errors
25. The prisoner was given a harsh sentence ______ the nature of his crime.
A. since B. as C. because D. due to
26. The burglar _______.
A. has been disappeared with the cash
B. disappeared the cash
C. disappeared with the cash
D. was disappeared with the cash
27. Ellen _______ and sang her song.
A. nodded to the audience B. nodded the audience
C. was nodding the audience D. was nodded to the audience
28. Our teacher _______ to take the exam.
A. gave another chance each of us
B. was given each of us by another chance
C. gave each of us another chance
D. was given each of us another chance
29. If Charlie _______, he could have been injured.
A. had been run the street B. had been run into the street
C. had run the street D. had run into the street
30. The turtle _______ of Arizona.
A. may be lived a small area B. may be lived in a small area
C. may live in a small area D. may live a small area
Choose the best that can complete the following.
31. _______, consisting of swimmers performing a synchronized routine of elaborate and
dramatic moves in the water, accompanied by music.
A. Synchronized swimming is a hybrid of swimming, gymnastics, and dance
B. Synchronized swimming which a water sport, a hybrid of swimming, gymnastics, and dance
C. Synchronized swimming, a hybrid of swimming, gymnastics, and dance
D. Synchronized swimming, it is a hybrid of swimming, gymnastics, and dance.
32. Synchronized swimming demands some water skills, and requires incredible strength,
endurance, flexibility, grace, artistry and precise timing, _______.
A. while upside down underwater with exceptional breath control
B. because of exceptional breath control while upside down underwater
C. also exceptional breath control is required while upside down underwater
D. as well as exceptional breath control while upside down underwater

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33. Developed in the early 1900s in Canada, synchronized swimming is a sport performed
almost exclusively by women. _______.
A. As for its early form, sometimes it was called "water ballet"
B. In its early form, it was sometimes known as "water ballet"
C. Since its early form, sometimes it knew as "water ballet"
D. With its early form, "water ballet" was sometimes known
34. When performing routines, competitors will typically wear a nose-clip. _______, to reflect
the type of music to which they are swimming.
A. The competitors who wear custom swimsuits and headpieces, usually elaborately decorated
B. They also wear custom swimsuits and headpieces, usually elaborately decorated
C. They also wear custom swimsuits and headpieces, which are usually elaborately decorating.
D. Usually elaborately decorated, the competitors also wear custom swimsuits and headpieces
35. In synchronized swimming, the costume and music are not judged directly, _______.
Underwater speakers ensure that swimmers can hear the music at all times.
A. with factors into the overall performance and "artistic impression"
B. as a result they are factors into the overall performance and "artistic impression"
C. but they are factors into the overall performance and "artistic impression"
D. because they are factors into the overall performance as well as "artistic impression"
Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
Recreational diving or sport diving is a type of diving that uses scuba equipment for the purpose of
leisure and enjoyment. In some diving circles, the term "recreational diving" is used in
contradistinction to "technical diving", a more demanding aspect of the sport which requires greater
levels of training, experience, and equipment.
Recreational scuba diving grew out of related activities such as snorkeling and underwater hunting.
For a long time, recreational underwater excursions were limited by the amount of breath that could
be held. However, the invention of the aqualung in 1943 by Jacques-Yves Cousteau and its
development over subsequent years led to a revolution in recreational diving. However, for much of
the 1950s and early1960s, recreational scuba diving was a sport limited to those who were able to
afford or make their own kit and prepared to undergo intensive training to use it. As the sport
became more popular, manufacturers became aware of the potential market, and equipment began
to appear that was easy to use, affordable and reliable. Continued advances in' SCUBA technology,
such as buoyancy compensators, modern diving regulators, wet or dry suits, and dive computers,
increased the safety, comfort, and convenience of the gear encouraging more people to train and
use it.
Until the early 1950s, navies and other organizations performing professional diving were the only
providers of diver training, but only for their own personnel and only using their own types of
equipment. There were no training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba
equipment. Professional instruction started in 1959 when the non-profit National Association of
Underwater Instructors was formed.
Further developments in technology have reduced the cost of training and diving. Scuba-diving has
become a popular leisure activity, and many diving locations have some form of dive shop presence
that can offer air fills, equipment, and training. In tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world, there
is a large market in holiday divers, who train and dive while on holiday, but rarely dive close to
home. Generally, recreational diving depths are limited to a maximum of between 30 and 40 meters
(100 and 130 feet), beyond which a variety of safety issues make it unsafe to dive using recreation
diving equipment and practices, and specialized training and equipment for technical diving are
needed.
36. Recreational diving _______.
A. requires more equipment than technical diving,
B. are taken up by many people for leisure and entertainment
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C. needs no equipment
D. requires more experience than technical diving
37. Recreational underwater excursions used to be limited _______.
A. as underwater hunting was banned
B. because the necessary amount of breath was too expensive to afford
C. because divers could not take enough amount of breath with them
D. because the necessary amount of breath was too heavy to bring
38. According to the second paragraph, in the 1950s and early 1960s, recreational scuba diving
was a sport limited because _______.
A. divers did not like to take part in any intensive training courses
B. there were not any intensive training courses for divers
C. there were not enough kit for many divers
D. kit and intensive training were too expensive for many people to afford
39. These following sentences are true EXCEPT _______.
A. In the early 1950s, anyone who wanted to dive could be professionally trained.
B. In the early 1950s, there were no training courses available to civilians who bought the first
scuba equipment.
C. As recreational diving became more popular, manufacturers have made more and more diving
equipment.
D. Advances in scuba technology encourage more and more people to train and use it.
40. Holiday divers _______.
A. do not like to dive in tropical and sub-tropical parts
B. can dive as deep as they like because of safety
C. are those who go away from home to dive
D. are limited in tropical and sub-tropical parts
Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Water polo is a rapidly growing sport in the United States and internationally as (41) ______. For
anyone involved in playing or being a spectator, it is important to understand the rules of the game.
Each team (42) ______ of one goalie and six field players. Each field player plays both offense and
defense, and the goalie is not allowed on the other half of the pool. There are many different
arrangements of players in front of the goal. The (43) ______ of the players depends on the play
that is being run, similar to basketball or hockey.
One important rule is that the ball can only be handled by one hand at a time. If a player (44) ______
the ball, which is the size of a volley ball, yellow and with rubber grip, with both hands, the referee
calls a turnover and the possession of the ball goes to the opposing team.
The playing time, (45) ______ on the rules of play and the level of competition. Usually, men play
four 7-minute quarters while women play four 6-minute quarters. Teams are usually allowed 2 time
outs per game, but this may vary. (46) ______ consist of swimsuits for both men and women, as
well as a cap on the head with plastic ear protectors and the player's number on both sides. Visiting
teams wear lighter color caps, while home wears the darker color. In (47) ______, one point is
given for each time the ball is thrown into the goal, and in some leagues there is a 2-point line
several meters out of the goal. Each quarter begins with a (48) ______ in which the fastest
members of each team race toward the ball, which is placed at the halfway point on the water by
the referee.
Water polo is an (49) ______, challenging, and fun sport. It is full contact and its competitiveness
cannot be underestimated. The game is great to watch and (50) ______ better to play. You may not
imagine what goes on underwater that no one, especially not the referee, can see. Water polo is a
growing sport for good reason, and it may soon be one of the leading sports for both men and
women's athletics.
41. A. well B. too C. so D. also
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42. A. contains B. includes C. consists D. involves

43. A. situation B. location C. position D. attention
44. A. fetches B. clutches C. shakes D. holds
45. A. takes B. depends C. interests D. attracts
46. A. Suits B. Dresses C. Costumes D. Uniforms
47. A. scoring B. marking C. getting D. penalizing
48. A. jog B. sprint C. walk D. run
49. A. excite B. excitement C. exciting D. excited
50. A. as B. even C. than D. more

REVIEW UNIT 10, 11, 12

TEST 1
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
(0,75m)
1. A. enjoyed B. digested C. chewed D. killed
2. A. punch B. touching C. match D. synchronized
3. A. penalize B. penalty C. center D. eject

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others: (0,75m)
4. A. extinction B. construction C. wonderful D. endanger
5. A. reduce B. serious C. swallow D. separate
6. A. information B. discovery C. entertainment D. scientific

III. Choose the best option to complete the following sentences: (5ms)
7. - “I’m taking my diving contest tomorrow”
- “__________.”
A. Luck! B. Best wishes! C. Good luck! D. Good chance!
8. This book __________ to Peter. It is not mine.
A. possesses B. owns C. has D. belongs
9. ______ how to use this vacuum cleaner and I'll help you clean the house.
A. If you show me B. When you show me
C. Show me D. Unless you show me
10. The referee had no hesitation in awarding the visiting team a __________.
A. penalty B. penalize C. penal D. penalization
11. Banana leaves should __________ to wrap things instead of plastic bags.
A. have used B. use C. be using D. be used
12. We spend more time watching TV than reading books. But ___ fact, TV has not killed reading.
A. for B. in C. at D. on
13. _________ is the existence of a wide variety of plant and animal species living in their natural
environment.
A. Individual B. Conservation C. Globe D. Biodiversity
14. Many species have become extinct each year before biologists can identify them.
A. destroy B. drain C. discover D. endanger
15. Books in the home are the wonderful __________ of knowledge and pleasure.
A. supply B. source C. origin D. provision
16. The reference book is expensive, so I think I’ll borrow it from the ……………………………,
rather than buying it.
A. library B. bookshop C. newsagent’s D. school’s shop
17. The director ………………………at the airport.
A. must meet B. must to be met C. have to be meet D. must be met
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18. Today many species of plant and animal are in…………………….of extinction.
A. threat B. need C. plenty D. danger
19. “I like scuba diving”
- “__________.”
A. Me too! B. Also me C. For me the same D. I also
20. During the last few decades, human beings have done a great……………………to the
environment.
A. pollution B. impact C. damage D. danger
21. You………………………smoke in here. It’s against the rules.
A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. mightn’t D. don’t have to
22. Taking soup is easy and fast; just put it in your mouth and………………………
A. chew B. swallow C. taste D. digest
23. It gives her great……………………to work with these young children.
A. time B. taste C. pleasure D. happy
24. The first water polo rules were set……………………by William Wilson in 1876.
A. in B. up C. off D. out
25. ……………………1900 water polo has been in the program of the Olympic Games.
A. For B. In C. Since D. By
26. The ball is…………………in Water Polo by dribbling and passing.
A. advanced B. held C. passed D. sprinted

IV. Mistake correction: (1m)

27. Don’t worry! The train will be arrived soon.
A. Don’t B. worry C. The D. be arrived
28. In water polo, you have to rise your head above water when moving the ball.
A. In water polo B. to rise C. above D. moving
29. There are many reasons why a particular species may become endanger.
A. why B. species C. may D. endanger
30. My brother can’t walk to work now because his broken leg.
A. can’t B. to C. because D. broken

V. Reading comprehension:
Cloze test:
* Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.
(1.25ms)
Water polo is a rapidly (31) __________ sport in the United States and internationally as well. For
anyone (32) __________ in playing or being a spectator, it is important to understand the rules of
the game.
Each team consists of one goalie and six field players. Each field player plays both offense and
defense, and the goalie (33) __________ allowed on the other half of the pool. There are many
different arrangements of players in front of the goal.
The position of the players depends on the play that is being run, (34) __________ to basketball or
hockey.
One important rule is that the ball can only be handled by one hand at a time. If a player holds the
ball, which is the size of a volley ball, yellow and with rubber grip, (35) __________ both hands,
the referee calls a turnover and the possession of the ball goes to the opposing team.

31. A. grown B. growing C. grew D. growth

32. A. involved B. dealt C. insisted D. interested
33. A. isn’t B. hasn’t C. doesn’t D. won’t
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34. A. the same B. similar C. like D. as

35. A. by B. in C. with D. for
* Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer. (1,25ms)
When I opened the first "Body Shop" in 1976, my only object was to earn enough to feed my
children. Today "The Body Shop" is an international company rapidly growing all around the
world. In the years since we began I have learned a lot. Much of what I have learned will be found
in this book, for I believe that we, as a company, have something worth saying about how to run a
successful business without giving up what we really believe in.
It's not an ordinary business book, nor is it just about my life. The message is that to succeed in
business you have to be different. Business can be fun, a business can be run with love and it can
do good. In business, as in life, I need to enjoy myself, to have a feeling of family and to feel
excited by the unexpected. I have always wanted the people who work for "The Body Shop" to feel
the same way.
Now this book sends these ideas of mine out into the world. I'd like to think there are no limits to
our "family", no limits to what can be done. I find that an exciting thought. I hope you do, too.

36. What is the writer's main purpose in writing this text?

A. To tell the reader her life story
B. To tell the reader how she brought up a family
C. To explain how international companies operate
D. To introduce her ideas to the reader
37. What would someone learn from this text?
A. How to make a lot of money
B. How to write a book about business
C. What the writer's family is like
D. What the writer's book is about
38. How does the writer feel about the business she runs?
A. She doesn't care about success if her children are fed.
B. She just runs it for her own entertainment.
C. It is not like any other company.
D. It is likely to become even more successful.
39. What kind of workers does the writer like to employ?
A. Worker who can explain her ideas
B. Workers who have the same attitudes as she does
C. Workers who get on well with the public
D. Workers who have their own families
40. What kind of person does the writer seem to be?
A. She seems to be someone with strong opinions.
B. She doesn't seem to be very confident.
C. She is mainly interested in making money.
D. She sees running a business as just a job.

TEST 2
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
(0,75m)
1. A. sprint B. diving C. vertical D. windsurfing
2. A. foul B. found C. allow D. backstroke
3. A. through B. enough C. cough D. laugh

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others: (0,75m)
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4. A. digest B. survive C. swallow D. unnoticed

5. A. fascinating B. amazing C. incredible D. romance
6. A. reserve B. wildlife C. conserve D. prevent

III. Choose the best option to complete the following sentences: (5ms)
7. Minor _______ occur when a player prevents the free movement of an opponent in the swimming
pool.
A. penalties B. shots C. fouls D. motions
8. The government should __________ new laws to conserve wildlife in the area.
A. announce B. publish C. maintain D. enact
9. Many schools provide environmental education to increase students’ awareness of conservation
needs.
A. efforts B. laws C. knowledge D. results
10. - “Would you like to go for a drink with me?”
- “Yes, __________.”
A. I’d love to B. I go C. I can’t D. I like
11. Have you got any books on business methods or any similar __________?
A. matter B. content C. author D. subject
12. I'm reading a Stephen King's novel. It's really exciting and I couldn't put it __________.
A. off B. down C. on D. up
13. On behalf of the __________ country, Prime Minister Phan Van Khai declared the 22nd SEA
Games opening ceremony.
A. visiting B. guest C. home D. host
14. _________ is a game played in a pool in which two teams try to score goals with a ball.
A. Swimming B. Football C. Water polo D. Water skiing
15. - “You don’t work at weekends, do you?”
- “__________.”
A. Yes, please B. Of course not C. No problem D. Never mind
16. My mother had asked me to clean the house. It had to _______ before my mother came back
home.
A. be cleaned B. being cleaned C. be cleaning D. clean
17. People enjoy a book __________ different ways.
A. with B. in C. for D. on
18. I know what you mean, so you……………………explain further.
A. won’t B. mightn’t C. mustn’t D. needn’t
19. A majority of local people have been infected with a dangerous disease because of
the……………………water taken from the river.
A. contaminated B. dusty C. polluting D. chemical
20. Wildlife groups are protesting……………………the proposal to dam the river,
A. over B. against C. for D. on
22. If you went to bed for an hour, you………………….feel better.
A. may B. might C. must D. should
23. This popular TV game show…………………..by about 10 million people every Saturday
evening.
A. has been watchingB. is watching C. is watched D. watches
24. The goal in the last few minutes took the score to 2 – 2. The match ended in a………
A. record B. triumph C. champion D. tie
25. In water polo, no player except the……………………can hold the ball with both hands.
A. defender B. attacker C. goalie D. referee
26. We don’t want……………………any mistakes in his composition.
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A. him to make B. his making C. that he makes D. he’ll make

IV. Mistake correction: (1m)

27. Although I wanted to go to the concert tonight, I decided staying at home.
A. Although B. to go C. the concert D. staying
28. Nearly every region of the earth have been affected by human activity, particularly during this
past century.
A. Nearly B. have been C. affected D. during
29. Live healthily you should do exercises regularly and stop smoking.
A. Live healthily B. do exercises C. regularly D. stop smoking
30. Some species will become extinct if we do nothing for preserve their habitat.
A. species B. extinct C. for D. their

V. Reading comprehension:
Cloze test:
* Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.
(1.25ms)
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (31) __________. Many
species of animals are threatened, and will easily become extinct if we do not make an effort to (32)
__________them. There are many reasons for this. Animals are hunted for their fur or for other
valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught and sold as pets.
For many animals and birds, the problem is that their (33) __________ – the place where they live –
is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry. Farmers (34) __________
powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment
and harm wildlife. The most successful animals on earth – human beings – will soon be the only
ones left (35) __________ we can solve this problem.

31. A. threat B. danger C. problem D. vanishing

32. A. protect B. ensure C. serve D. harm
33. A. habitat B. house C. place D. cage
34. A. are used B. use C. used D. don’t use
35. A. because B. however C. unless D. if
* Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer. (1,25ms)
Many people believe that watching television has resulted in lower reading standards in schools.
However, the link between television and printed books is not as simple as that. In many cases,
television actually encourages people to read ; for example, when a book is turned into a TV series,
its sales often go up.
One study of this link examined six-year-old children who were viewing a special series of 15-
minute programs at school. The series was designed to encourage love of books, as well as to
develop the basic mechanical skills of reading. Each program is an animated film of a children's
book. The story is read aloud and certain key phrases from the book appear on the screen, beneath
the picture. Whenever a word is read, it is also highlighted on the TV screen.
One finding was that watching these programs was very important to the children. If anything
prevented them from seeing a program, they were very disappointed. What's more, they wanted to
read the books which the different parts of the series were based on.
The programs also gave the children more confidence when looking at these books. As a result of
their familiarity with the stories, they would sit in pairs and read the stories aloud to each other. On
each occasion, the children showed great sympathy when discussing a character in a book because
they themselves had been moved when watching the character on television.

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36. What is the main idea of the book?

A. The simple link between television and books.
B. The ways of children reading books and watching TV
C. The advantage of books over television.
D. The influence of television on reading books.
37. When does television encourage people to read?
A. When there are no interesting programs on TV.
B. When children are watching an animated film on TV.
C. When a book appears on the screen.
D. When a book is made into a TV series.
38. How did children feel when viewing a special series of 15-minute program at school?
A. They felt disappointed
B. They felt bored.
C. They felt excited..
D. They felt confident.
39. What kind of film is each program?
A. A story film of a children's book.
B. An animated film of a children's book.
C. An educational film.
D. A documentary film of children's life.
40. What advantage did children have from this program?
A. They read books with more interest and confidence.
B. They became more sympathetic.
C. They made more friends.
D. They became more interested in watching TV.

nd
UNIT 13: THE 22 SEA GAMES
I. Vocabulary
No. New word Phonetic Meaning
description
take place = happen / occur
Sea Games = Southeast Asian
Games
hold – held – held - (be)
held
host (n, v) /hoʊst/
spirit (n) /ˈspɪrɪt/
enthusiast (n) /inj‘θju:æst/
=> enthusiasm (n) /ɪnˈθuːziæzəm/
=> enthusiastic /ɪnˌθuːziˈæstɪk/
cooperation (n) /koʊˌɑːpəˈreɪʃn/
=> co-operate (v) /koʊˈɑːpəreɪt/
athlete (n) /ˈæθliːt/
participating country
compete (v)
=> competitor (n)
=> competition (n)

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compose of = consist of
close to
rank (v) /ræŋk/
participant (n) /pɑːrˈtɪsɪpənt/
=> participate in (v)
=> participation (n)
present (v) /ˈpreznt/
outstanding (a) = excellent (a) /aʊtˈstændɪŋ/
title (n)
energy (n) /ˈenərdʒi/
=> energetic (n)
prepare for
carry out = conduct
countryman – countrymen (n)
propose (v) /prəˈpoʊz/
=> proposal (n) = suggestion /prəˈpoʊzl/
(n)
athletics (n) /æθˈletɪks/
cycling (n) /ˈsaɪklɪŋ/
break a record
score a goal
solidarity (n) /ˌsɑːlɪˈdærəti/
II. Vocabulary exercise:
1. Johnny used to be one of the most _______ athletes in my country.
A. succeed B. success C. successful D. successfully
2. The 22nd SEA Games consisted of athletes from eleven _____ countries.
A. participate B. participant C. participation D. participating
3. _______, the athlete broke the world's record with two attempts.
A. Surprise B. Surprised C. Surprising D. Surprisingly
4. On behalf of the referees and athletes, referee Hoang Quoc Vinh and shooter Nguyen Manh
Tuong swore to an oath of "_______, Honesty and Fair Play".
A. Performance B. Delegation C. Participation D. Solidarity
5. The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.
A. organized B. impressed C. participated D. defended
6. The ASEAN Para-Games is a biannual multi-sport _______ held after every Southeast Asian
Games for athletes with physical disabilities.
A. games B. event C. work D. situation
7. In beach volleyball, Indonesia defeated Thailand in straight sets to take men's gold _______.
A. present B. award C. medal D. reward
8. The 22nd SEA Games was the first time when Vietnam finished top of the medal _______.
A. standings B. events C. spirits D. programs
9. Viet Nam's successful hosting of the 22nd SEA Games is considered a/an _____ example for
other countries to follow, particularly in honesty, consistence and organizing method.
A. festival B. peaceful C. energetic D. outstanding
10. The number of Vietnamese sport officials and referees of international standard taking part in
regional tournaments has increased rapidly.
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A. hosting B. participating C. achieving D. succeeding

11. At the 23rd SEA Games, Viet Nam proved its position in the region by ____ third behind the
host - the Philippines and second-ranked Thailand.
A. finishing B. playing C. preparing D. performing
12. In the 22nd SEA Games in 2003, the country _______ the competition with 340 medals,
including 156 golds, 91 silvers and 93 bronzes.
A. defended B. cost C. topped D. ranked
13. To improve its athletes' _______, Viet Nam has regularly exchanged delegation of sport
officials, coaches, referees and athletes with other countries.
A. team B. competitor C. appearance D. performance
14. _______ is the activity of doing special exercises regularly in order to make your muscles grow
bigger.
A. Wrestling B. Bodybuilding C. Weightlifting D. Badminton
15. He is a great sports _______. He rarely misses any sport games although he was busy.
A. enthusiast B. player C. energy D. programmer
16. At the 23rd SEA Games, Viet Nam proved its position in the region by ____ third behind the
host - the Philippines and second-ranked Thailand.
A. finishing B. playing C. preparing D. performing
nd
17. How many _______ took part in the 22 SEA Games?
A. compete B. competitors C. competition D. competitor
nd
18. The second part of the program in the 22 SEA Games opening ceremony was named "_______
for Peace".
A. Cooperate B. Cooperation C. Cooperative D. Cooperatively
19. The _______ wanted to reduce the breadth of the games, with many events currently having
small fields and weak competition.
A. organize B. organization C. organizable D. organizers
20. Before the 22nd SEA Games, Vietnam had made a good _______ in every aspect.
A. prepare B. preparation C. preparative D. preparer
21. ASEAN press praised the great _______ of Vietnamese athletes at the 22nd SEA Games.
A. sports B. sportsman C. sporting D. sportsmanship
22. The success of the 22nd SEA Games had a great contribution of many _______ volunteers.
A. support B. supporter C. supportive D. supportively
23. Since its rejoining in the Southeast Asian arena in 1989, Viet Nam's sports have made great
_______, particularly in recent SEA Games.
A. success B. invention C. host D. game
24. The athlete had tried his best to _______ his SEA Games title and records.
A. carry B. perform C. defend D. support
25. Viet Nam is now willing to _______ part in the 24th SEA Games hosted by Thailand by the end
of 2007 with a total of 958 athletes.
A. play B. lose C. take D. enjoy
III. Grammar
DOUBLE COMPARISON:
1- So sánh kép trong bản thân một sự vật , hiện tượng : ……..càng ngày càng ……..
a- Tính từ ngắn : ( Short adjectives )
Ex1: The weather is getting hotter and hotter
S + V + adi + er + and + adj + er
b- Tính từ dài ( long adjectives ) :
Ex2: She becomes more and more beautiful.
S + V + more and more + adj / adv

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2- So sánh kép liên quan đến hai hay nhiều sự vật , hiện tượng : .... càng …càng …
* Với tính từ ngắn: The adj. + er......., the adj. + er….
Ex1: The darker it gets, the colder it is.
* Với tính từ dài: The more adj......., the more adj.........
Ex2: The more beautiful she is, the more miserable her husband is.
* Với động từ: the more...., the more......
Ex3: The more you learn, the more you forget.
* Với danh từ: The more N…...., the more………
Ex: The more books your read, the more knowledge you get.
* Note: Có thể dùng câu so sánh cho trạng từ hoặc 2 vế so sánh khác nhau:
Ex: The faster you drive, the sooner you arrive.
Ex: The longer he waited, the more impatient he came.
Ex: The more electricity you use, the higher your bill is.
Ex: The faster people drive, the more accidents happens
3. Càng ít........, thì càng ít........ Càng kém....., ....thì càng kém......
* Với tính từ: The less + adj........, the less + adj. .......
Ex5: The less difficult the lessons are, the less hard-working the students.
* Với động từ : the less....., the less.....
Ex6: The less I live with him, the less I like him.
IV. Grammar exercise:
A. Choose the best answer:
1……………you study for these exams, ………..you will do.
A. The harder/ the better B. The more / the much
C. The hardest / the best D. The more hard / the more good
2. My neighbour is driving me mad! It seems that………….it is at night , ……………he plays his
music!
A. the less / the more loud B. the less / less
C. the more late / the more loudlier D. the later / the louder
3. Thanks to the progress of science and technology, our lives have become………….
A. more and more good B. better and better
C. the more and more goodD. gooder and gooder
4.The Sears Tower is…………..building in Chicago.
A. taller B. the more tall C. the tallest D. taller and taller
5. Peter is……………John.
A. younger and more intelligent than B. more young and intelligent than
C. more intelligent and younger than D. the more intelligent and younger than
6.Robert does not have………….Peter does.
A. money more than B. as many money as
C. more money as D. as much money as
7. It gets…………..when the winter is coming.
A. cold and cold B. the coldest and coldest
C. colder and colder D. more and more cold
8.French is a…………language to learn than English is.
A. difficult B. more difficult C. most difficult D. more and more difficult
9. Of the two students, Sarah is the ……………
A. most intelligent B. more intelligent C. intelligent D.most intelligently
10.A car is……………….than a motorbike.
A. cheap B. cheaper C. expensive D. more expensive
11. Thanks to the great effort of doctors and nurses, her health is getting…………….
A. worse B. better C. worse and worse D. better and better
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12. Day by day we are all getting…………..

A. older and older B. fatter and fatter C. wiser and healthier D. richer
13. The more you work, the…………you can earn.
A. more promotion B. more tired C. more money D. more experience
14. The more I live with her, the …….I understand her.
A. more B. most C. best D. deeper
15. The more………you eat, the fatter you become.
A. vegetables B. fish C. meat D. fruit
16. Nowadays everything is getting………….
A. more expensive B.more expensive and more expensive
C. more and more expensive D. the most expensive
17. The fatter I become, the…………I run.
A. quicker B. more slowly C. slower D. more fast
18. The winter is coming, it is getting…………
A. more cold B. the more cold C. colder and colder D. the most cold
19. he learns English…………….than we do.
A. badly B. badlier C. more badly D. worse
20. Their house is……………beautiful than mine
A. as B. more C. much D. so
B. Choose the underlined part among A,B,C or D that needs correcting.

11. The fastest you drive, the greater you get.

A B C D
12. This exercise is much more easier than the others.
A B C D
13. Prevention is more cheaper and more effective than any kind of treatment.
A B C D
14. They treat women more equally as people in the North.
A B C D
15. The Amazon and the Nile are the two larger rivers in the world.
A B C D
16. John can play tennis much better more than I can.
A B C D
17. Don’t you think this is most boring film you have ever seen?
A B C D
18. London is much more exciting as I expected.
A B C D
19. The large the room is, more people can sit in it.
A B C D
20. The suitcase seemed to get heavy and heavier as I carried it along the road.
A B C D
C. Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the
given one.
21. The more money Peter makes, the more his wife spends.
A. Peter spends more money than his wife. B. Peter and his wife both make money.
C. Peter spends the money his wife makes. D. Peter’s wife keeps spending more money.
22. The exam was much easier than he had expected.
A. The exam was much easier that he finished it all.
B. He did not find the exam as difficult as he had thought.
C. It’s possible for him to perform well on the exam.
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D. He had expected that the exam was easy.

23. Peter drives more carefully than Tom.
A. Peter is a more careless driver than Tom. B. Tom doesn’t drive as carefully as Peter.
C. Peter isn’t a more careful driver than Tom. D. Tom drives less careful than Peter.
24. The book interested me more than the film.
A. I thought the book was more interesting than the film.
B. In my opinion the film was not as interested as the book.
C. I thought the book didn’t interest me as the film.
D. In my opinion the film bored me than the book.
25. The South of England is drier than the North.
A. There is not as much rain in the south of England as in the North.
B. There is not as dry in the North of England as in the South.
C. It is not so dry in the South of England as in the North.
D. There are more rains in the North of England as in the South.
26. No one in the team can play better than John.
A. John plays well but the others play better.
B. John as well as other players of the team plays very well.
C. Everyone in the team, but John, plays very well.
D. John is the best player of the team.
27. He only feels happy whenever he does not have much work to do.
A. The more he works, the happier he feels.
B. The less he works, the happier he feels.
C. His work makes him feel happy.
D. He feels happier and happier with his work.
28. I learn a lot but I cannot remember anything.
A. I learn more and more and remember more and more.
B. The less I learn, the more I remember.
C. The more I learn, the less I remember.
D. I remember notonly what I have learnt.
29. As I get older, I want to travel less.
A. I’m getting older and older, so I don’t want to travel more.
B. The more I get old, the less I want to travel.
C. I don’t want to travel because of my old age.
D. The older I get, the less I want to travel.
30. More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.
A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.
B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.
C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.
D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.
V. Practice test unit 13
TEST 1
A. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
1. A. events B. spirit C. Asian D. silver
2. A. gold B. region C. organize D. game.
3. A. trained B. proved C. impressed D. performed
4. A. competitor B. medal C. level D. development
5. A. honor B. high C. host D. hold
B. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the
underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. In _______ 22nd SEA Games, Vietnam won 158 _______ gold medals.
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A. Ø / the B. the / Ø C. a / the D. the / the

7. _______ logo of the 22nd SEA Games is the stylization of Lac bird, the ancient bird pictured
of the face of Ngoc Lu kettledrum, _______ most special and typical relic of the ancient
Vietnamese culture.
A. A / the B. The / the C. Ø / Ø D. The / Ø
8. _______ symbol of the SEA Games Federation is to emphasize the solidarity, friendship, and
nobility.
A. A B. An C. The D. Ø
9. The host country, Laos, is expected to announce official sports for 25th SEA Games _______
November 2008.
A. on B. in C. during D. from
10. Vietnam recommended archery, vovinam, billiards-snooker and canoeing _______ official
sports at the games.
A. at B. with C. as D. in
11. The Party and State leaders, delegates, domestic arid international guests, and 11 sports
delegations _______ Southeast Asian countries to the 22nd SEA Games were warmly
welcomeD.
A. over B. at C. for D. from
12. Johnny used to be one of the most _______ athletes in my country.
A. succeed B. success C. successful D. successfully
nd
13. The 22 SEA Games consisted of athletes from eleven _____ countries.
A. participate B. participant C. participation D. participating
14. _______, the athlete broke the world's record with two attempts.
A. Surprise B. Surprised C. Surprising D. Surprisingly
15. On behalf of the referees and athletes, referee Hoang Quoc Vinh and shooter Nguyen Manh
Tuong swore to an oath of "_______, Honesty and Fair Play".
A. Performance B. Delegation C. Participation D. Solidarity
16. The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.
A. organized B. impressed C. participated D. defended
17. The ASEAN Para-Games is a biannual multi-sport _______ held after every Southeast Asian
Games for athletes with physical disabilities.
A. games B. event C. work D. situation
18. In beach volleyball, Indonesia defeated Thailand in straight sets to take men's gold _______.
A. present B. award C. medal D. reward
nd
19. The 22 SEA Games was the first time when Vietnam finished top of the medal _______.
A. standings B. events C. spirits D. programs
20. Viet Nam's successful hosting of the 22nd SEA Games is considered a/an _____ example for
other countries to follow, particularly in honesty, consistence and organizing method.
A. festival B. peaceful C. energetic D. outstanding
21. _______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do.
A. The harder / the better B. The more / the much
C. The hardest / the best D. The more hard / the more good,
22. My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that _______ it is at night, _______ he plays his
music!
A. the less / the more loud B. the less / less
C. the more late / the more loudlier D. the later / the louder
23. Thanks to the progress of science and technology, our lives have become _______.
A. more and more good B. better and better
C. the more and more good D. gooder and gooder
24. The Sears Tower is _______ building in Chicago.
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A. taller B. the more tall C. the tallest D. taller and taller

25. Petrol is _______ it used to.
A. twice as expensive as B. twice expensive more than
C. twice more than expensive D. more expensive than twice
26. Peter is _______ John.
A. younger and more intelligent than
B. more young and intelligent than
C. more intelligent and younger than
D. the more intelligent and younger than
27. San Diego is town in Southern California.
A. more nice and nice B. the nicer
C. the nicest D. nicer and nicer
28. It gets _______ when the winter is coming.
A. cold and cold B. the coldest and coldest
C. colder and colder D. more and more cold
29. Robert does not have _______ Peter does.
A. money more than B. as many money as
C. more money as D. as much money as
30. The Mekong Delta is _______ deltas in Vietnam.
A. the largest of the two B. the more larger of the two
C. one of the two largest D. one of the two larger
C. Error Identification.
31. The Southeast Asian Games, also knowing as the SEA Games, is a
A
biennial multi-sport event involving participants from the current eleven
B C
countries of Southeast Asia.
D
32. The SEA Games are under regulation of the Southeast Asian Games
AB
Federation with supervision by the International Olympic Committee
C D
and the Olympic Council of Asia.
33. The proposed rationale was that a regional sports event will help
A B
promote cooperative, understanding and relations among countries in.
C D
the Southeast Asian region
34. The first SEA Games were held in Bangkok, Thailand, from 12 to 17
A B
December,1959 comprising more and more 527 athletes and officials
C D
from Southeast countries participating in 12 sports competitions.
35. The next host for the SEA Games is Laos. It is Laos' the first time as
A B C
the host for the biannual- games.
D
D. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
The 22nd SEA Games, hosted this year by Vietnam, has joined the international movement to rid
sports of tobacco. For the first time, the regional sporting event will be tobacco-free under a
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landmark cooperative agreement signed in April 2003 between the World Health Organization
(WHO), the 22nd SEA Games Organizing Committee and the Vietnamese Ministry of Health.
Hanoi Health Department has organized a press seminar to celebrate and raise awareness about the
tobacco-free SEA Games.
The 22nd SEA Games is the first games hosted by Vietnam and 10 countries from the Southeast
Asian region with nearly 8,000 athletes and coaches will participate. It will be the first tobacco-free
international sporting event in Vietnam, joining other international tobacco-free sporting events
such as the FIFA World Cup 2002, and the Winter Olympic Games 2002.
The 22nd SEA Games will ban all sales, advertising and other promotion of tobacco products, and
restricts smoking in all Games venues. The aim is to protect spectators, athletes, event staff, media
and other visitors from the serious health hazards of second-hand tobacco smoke, as well as to
change public attitudes about the social acceptability of smoking.
Madame Pascale Brudon, WHO Representative in Vietnam, stated, "Vietnam has established 3 years
ago a comprehensive, ambitious national tobacco control policy and a national tobacco control
program. The tobacco-free 22nd SEA Games will be yet another area where Vietnam is leading the
way for other countries in the region and the world in protecting its citizens from the debilitating
and disastrous consequences of tobacco use."
WHO has provided funding and technical assistance to the SEA Games Organizing Committee and
Vietnamese Ministry of Health to train of over 4,000 SEA Games organizers and volunteers on the
implementation of the tobacco-free policy. An international team of trainers from the Ministry of
Health, International Organization for Good Temper (lOGT), WHO and International Development
Enterprises (IDE) began a series of national training workshops for volunteers in April, 2003.
The tobacco-free SEA Games are an inspiration and a model for other sport events, big and small,
not only in Vietnam but also in the Southeast Asian and Western Pacific Region.
36. In the 22nd SEA Games _______.
A. there will be the attendance of athletes from the World Health Organization
B. smoking is not allowed
C. smoking is only for the leader, not any athletes
D. is held by the Vietnamese Ministry of Health
37. According to the text, _______.
A. Vietnam has ever organized several tobacco-free sport events before the 22nd SEA Games
B. the tobacco-free SEA Games in Vietnam has not been approved by any world organizations
C. the tobacco-free SEA Games is not announced to newspapers and magazines
D. the tobacco-free SEA Games in Vietnam has been encouraged and supported by many world
organizations
38. According to the third paragraph, _______.
A. tobacco companies can have an advertising campaign during the SEA Games
B. second-hand tobacco smoke cannot cause any harm to the athletes in the 22nd SEA Games
C. cigarettes are not allowed to sell in the 22nd SEA Games venues
D. everyone can buy cigarettes in the 22nd SEA Games venues except the athletes
39. One of the aims of the tobacco-free SEA Games is
A. to sell more and more tobacco during the event
B. to change public attitudes about the social acceptability of smoking
C. to reduce the production of tobacco
D. to help athletes to solve the problems of the serious health hazards
40. Which sentence is not true?
A. Vietnam itself has to pay a lot for the volunteers on the implementation of the tobacco-free
policy.
B. The tobacco-free SEA Games in Vietnam get great support from several world organizations
C. The tobacco-free SEA Games is considered a model for other sport events.
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D. There are national training workshops for volunteers in April, 2003 for the tobacco-free SEA
Games.
E. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
That is a program of Ho Chi Minh City Youth Union to (41) _____ individuals, domestic and
foreign organizations buy and use bicycles during the time (42) _____ they enjoy the SEA Games
22 in Ho Chi Minh City then donate the bicycles to poor children.
Preparing (43) _____, this program, the Organizing Committee has signed a (44) _____ with Martin
- a bicycle-making firm - to purchase 1,000 bicycles, at prices from 850,000 to 1,000,000 VND per
bicycle -10% (45) _____ than market prices, with nearly 20 different models. In the mid of
November, The Organizing Committee will announce, promote, and (46) _____ the program "SEA
Games Iron Horses - For Poor Children" through (47) _____ at airport, on buses, taxis, at
information desks, posters, banners, newspapers, and websites of city Youth Union. Besides 1,200
volunteers (48) _____ the SEA Games 22, the Organizing Committee also recruits 100 active
volunteers for this program to handle the handover and receiving bikes, instructing participating
tourists, giving (49) _____ to questions through hot lines.
This program both conveys practical significance and helps international friends to understand
further the nation and people of Viet, Nam as well as strengthen the friendship and (50) _____
among nations.
41. A. require B. contribute C. encourage D. raise
42. A. where B. which C. that D. when
43. A. for B. on C. of D. about
44. A. document B. contract C. letter D. report
45. A. low B. lower C. the lower D. the lowest
46. A. public B. publicly C. publicizing D. publicize
47. A. book B. tickets C. leaflets D. sheets
48. A. serving B. taking C. running D. hosting
49. A. enquiries B. letters C. responses D. demands
50. A. cooperation B. participation C. achievement D. success

TEST 2
A. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. enthusiast B. successfully C. competitor D. participation
2. A. spirit B. impress C. event D. perform
3. A. development B. cooperation C. surprisingly D. facility
4. A. festival B. badminton C. participant D. organize
5. A. solidarity B. energetic C. excellently D. combination
B. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence,
substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. Vietnam was _______ host country of the 22nd SEA Games.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
7. The 22nd SEA Games Mascot is _______ Golden Buffalo.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
8. To prepare for the 22nd SEA Games, Vietnam carried out _______ intensive program for the
athletes.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
nd
9. How many _______ took part in the 22 SEA Games?
A. compete B. competitors C. competition D. competitor
nd
10. The second part of the program in the 22 SEA Games opening ceremony was named
"_______ for Peace".
A. Cooperate B. Cooperation C. Cooperative D. Cooperatively
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11. The _______ wanted to reduce the breadth of the games, with many events currently having
small fields and weak competition.
A. organize B. organization C. organizable D. organizers
12. In 2006, Viet Nam made a deep impression ______ other countries in the region by
successfully hosting the Southeast Asian Student Sport Festival.
A. with B. for C. in D. on
13. The Southeast Asian Student Sport Festival is the biggest sport event _______ the youths in
the region.
A. for B. on C. in D. of
14. At his last attempt the athlete was successful _______ passing the bar.
A. in B. for C. with D. on
15. The number of Vietnamese sport officials and referees of international standard taking part
in regional tournaments has increased rapidly.
A. hosting B. participating C. achieving D. succeeding
16. At the 23rd SEA Games, Viet Nam proved its position in the region by ____ third behind the
host - the Philippines and second-ranked Thailand.
A. finishing B. playing C. preparing D. performing
17. In the 22nd SEA Games in 2003, the country _______ the competition with 340 medals,
including 156 golds, 91 silvers and 93 bronzes.
A. defended B. cost C. topped D. ranked
18. To improve its athletes' _______, Viet Nam has regularly exchanged delegation of sport
officials, coaches, referees and athletes with other countries.
A. team B. competitor C. appearance D. performance
19. _______ is the activity of doing special exercises regularly in order to make your muscles
grow bigger.
A. Wrestling B. Bodybuilding C. Weightlifting D. Badminton
20. He is a great sports _______. He rarely misses any sport games although he was busy.
A. enthusiast B. player C. energy D. programmer
21. As she did so, her parents became _______.
A. the angriest B. the most angry
C. the more angry D. angrier and angrier
22. People should eat ____ and do ____ to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A. less fat / more exercise B. less and less fat / the more exercise
C. the less fat / the more exercise D. fatter / more exercise
23. He spent a year in India and loves spicy food. _______ the food is, _______ he likes it.
A. The hotter / the more and more B. The hotter / the more
C. The more and more hot / the more D. The hottest / the most
24. Of course you can come to the party. _______.
A. The more the merrier B. The more and the merrier
C. The more and merrier D. The more and more merrier
25. I feel _______ I did yesterday.
A. much more tired than B. many more tired than
C. as many tired as D. as more tired as
26. She is _______ a spectator.
A. more an athlete than B. more of an athlete than
C. an athlete more than D. an athlete of more than
27. His house is _______ mine.
A. twice as big as B. as twice big as
C. as two times big as D. as big as twice
28. ____ live in Ho Chi Minh City than in the whole of the rest of the country.
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A. As much as people B. More people

C. As many as people D. People more
29. It gets _______ to understand what the professor has explained.
A. the more difficult B. more difficult than
C. difficult more and more D. more and more difficult
30. You must drive slower in built up areas. _______ you drive in the city, it is _______ that you
will have an accident.
A. The faster and faster / the more
B. The faster / the more probable
C. The more and more fast / the more and more probable
D. The more fastly / the probable
C. Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
31. There are more sports competed in this SEA Games than in last SEA Games.
A. The sports competed ill this SEA Games are the same as those in last SEA Games.
B. Not as many sports were competed in last SEA Games as in this SEA Games.
C. In the last SEA Games there were some sports which were not competed.
D. In this SEA Games, there are less sports competed than in last SEA Games.
32. No one in the team can play better than John.
A. John plays well but the others play better.
B. John as well as other players of the team plays very well.
C. Everyone in the team, but John, plays very well.
D. John is the best player of the team.
33. He only feels happy whenever he does not have much work to do.
A. The more he works, the happier he feels.
B. The less he works, the happier he feels:
C. His work makes him feel happy.
D. He feels happier and happier with his work.
34. More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.
A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.
B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.
C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.
D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.
35. I learn a lot but I cannot remember anything.
A. I learn more and more and remember more and more.
B. The less I learn, the more I remember.
C. The more I learn, the less I remember.
D. I remember not only what I have learnt.
D. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
th
The 25 SEA Games is scheduled to be held in Vientiane, Laos in 2009. This will be the first time
the country has ever held a Southeast Asian Games. If Laos failed to meet qualifications to hold the
event in time, the games would be moved to Singapore. It will also commemorate the 50 years of
the SEA Games.
Because of the limited sports facilities in Vientiane, only 25 sports will be in competition. Among
the sports will be missing from competition are cycling, gymnastics, hockey, rowing and
weightlifting. The 'games will retain events like tenpin bowling, petanque, billiards, 'dragon' boat
racing, sepak takraw, wushu, Muay Thai and pencak silat, and will resume the sport of juggling a
shuttlecock with feet. The cutback is partly due to the land-locked country - with no sailing,
windsurfing or triathlon and also lack of facilities in Vientiane.
Laos will host the games with a budget of $80 million, with the help of China who is building a new
stadium to be used as the main venue on a 182-hectare lot in the Vientiane suburb of Saythani
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district. The stadium will be the biggest in the country and will be able to accommodate over
20,000 spectators. Vietnamese government official has affirmed that Vietnam will help Laos
successfully organize the 25th SEA Games. Under the cooperation program, Vietnam will train Lao
coaches and athletes, provide equipment and 'send experts to Laos to help it successfully organize
the sporting event.
36. The 25th SEA Games in Vientiane, Laos in 2009 also commemorates the 50 years of the
SEA Games.
A. True B. False C. No information
37. Laos reduces some sport games due to the lack of facilities.
A. True B. False C. No information
38. Wushu will not be competed in the 25th SEA ,Games.
A. True B. False C. No information
39. Laos has not any help from foreign countries.
A. True B. False C. No information
40. All Laotian athletes are being trained in Vietnam.
A. True B. False C. No information
E. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
The 24th Southeast Asian Games was (41) _____ in Thailand from December 6 to December 16,
2007. The Thai Olympic Committee was (42) _____ the event to coincide with the commemoration
of 80th birthday of King Bhumibol Adulyadej. Officials were studying the possibility of doing the
events in multiple venues (43) _____ what had been done in Vietnam and the Philippines. It was
(44) _____ sixth time Thailand hosted the SEA Games. Thailand hosted the 1959, 1967, 1975,
1985 and 1995 SEA Games.
On 24 February 2006, northeast Thailand's Province authorities met to (45) _____ the 2007 SEA
Games schedule, and progress on the province's under-construction US$65 million sports complex.
The meeting provided an overview of (46) _____, and ended with reassurances that everything
would be ready (47) _____ SEA Games in 2007.
The sports (48) __ included a 5,000-seater indoor stadium and 16 tennis court facilities among other
facilities scheduled to be finished on June 2007.
The 2007 SEA Games featured (49) _____ than 400 events in 45 sports. The 24th edition of the
games had the highest number of sporting events in the entire (50) _____ of the SEA Games, more
events than the Asian Games and the Olympic Games.
41. A. held B. met C. seen D. committed
42. A. winning B. competing C. fighting D. planning
43. A. such as B. as C. likely D. like
44. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
45. A. talk B. discuss C. tell D. quarrel
46. A. facilities B. tools C. materials D. furniture
47. A. at B. on C. with D. for
48. A. places B. halls C. venues D. homes
49. A. rather B. more C. better D. as
50. A. history B. ancient C. former D. time

TEST 3
A. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the
rest.
1. A. games B. teams C. medals D. events
2. A. success B. enthusiast C. support D. surprised
3. A. southern B. athlete C. both D. enthusiasm
4. A. compose B. propose C. purpose D. suppose
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5. A. organize B. spirit C. title D. surprising

B. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the
underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. The 22nd SEA Games was launched by _______ impressive opening ceremony at Hanoi's
My Dinh National Stadium, in front of over 40,000 spectators.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
7. The opening ceremony of the 22nd SEA Games began at 7 pm with _______ song "Vietnam
- Our Fatherland".
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
8. On behalf of _______ host country; Prime Minister Phan Van Khai declared the 22nd SEA
Games opening ceremony.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
9. Before the 22nd SEA Games, Vietnam had made a good _______ in every aspect.
A. prepare B. preparation C. preparative D. preparer
10. ASEAN press praised the great _______ of Vietnamese athletes at the 22nd SEA Games.
A. sports B. sportsman C. sporting D. sportsmanship
11. The success of the 22nd SEA Games had a great contribution of many _______ volunteers.
A. support B. supporter C. supportive D. supportively
12. The delegation to the SEA Games was composed _______ top competitors of the country.
A. on B. of C. for D. among
13. All the audience was quite surprised _ the success of that young athlete.
A. on B. at C. to D. off
14. Thanks to the encouragement and support, all Vietnamese athletes competed _______ high
spirits.
A. for B. of C. on D. in
15. Since its rejoining in the Southeast Asian arena in 1989, Viet Nam's sports have made great
_______, particularly in recent SEA Games.
A. success B. invention C. host D. game
16. The athlete had tried his best to _______ his SEA Games title and records.
A. carry B. perform C. defend D. support
17. Viet Nam is now willing to _______ part in the 24th SEA Games hosted by Thailand by the
end of 2007 with a total of 958 athletes.
A. play B. lose C. take D. enjoy
18. _______ is a game in which two teams hit a large ball with their hands backwards and
forwards over a high net. If you allow the ball to touch the ground, the other team wins a point.
A. Volleyball B. Water polo C. Basket ball D. Badminton
19. He became Jamaica's first Olympic gold medalist when he won the 400-meter _______ in
1948.
A. distance B. title C. runner D. sport
20. She won the race in _______ time and got the gold medal.
A. included B. durable C. rank D. record
21. The party was _______ I had expected.
A. more a hundred times fun than B. a hundred times fun more than
C. a hundred times more fun than D. more fun than a hundred times
22. He finds physics _______ other science subjects.
A. far more difficult than B. many more difficult than
C. too much more difficult than D. more much difficult than
23. _______ he drank, _______ he became.
A. More / more violent B. The most / the most violent
C. The more / the more violent D. The less / less violent
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24. Mary was _______ of the two sisters.

A. the clever B. as clever as C. the cleverer D. the cleverest
25. French is a _______ language to learn than English is.
A. difficult B. more difficult C. most difficult D. more and more
difficult
26. The cuisine of France is _______.
A. more famous than that of England
B. famous than the cuisine of England
C. more famous than which of England
D. as famous than that of England
27. Earning money has always been the thing that pleases him most. _______ he becomes,
_______ he is.
A. The more rich / the more happy B. The richest / the happiest
C. The richer / the happier D. Richer and richer / happier and happier
28. The fast we finish, _______.
A. the sooner we can leave B. we can leave sooner and sooner
C. the sooner can we leave D. we can leave the sooner
29. Of all athletes, Alex is _______.
A. the less qualified B. the less and less qualified
C. the more and more qualified D. the least qualified,
30. The climber was seventy miles in the wrong direction and got _______.
A. more panicked B. the more panicked
C. more than panicked D. more and more panicked
C. Choose the best sentence that can be made from the words given.
31. the Euro Cup 2008/ Zurich / Tuesday, 17 June / Italy / beat / France / advance into the
quarterfinals
A. With the Euro Cup 2008 in Zurich on Tuesday, 17 June it was Italy beating France to advance
into the quarterfinals.
B. For the Euro Cup 2008 in Zurich on Tuesday, 17 June when Italy beat France and advanced into
the quarterfinals.
C. In the Euro Cup 2008 in Zurich on Tuesday, 17 June, Italy beat France to advance into the
quarterfinals.
D. It was in the Euro Cup 2008 in Zurich on Tuesday, 17 June, Italy beat France to advance into the
quarterfinals.
32. the world champion Italy / beat / France / 2-0 / eliminate / France / the European
championship
A. The world champion Italy, it beat France 2-0 to eliminate France from the European
championship.
B. The world champion Italy beat France 2-0 to eliminate France from the European championship.
C. The world champion Italy beat France 2-0 and so eliminate France from the European
championship.
D. The world champion Italy beating France 2-0 and eliminated France from the European
championship.
33. Italy / open its account (the 25th minute / Andrea Pirlo / convert the penalty into goal
A. Italy opened its account in the 25th minute and with Andrea Pirlo converted the penalty into goal.
B. Italy opened its account in the 25th minute when Andrea Pirlo converting the penalty into goal.
C. Italy opened its account in the 25th minute, Andrea Pirlo who converted the penalty into goal.
D. Italy opened its account in the 25th minute, with Andrea Pirlo converting the penalty into goal.
34. the French / unable to open their account / Italy's Daniele de Rossi / score / Italy's second
goal in the 62nd minute
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A. While the French were unable to open their account and Italy's Daniele de Rossi scored Italy's
second goal in the 62nd minute.
B. The French were unable to open their account, therefore, Italy's Daniele de Rossi scored Italy's
second goal in the 62nd minute.
C. The French were unable to open their account while Italy's Daniele de Rossi scored Italy's second
goal in the 62nd minute.
D. If French were unable to open their account while Italy's Daniele de Rossi would scored Italy's
second goal in the 62nd minute.
35. for France / unsuccessful match / lose / the key man Franck Ribery / serious injury / only
after seven minutes
A. For France, it was an unsuccessful match as it lost the key man Franck Ribery due to serious
injury only after seven minutes.
B. For France an unsuccessful match was when it lost the key man Franck Ribery for serious injury
in only after seven minutes.
C. For France had an unsuccessful match with losing the key man Franck Ribery because of serious
injury only after seven minutes.
D. For France was an unsuccessful match and it lost the key man Franck Ribery because serious
injury only after seven minutes.
D.Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
The 23rd Southeast Asian Games were held in the Philippines from November 27th to December
5th in 2005. The games were participated by the eleven nations of Southeast AsiA. This was the
first time that the opening and closing ceremonies were held in a large open field, despite the fact
that Manila has many stadiums. The organization decided to hold the games at an open space to
accommodate the large number of participants and spectators. As a result, the 2005 SEA Games
ranked as having the largest audience - 200,000 people – during the opening and closing
ceremonies. These games were also noted for having the most number of delegates in the history of
the SEA Games. In the end, all participating countries received medals.
Events in men's football actually started on November 20th, prior to the opening ceremony. Water
polo events began on November 21st, women's football on November 23rd, sailing on November
26th, and tennis on November 26th;
The first gold medal of the games was awarded to Singapore on November 25th when their water
polo team came out undefeated during the round-robin tournament rounD. The Philippine team
took the silver medal in that event, and Malaysia brought home the bronze.
The Games were also considered a valuable opportunity for athletes to gain competition experience
and preparation for the upcoming Asian Games and Olympic Games. It was purposely created to
strengthen friendship, solidarity and understanding among neighboring countries in the region.
This was the third SEA Games to be hosted by the Philippines. The last two times the Philippines
hosted the games were in 1981, and again in 1991.
There were 1,461 medals awarded, 444 of which were gold, 434 were silver, and 583 were bronze.
36. Up to now, the Philippines has hosted the SEA Games _______ times.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
37. According to the first paragraph, _______.
A. the opening and closing ceremonies were hold in the stadiums of Manila
B. only four of eleven participating countries got medals
C. the 23rd SEA Games had been over by the end of November, 2005
D. the number of audience in the 23rd SEA Games was about 200,000 people
38. Which sport was first competed in the 23rd SEA Games?
A. Water polo B. Tennis C. Men's football D. Sailing
39. Which was not mentioned in the 23rd SEA Games?
A. Peace B. Friendship C. Solidarity D. Understanding
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40. Which country got the first gold medal in the 23rd SEA Games?
A. Vietnam B. Singapore C. The Philippines D. Malaysia
D. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Among the total of 1,200 volunteers serving the SEA Games 22 in Ho Chi Minh City, nearly 1,000
are students (41) _____ universities, colleges, technical schools. Besides that, 6,000 cheer people
are also in the training session to serve the SEA Games
SEA Games 22 will (42) ____ from the end of November, beginning with football, to nearly the
middle of December. This is also the time (43) _____ students to do revision and (44) _____ for
their first semester test. In order to provide advantageous (45) _____ to volunteers and students to
(46) _____ on their tasks in SEA Games 22, City Youth Union is trying to solve this problem. At
present, the volunteers are both studying and participating in the training sessions to prepare
themselves for SEA Games 22 at (47) _____ same time. However, at the peak of late November
and mid December, the organizers will have plans to assist them and suggest schools and
universities offer the time priority to the volunteers helping them serve the Games (48) _____
efficiently. Schools and universities really have the concern -on this matter and will (49) _____ the
examination schedules for volunteers till the end of the SEA Games. (50) _____ the time being, the
volunteers can assure their time in class and at technical training session, mainly on every Saturday
and Sunday. It is hopeful that the volunteers will have comfort to serve SEA Games 22
wholeheartedly.
41. A. at B. in C. for D. into
42. A. host B. commence C. enjoy D. participate
43. A. where B. which C. that D. when
44. A. prepare B. carry C. take D. gain
45. A. achievements B. promotions C. conditions D. circumstances
46. A. intend B. focus C. contribute D. attend
47. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
48. A. more B. as C. the most D. most
49. A. keep away B. go up C. take on D. put off
50. A. On B. For C. At D. In

UNIT 14 :INTERNATIONALORGANIZATIONS
I. Vocabulary
No. New word Phonetic Meaning
description
humanitarian (a) /hju:¸mæni
´tæriən/
appalled (a) /ə´pɔ:ld/
appeal (v) /ə'pi:l/
dedicated (a) /'dedikeitid/
epidemic (n) /epi'demik/
initiate (v) /ɪ’nɪʃieɪt/
disaster-stricken (a)
catastrophe (n) /kəˈtæstrəfi/
wash (away) (v)
soldier (n) /ˈsoʊldʒər/
headquarters (HQ) (n) /ˈhedkwɔːrtərz/

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emergency (n) /i'mɜ:dʒənsi/

hesitation (n) /¸hezi´teiʃən/
federation (n) /ˌfedəˈreɪʃn/
convention (n) /kənˈvenʃn/
temporary (a) /’tɛmpərɛri/
colleague (n) /ˈkɑːliːɡ/
arrest (v) /əˈrest/
neutral (a) /ˈnuːtrəl/
impartial (a) /ɪmˈpɑːrʃl/
peacetime (n) /ˈpiːstaɪm/
agency (n) /ˈeɪdʒənsi/
stand for
stand in
objective (a+n) /əbˈdʒektɪv/
potential (a) + (n) /pə’tenʃl/
/´ædvəkeit/
advocate (v)
consumption (n) /kənˈsʌmpʃn/
result in
vulnerable (a) /ˈvʌlnərəbl/
campaign (n) /kæmˈpeɪn/
WTO ( World Trade
Organization)
UN( United Nations)
UNICEF( United Nations
International Emergency
Children ' s Fund)
WHO (World Health
Organization )

WWF( World Wildlife

Fund)

Be dedicated to Ving
Lack (v) Sth:
Lack (n) of Sth:
Lay down rules
Sb’s mission is to V

II. Vocabulary exercise:

1. The International Committee Red Cross has about 12,000 staff members worldwide, about 800 of
them working in its Geneva _______.
A. factories B. companies C. headquarters D. buildings
2. The Red Cross on white background was the original protection ___declared at the 1864 Geneva
Convention.
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A. poster B. billboard C. symbol D. signal

3. The Red Cross is an international organization that helps people who are suffering from the
results of war, diseases or _______.
A. victims B. disasters C. opportunities D. conditions
4. Be careful! The tree is going to fall.
A. Look out B. Look up C. Look on D. Look after
5. The organization was established in 1950 in the USA.
A. come around B. set up C. made out D. put on
6. The International Red Cross helps people in need without any discrimination based on _______,
race, religion, class or political opinions.
A. national B. nationally C. nationality D. native
7. The International Committee of the Red Cross is a private ___institution founded in 1863 in Geneva,
Switzerland
A. human B. humanity C. humanization D. humanitarian
8. In former days, after the battles soldiers on both sides died or were left wounded on the field
without any _______ attendance and basic care.
A. medicine B. medical C. medication D. medically
9. The International Red Cross has about 97 million volunteers whose main _______ is to protect
human life and health.
A. mission B. experience C. organization D. rule
10. The International Red Cross helps to ensure respect for the human being, and to prevent and relieve
human ____.
A. protection B. enjoyment C. wealthy D. sufferings
11. An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of
Red Cross Societies in 1991.
A. started B. helped C. treated D. dedicated
12. In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers,
civilians, and prisoners of war.
A. mounted B. excited C. devoted D. interested
13. _______ is a situation in which large numbers of people have little or no food, and many of them
die.
A. Disaster B. Famine C. Poverty D. Flood.
14. Within their home country, National Red Cross and Red Crescent societies assume the duties
and responsibilities of a national relief society.
A. take on B. get off C. go about D. put in
15. The bomb exploded in the garage; fortunately no one hurt.
A. put on B. went off C. got out D. kept up
16. She sustained severe head _______ after being thrown from her horse.
A. injure B. injured C. injuries D. injurious
17. According to World Bank figures, 41 per cent of Brazilians live in absolute _______.
A. poor B. poorer C. poorly D. poverty
18. Up until the middle of the 19th century, there were no ____and well established army nursing
systems for casualties.
A. organize B. organized C. organizational D. organizers
19. The AIDS _______ continues to spread around the world. Up to 4,000 people are infected with
the HIV virus every single day.
A. treatment B. epidemic C. tsunami D. damage
20. During World War II, the Red Cross organized relief assistance for _______ and wounded
soldiers and administered the exchange of messages regarding prisoners and missing persons.
A. civilians B. governments C. authorities D. members
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21. A _____is a very large wave, often caused by an earthquake that flows onto the land and
destroys things.
A. famine B. catastrophe C. tsunami D. flood
22. By the end of World War II, 179 _______ of the Red Cross had conducted 12,750 visits to POW
(prisoner of war) camps in 41 countries.
A. conferences B. symbols C. missions D. delegates
23. We oppose this war, as we would do any other war which created an environmental catastrophe.
A. pollution B. disaster C. convention D. epidemic
24. The first relief assistance mission organized by the League was an aid mission for the _______
of a famine and subsequent typhus epidemic in Poland.
A. leaders B. authorities C. victims D. organizers
25. The 1923 earthquake in Japan killed about 200,000 people and left countless wounded and
homeless.
A. poor B. imprisoned C. suffered D. injured
26. In 2004 more than 40 national societies have worked with more than 22,000 _______ to bring
relief to the countless victims of the earthquake.
A. actions B. volunteers C. founders D. nations
27. How are you _______ on with your work? - It is OK.
A. calling B. getting C. laying D. looking
28. All payments to the ICRC are _______ and are received as donations.
A. volunteer B. voluntary C. voluntarily D. voluntariness
29. The Red Cross organizes and leads relief assistance missions after ______, such as natural
disasters, man-made disasters, and epidemics.
A. emergent B. emergencies C. emergently D. emergence
30. One of the tasks of the Red Cross is also to support local _____ care projects.
A. health B. healthy C. healthful D. healthily
31. The International Red Cross and Red Crescent _______ occurs once every four years.
A. Globe B. Society C. Conference D. Nations
32. The mission of the Red Cross is also to supervise the _______ of prisoners of war.
A. education B. encouragement C. treatment D. runaway
33. The total number of national Red Cross societies from all over the world has mounted to 186.
A. protected B. devoted C. increased D. aimed
34. Henri Davison, president of the American Red Cross war Committee proposed forming a
federation of these National Societies.
A. took B. dedicated C. carried D. suggested
35. Fifty per cent of road accidents results in head injuries.
A. examines B. heals C. causes D. treats
36. Jean Henri Dunant was appalled by the almost complete lack of care for wounded soldiers.
A. dedicated B. shocked C. interested D. excited
37. The mission statement of the International Movement as formulated in the "Strategy 2010"
document of the Federation is to improve the lives of vulnerable people by mobilizing the power of
humanity.
A. weak and unprotected B. wealthy and famous
C. poor and disabled D. deaf and mute
38. The authority _______ down that building to build a supermarket.
A. knocked B. came C. went D. fell
39. In some most Asian countries women are undervalued and they never have the same ___ as men.
A. formality B. basis C. limit D. status
40. What does "WWW" ________ for? Is it short for “world wide web?”
A. sit B. stand C. lie D. point
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III. Grammar
Ex1: She looks after her children properly
1. catch up / catch up with : bắt kịp , theo kịp .
2. cool off ( nhiệt tình ) nguội lạnh đi , giảm đi .
3. fall behind : thụt lui , tụt lại đằng sau .
4. fill in : điền vào , ghi vào .
5. get over : vượt qua, khắc phục = recover from
6. get up : thức dậy .
7. give in : nhượng bộ , chịu thua .
8. give up = stop : từ bỏ , bỏ
9. go away : biến mất , tan đi .
10. go in : vào , đi vào .
11. go off ( chuông ) : reo , ( sung , bom ) : nổ , ( sữa ) : chua, hỏng , ( thức ăn ) : ươn, thối ,
( đèn ) tắt , ( máy móc ) : hư = explore
12. go on = continue : tiếp tục ** go over : xem lại
13. go out ( ánh sáng , lửa , đèn ) : tắt
14. go up : lớn lên , trưởng thành = grow up , ( giá cả) : tăng lên
15. go down : (giá cả) : giảm xuống
16. go after : theo đuổi
17. go by ( thời gian ) : trôi qua
18. hold up = stop =delay : hoãn lại , ngừng
19. hurry up : làm gấp
20. keep up with : theo kịp , bắt kịp .
21. lie down : nằm nghỉ
22. look after : chăm sóc
23. look up : tìm , tra cứu ( trong sách , từ điển )
24. look for : tìm kiếm
25. put on : mặc ( quần áo ) , mang ( giày ) , đội ( mũ) , mở ( đèn )
26. speak up : nói to , nói thẳng
27. take after = resemble : giống
28. take off : cởi ( quần áo , giày , mũ ) ; (máy bay) cất cánh
29. try out : thử )
30. turn off : khóa , tắt ( đèn , máy móc , động cơ …)
31. turn round : quay lại , thay đổi hướng
32. try on : mặc thử ( quần áo)
33. turn on : mở ( đèn , máy móc , động cơ …)
34. turn up : đến = arrive = appear ( xuất hiện )
35. wait up ( for ) : thức đợi ai
36. wash up : rửa bát đĩa .
37. watch out : đề phòng , chú y
38. Put off= delay/ pospone
39. look out = be careful
40. look at : nhìn
IV. Grammar exercise
A. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill in each blank.
up after on off in
1. I’d like to listen to some music. Would you please turn the radio….................?
2. Please try to give…....... smoking. It is not good for your health.
3. Don’t put…............. your homework anymore. the deadline is coming.
4. When I was young, my uncle looked…........... me because my parents were abroad.
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5. Before you enter the class, you need to fill… ........this form so that we can have your personal
information.
B. Circle the best answer to complete.
1. What may happen if John will not arrive in time?
A go along B . count on C. keep away D. turn up
2. Johnny sometimes visits his grandparents in the countryside.
A. calls on B. keeps off C. takes in D. goes up
3. They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A . take up B . turn round C put off D. do with
4. I do not use those things any more. You can _______ them away.
A get B. fall C throw D. make
5. They were late for work because their car _______ down.
A got B. put C. cut D. broke
6. At the station, we often see the sigh “________ for pickpockets”.
A. watch on B. watch out C. watch up D. watch at
7. I am late because my alarm clock didn’t _________ this morning.
A. come on B. ring out C. go off D. turn on
8. UNESCO _____ United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
A. stands for B. brings about C. takes after D gets across
9. Don't forget to ________ your gloves on. It is cold outside.
A let B . make C put D. fix
10. The passengers had to wait because the plane ______ off one hour late.
A. took B. turned C. cut D. made
11. The bomb exploded in the garage; fortunately no one hurt.
A put on B. went off C got out D kept up
12. My father still hasn’t really recovered from the death of my mother.
A went over B. got over C. took over D looked over
13. I can’t _____ walking. Can we stop and have a short rest?
A go on B. get on C. go up D. get up
14. When you are finished using the computer, can you please ______ it off.
A take B . turn C . do D go
15. If you want to be healthy . you should ………….your bad habits in your lifestyles
A give up B call off C break down D get over
16. My little son is learning how to ________ his shoes.
A. put off B. get on C. take to D. do up
17. It took a long time for him to get _____.the disappointment of losing the match.
A. off B. over C. down D. through
18. John got ill and had to ………………………......smoking.
A. give up B. give away C. give back D. give him
19. Please………………………………this form and post it.
A. fill in B. fill out C. fill up D. fill on
20. It's dark here. Can I…………………the lights?
A. turn off B. take off C. turn on D. turn over
21. Remember to……………….your shoes when you are in a Japanese house.
A. wash up B. take off C. put on D. put away
22. You can……………..the new words in the dictionary.
A. look up B. look into C. look for D. look on
23. The trouble with Frank is that he never………………..on time for a meeting.
A. turns up B. turns over C. turns on D. turns off
24. Mary, could you…………….my handbag while I go to the toilet?
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A. look after B. look for C. look into D. look up

25. What a lovely baby! He certainly…………………..his father, doesn't he?
A. takes after B. takes away C. takes up D. takes over
26. Because of an accident, my train was…………….for several hours.
A. held up B. held on C. hang on D. hang over
' '
27. I ll be back in a minute, Jane. I just wasn t to………………my new tape recorder
A. try out B. try on C. look up D. take up
’ ’
28. I wish I d……….this calculator before I bought it. It doesn t seem to be working.
A. tried on B. tried out C. worked on D. worked out
29. The bomb............. with a loud bang which could be heard all over the town
A. went off B. went on C. went out D. went away
30. Are you looking .....................the party next weekend?
A. forward to B.up at C. into D. for
V. Practice test unit 14
Test 1
A. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.
1. A. symbol B. emergency C. poverty D. qualify
2. A. appalled B. dedicated C. designed D. injured
3. A. society B. delegate C. president D. protection
B. Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of main stress.
4. A. colleague B. appeal C. devote D. appeal
5. A. suffering B. president C. protection D. conference
C. Mark the correct option A, B, C or D to fill each of the following blanks.
6. All payments to the ICRC are_______ and are received as donations.
A. volunteer B. voluntary C. voluntarily D. volunteered
7. One of the tasks of the Red Cross is also to support local _______care projects.
A. health B. healthy C. healthful D. healthily
8. The international Red Cross has about 97 million volunteers whose main _______is to protect
human life and health.
A. mission B. experience C. organization D. rule
9. The international Red Cross helps people in need without any discrimination based on
_______, race, religion, class or political opinions.
A. national B. nationally C. nationality D. native
10. The AIDS _______continues to spread around the word. Up to 4,000 people are infected with
the HIV virus every single day.
A. treatment B. epidemic C. tsunami D. damage
11. In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers,
civilians and prisoners of war.
A. mounted B. excited C. devoted D. interested
12. During the flood, Army helicopters came and tried to evacuate _______injured.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
13. Go _______this book because it has the information you need. (go over: study/examine
carefully)
A. over B. by C. off D. on
14. The passengers had to wait because the plane _______off one hour late.
A. took B. turned C. cut D. made
15. Be careful! The tree is going to fall.
A. Look out B. Look up C. Look on D. Look after
16. They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
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A. take up B. turn round C. put off D. do with

17. Frankly speaking, your daughter does not take _______you at all.
A. after B. along C. up D. over
18. She is not really friendly. She does not get on well _______her classmates.
A. from B. with C. forD. to
19. I would be grateful if you kept the news _______yourself. Do not tell anyone about it.
A. from B. to C. for D. at
20. I do not use those things any more. You can _______them away.
A. get B. fall C. throw D. make
21. They were late for work because their car _______down.
A. got B. put C. cut D. broke
22. It took me a very long time to recover from the shock of her death.
A. turn off B. take on C. get over D. keep up with
23. Boy! _______away your toys and go to bed right now.
A. Come B. Lie C. Put D. Sit
24. The music is too loud. Could you turn _______the volume, please?
A. down B. up C. round D. on
25. The Red Cross gives medical aid and other help to victims of major disasters such as floods,
earthquakes, epidemics, and famines.
A. shortage of water B. serious droughts
C. serious shortage of food D. poverty
26. - Could you bring me some water? - ______________.
A. I don’t want to B. Certainly, sir C. Yes, I can D. No, I can’t
27. - How do you do? - ______________.
A. Fine, thanks B. Ok C. Not too bad D. How do you do?
28. Thank you for the nice gift. - ______________.
A. But do you know how much it costs? B. The same to you.
C. In fact, I myself don’t like it D. I’m glad you like it.
29. - Would you like something to eat? - ______________I’m not hungry now.
A. Yes, it is B. Yes, I would C. No, no problem D. No, thanks
30. - Would you like something else? - “______________.”.
A. That’s all. Thank you B. Yes, I like everything
C. Two, please D. Yes, I would
D. Read the following passage and choose the correct word for each of the blanks from 46 to
50:
UNICEF (The United Nations Children’s Fund) is mandated by the United Nations General
Assembly to advocate for the (46)_____ of children's rights, to help meet their basic needs and to
expand their opportunities to reach their full potential. UNICEF is guided by the Convention on the
Rights of the Child and tries to establish children's rights as enduring ethical principles and
international standards of (47)_____ towards children. UNICEF (48)_____ that the survival,
protection and development of children are universal development. UNICEF mobilizes political
will and material (49)_____ to help countries, particularly developing countries, ensure a "first call
for children" and to, build their capacity to form appropriate policies and (50)_____ services for
children and their families.
31. A. protest B. destruction C. protection D. achievement
32. A. poverty B. behavior C. medicine D. injure
33. A. insists B. devotes C. treats D. mounts
34. A. sources B. mines C. budgets D. funds
35. A. care B. appeal C. deliver D. react
E. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
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36. Among many other program, UNICEF also supports the international Child Rights Information
Network.
A B C D
37. They decided to turn off their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A B C D
th
38. The World Health Organization was established in 7 April 1948.
A B C D
39. Remember to take over your shoes when you are in a Japanese house.
A B C D
40. Many people are dying by various types of cancer.
A B C D
F. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence which is closest in meaning to the
given one.
41. You can look up this word in the dictionary.
A. There are a lot of words in the dictionary for you to look at.
B. You can find the meaning of this word in the dictionary.
C. The dictionary contains a lot of words except the one you need.
D. You should buy this dictionary to find the word you need.
42. Do you have a good relationship with your neighbours?
A. Are you getting with your neighbours?
B. Are you going along with your neighbours?
C. Are you getting well with your neighbours?
D. Are you getting along with your neighbours?
43. After she had finished her homework, she watched television.
A. Had she finished her homework she would have watched television.
B. As soon as she finished her homework she would have watched television.
C. Before she had watch television she finished her homework.
D. She had finished her homework before she watched television.
44. People say that the price of gold is going up.
A. The price of gold is said going up
B. It was said that the price of gold is going up
C. The price of gold is said to going up
D. The price of gold is said to be going up.
45. The bridge was so low that the lorry couldn’t go under it.
A. It was so low bridge that the lorry couldn’t go under it.
B. The bridge wasn’t high enough for the lorry to go under it.
C. It was such low bridge that the lorry couldn’t go under it.
D. The bridge was too low for the lorry to go under.
G. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the
questions from 41 to 45:
WWF’ MISSION
Our mission is to build a future in which people live in harmony with nature. From our experience
as the world's leading independent conservation body, we know that the well-being of people,
wildlife and the environment are closely linked. That's why we take an integrated approach to our
work.
We're striving to safeguard the natural world, helping people live more sustainably and take action
against climate change. We spend a lot of time working with communities, with politicians and
with businesses to find solutions so people and nature can thrive.

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Our projects are innovative, collaborative and based on scientific evidence. And we think big. We
run a number of Global initiatives focusing on the regions and challenges where we can make the
biggest difference - from the Arctic and the Amazon to responsible fishing.
WWF has been organized since 1961. We work in more than a hundred countries on six continents,
we have more than five million supporters and more than five thousand staff worldwide.
46. WWF’s mission is to build a future in which______________.
A. animals and plants live happily B. humans live peacefully
C. people and animals live peacefully D. people live in harmony with nature
47. According to the passage, people, wildlife and the environment are ______________.
A. separate B. closely linked C. different D. happy
48. WWF works in ______________countries.
A. exactly100 B. nearly 100 C. about 100 D. over 100
49. WWF has ______________staff worldwide.
A. 100 B. 6 C. 5000 D. 5
50. The word “body” in line 2 is close in meaning to______________.
A. a main part of a human body B. a main part of something
C. dead body D. group of people who work together

Test 2
A. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest
1. A. catastrophe B. trophy C. notify D. recipe /’resәpi/
2. A. famine B. determine C. mineral D. miner
3. A. mission B. revision C. division D. collision
B. Circle the word which has a different stress pattern from that of the others
4. A. inhabitant B. interpreter C. imitation D. initiate
5. A. stimulate B. sharpener C. festival D. disaster
C. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence.
6. Failure to win the championship will _______in the dismissal of the coach. {trainer}
A. result B. happen C. affect D. cause
7. He tried to_______to everyone to support him.
A. make B. appeal C. persuade D. advise
8. There was a hold-up on the road because a bridge had been_______away by the flood.
A. washed B. flowed C. blown D. destroyed
9. He_______his life to helping the poor.
A. spent B. experienced C. dedicated D. used
10. The Red Cross is a organization whose purpose is to help people in war time and _______
disasters.
A. commercial B. political C. military D. humanitarian
11. She got angry when they started to_______her private life.
A. ask for B. enquire after C. ask about D. enquire with
12. She ran in a marathon last week but_______after ten kilometers. {withdraw}
A. dropped out B. closed down C. broke up D. made up
13. Gertrude takes_______her mother; she has blue eyes and fair hair,too.
A. in B. up C. after D. down
14. It took him a long time to _______the death of his wife. {recover}
A. take away B. get over C. take off D. get through
15. There were so many kinds of cameras_______, and I didn't know which to buy.
A. to choose B. choosing from C. chosen D. to choose
from
16. Billy hasn't been working; he won't_______his examinations.
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A. get off B. get through C. keep up D. keep off

17. They arrived_______the airport_______good time for the plane.
A. in/ on B. to/ in C. at/ in D. to/ for
18. Did Mr. Tan_______the class while Miss Fiona was ill in hospital? {take control of}
A. take away B. take over C. take up D. take off
19. Paula applied for the post but she was_______
A. turned down B. checked out C. kept under D. pushed ahead
20. If orders keep coming in like this, I'll have to_______more staff. {employ}
A. give up B. add in C. gain on D. take on
21. Why do they_______talking about money all the time?
A. keep on B. side with C. take after D. work off
22. In addition to Mr. Thomas and Miss White, the principal_______attend the school party.
A. is likely B. is going to C. are likely D. are going to
23. "Can I help you?" " _______"
A. At two o'clock. B. I can help you C. No, I don't. D. Yes, please.
24. My uncle _______until he was fifty.
A. married B. didn't marry C. would marry D. was not
marrying
25. She could do nothing_______complain about the weather all day.
A. but B. for C. about D. with
26. If a book is really_______, it will certainly_______the reader.
A. interesting/ interest B. interests/ interest
C. interested/ interesting D. interests/ interested
27. Cigarette smoking can _______a loss of appetite.
A. cure B. release C. cause D. treat
28. In this case, I think _______nothing.
A. it is better to say B. it be better to say
C. better" to say D. better for saying
29. Mark, I don't think you_______Carol, the new department typist.
A. meeting B. having met C. to have met D. have met
30. The ________ is an international organization that aims to fight and control disease.
A. World Health Organization B Word Health Organization
C. World Healthy Organization D. World Health Organism
31. He felt _________ when he failed the exams the second time.
A. discouraged B. discouraging C. encouraged D. encourage
32. He set out soon after dark_______home an hour later.
A. to arrive B. and arrived C. in order to arriving D. so that arrived
33. I'd rather you_______anyone else about our plan.
A. not tell B. didn't tell C. not to tell D. don't tell
34. Tell the police the truth _______you'll be in trouble!
A. if B. unless C. when D. or
35. According to this schedule, the next train_______in ten minutes.
A. leave B. leaves C. left D. leaving
D. Choose the underlined part in each sentence that should be corrected.
36. That the trees lose their leaves are a sign of winter.
A. lose B. a C. are D. their
37. One of the most popular holiday is Thanksgiving, which is celebrated in November.
A. holiday B. the most C. is D. in
38. Would you mind not to smoke on the bus? It disturbs other people.
A. other B. not C. to smoke D. disturbs
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39. The length of the trip will depend on how good are the roads.
A. length B. how C. will D. are the roads
40. William Samuel Johnson, who helped write the Constitution, become the first president of
Columbia University in 1787.
A. become B. write C. who D. the first
E. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each space in the following
passage.
UNICEF was created in 1946 to help bring food and medicine to children who suffered during
World War II in Europe. It began as a temporary agency, but became a permanent part of the
United Nations in 1953 (46)_______ the need for its services around the world. UNICEF's primary
concern is to help governments of developing countries improve the quality of life for
(47)________ one billion children. UNICEF's main office is in the United Nations offices in New
York City, but it also has more than 40 offices and 100 programs (48)_______. In 1965, UNICEF
won the Nobel Peace Prize for its work helping children and building brighter future.
UNICEF works with governments to provide three kinds of services. First, UNICEF plans and
develops programs in developing countries. These programs serve the community (49)_______
providing health care, information about nutrition, basic education, and safe water and sanitation.[
state of being clean and conducive to health] Then UNICEF trains people to work in these
programs. UNICEF also provides supplies and equipment that (50)_______ the programs to work.
41. A. due to B. instead of C. except for D. in spite of
42. A. most B. the most C. almost D. all most
43. A. in world B. worldwide C. on world D. worldly
44. A. for B. with C. about D. by
45. A. enable B. let C. make D. suggest

UNIT 15: WOMEN IN SOCIETY

I. Vocabulary
No. New word Phonetic Meaning
description
advocate (v) /ˈædvəkeɪt/
Age of enlightenment
child-bearing (n)
discriminate (v) /dɪˈskrɪmɪneɪt/
home-making (n)
intellectual (a) /ˌɪntəˈlektʃuəl/
look down upon
lose one's temper
lose contact with
neglect (v) /nɪˈɡlekt/
philosopher (n) /fəˈlɑːsəfər/

pioneer (n) /ˌpaɪəˈnɪr/

rear (v) / rɪr/
vote (v) /voʊt/
prohibit (v) /proʊˈhɪbɪt/
Play a part/ role in
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society
Struggle for (peace)
Struggle against (war)
Be
discriminat
ed against
on the basis
of their sex:
Gain (significant legal)
right
II. Vocabulary exercise:
1. Not all women can do two jobs well at the same time: rearing children and working at office.
A. educating B. taking care of C. homemaking D. giving a birth
2. There have been significant changes in women's lives since the women's liberation movement.
A. controlled B. economic C. important D. natural
3. Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role.
A. Giving birth to a baby B. Having no child
C. Bring up a child D. Educating a child
4. Most people consider it women's ________ to take care of children and do housework.
A. limit B. relationship C. responsibility D. respect
5. Mrs. Pike is a feminist, who ________ that women should be offered the same job opportunities
as men.
A. varies B. advocates C. leads D. votes
6. It is against the law to _______ on the basis of sex, age, marital status, or race.
A. suit B. discriminate C. believe D. gain
7. Women's status ______ in different countries and it depends on the cultural beliefs.
A. varies B. employs C. fixes D. establishes
8. Women's contribution to our society has been ______ better these days.
A. differently B. naturally C. intellectually D. significantly
9. Many of young people between the ages of 16 and 18 who are neither in education nor ________
are in danger of wasting their lives.
A. power B. ability C. nature D. employment
III. Grammar
VERB + NOUN + PREP:
- give way to : nhượng bộ, chịu thua - catch sight of : thoáng thấy
- give place to : nhường chỗ cho - keep pace with : theo kịp
- lose sight of : mất hút, không nhìn thấy nữa - pay attention to : chú ý đến
- lose track of : mất dấu vết - put a stop to : put an end to: chấm dứt
- lose touch with: mất liên lạc với - set fire to: burn : phóng hỏa
- make allowance for: xét đến, chiếu cố - take advantage of : lợi dụng
- make use of : dùng, tận dụng - take care of : chăm sóc
- make fun of : chọc ghẹo, chế nhạo - take account of : quan tâm tới, lưu ý tới
- make room for : dọn chỗ cho - take note of : lưu ý đến
- make a fuss over / about: làm om xòm về - take notice of : chú ý thấy, nhận thấy
IV. Grammar exercise

1.It is generally accepted that in today's society women have access education
and can promote themselves much more easily than years ago.
A. to B. up C. on D. for
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2.It took women a long time to struggle the right to vote.

A. for B. with C. against D. upon
3.I think women are suited many important things, besides childbearing and
homemaking.
A. of B. on C. for D. about
4.Women are increasingly involved the public life.
A. of B. in C. with D. from
5.If you have an old blanket, it along so that we have something to sit on at the beach.
A. bring B. go C. put D. keep
6.Although the team was both mentally and physically exhausted, they on walking.
A. stopped B. kept C. took D. put
7.Before the plane off, the flight attendant told everyone to fasten their seat belts and
put their chairs in an upright position.
A. woke B. brought C. kept D. took
8.Don't forget to your gloves on. It is cold outside.
A. let B. make C. put D. fix
9.If you don't pay your rent, your landlord is going to kick you out!
A. lend you some money B. play football with you
C. give you a kick D. force you to leave
10. Yesterday I ran into Sam at the grocery store. I had not seen him for years.
A. met B. visited C. said goodbye to D. made friends with
11. Let's go over that report again before we submit it.
A. dictate B. print C. read carefully D. type
12. I will not stand for your bad attitude any longer.
A. like B. tolerate C. mean D. care
13. Everything is you. I cannot make my mind yet.
A. out off / on B. up to / up C. away from / for D. on for / off
14. There is no food left. Someone must have eaten it .
A. out B. up C. off D. along
15. The explorers made a fire to off wild animals.
A. get B. keep C. take D. go
16. If something urgent has up, phone me immediately and I will help you.
A. picked B. come C. kept D. brought
17. The passengers had to wait because the plane off one hour late.
A. took B. turned C. cut D. made
18. Be careful! The tree is going to fall.
A. Look out B. Look up C. Look on D. Look after
19. The organization was established in 950 in the USA.
A. come around B. set up C. made out D. put on
20. Within their home country, National Red Cross and Red Crescent societies assume
the duties and responsibilities of a national relief society.
A. take on B. get off C. go about D. put in
21. The bomb exploded in the garage; fortunately no one hurt.
A. put on B. went off C. got out D. kept up
22. They had to delay their trip because of the bad weather.
A. get through B. put off C. keep up with D. go over
23. It took me a very long time to recover from the shock of her death.
A. turn off B. take on C. get over D. keep up with
24. He did not particularly want to play any competitive sport.
A. use up B. do with C. take up D. go on
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25. I am tired because I went to bed late last night.

A. stayed up B. kept off C. put out D. brought up
26. She got her car to pick some wild flowers.
A. from / on B. in / at C. off / up D. out / for
27. The customer had tried _ some blouses but none of them suited her.
A. atB. with C. in D. on
28. If I get this report finished I will knock early and go to the pub for some drink.
A. up B. over C. on D. off
29. Boy! away all your toys and. go to bed right now.
A. Come B. Lie C. Put D. Sit
30. I have been trying to ring him up all day and I could not through.
A. get B. take C. look D. hang
31. The water supply of the building was off because the pipes burst.
A. handed B. held C. cut D. paid
32. How are you on with your work? - It is OK.
A. calling B. getting C. laying D. looking
33. Did your son pass the university entrance examination?
A. make up B. get along C. go up D. get through
34. What may happen if John will not arrive in time?
A. go along B. count on C. keep away D. turn up
35. Johnny sometimes visits his grandparents in the countryside.
A. calls on B. keeps off C. takes in D. goes up
36. They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A. take up B. turn round C. put off D. do with
37. The stranger came me and asked, "Is there a post office near here?"
A. on to B. away from C. out of D. up to
38. Frankly speaking, your daughter does not take you at all.
A. after B. along C. up D. over
39. She is not really friendly. She does not get on well her classmates.
A. from B. with C. for D. to
40. I would be grateful if you kept the news yourself. Do not tell anyone about it.
A. from B. to C. for D. at
41. I do not use those things any more. You can them away.
A. get B. fall C. throw D. make
42. They were late for work because their car _ down.
A. got B. put C. cut D. broke
43. The authority down that building to build a supermarket.
A. knocked B. came C. went D. fell
44. My husband spends far more time helping our three kids homework and studying
for tests than I do.
A. on B. to C. with D. in
45. My husband and I take turns cleaning the kitchen depending who gets
home from work earlier.
A. away / to B. from / in C. up / on D. with / for
46. The efforts for the advancement of women have resulted several respectively
achievement in women's life and work.
A. at B. with C. for D. in
47. The women's movement has affirmed women's rights to non-discrimination
education, employment and economic and social activities.
A. inB. of C. from D. about
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48. The small white flowers are my favorite. They give off a wonderful honey smell
that scents the entire garden.
A. release B. stop C. end D. melt
49. I couldn't make out what he had talked about because I was not used to his accent.
A. stand B. understand C. write D. interrupt
50. I'm sorry. I didn't mean to interrupt you. Please, go on and finish what you were saying.
A. talk B. quit C. continue D. stop
51. The firefighters fought the blaze while the crowd was looking on it.
A. blowing B. watering C. preventing D. watching
52. I cannot believe Peter and Mary up last week. They have been married for almost
fifteen years. I hope they get back together.
A. went B. gave C. looked D. broke
53. It took us over twelve hours to hike over the mountain. By the time we got back to our
campsite, I was completely _ out.
A. worn B. went C. put D. knocked
54. If you don't have the telephone number now, you can me up later and give it to me
then.
A. call B. stop C. give D. hold
55. What does "www" for? Is it short for “world wide web?”
A. sit B. stand C. lie D. point

V. Practice test unit 15

Test 1
I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
1. A. women B. men C. led D. intellectual
2. A. throughout B. although C. right D. enough
3. A. history B. significant C. philosophy D. pioneer
4. A. power B. wife C. allow D. known
5. A. believed B. considered C. advocated D. controlled
II. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined
part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. To preserve that ________, it was necessary to preserve the people that had created it.
A. civil B. civilize C. civility D. civilization
7. The Prime Minister is to consider changes to sexually ________ laws to enforce equal
opportunities.
A. discriminate B. discrimination C. discriminatory D. discriminated
8. In former days, women were considered not to be suitable for becoming a ________.
A. politics B. political C. politically D. politician
9. At any competition, everyone is ________.
A. the same B. equal C. common D. significant
10. If you have the ________ in an election, you have the legal right to indicate your choice.
A. status B. individual C. vote D. equality
11. When a women works outside the home and makes money herself, she is ________
independent from her husband.
A. financially B. politically C. philosophically D. variously
12. Not all women can do two jobs well at the same time: rearing children and working at office.
A. educating B. taking care of C. homemaking D. giving a birth
13. There have been significant changes in women's lives since the women's liberation
movement.
A. controlled B. economic C. important D. natural
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14. Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role.

A. Giving birth to a baby B. Having no child
C. Bring up a child D. Educating a child
15. The forces behind the women's liberation movement vary from culture to culture, from
individual to individual.
A. advocate B. equalize C. power D. change
16. Many people still think that women should stay at ________ home and do housework.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
17. It is considered women are suited for ___ childbearing and homemaking rather than social
activities.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
18. Farming had been invented by women, not by men, and ________ agriculture remained the
women's responsibility.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
19. Before we had kids, I used to do more housework than my husband did, but he was working
thirteen hour days at the office compared ________ my eight-hour ones.
A. with B. about C. for D. on
20. Thomas has often boasted ________ his son's golfing ability.
A. on B. to C. about D. over
21. Although I did not totally agree ________ feminist's policies, I certainly admired their
audacity, dedication and courage.
A. for B. with C. along D. up
22. A woman's role in society was defined by the Feminists on whether they were contributors
________ society or not.
A. upon B. to C. off D. away
23. Alice opened the door and found that it ________ to a small passage.
A. led B. showed C. cut D. pointed
24. I didn't get to see the end of that mystery movie on TV last night. How did it ________ out?
A. go B. make C. bring D. turn
25. Jack is having his lawyer ___ up the contract to make sure that all legalities are properly
dealt with.
A. go B. look C. get D. draw
26. When you are finished using the computer, can you please ______ it off.
A. take B. turn C. do D. go
27. When the alarm went off, everyone proceeded calmly to the emergency exits.
A. fell B. exploded C. called D. rang
28. Look out. There is a rattlesnake under the picnic table!
A. Listen B. Be careful C. Go D. Watch
29. Mrs. Jones's husband passed away fast Friday. We are all shocked by the news.
A. got married B. divorced C. died D. were on business
30. If you do not understand the word "superstitious," look it up in the dictionary.
A. find its meaning B. write it C. draw it D. note it
III. Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
31. It is really important to have friends whom you can count on.
A. You should have reliable friends whom you can trust.
B. You should not contact with friends who make use of you.
C. Some friends may make your feelings hurt.
D. Do not believe in any friends.
32. We will set off tomorrow.
A. We will have to postpone our trip tomorrow. B. Tomorrow will be a good day for us to go
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C. We will leave the place tomorrow. D. We will arrive home tomorrow.

33. Despite her age, she gets about easily.
A. She is too old to do anything easily.
B. Because she is old, she cannot go anywhere.
C. Although she is old, she can travel easily.
D. Her age prevents her from going from place to place.
34. "I will ring you up after I get home." Peter said to Mary.
A. Peter promised to give Mary a wedding ring after he got home.
B. Peter asked Mary to pay him a visit after he' got home.
C. Peter promised to visit Mary after he got home.
D. Peter promised to telephone Mary after he got home.
35. The criminals got away in spite of the efforts of the police.
A. Without the efforts of the police, the criminals would have escaped.
B. Even though the police made their efforts, the criminals escaped.
C. Thanks to the efforts of the police, the criminals were imprisoned.
D. The criminals were caught because of the efforts of the police.
IV. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
For approximately the last 100 years women have been fighting for the same rights as men,
especially around the turn from 19th to 20th century with the struggle for women's suffrage and in
the 1960s with second-wave feminism and radical feminism, and were able to make changes to the
traditionally accepted feminine gender role. However, most feminists today say there is still work
to be done.
Numerous studies and statistics show that even though the situation for women has improved during
the last century, discrimination is still widespread: women earn a smaller percentage of income
than men, occupy lower-ranking job positions than men and do most of the housekeeping work.
However, there may be some reason for this, as some studies have indicated that many jobs which
are perceived to be male-dominated usually have longer hours, necessitate long periods of exposure
to the elements, are higher risk and require a fair amount of physical strength.
When feminism became a conspicuous protest movement in the 1960's, critics often argued that
women who wanted to follow a traditional role would be discriminated against in the future and
forced to join, the workforce. Many women, especially single parents are denied this choice due to
economic necessity. In theory, feminism is the belief that a woman should have the right to make
her own decisions. Those women who choose to pursue careers and higher education are more and
more appreciateD.
36. After a long time of struggling, women have got a quite equality to men in every aspect so
far.
A. True B. False C. No information
37. According to some studies and statistics, men spend more time doing housework than women
do.
A. True B. False C. No information
38. Thanks to the equality between men and women, women can earn as much money as men do.
A. True B. False C. No information
39. Jobs which require a fair amount of physical strength are usually male-dominated.
A. True B. False C. No information
40. The amount of women who get higher education has outgrown that of men.
A. True B. False C. No information
V. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
In the 1960s the women's liberation movement (41) _____ suddenly into the public consciousness
and quickly grew into (42) _____ largest social movement in the history of the United States.
Women's liberation movement was a continuation of the 19 th-century women's rights movement.
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The movement's major (43) _____ has included not only legal, economic, and political gains (44)
_____ also has changed the ways in which people live, dress, dream of their future, and (45) ___ a
living. About health, for example, many male physicians and hospital have made major
improvements in the (46) _____ of women; more and more women have become doctors and
succeeded (47) _____ their medical research; and diseases such as breast cancer, which affects
many women, now receive better funding and treatment, thanks to women's (48) ___. Feminists
have insisted that violence against women become a political issue. The women's liberation
movement has also made changes in education: curricula and (49) _____ have been written to
promote equal opportunity for girls and women; more and more female students are admitted to
universities and professional schools.
The women's liberation movement brought about a radical change in society (50) _____ it took a
decade for the movement to reach women's awareness.
41. A. dated B. originated C. introduced D. burst
42. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
43. A. achievement B. civilization C. status D. power
44. A. with B. either C. and D. but
45. A. put B. make C. get D. take
46. A. vote B. employment C. position D. treatment
47. A. in B. to C. for D. with
48. A. role B. limit C. efforts D. ability
49. A. textbooks B. novels C. picture books D. magazines
50. A. because B. if only C. as D. although

Test 2
A. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.
1. A. women B. movie C. lose D. prove
2. A. intellectual B. international C. interview D. responsibility
3. A. rear B. bear C. fear D. dear
B. Circle the word which has a different stress pattern from that of the others.
4. A. achievement B. involvement C. confinement D. argument
5. A. pioneer B. mountaineer C. suggestion D. engineer
C. Choose the word/phrase that best fits each blank.
6. People used to consider women to be better_________ for childbearing and homemaking.
A. regarded B. suited C. understood D. kept
7. In the past, men seemed to_________ their duties at home.
A. expect B. inspect C. neglect D. collect
8. Nowadays, women have gained significant legal_________.
A. wrongs B. rights C. responsibilities D. works
9. The pioneer thinkers_________that women shouldn’t be discriminated on the basis of their sex.
A. recommended B. disapproved C. showed D. passed
th
10. The_________for women’s rights began in the 18 century.
A. battle B. war C. struggle D. fight
11. Women are only asking to be given equal_________to that of men.
A. state B. status C. situation D. ideas
12. That scholar_________on people who haven’t been to university.
A. looks up B. looks at C. looks down D. looks on
13. Most relations between men and women soon_________in to love.
A. deep B. deepen C. deeply D. depth
14. The newspaper provided little_________about the cause of the war.
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A. enlightenment B. meanings C. reasons D. ideas

15. It’s_________to say that women are slaves at home.
A. truth B. action C. legality D. rubbish
16. He didn’t even have the intelligence to call_________an ambulance.
A. at B. on C. for D. about
17. Martha Graham,_______of the pioneers of modern dance, didn’t begin dancing until she was
21.
A. one B. who, as one C. she was D. was one
18. From 1865 to 1875, a remarkable variety of inventions_________.
A. was produced B. were produced C. are produced D. produced
19. The French Quarter is_________ famous and the oldest section of New Orleans.
A. more B. the most C. the more D. most
20. The painting_________Ms. Wallace bought was very expensive.
A. whom B. whose C. which D. where
21. You_________carry that carpel home yourself; the shop will send it.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. needn’t D. mustn’t
22. Will it be necessary for us_________ this accident to the police?
A. report B. to reporting C. to report D. reporting
23. A beautiful clock was given_________ her by a handsome boy.
A. for B. to C. at D. ф
24. The kitchen hadn’t been cleaned for ages. It was really_________.
A. disgusted B. disgust C. disgusting D. to disgust
25. She’s very old and can’t live alone. She needs someone to look_________her.
A. for B. at C. up D. after
26. It was the_________ day of my life when I heard I failed the university entrance examination.
A. sadden B. saddest C. sad D. sadly
27. The homeless people_____story appeared in the paper last week have now found a place to live.
A. who B. whom C. that D. whose
28. It is our duty to care for_________sick.
A. an B the C. a D. ф
29. Rachel will be pleased if she_________ her driving test.
A. would pass B. had passed C. passes D. passed
30. The_________ you are, the more quickly you learn.
A. more young B. youngest C. younger D. young
D. Error recognition
31. Actually, I strongly disapprove of your bad behave towards your parents. {behaviour}
A. behave B. Actually C. of D. parents
32. Modern motorcycles are lighter, faster, and specialized than motorcycles of 25 years ago. {and
more specialized}
A. motorcycles B. and specialized C. lighter D. Modern
33. Job enrichment is a technique used to increase satisfaction workers by giving them more
responsibilities. {satisfactory}
A. responsibilities B. giving them C. satisfaction workers D. technique used
34. In spite of their frightening appearance, the squid is shy and completely harmless. {its}
A. In spite of B. frightening C. harmless D. their
35. Virgin Islands National park features a underwater preserve with coral reefs and colorful
tropical tropical fish. {an}
A. a underwater B. fish C. colorful D. coral
E. Choose the suitable word to fill in each blank.

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The future role of women can be looked at more optimistically. Nowadays, there seems
(36)_________ recognition of the vital role women play in society and more status is given to
women. Overall, excellent progress has been made (37)_________education. This has played a
powerful role for women self-esteem. It demonstrates women’s intellectual abilities to gain
expertise in the field of their choice. However, this progress has still to be reflected in the job
market. Since a more educated society is good for industry and society (38)_________a whole, it is
even more urgent for women to gain an acceptable status in their profession. The message is that
women have the ability to change their roles and that they will demand to have the means to do it.
It is (39)_________ accepted by the new generation of young men and women that co-operation
and mutual aid are far more productive than the divider camp of men and women. Society is
changing and with it the role of men and women. In many fields women have come a long way
from just their roles as mothers and homemakers. They no longer think that children rearing and
home management are their (40)_________duties. {rear/riә/: bring up and educate}
36. A. be B. being C. to being D. to be
37. A. in B. at C. on D. for
38. A. to B. as C. out D. for
39. A. general B. generally C. generality D. generalize
40. A. sole {single} B. lonely C. alone D. own
F. Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the original one.
41. “I’m awfully sorry, Carol, but I’ve broken your watch”, said Jim.
A. Jim apologized to Carol to breaking her watch.
B. Jim apologized to Carol to break her watch.
C. Jim apologized to Carol for breaking her watch.
D. Jim apologized for Carol to break her watch.
42. Living in Sydney is strange to her.
A. She’s not used to live in Sydney.
B. She’s not used to living in Sidney.
C. She used to live in Sydney.
D. She is used living in Sydney.
43. When I heard the telephone ring, I answered it immediately.
A. On hear the phone rang, I answered it immediately.
B. On hear the phone ring, I answered it immediately.
C. On hearing the phone ring, I answered it immediately.
D. On hearing rang, I answered the phone immediately.
44. If you don’t wake up early, you can’t catch the first bus to the city center.
A. You have to wake up early to catch the first bus to the city center.
B. You don’t have to wake up early to catch the first bus to the city center.
C. You have to not wake up early to catching the first bus to the city center.
D. You haven’t to wake up early to catch the first bus to the city center.
45. The birthday cake is too big for us to eat.
A. The birthday cake is so big for us to eat.
B. The birthday cake is so big that we can’t eat it.
C. The birthday cake is enough big for us to eat.
D. The birthday cake is too big for us that eating.

UNIT 16: THE ASSOCIATION OF SOUTHEAST ASIAN NATIONS

I. Vocabulary
No. New word Phonetic Meaning
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description
accelerate (v) /ək'seləreɪt/
Forge (v ) /fɔːrdʒ/
GDP( Gross Domestic
Product)
integration (n) /ɪntə’greɪʃən/
justice (n) /'ʤʌstis/
series (n) /ˈsɪriːz/
socio-economic (a)
stable (adj)- stability (n) /ˈsteɪbl/
average (n) /ˈævərɪdʒ/
adopt (v) /əˈdɑːpt/
vision (n) /ˈvɪʒn/
enterprise (n) /'entəpraiz/
/rɪˈmeɪn/
remain (v)
manufacturing (n) /ˌmænjuˈfæktʃərɪŋ/
virtue (n) /ˈvɜːrtʃuː/
sector (n) /ˈsektər/
interference (n) /ˌɪntərˈfɪrəns/
handicraft (n) /ˈhændikræft/
According to
Account for:
A region of diverse cultures
Aim at
II. Vocabulary exercise:
1. ASEAN helps to ____ regional cooperation in Southeast Asia in the spirit of equality and
partnership
A. invest B. promote C. admit D. invest
2. Rice is the _______ exported product of Vietnam.
A. main B. free C. average D. rural
3. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.
A. same B. adopted C. various D. respected
4. ASEAN also works for the _______ of peace and stability in the region.
A. promote B. promotion C. promotional D. promoter
5. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, commonly referred to as ASEAN, is a geo-political and
_______organization.
A. economy B. economic C. economics D. economical
6. The motivations for the birth of ASEAN were the desire for a _______ environment.
A. stable B. stability C. stably D. stabilize
7. ASEAN was founded on 8 August, 1967 with five ________: Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia,
Singapore, and the Philippines.
A. members B. competitors C. leaders D. statesmen
8. ASEAN is an organization on the Southeast Asian region that aims to _______ economic growth,
social progress, and cultural development.
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A. account B. include C. accelerate D. respect

9. The aims of the Association of Southeast Asia include the evolvement of economic growth, social
progress, cultural development among its members, and the promotion of regional peace.
A. goals B. organizations C. missions D. plans
10. ASEAN has emphasized cooperation in the "three pillars" of security, socio cultural and
economic _______ in the region.
A. organization B. production C. integration D. establishment
11. The ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) is an agreement by the member nations of ASEAN
concerning local manufacturing in all ASEAN countries.
A. progressing B. producing C. combining D. aiming
12. ASEAN has planned equitable economic development and reduced poverty and ___disparities in
year 2020.
A. socio-politic B. socio-cultural C. socio-linguistic D. socio-economic
13. ASEAN's aims include the acceleration of economic growth, _______ progress, cultural,
development among its members, and the promotion of regional peace.
A. society B. social C. socially D. socialize
14. A combined gross domestic _______ of the member countries of ASEAN has grown at an
average rate of
around 6% per year.
A. produce B. productivity C. production D. product
15. One of ASEAN's objectives is to help people think about peace and _______ and do something
about it.
A. origin B. justice C. statistics D. record
16. There are plenty of industrial _______ established in the area, which also makes the government worried
about pollution.
A. series B. goods C. enterprises D. relationships
17. Free _____ area is a designated group of countries that have agreed to eliminate tariffs, quotas,
and preferences on most goods among them.
A. trade B. cultural C. stable D. adopted
18. The ASEAN Investment Area aims to enhance the competitiveness of the region for attracting
direct investment which flows into and within ASEAN.
A. produce B. combine C. found D. improve
19. ASEAN has ___a community of Southeast' Asian nations at peace with one another and at peace with
the world.
A. joined B. estimated C. established D. solved
20. Throughout the 1970s, ASEAN embarked on a program of economic _______.
A. cooperate B. cooperation C. cooperative D. cooperatively
21. 2007 was the 40th anniversary of the _______ of ASEAN.
A. found B. founder C. foundation D. founding
22. Vietnam asked for _______ to ASEAN in 1995.
A. admit B. admission C. admissive D. admissible
23. ASEAN economic cooperation _______ many areas, such as agriculture, industry, services,
transportations, and tourism.
A. creates B. contains C. consists D. covers
24. ASEAN bodies in addressing global and regional concerns such as food security, _______ and
disaster management.
A. realization B. energy C. plan D. diversity
25. The 8th ASEAN Science and Technology Week is now being ____ in Manila from 1 to 11 July
2008.
A. held B. joined C. related D. combined
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26. The ASEAN Science and Technology Week aims to promote science and technology _____in
the region.
A. tourism B. solution C. forestry D. development
III. Grammar:
*) Định nghĩa:
+ là 1 mệnh đề (S + V)
+ làm thành phần trạng ngữ
 các loại
1. Chỉ thời gian: không được chia ở thì tương lai
+ when, while, as: khi / trong khi
+ whenever
+ before, after
+ as soon as, just as: ngay (sau khi)
+ since
+ till / until
+ as long as
2. Chỉ địa điểm: where, wherever
3. Chỉ cách thức: as, as if
4. Chỉ mục đích: so that, in order that
5. Chỉ điều kiện: If, unless, in case, as long as, provided…
6. Chỉ nguyên nhân: because, since, as, seeing that
7. Chỉ sự tương phản / nhượng bộ: although, though, even though, while, meanwhile, whereas
8. Chỉ kết quả
so…that / such…that
9. Chỉ sự so sánh
The comparative… The more I get to know him, the more I like him.
*) RÚT GỌN MÊNH ĐỀ TRẠNG NGỮ
1. MĐTN chỉ mục đích
so that / in order that  to + V0
in order to + V0 / in order not to + V0
so as to + V0
for + cụm danh từ
2. MĐTN chỉ nguyên nhân
Because / as / since / for / for fear that  because of
thanks to
due to + Noun phrase
on account of
owing to
nếu chủ ngữ của MĐTN và chủ ngữ của MĐ chính là 1, a dùng hiện tại phận từ (V-ing) để rút gọn
MĐTN
3. MĐTN chỉ tương phản / nhượng bộ
Although / even though / though / much as  In spite of + Noun phrase
Despite
nếu chủ ngữ của MĐTN và chủ ngữ của MĐ chính là 1, ta dùng hiện tại phận từ (V-ing) để rút gọn
MĐTN.
(quy tắc này cũng đúng với MĐTN chỉ thời gian)
Lưu ý: In spite of / Despite the fact that + clause (MĐ danh từ)
(after, before, since, while, when; once, until, when, whenever; although, even though, where,
wherever, as)

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Đảo ngữ của MĐTN chỉ sự nhượng bộ

adj / adv + as / though + S +V, clause
No matter + who / whom / what / which / how / where / when
= Whatever / whoever / whomever / … + clause
-Sau no matter how có thể là adj / adv
-Sau no matter what / which có thể là danh từ
-Sau no matter who / what có thể là động từ

4. MĐTN chỉ điều kiện

if  without / but for (nếu không có / nếu không vì) + Noun phrase

5. MĐTN chỉ kết quả

so + adj / adv + that clause  too + adj / adv (for sbd) + to V0
such + (a/an) + adj + N + that clause  adj / adv + enough (for sbd)+to V0

IV. Grammar exercise

1. Because they fly, bats are often mistaken for birds: ______, bats are mammals, not birds.
A. because B. although C. in case D. however
2. it's usually quite simple to cross the border between the USA and Canada ______ these two
countries have friendly relation.
A. because B. and C. yet D. regardless
3. ______ I had known how much I would disappoint him, I wouldn't have done it.
A. Even if B. Unless C. If D. When
4. She described her new house ______ it were a palace.
A. even if B. in case C. as if D. because
5. We wouldn't finish our assignment ______ we stayed up all night.
A. provided B. as long as C. in case D. even if
6. A lot of people bought shares in the company ______ the newspaper predicted it would be
successful.
A. unless B. because C. in case D. only if
7. She hasn't had much time to socialise ______ she took a part-time job besides her school
studies.
A. when B. even if C. since D. unless
8. Please don't forget to take the cage in______ it gets dark because little Tweety may be
frightened.
A. if B. when C. in case D. until
9. ______ they offer me a high salary, I'll give up the job.
A. Unless B. If C. Providing D. As long as
10. ______ you plan to be walking after darker not, it is a good idea to take a torch along when
you are hiking in rough terrain.
A. Provided B. In case C. Even if D. Whether
11. Your advertisement might look more attractive ______ it were printed in colour.
A. even if B. if C. until D. in case
12. I'll allow you to go to the part ______ you come home before it gets dark.
A. even if B. in case C. as long as D. unless
13. Eggs are generally good for your health, ______, of course, you exaggerate and eat an
excessive amount of them.
A. in case B. unless C. as though D. otherwise
14. Deep sea diving should always be carried out in pairs. In this way, another source of oxygen
is available ______ one system fails.
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A. in case B. as if C. otherwise D. only if

15. Although she was in financially difficulty and behind with her studies, she danced that
evening ______ she didn't have a care in the world.
A. while B. if C. as though D. even if
16. ______ he finds a job soon, he will have to sell his car.
A. Only if B. As if C. Providing D. Unless
17. Simon crept into the house very quickly ______ his parents would not notice how late he
was.
A. for fear that B. in order that C. in case D. if
18. So many people were killed in the fire ______ the stadium didn't have enough emergency
exits.
A. in case B. so long as C. because D. unless
19. ______ so many of the team members were ill, it's not surprising that we lost the match.
A. In contrast B. Due to C. Nonetheless D. Since
20. You must always have a good breakfast every morning ______ late you are.
A. however B. no matter C. even if D. whatever
21. I may never be able to come back to Turkey ______ I want to see as much as possible while I
am here.
A. although B. so C. because D. unless
22. ______ Manchester Union football team will be promoted depends on the last match of the
season.
A. That B. Who C. Where D. Whether
23. I'm sorry Sir, but I don't know ______ floor the maternity ward is on.
A. how B. which C. when D. where
24. I don't think I might agree ______ you have said.
A. that which you B. with that what C. with that D. with what
25. My brother is really scared of large dogs and panics ______ he sees one.
A. however B. whichever C. whenever D. whatever
26. Can you please tell me to ______ I should apply in order to get this document signed?
A. whom B. what C. when D. how
27. I don't really remember ______ youths there were in the boat, but it was crowded.
A. which B. how many C. what D. where
28. I've looked through the menu, but I can't decide ______ to order.
A. whom B. where C. when D. what
29. It may seem interesting, but a large part of ______ on this subject is nonsense.
A. that I have found B. that what I could find
C. what I have found D. that which I could find
30. I can't recollect ______ day she started working here.
A. when B. where C. which D. that
31. Are you implying ______ area is unsafe/
A. thatB. where C. what D. when
32. ______ he had been on a strict diet contributes to his collapse.
A. However B. What C. Who D. The fact that
33. Why don't you ask Auntie Doris? I'm sure she'll know ______ to make an apple pie.
A. what B. which C. why D. how
34. Look at that ugly building! ______ designed it has no taste at all.
A. Whoever B. Whenever C. Wherever D. Whatever
35. _______ begin their existence as ice crystals over most of the earth seems likely
A. Raindrops B. If raindrops C. What if raindrops D. That raindrops
36. Scientists cannot agree on _______related to other orders of insects.
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A. that fleas are B. how fleas are C. how are fleas D. fleas that are
37. ______ added to a liquid, antifreeze lowers the freezing temperature of that liquid.
A. That B. As is C. It is D. When
38. It was in 1875_______ joined the staff of the astronomical observatory at Harvard University.
A. that Anna Winlock B. Anna Winlock, who C. as Anna Winlock D. Anna Winlock
then
39. _______ through a prism, a beam of white light breaks into all the colors of the rainbow.
A. When shines B. It shines C. It is shone D. When shone
40. I couldn’t believe ______ hot chili powder Margaret had put in her curry. I could hardly eat
it.
A. how far B. how long C. how much D. how often
V. Practice test unit 16
TEST 1
A. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. association B. original C. stability D. accelerate
2. A. domestic B. estimate C. statistics D. relation
3. A. language B. diverse C. promote D. combine
4. A. economic B. integration C. development D. transportation
5. A. service B. rural C. region D. include
B. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence,
substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. ASEAN remains ready to further cooperate with _______ United Nations in the ongoing
humanitarian efforts for the victims of Cyclone Nargis in Myanmar.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
7. _______ UN leaders appreciate the support, cooperation and leadership that ASEAN has
shown in helping the victims of disasters.
A. A B. An C. The D. Ø
8. The organization hosts cultural activities in _______ attempt to further integrate the region.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
9. ASEAN also works for the _______ of peace and stability in the region.
A. promote B. promotion C. promotional D. promoter
10. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, commonly referred to as ASEAN, is a geo-
political and _______ organization.
A. economy B. economic C. economics D. economical
11. The motivations for the birth of ASEAN were the desire for a _______ environment.
A. stable B. stability C. stably D. stabilize
12. ASEAN was founded on 8 August, 1967 with five : Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia,
Singapore, and the Philippines.
A. members B. competitors C. leaders D. statesmen
13. ASEAN is an organization on the Southeast Asian region that aims to _______ economic
growth, social progress, and cultural development.
A. account B. include C. accelerate D. respect
14. The Association of Southeast Asia which consists of 10 countries located in Southeast Asia
was _______ on August 8, 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and
Thailand.
A. found B. founded C. invented D. discovered
15. The aims of the Association of Southeast Asia include the evolvement of economic growth,
social progress, cultural development among its members, and the promotion of regional peace.
A. goals B. organizations C. missions D. plans
16. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.
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A. same B. adopted C. various D. respected

17. ASEAN has emphasized cooperation in the "three pillars" of security, socio cultural and
economic _______ in the region.
A. organization B. production C. integration D. establishment
18. The ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) is an agreement by the member nations of ASEAN
concerning local manufacturing in all ASEAN countries.
A. progressing B. producing C. combining D. aiming
19. ASEAN has planned equitable economic development and reduced poverty and _______
disparities in year 2020.
A. socio-politic B. socio-cultural C. socio-linguistic D. socio-economic
20. The Governments of ASEAN have paid special attention _______ trade.
A. to B. on C. for D. with
21. The goal the ASEAN Vision 2020 aims _______ creating a stable, prosperous and highly
competitive ASEAN economic region.
A. for B. on C. at D. up
22. _______, I will give him the report.
A. When he will return B. When he returns
C. Until he will return D. No sooner he returns
23. _______ the firemen arrived to help, we had already put out the fire.
A. Until B. No sooner C. By the time D. After
24. I have earned my own living _______ I was seven.
A. since B. when C. while D. as soon as
25. We saw many beautiful birds _______ in the lake.
a when we are fishing B. while fishing C. while fished D. fishing
26. _______, Peter came to see me.
A. While having dinner B. While I was having dinner
C. When having dinner D. When lam having dinner
27. _______ my homework, I went to bed.
A. After I had finished B. After finished C. Finished D. After had finished
28. _______ the dance, Jerry said good-bye to his girlfriend.
A. Before left B. Before he leaves C. Before leaving D. Before he will leave
29. Jones _______ after everyone _______.
A. speaks / will eat B. will speak / has eaten
C. is speaking / eats D. has spoken / will have eaten
30. _______, Joe stays in bed and reads magazines.
A. Whenever raining B. As it will be raining
C. When it will rain D. Whenever it rains
C. Error Identification.
31. Singapore is an island nation with 63 islands, located at the southern tip
A B
of the Malay PeninsulA. At 704.0 km2, it is a smallest country in Southeast Asia.
C
32. The population of Singapore is approximately 4.59 million. Though
A B
Singapore is highly cosmopolitan and diversity, ethnic Chinese forms
C D
the majority of the population.
33. Singapore has a highly developed market-based economy. Singapore,
A B
along with Hong Kong, South Korea and Taiwan, are one of the Four
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C D
Asian Tigers.
34. Singapore is a popularity travel destination, making tourism one of its
A B
largest industries. About 9.7 million tourists visited Singapore in 2006.
C D
35. Singapore plays an active role in the Association of Southeast Asian
A B
Nations, of that Singapore is a founding member.
C D
D. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
On 8 August 1967, five leaders - the Foreign Ministers of Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines,
Singapore and Thailand- sat down together in the main hall of the Department of Foreign Affairs
building in Bangkok, Thailand and signed a document. By virtue of that document, the Association
of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was born. The five Foreign Ministers who signed it have
been considered as the founders of probably the most successful intergovernmental organization in
the developing world today. The document that they signed would be known as the ASEAN
Declaration.
It is a short, simply-worded document containing just five articles. It declares the establishment of
an Association for Regional Cooperation among the Countries of Southeast Asia to be known as
the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and spells out the aims and purposes of that
Association. These aims and purposes are about the cooperation in economy, society, culture,
techniques, education and other fields, and in the promotion of regional peace and stability through
abiding respect for justice and the principles of the United Nations Charter. It stipulates that the
Association will be open for participation by all States in the Southeast Asian region subscribing to
its aims, principles and purposes. It proclaims ASEAN as representing the collective will of the
nations of Southeast Asia to bind themselves together in friendship and cooperation and, through
joint efforts and sacrifices, secure for their peoples and for posterity the blessings of peace, freedom
and prosperity. The goal of ASEAN, then, is to create, not to destroy.
The original ASEAN logo presented five brown sheaves of rice stalks, one for each founding
member. Beneath the sheaves is the legend "ASEAN" in blue. These are set on a field of yellow
encircled by a blue border. Brown stands for strength and stability, yellow for prosperity and blue
for the spirit of cordiality in which ASEAN affairs are conducteD. When ASEAN celebrated its 30 th
Anniversary in 1997, the sheaves on the logo had increased to ten -representing all ten countries of
Southeast Asia and reflecting the colors of the flags of all of them. In a very real sense, ASEAN
and Southeast Asia will be one and the same, just as the founders had envisioneD.
36. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations ________.
A. consists of some Western nations
B. was established by the Philippines
C. was founded on 8 August 1967
D. was established by the Minister of the Department of Foreign Affairs of Thailand
37. The pronoun it in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. the Association of Southeast Asian Nations
B. the most successful inter-governmental organization
C. Bangkok
D. the ASEAN Declaration
38. Which adjective can be used to describe the Association of Southeast Asian Nations?
A. successful B. illegal C. nongovernmental D. developing
39. Which does not belong to the purpose and aim of the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations?
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A. friendship B. destruction C. creation D. cooperation

40. Up to 1997 how many countries there have been in ASEAN?
A. 5 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10
E. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
ASEAN Handicraft Promotion and Development Association (AHPADA) was established as a
result of a Workshop on Handicraft for Export which was (41) _____ by the Royal Thai
Government in February 1981 in Bangkok. AHPADA was formed as a forum for both the
government and private sectors that are concerned with meeting and complementing each other in
the promotion and development of handicrafts (42) _____. AHPADA is affiliated to the ASEAN
and the World Craft Council. The (43) _____ members were Thailand, Malaysia, the Philippines
and IndonesiA. Singapore and Brunei join in a little (44) _____. Cambodia, Lao, Myanmar and
Vietnam joined in September 1999.
AHPADA's objectives are
1. To take common approach to develop and promote the marketing of crafts (45) _____ and
outside the ASEAN Region,
2. To operate as a main point of promotion of ASEAN handicrafts and raw (46) _____
required-for production, trade fairs and exhibitions,
3. To strengthen and improve the status of craftspeople,
4. To create employment opportunities especially in the rural areas,
5. To (47) _____ traditional craft skills within the context of conservation of cultural heritage,
6. To educate and create awareness and appreciation of the authentic handicrafts of ASEAN
Countries,
7. And to build up an archive of ASEAN CRAFT information.
With the recent economic downturn in (48) _____ ASEAN Countries, AHPADA's objectives are
more relevant than they have ever been before. Most producers are among the rural areas and (49)
_____ majority of them are very small entrepreneurs. AHPADA works at both national level
through the national focal points and at the international level through the Board of AHPADA and
the Regional Secretariat which is permanently based in Bangkok, ThailanD. (50) _____ 1981
AHPADA has been able to act as a catalyst and initiators in the promotion and development of
ASEAN CRAFTS through seminars, workshops and exhibitions, often in partnership with several
multinational and international organizations.
41. A. hosted B. joined C. promoted D. produced
42. A. acts B. actions C. acting D. activities
43. A. finding B. founding C. hiding D. recording
44. A. latest B. last C. late D. later
45. A. within B. into C. onto D. away
46. A. machines B. equipment C. materials D. devices
47. A. save B. preserve C. store D. keep
48. A. most B. the most C. mostly D. the more
49. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
50. A. When B. While C. Since D. As

TEST 2
A. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the
rest.
1. A. diverse B. admit C. science D. enterprise
2. A. growth B. although C. within D. southern
3. A. stable B. average C. population D. rate
4. A. combined B. planned C. recorded D. aimed
5. A. justice B. service C. practice D. advice
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B. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence,

substitutes the underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. The ASEAN Security Community (ASC)aims to ensure that countries in the region live at
_______ with one another and in a democratic and harmonious environment.
A. peace B. peaceful C. peacefully D. peaceable
7. ASEAN's aims include the acceleration of economic growth, _______ progress, cultural,
development among its members, and the promotion of regional peace.
A. society B. social C. socially D. socialize
8. A combined gross domestic _______ of the member countries of ASEAN has grown at an
average rate of around 6% per year.
A. produce B. productivity C. production D. product
9. To build on the field of political and security cooperation, _______ ASEAN Leaders have
agreed to establish the ASEAN Security Community CASC).
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
10. On July 28, 1995, Vietnam became ______ seventh member of ASEAN.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
11. ASEAN has _______ population of 575.5 million.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
12. The population of ASEAN accounts _______ about 8.7% of the world's population.
A. of B. for C. in D. from
13. Laos and Myanmar were admitted _______ ASEAN in 1997.
A. for B. of C. to D. in
14. ASEAN also try to solve the problems of ethnic tensions which might lead _______ civil
war.
A. into B. away C. off D. to
15. One of ASEAN's objectives is to help people think about peace and _______ and do
something about it.
A. origin B. justice C. statistics D. record
16. There are plenty of industrial _______ established in the area, which also makes the
government worried about pollution.
A. series B. goods C. enterprises D. relationships
17. Free _______ area is a designated group of countries that have agreed to eliminate tariffs,
quotas, and preferences on most goods among them.
A. trade B. cultural C. stable D. adopted
18. The ASEAN Investment Area aims to enhance the competitiveness of the region for
attracting direct investment which flows into and within ASEAN.
A. produce B. combine C. found D. improve
19. ASEAN has _______ a community of Southeast' Asian nations at peace with one another
and at peace with the worlD.
A. joined B. estimated C. established D. solved
20. ASEAN helps to _______ regional cooperation in Southeast Asia in the spirit of equality
and partnership
A. invest B. promote C. admit D. invest
21. Rice is the _______ exported product of Vietnam.
A. main B. free C. average D. rural
22. I am going to speak with the boss when the meeting _______.
A. will end B. ends C. is ending D. would end
23. _______ Peter gets here, we will congratulate him.
A. As soon as B. After C. No sooner D. Since
24. _______ I visit him, we talk about politics a lot.
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A. Up to B. As far as C. Whenever D. Until

25. While she _______ breakfast, I set the table.
A. will make B. was making C. has made D. would be making
26. After Mariana _______ her exam, I _______ her out to eat.
A. was finishing / would take B. finished / had taken
C. will finish / have taken D. has finished / will take
27. Mrs. Pike _______ the door before the customers arrived.
A. had opened B. will open C. would open D. has opened
28. She went on crying, with her head sunk into a pillow, and cried and cried _______ the
pillow was wet through.
A. before B. after C. until D. while
29. _______ in Rome than he was kidnapped.
A. No sooner he arrived B. Had he no sooner arrived
C. No sooner had he arrived D. No sooner he had arrived
30. I have not seen my dog _______ the storm struck the community.
A. since B. while C. as soon as D. when.
C. Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
31. As soon as you arrive, give me a call.
A. Give me a call immediately on arrival B. Wait until I call you to arrive.
C. I will phone you on my arrival. D. Whenever you call me, I will arrive.
32. Lucy always reminds me of my youngest sister.
A. My youngest sister's name is Lucy.
B. Whenever I see Lucy, I think of my youngest sister.
C. It is Lucy who is my youngest sister.
D. I always think of Lucy, my youngest sister.
33. By the time we finished our work, Peter had already gone home.
A. Peter did not go home until we finished our work.
B. As soon as we finished our work, we would go home with Peter.
C. We finished our work before Peter went home.
D. Peter had gone home before we finished our work.
34. It has been years since I last ate fish.
A. I have not eaten fish for years.
B. For many years, I have eaten only fish.
C. I like eating fish for years.
D. It is fish that I have eaten for many years.
35. It will not be long until he is at the meeting.
A. It will take him a long time to attend the meeting.
B. He will be at the meeting soon.
C. The meeting will last for a long time.
D. He has been at the meeting for a long time.
D. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), regional alliance of ten independent
countries that promotes stability arid economic growth in Southeast AsiA. The organization also
encourages cultural exchanges between its members. ASEAN was founded in August 1967 by
Malaysia, Thailand, and the republics of Indonesia, Singapore, and the Philippines. Brunei joined
the alliance after attaining independence from the United Kingdom in 1984. Vietnam was admitted
as the first communist member in 1995. Laos and Myanmar joined ASEAN in 1997, and Cambodia
became part of the alliance in 1999. The ASEAN secretariat, a central office that administers the
organization's activities, is located in Jakarta, IndonesiA. Heads of governments of member

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countries meet annually; there are also annual meetings of Prime Ministers and regular meetings of
economic ministers of member countries.
Its principal objectives, outlined in the Bangkok Declaration (1967), were to accelerate economic
growth and promote regional peace and stability. A joint forum with Japan was established in 1977
and a cooperation agreement with the European Community (now European Union) was signed in
1980. During the late 1980s and early 1990s, ABEAN played an important role in mediating the
civil war in CambodiA. In January 1992 ABEAN members agreed to establish a free-trade area and
to cut tariffs on nonagricultural goods over a 15-year period beginning in 1993. However, different
regulations and tariffs among member countries have made that task difficult. Even so, ASEAN
hoped to achieve economic integration by 2015.
36. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) consists of ten members up to now.
A. True B. False C. No information.
37. The nations in the Association of Southeast Asian Nations exchange cultures one another.
A. True B. False C. No information
38. Brunei is one of the founding countries.
A. True B. False C. No information
39. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations intends to admit some nations into the
organization.
A. True B. False C. No information
40. Members of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations do not have to pay tariffs on
nonagricultural goods forever.
A. True B. False C. No information
E. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
What is the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and what is its purpose? The
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a multilateral organization which was (41)
_____ to give Southeast Asian states a forum to communicate (42) _____ each other. Since the
region had a long colonial past and a history of endemic warfare, there has never been much
peaceful and constructive (43) _____ between kings, presidents and other officials. A neutral forum
was, (44) _____, a very useful development for all of those countries.
ASEAN was formed as a result of the Bangkok (45) _____ of 1967 and initially had five members:
Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia, (46) _____ Philippines and Singapore. Brunei (47) _____ joined in
1984 after it had won independence from Britain. Vietnam became the seventh member of the
group, officially joining in 1995. (48) _____ several years of negotiation, Myanmar and Laos
joined in 1997 and the final member of the ten, Cambodia, joined in 1999. The only (49) state in
Southeast Asia which is not a member of ASEAN is now East Timor. It is still (50) _____
vulnerable and fragile to be able to participate for the foreseeable future.
41. A. created B. made C. done D. discovered
42. A. in B. on C. for D. with
43. A. interflow B. interaction C. interference D. intercommunity
44. A. nevertheless B. moreover C. therefore D. however
45. A. Entitle B. Requirement C. Independence D. Declaration
46. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
47. A. subsequently B. fortunately C. approximately D. surprisingly
48. A. Before B. After C. Since D. While
49. A. dependent B. independent C. independently D. independence
50. A. enough B. either C. also D. too
TEST 3
A. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. technology B. situation C. development D. establishment
2. A. agriculture B. electronic C. population D. scientific
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3. A. justice B. admit C. adopt D. improve

4. A. energy B. industry C. forestry D. investment
5. A. series B. respect C. interest D. action
B. Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the
underlined part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
6. Throughout the 1970s, ASEAN embarked on a program of economic _______.
A. cooperate B. cooperation C. cooperative D. cooperatively
7. 2007 was the 40th anniversary of the _______ of ASEAN.
A. found B. founder C. foundation D. founding
8. Vietnam asked for _______ to ASEAN in 1995.
A. admit B. admission C. admissive D. admissible
9. Companies now can exploit the opportunities presented by _______ integrated market of
increasingly prosperous consumers in the region of ASEAN.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
10. Among ASEAN's _______ greatest challenges are the integration of market diversity and
the transitional economies of its member countries.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
11. Integrating with _______ world's economy, ASEAN finds itself facing important
opportunities and challenges.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
12. They will campaign for the return of traditional lands and respect _______ national rights
and customs.
A. to B. with C. on D. for
13. Our country is trying its best to accelerate the rate ___ economic growth.
A. of B. at C. for D. from
14. Regional development activities have been carried out _______ ASEAN cooperation
A. under B. for C. into D. off
15. ASEAN economic cooperation _______ many areas, such as agriculture, industry, services,
transportations, and tourism.
A. creates B. contains C. consists D. covers
16. ASEAN bodies in addressing global and regional concerns such as food security, _______
and disaster management.
A. realization B. energy C. plan D. diversity
17. The 8th ASEAN Science and Technology Week is now being _______ in Manila from 1 to
11 July 2008.
A. held B. joined C. related D. combined
18. The ASEAN Science and Technology Week aims to promote science and technology
_______ in the region.
A. tourism B. solution C. forestry D. development
19. In economics, a country's _______ is the total value of goods and services produced within
a country in a year, not including its income from investments in other countries.
A. free trade area B. association
C. gross domestic product D. economic cooperation
20. He says the government must introduce tax incentives to encourage _______.
A. dedication B. growth C. unemployment D. investment
21. The local authority must face the _______ that they do not have enough conditions to
develop economy.
A. trade B. statistics C. encouragement D. realization
22. I have been learning English _______ I was twenty years old.
A. since B. as soon as C. while D. till
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23. _______, can you tell him that I have a book for him, please?
A. When you will see Jason B. When will you see Jason
C. When do you see Jason D. When you see Jason
24. Since I _______ to the town, I _______ home.
A. moved / have not returned B. will move / will not returned
C. have moved / was not returning D. move / am not returning
25. I'm not leaving _______ I get an apology from you.
A. as far as B. no longer than C. after D. until
26. The teacher _______ before we arrived.
A. will leave B. was leaving C. has left D. had left
27. I flew for the first time last year _______ I went to Brazil.
A. as B. until C. no sooner D. till
28. _______ I realized where I was.
A. No sooner I have opened my eyes than
B. No sooner have I opened my eyes than
C. No sooner I had opened my eyes than
D. No sooner had I opened my eyes than
29. Mary will have finished all her work _______.
A. as soon as her boss returned B. until her boss will return
C. by the time her boss returns D. when he-r boss will return
30. _______ for my train the morning, I met an old school friend.
A. When I had been- waiting B. While I was waiting
C. As I will be waiting D. Until I had been waiting
C. Choose the best answer which can complete the following sentences.
31. _______ consists of thirteen states and three federal territories in Southeast Asia with a total
landmass of 329,847 square kilometers.
A. Malaysia, a country which B. Malaysia is a country that
C. Malaysia it is a country that D. Malaysia which is a country that
32. The population 'stands at over 25 million _______. Islam is the largest as well as the official
religion of the federation.
A. where the Malays form the majority of the population
B. the Malays who form the majority of the population
C. and the Malays form the majority of the population
D. the Malays forming the majority of the population
33. Malaysia is a founding member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations _______.
A. and its participation in many international organizations such as the United Nations
B. and participates in many international organizations such as the United Nations
C. participating in many international organizations, the United Nations
D. to participate in many international organizations as many as the United Nations
34. _______, Malaysia experienced significant economic growth.
A. While between the 1980s and the mid 1990s
B. Between the 1980s and the mid 1990s
C. It was until between the 1980s and the mid 1990s
D. No more than between the 1980s and the mid 1990s
35. There has been a shift from the agriculture-based economy to the economy based on
manufacturing and industry _______.
A. such as computers and consumer electronics
B. so many as computers and consumer electronics
C. too many computers and consumer electronics
D. with enough computers as well as consumer electronics
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D. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations or ASEAN was established on 8 August 1967 in
Bangkok by the five original Member Countries, namely, Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines,
Singapore, and Thailand. Brunei joined on 8 January 1984, Vietnam on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and
Myanmar on 23 July 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999. The ASEAN Declaration states that
the aims and purposes of the Association are: to accelerate economic growth, social progress and
cultural development in the region and to promote regional peace and stability through abiding
respect for justice and the rule of law in the relationship among countries in the region and
adherence to the principles of the United Nations Charter.
In 2003, the ASEAN Leaders resolved that an ASEAN Community shall be established comprising
three pillars, namely, ASEAN Security Community, ASEAN Economic Community and ASEAN
Socio-Cultural Community.
The ASEAN Vision 2020, adopted by the ASEAN Leaders on the 30 th Anniversary of ASEAN,
agreed on a shared vision of ASEAN as a concert of Southeast Asian nations, outward looking,
living in peace, stability and prosperity, bonded together in partnership in dynamic development
and in a community of caring societies.
ASEAN Member Countries have adopted the following fundamental principles in their relations
with one another, as contained in the Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia (TAC):
mutual respect for the independence, sovereignty, equality, territorial integrity, and national
identity of all nations;
the right of every State to lead its national existence free from external interference,
subversion or coercion;
non-interference in the internal affairs of one another;
settlement of differences or disputes by peaceful manner;
renunciation of the threat or use of force; and
effective cooperation among themselves.
36. According to the text, which nation is the last member to join The Association of Southeast
Asian Nations up to now.
A. Vietnam B. The Philippines C. Brunei D. Cambodia
37. The ASEAN Declaration is about _______.
A. the cultures of all the members of the organization
B. the development of all countries allover the world
C. the aims and purposes of the organization
D. the laws of the members of the organization
38. The third paragraph is about _______.
A. living in peace, stability and prosperity C. The ASEAN Vision 2020
B. the 30th Anniversary of ASEAN D. the ASEAN Leaders
39. The Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia _______.
A. is not accepted by ASEAN Member Countries
B. consists of fundamental principles in the relations of ASEAN Member Countries
C. is disapproved by ASEAN Member Countries
D. has two principles
40. Which principle does not belong to the Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia?
A. interference in the internal affairs of member countries
B. effective cooperation
C. mutual respect
D. peaceful manner
E. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
The Philippines, officially known (41) _____ the Republic of the Philippines, is (42) _____ in
Southeast Asia with Manila as its capital city. The Philippine (43) ____ 7,107 islands in the western
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Pacific Ocean, sharing borders with Indonesia, Malaysia, Taiwan, and Vietnam. The Philippines is
the world's 12th most populous country with a population approaching 90 million people. Its
national (44) _____ is the 37th largest in the world with a 2006 gross domestic product (GDP) of
over 117.562 billion USD. There are (45) _____ 11 million overseas Filipinos worldwide. The
Philippines became a Spanish colony in the 16th century and an American territory at the (46)
_____ of the 20th century. The Philippines won independence from Spain in 1896. The Philippines
(47) _____ its independence from the United States on July 4, 1946 after World War II. Spanish
was (48) _____ official language of the Philippines until 1973. Since then, the two official
languages are Filipino and English. The Philippines had cultural ties with Malaysia, Indonesia, and
India in the ancient time, and trade (49) _____ with China and Japan as early as the 9th century.
The late 1960s and early 1970s its economic development was second in Asia, (50) _____ to Japan.
The Philippines is a founding and active member of the United Nations and is a founding member
of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)/ The Philippines is also a member of the
East Asia Summit (EAS) and an active member in the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC).
41. A. as B. to C. with D. for
42. A. laid B. lay C. located D. put
43. A. compounds B. fixes C. consists D. comprises
44. A. economy B. economics C. economical D. economically
45. A. more B. more than C. rather than D. rather more
46. A. starter B. initiation C. first D. beginning
47. A. gathered B. collected C. gained D. earned
48. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
49. A. acts B. acquaintances C. relations D. concerns
50. A. next B. by C. beside D. on

REVIEW THE SECOND SEMESTER

TEST 1
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.
1. A. instead B. pleased C. seat D. meat
2. A. mechanize B. champion C. character D. chemical
3. A. count B. sound C. found D. country
Choose the word whose stress is placed differently from that of the rest.
4. A. differently B. hunger C. famine D. equality
5. A. kangaroo B. involvement C. biologist D. accelerate
Choose the suitable word or phrase to complete these sentences.
6. In the past people believed that women’s ________ roles were as mothers and wives.
A. nature B. natural C. naturism D. naturalist
7. The more goods we export, the ________ jobs we can create in our country.
A. more B. many C. much D. good
8. She told him __________ up hope.
A. not give B. do not give C. not to give D. to give not
9. The Vietnamese boy was regarded as a hero __________ he dedicated his life to his country.
A. although B. because of C. providing D. because
10. They were energetic participants __________ expected to win the first prize.
A. many of whom B. many of them C. many of who D. much of whom
11. If you take a good book on your hand, you will find it hard __________.
A. to pick it up B. to put it down C. to read it D. to enjoy it
12. This novel is __________ than the one I read last week.
A. good B. as good C. more good D. better
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13. This book provides students ____________ useful tips that help them to pass the coming exam.
A. ф B. about C. for D. with
14. The children made ___________ a little poem and wrote it in the card. (invent)
A. up B. over C. for D. off
15. After Mary ________ her degree, she intends to work in her father’s company.
A. will finish B. is finishing C. finishes D. will have
finished
16. An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the
birth of the League of Red Cross Societies in 1991.
A. treated B. dedicated C. started D. Helped
17. He is disappointed at not being offered the job, but I think he will ______ it.
A. turn off B. get over C. fill in D. take after
18. I _______ a novel ________ by O.Henry at seven yesterday evening.
A. read/written B. would read/ to write
C. was reading/written D. was to read/ writing
19. I just bought ________new shirt and some new shoes. ________shirt is quite expensive but the
price of ________shoes are reasonable.
A. a/ A/ the B. a/ The/ a C. the/ The/ the D. a/ The/ the
20. The acronym of WHO stands for ________.
A. World Healthy Organization B. World Health Organization
C. World Health Organizing D. World Healthful Organization
21. He died ___________ pneumonia./nju:’məʊniə/: illness of the lung(s)
A. for B. by C. in D. of
22. Nowadays elephants are one of the __________ species in the world. They need protecting.
A. enlightened B. expensive C. endangered D. enlarged
23. It is very important for a firm or a company to keep ______ the changes in the market.
A. touch with B. up with C. pace of D. track about
24. What are the ____ between women in old times and women in modern times?
A. differs B. different C. difference D. differences
25. Emily is motivated to study _________ she knows that a good education can improve her life.
A. therefore B. because of C. because D. so
26. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, _________ he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to
join us.
A. but B. so C. for D. and
27. Some people really enjoy swimming _______ others are afraid of water.
A. while B. or C. despite D. in spite of
28. She didn’t get ___________ well with her boss, so she left the company.
A. up B. at C. through D. on
29. It is against the law to ______ on the basis of sex, age, marital status, or race.
A. suit B. discriminate C. believe D. gain
30. The 22 Southeast Asia Games were ___________ in Vietnam in 2003.
nd

A. built B. met C. taken D. held

Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correction.
31. Although smokers are aware that smoking is harmful to their health, they can’t get rid it. {get
rid of}
A B C D
32. Jane would rather that it was winter because it’s now so hot in summer. {were}
A B C D

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33. The early we leave, the sooner we will arrive. {earlier}

A B C D
34. A lot of articles about the environmental pollution have written by my classmates.
A B C D
35. Tree squirrels are active, noisy, and lively animals that make its home in tree trunks. {their}
A B C D
Choose the sentence that is similar in meaning to the root one.
36. An old woman saw him break into the building.
A. He was seen to break into the building by an old woman.
B. He was seen break into the building by an old woman.
C. He was seen to have broken into the building by an old woman.
D. He was seen to be broken into the building by an old woman.
37. Most of Ann’s friends work less hard than her.
A. Ann works more hard than most of her friends do.
B. Ann works more hardly than most of her friends do.
C. Ann works harder than most of her friends do.
D. Ann works as hard as most of her friends do.
38. Every student is required to write an essay on the topic.
A. Every student might write an essay on the topic.
B. Every student must write an essay on the topic.
C. They require every student write an essay on the topic.
D. Every student should write an essay on the topic.
39. Mary is taller than her sister.
A. Mary is the taller of the two sisters. B. Mary is the tallest of the two sisters.
C. Mary is the most tall of the two sisters. D. Mary is the shorter of the two sisters.
40. We haven’t met each other for ages.
A. It’s ages since we meet each other. B. It’s ages since we have met each other.
C. It was ages since we met each other. D. It’s ages since we met each other.

TEST 2
Which word is pronounced differently from the others?
1. A. signs B. survives C. profits D. becomes
2. A. spectrum B. species C. specify D. special
3. A. concerned B. conducted C. confided D. rejected
Which word has the different stress from that of the others?
4. A. endangered B. commercial C. vulnerable D. extinction
5. A. imaginary B. biography C. scientific D. impressive
Choose the right word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
6. We __________open the lion's cage. It is contrary to Zoo regulations.
A. mustn't B. should C. needn't D. must
7. These children __________so much that they feel very tired and bored.
A. are made to study B. are made to be studied
C. are made study D. are making to study
8. The light went out while I __________dinner.
A. have B. am having C. have had D. was having
9. The picnic __________because Peter has just had a traffic accident.
A. will have cancelled B. will be cancelled C. will cancel D. will be canceling
10. We had a wonderful holiday __________the bad weather.
A. because of B. despite C. though D. because

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11. He __________an expedition across the Sahara desert with some of his colleagues.
A. planed B. got C. made D. took
12. John is not at home. He __________go somewhere with Daisy. I am not sure.
A. will B. must C. might D. should
13. To become a novelist, you need to be __________.
A. imagination B. imaginative C. imaginarily D. imagine
14. Ann: "What do you usually do on Sundays?" - Mary: "__________."
A. I'm not doing anything B. I usually sleep until noon
C. I'd be sleeping all day D. I used to drive to work
15. It's a long time __________I visited Singapore.
A. since B. for C. as D. because
16. You would rather __________talking in class so as not to make your teacher angry.
A. stops B. stop C. stopping D. to stop
17. “__________you hand those books, please?" "Sure. Here they are."
A. Could B. Should C. May D. Must
18. His car broke down; __________, he had to walk home.
A. however B. nevertheless C. moreover D. therefore
19. Peter: "Be careful!” - Marry: "__________."
A. I will B. Thank you. C. What a pity! D. Yes, I am
20. Scientific ______help to explore some places and discover more and more remote part of the
world.
A. survey B. researches C. expedition D. pollution
21. John failed again. He __________harder.
A. may have tried B. can tried C. must have tried D. should have tried
22. The office photocopier needs to __________.
A. be fixed B. fixing C. fixes D. fixed
23. We have not yet succeeded; __________, we will keep trying.
A. moreover B. so that C. therefore D. however
24. __________I have a day off tomorrow? - Of course not. We have a lot of things to do.
A. Need B. May C. Will D. Must
25. __________is the protection of environment and natural resources.
A. Conservation B. Commerce C. Survival D. Extinction
26. The Red List is a special book that provides names of __________animals.
A. unprotected B. special C. rareD. endangered
27. We have plenty of time for doing the work. We ________________ be hurried.
A. mayn't B. shouldn't C. needn't D. mustn't
28. Hunting for meat and burning forests for soil cause __________to wildlife.
A. organization B. contamination C. protection D. destruction
29. We learned that the college __________in 1900.
A. is founded B. found C. was founded D. founded
30. The teacher speaks slowly __________the pupils may understand him.
A. in order B. or C. so that D. because
Choose the words or phrases that are not correct in Standard English.
31. I don't think I can get the job because of there are many applicants for it.
A B C D
32. Your question can only answer by an excellent student.
A B C D
33. Different conservation efforts have made in order to save endangered species
A B C D
34. He told them to obey the traffic law when travelled on the road.
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AB C D
35. Before you will know it, your children will have grown up.
AB C D
Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to complete the sentence:
36. I left a message on her answering machine__________.
A. despite she didn't return my call B. when she didn't return my call
C. but she didn't return my call D. although she didn't return my call
37. __________, I cannot keep pace with Johnny.
A. A So I have tried hard B. However hard I have tried
C. However hard have I tried D. I have tried hard so
38. Before eating, __________thoroughly with soap and clean water.
A. your hands need washed B. you need washing your hands
C. your hands should be washing D. you should wash your hands
39. Football is thought __________.
A. is the most popular sport B. the most popular sport
C. that be the most popular sport D. to be the most popular sport
40. John passed the final exam easily. __________.
A. He was too lazy to succeed B. He must have studied very hard
C. He can't have studied very hard D. He needs studying harder

TEST 3
Choose the best answer:
1. You ________ ask a woman about her age. It’s not polite.
A. must B. need C. mustn’t D. needn’t
2. I’ll lend you the money and you ________ pay me back till next month.
A. needn’t B. mustn’t C. need D. must
3. Tell her that she ________ be here by six. She is not allowed to be late.
A. may B. must C. ought to D. might
4. You _______ touch that switch, whatever you do.
A. mustn't B. needn't C. won't D. wouldn't
5. Susan ___ hear the speaker because the crowd was cheering so loudly.
A. mustn't B. couldn't C. can't D. needn't
6. You _______ be rich to be a success. Some of the most successful people I know haven't got a
penny to their name.
A. needn't B. couldn't C. mayn't D. mustn't
7. Visitors ___________ feed the animals at the zoo.
A. must B. mustn’t C. needn’t D. may
8. You _________read the whole book. The first four chapters are enough.
A. needn’t B. must C. mustn’t D. may
9. It _________ rain today. Remember to bring an umbrella with you.
A. must B. may C. needn’t D. mustn’t
10. He __________ be in the room. His shoes are on the carpet in front of the door.
A. must B. may C. might D. mustn’t
11. Many plants and endangered species are now endangering of _______.
A. expression B. expulsion C. extinction D. extension
12. A lot of different conservation efforts have been made to ________endangered species.
A. save B. kills C. make D. do
13. Conservation is the protection of the _________ environment.
A. nature B. natural C. naturally D. naturalize
14. All the countries of the area have _______ to protect their wildlife but they are rarely enforced.
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A. efforts B. laws C. results D. reserves

15. Mammals have been in ___________ for many millions of years.
A. exist B. existing C. existence D. existed
16. People aim to raise _________ of the dangers of passive smoking.
A. aware B. awareness C. unaware D. unawareness
17. We are all responsible for the ____________ of the forest.
A. destroy B. destructive C. destruction D. destructively
18. A / An _______ species is a population of an organism which is at risk of becoming extinct.
A. dangerous B. endanger C. endangered D. endangerment
19. The Bali Tiger was declared extinct in 1937 due to hunting and habitat loss.
A. generation B. diversity C. reserve D. natural environment
20. Almost half of turtles and tortoises are known to be threatened with ____.
A. extinction B. extinctive ness C. extinctive D. extinct
21. The big shopping mall ____________ in the city center.
A. will build B. is going to build C. is going to be built D. must being built
22. It’s raining heavily. The match ____________.
A. must cancel B. must be canceling C. must have canceled D. must be canceled
23. If I didn’t do my job properly, I ____________.
A. will be sacked B. will sack C. would be sacked D. would sack
24. The television ____________ . It’s not working now.
A. should repair B. should be repaired C. should repaired D. should be repair.
25. We ____________ the trip if the weather had been nice last Sunday.
A. wouldn’t have delayed B. would be delayed C. would delay D. will be delayed
26. A new bridge ____________ across the river since last month.
A. has built B. was built C. has been built D. built
27. English ____________ in most of Canada.
A. speak B. is spoken C. speak D. is speaking
28. Last night when I was walking in the park, it suddenly ____________ very heavily.
A. rained B. was rained C. was raining D. was being
raining
29. The computer ____________ at the moment.
A. is using B. is being used C. has been used D. has used
30. They will call me as soon as they ____________ their work.
A. have been finished B. will finish C. will have finished D. have finished
31. The reference book is expensive, so I think I’ll borrow it from the ____________ rather than
buying it.
A. bookshop B. library C. theatre D. movie
32. Books that give fact about real events, things, or people are called ____________.
A. novel B. biography C. romance D. non-fiction
33. It was such a great book that I couldn’t put it ____________.
A. on B. off C. out D. down
34. I think he has just had time to ____________ into the story, not to digest it yet.
A. chew B. taste C. swallow D. dip
35. “Harry Potter” has received good comments from _____________.
A. sellers B. editors C. reviewers D. publishers
36. Sherlock Holmes is an important _____________ in detective fiction.
A. employer B. character C. manager D. writer
37. I’m really fond _____________ reading detective stories by Agatha Christie.
A. in B. on C. at D. of

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38. We aren’t really _____________ in reading thriller books because they about crimes and
violence.
A. interested B. bored C. fond D. keen
39. Books are one of the cheapest ways to get _____________ and entertainment.
A. inform B. informal C. information D. informant
40. The animal characters made Sheila’s books interesting and _____________.
A. believe B. unbelievable C. believable D. believed

TEST 4
Choose the best option to complete the following passage.
The United Nations Organization (UNO) or simply the United Nations (UN) is an international
organization (1)________ stated aims are facilitating cooperation in international law, international
security, (2)__________ development, social progress, human rights, and achievement of world
peace. The UN was founded in 1945 (3)________ World War II to replace the League of Nations,
to (4)_______ wars between countries, and to provide a platform for dialogue. It contains multiple
subsidiary organizations to carry _______ its missions.
1. A. who B. which C. whose D. that
2. A. economy B. economic C. economical D. economically
3. A. after B. before C. while D. until
4. A. continue B. maintain C. interrupt D. stop
5. A. in B. out C. off D. on
Read the following passage and do the task below.
The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF),established in 1961, is an international non-
governmental organization working on issues regarding the conservation, research and restoration
of the environment, formerly named the World Wildlife Fund, which remains its official name in
Canada and the United States. It is the world's largest independent conservation organization with
over 5 million supporters worldwide, working in more than 90 countries, supporting around 1300
conservation and environmental projects around the world. It is a charity, with approximately 60%
of its funding coming from voluntary donations by private individuals. 45% of the fund's income
comes from the Netherlands, the United Kingdom and the United States.
The group says its mission is "to halt and reverse the destruction of our environment". Currently,
much of its work focuses on the conservation of three biomes that contain most of the world's
biodiversity: forests, freshwater ecosystems, and oceans and coasts. Among other issues, it is also
concerned with endangered species, pollution and climate change.
6. How many years ago was the WWF established ?
A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60
7. More than half of the fund for this organization comes from ______________.
A. the governments B. 90 countries C. environmental projects D. private
individuals
8. Which is NOT mentioned as one of the three biomes that the WWF’s program focuses on ?
A. land and climate B. forests C. freshwater ecosystems D. oceans and
coasts
9. What is the mission of the WWF ?
A. to destruct the environment B. to reverse the environment
C. to halt the environment D. to protect the environment
10. The world “donations” in the first paragraph has the closest meaning to ______________.
A. things and money the WWF loses B. things and money the WWF gives
C. things and money the WWF receives D. things and money the WWF buys
11. John got ill and had to ___________ smoking.
A. give on B. give up C. give out D. give off
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12. It’s dark in here. Can I ___________ the lights ?

A. turn off B. turn up C. turn on D. turn round
13. You can the new words in the dictionary.
A. look after B. look at C. look for D. look up
14. John ___________ his best clothes for the interview.
A. put on B. put off C. put down D. put away
15. The trouble with Frank is that he never turns ___________ on time for the meeting.
A. on B. off C. down D. up
16. John, could you look ___________ my handbag while I go to the toilet ?
A. on B. up C. after D. over
17. The bomb ___________ with a loud bang which could be heard all over the world.
A. went out B. went off C. went up D. went on
18. What a lovely baby! He certainly takes ___________ his father, doesn’t he ?
A. off B. after C. out D. over
19. I did the cooking while Guy __________ care of the washing-up.
A. did B. made C. took D. looked
20. Atkins was __________ from jail yesterday.
A. freed B. run C. escaped D. chased
21. I have __________ contact with Jim for three years.
A. asked B. lost C. abandoned D. managed
22. He had worked hard and was __________ forward to his retirement.
A. having B. acting C. looking D. inquiring
23. Sorry, I didn’t mean to __________ everybody up.
A. do B. make C. keep D. hold
24. My brother has __________ for a university scholarship.
A. discussed B. applied C. taken D. left
25. How long did you __________ for a taxi?
A. wait B. stop C. stand D. fly
26. She __________ her hometown for the bright lights of New York.
A. went B. came C. arrived D. left
27. What kind of music do you __________ to?
A. hear B. listen C. catch D. understand
28. Who’s __________ after the department while you’re away?
A. running B. getting C. taking D. looking
29. We are trying to control the ________ of the dollar on the world’s money markets.
A. stable B. stabilize C. stability D. stabilizer
30. _________ is the unit of money in many Latin American countries and the Philippines.
A. Baht B. Ringed C. Dollar D. Peso
th,
31. The ASIAN was ________ on August 8 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand.
A. founded B. begun C. found D. proved
32. The _______ (GDP) is increasing faster and faster.
A. Gross Domestic Product B. Gross Domestic Production
C. Growth Domestic Product D. General Domestic Production
33. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, commonly referred to as ASEAN, is a geo-political
and _______ organization.
A. economy B. economic C. economics D. economical
34. ASEAN was founded on 8 August, 1967 with five : Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore,
and the Philippines.
A. members B. competitors C. leaders D. statesmen
35. The ___________ of Malaysia is Kuala Lumpur
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A. captain B. capita C. capital D. capitol

36. Singapore has a _____________ of 27,174,000
A. populate B. population C. popular D. popularly
37 The ______ of the electric telegraph gave birth to the communications industry.
A. invent B. inventor C. invention D. inventing
38. ASEAN's aims include the acceleration of economic growth, _______ progress, cultural,
development among its members, and the promotion of regional peace.
A. society B. social C. socially D. socialize
39. Since I _______ to the town, I _______ home.
A. moved / have not returned B. will move / will not returned
C. have moved / was not returning D. move / am not returning
40. I'm not leaving _______ I get an apology from you.
A. as far as B. no longer than C. after D. until
41. The teacher _______ before we arrived.
A. will leave B. was leaving C. has left D. had left
42. I flew for the first time last year _______ I went to Brazil.
A. as B. until C. no sooner D. till
43. _______ for my train the morning, I met an old school friend.
A. When I had been- waiting B. While I was waiting
C. As I will be waiting D. Until I had been waiting
44. After Mariana _______ her exam, I _______ her out to eat.
A. was finishing / would take B. finished / had taken
C. will finish / have taken D. has finished / will take
45. Mrs. Pike _______ the door before the customers arrived.
A. had opened B. will open C. would open D. has opened
46. _______ Peter gets here, we will congratulate him.
A. As soon as B. After C. No sooner D. Since
47. While she _______ breakfast, I set the table.
A. will make B. was making C. has made D. would be
making
48. I have earned my own living _______ I was seven.
A. since B. when C. while D. as soon as
49. _______, Peter came to see me.
A. While having dinner B. While I was having dinner
C. When having dinner D. When lam having dinner
50. _______ the firemen arrived to help, we had already put out the fire.
A. Until B. No sooner C. By the time D. After

TEST 5
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest.
Question 1: A. books B. photographs C. understands D. maps
Question 2: A. liked B. wrapped C. travelled D. worked
Question 3: A. species B. benefit C essential D. generation

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose main stress pattern
is not the same as that of the others.
Question 4: A. economic B. language C. education D. preservation
Question 5: A. habitat B. possession C. property D. recogniz

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks from 6 to 10
For many young people, sport is a (6)_______ part of school life and being in one of the school
teams and playing in matches is very important. If (7)______ is in a team, it means a lot of extra
training and often spending a Saturday or Sunday away from home since many matches are played
then. It (8)______ also involve traveling to other towns to play against other school teams and then
staying on after the match for a meal or a drink. Sometimes, parents, friends or other students will
travel with the team to support their own side.
When a school team (9)_______ another one, it is the whole school that feels proud, not only the
players. It can also mean that a school becomes well-known for being good at certain sports and
pupils from that school may end up playing (10)_______ national and international teams so that
the school has some really famous names associated with it.
Question 6: A. famous B. popular C. strange D. smart
Question 7: A. anyone B. everyone C. someone D. no one
Question 8: A. ought B. should C. must D. might
Question 9: A. victories B. wins C. beats D. loses
Question 10: A. up B. to C. for D. beside

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 11 to 15
Most large cities now have an underground system, like the French “Metro”. When you need to
change trains, you usually ought to walk along bare, uninteresting corridors. Sometimes, if you are
lucky, there will be “buckers”- people playing music in the hope of earning a few pence. They will
be very pleased if you throw a few coins into the hat they have placed on the ground in front of
them, but they will go on playing happily even if you don’t. These buckers give us a moment of
pleasure as we wait for our trains. It is pity, then, that the authorities are against bucking, and do
what they can to stop it. Buskers may be breaking the law, but I think that most people are glad to
have little music to brighten their busy lives.

Question 11: The writer of the passage wants to _______.

A. complain about the metro system
B. encourage people to use the metro
C. feel pity for buckers
D. say that bucking is doing no harm
Question 12: According to the writer, waiting for trains is most of the time ______.
A. boring B. exciting C. costing D. embarrassing
Question 13: Buckers are those who ______.
A. earn money selling train tickets
B. play music for fun
C. play music for a living
D. beg people for food
Question 14: According to the passage, bucking is ______.
A. a kind of music B. against the law
C. a kind of hobby D. not what train passengers like
Question 15: The words “ bare” in line 2 is nearest in meaning to ______.
A. crowded B. comfortable C. old D. empty
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 16: _______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do.
A. The harder / the better B. The more / the much
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C. The hardest / the best D. The hard / the good

Question 17: This is the school ______ I studied _______ I was a boy.
A. where – when B. which – when C. which – that D. where – that
Question 18: Would you like a piece of cake ? - _______.
A. Yes. I would B. Yes, I do like C. Yes, please D. Yes, of course
Question 19: We turned off the radio _______ the boring program.
A. because B. because of C. however D. in spite of
Question 20: Take the clothes ________ and hang it up before it gets wrinkled.
A. off B. on C. in D. up
Question 21: - I’m sorry about that!
- _____!
A. That’s right B. Of course C. You’re welcome D. It’s OK
Question 22: When are you going to get the roof _______ ? It leaks quite badly.
A. repair B. to repair C. repairing D. repaired
Question 23: The child will die _______ nobody sends him for a doctor.
A. if B. unless C. when D. so
Question 24: I still can’t believed it! My bicycle_______ last night.
A. was stolen B. was stealing C. stolen D. stole
Question 25: This morning while I ______ for the bus, the rain stopped.
A. waited B. have waited C. had waited D. was waiting
Question 26: Just a minute too late, he _______ on the train when the girl came.
A. leaves B. had left C. leaving D. left
Question 27: She wants to look _______ in her wedding reception.
A. natural B. naturally C. nature D. natured
Question 28: Have you got an idea ______ we should do to deal with this matter?
A. how B. where C. what D. why
Question 29: Neither Tom nor his friends________ there last night.
A. is B. are C. was D. were
Question 30: Aren’t you fed up _____ the same thing everyday?
A. of doing B. with doing C. with do D. on doing
Question 31: The house really needs _______.
A. for repainted B. to be repainting C. being repainted D. repainting
Question 32: Nam used to visit his grandmother ,_____?
A. used he B. didn’t he C. doesn’t he D. did he
Question 33: Excuse me! I’m doing my homework. _______ turning down your radio a bit?
A. Would you please B. Can you C. Could you D. Would you mind
Question 34: What do you think of Korean film?
A. Yes, I do B. I like them C. No, I don’t D. I think of them
very much
Question 35: Several rare species are dying ______ owing to human beings’ deforestation and
careless hunting
A. up B. out C. away D. down
Question 36: The ………………year in Vietnam runs from September to June and is divided into 2
terms.
A. academically B. academicals C. academical D. academic
th
Question 37: The 25 Sea Games will be held in Lao. It is Lao’s first time as the ______ for the
games.
A. host B. competitor C. supporter D. participant
Question 38: The Vietnamese Women's Football team _______ defended the SEA Games title.
A. successfully B. successful C. success D. succeed
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Question 39: Children receive its early _______ at home so parents should buy some ________
magazines to put them in the bookcase.
A. educational/educated B. educational/education
C. education / educational D. education/educated
Question 40: He was offered the job despite his poor _______.
A. achievements B. preparations C. qualifications D. expressions
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 41: No one in the class is taller than Lan.
A. Lan is the tallest student in the class B. Lan is the tall student in the class
C. Lan is the tallest student in class D. Lan is tallest student in the class
Question 42: “ Why hasn’t Minh phoned? ” she wondered
A. She wondered why Minh hasn’t phoned
B. She wondered why Minh didn’t phone
C. She wondered why Minh hadn’t phoned
D. She wondered why hadn’t Minh phoned
Question 43: Ban cannot get married because he is under sixteen.
A. Ban is young enough to get married B. Ban is too young to get married
C. Ban is old enough to get married D. Ban is too old to get married
Question 44: Although traffic was bad, Mr. David managed to get to his office on time.
A. Despite of the bad traffic, Mr. David managed to get to his office on time.
B. In spite of the traffic was bad, Mr. David managed to get to his office on time.
C. Although the traffic was bad, but Mr. David managed to get to his office on time.
D. In spite of the bad traffic, Mr. David managed to get to his office on time.
Question 45: I’ll only help you if you promise to try harder.
A. Unless you promise to try harder, I’ll help you.
B. I won’t help you unless you promise to try harder.
C. I’ll help you even when you promise to try harder.
D. I won’t help you even when you promise to try harder.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
Question 46: By the time babies will be seven months old, they can sit up without support.
A B C D
Question 47: You are always driving your car such fast that you often cause accidents.
A B C D
Question 48: The computer is said to be one of the wonder of human beings in modern life.
A B C D
Question 49: Jackson was going to study all night, but he declined our invitation to dinner.
A B C D
Question 50: Florida, that is known to be the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.
A B C D

MỘT SỐ ĐỀ THAM THI THAM KHẢO THPT QUỐC GIA

KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019

Mã đề thi 401
Họ, tên thí sinh: ..............................................................
Số báo danh: ...................................................................
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Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
1: A. consist B. carry C. remove D. protect
2: A. solution B. principal C. passenger D. continent
Mark the letter At B, Ct or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
3: A. touch B. round C. ground D. shout
4: A. combined B. travelled C. behaved D. practised
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
5: A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
- Shop assistant: “Do you need anything else?”
- Customer: “________”
A. Good job! B. That’s all. Thanks. C. With pleasure. D. You’re
welcome.
6: Ann and Peter are talking about housework.
- Ann: “I think children should be paid for doing the housework.”
- Peter: “________. It’s their duty in the family.”
A. You’re exactly right B. That’s what 1 think
C. There’s no doubt about it D. I don’t think so
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
7: These photos brought back many sweet memories of our trip to Hanoi last year.
A. Recalled B. released C. revised D. caught
Qưéstion 8: At first, John said he hadn’t broken the vase, but later he accepted it.
A. denied B. discussed C. protected D. admitted
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
9: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D hateful
10: It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eve to acts of injustice they witness in
the sưeet.
A. take no notice of B. have no foelfos fory
C. show respect for D. pay attention to
Mark the letter A, B, Cf or I) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
11: As they remembered________about the danger of getting lost in the forest, the tourists
closely followed the tour guide.
A. being warned B. warning C. to be warned D. to warn
12: Once ________ for viruses, the software can be installed in the school computer system for use.
.
A. as tested B. is tested C. testing D. tested
13: The teacher entered the room while the students________their plan for the excursion.
A. discuss B. were discussing C. discussed D. are discussing

14: His choice of future career is quite similar _______ mine.

A. with B. at C. for D. to
15: With his good sẹnse of humour, Martin is quite_______ with the students.
A. popularity B. popular C. polularise D. popularly
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16: The residents of the village are living a happy life _______ they lack modem facilities.
A because of B. although C. therefore D. despite
17: Action films with big stars tend to _______ great public attention.
A. achieve B. show C. attract D. reach
18: This is_______ most beautiful song I’ve ever listen to.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
19: The scientists are working on a drug capable of _______ the spread of cancerous cells.
A. arresting B. catching C. seizing D. grasping
20: The little boy took an instant liking to his, baby sitter _______.
A. upon their first meeting B. before he first met her
C. prior to their first meeting D. as soon as he meets her
21: It’s time he acted like a_______ adult and stopped blaming others for his; wrongdoings.
A. responsible B. sociable C. believable D. suitable
22: We_______ on a field trip if the weather is fine this weekend.
A. could have gone B. will go C. would go D. went
23: One recipe for success is to stay focused and_______ yourself to whatever you do.
A. apply B. attach C. assign D. adhere
24: It’s not my_______ to tell you how to run your life, but I think you should settle down and have
a family.
A. work B. chore C. job D. career
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Becoming an independent language learner
In an educational context, the term ‘learner independence’ has gained increasing importance in
recent years. It is of particular (25) _______ to language learning and commonly refers to the way
students confidently control and organise their own language learning process. While some people
seem to have an almost (26) _______ flair for languages, others have to rely on strategies to
maximise theừ skills and learn a foreign language more effectively.
The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above
all on taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity
available to you to learn. You also increase your chances of (27) _______ by learning according to
your own needs and interests, using all available resources. Research shows that learners (28)
_______ adopt this approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their language abilities
considerably and (29) _______, are more likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.
25: A. resemblance B. relevance C. acquaintance D. accentanrp
26: A. habitual B. spiritual C. perceptive D. instinct
27: A. successfully B. successful C. succeed D. success
28: A. who B. why C. where D. which
29: A. as a result B. in contrast C. though D. because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to incorrect
answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Tribal tourism is a relatively new type of tourism. It involves travellers going to remote
destinations, staying with local people and learning about their culture and way of life. They stay in
local accommodation, share facilities with local people, and join in with meals and celebrations. At
the moment, less than one percent of holidays are tribal tourism holidays, but this is set to change.
Tribal tourism is often compared with foreign exchange visits. However a foreign exchange
involves staying with people who often share the same values. Tribal tourism takes visitors to
places where the lifestyle is very different from that in their home location. Those who have been to
a tribal holiday explain that experiencing this lifestyle is the main attraction. They say that it offers
them the chance to live in a way they never have before.
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Not everyone is convinced that tribal tourism is a good thing, and opinions are divided. The
argument is about whether or not it helps the local population, or whether it exploits them. The
main problem is that, because tribal tourism is relatively new, the long-term influences on local
populations have not been studied in much detail. Where studies have been carried out, the effects
have been found to be negative.
So is it possible to experience an exotic culture without harming it in some way? “With a bit of
thought, we can maximise the positive influences and minimise the negative,” says travel company
director Hilary Waterhouse. “The most important thing for a tribal tourist is to show respect for,
learn about, and be aware of, local customs and traditions. Always remember you’re a guest.”
(Adapted from "Complete ỊELTS" by Rawdon Wyatt)
30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. An Old Tourist Destination B. Holidays with a Difference
C. Different Customs of a Tribe D. Peak Holiday Seasons
31: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to_______.
A. travellers B. facilities C. local people D.
remote destinations
32: According to paragraph 2, what is the main attraction of tribal tourism?
A. Tourists can stay with people of the same values.
B. Tourists can interact with other foreign visitors.
C. Tourists can experience a different lifestyle.
D. Tourists can explore beauty spots in remote areas.
33: The word “divided” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. similar B. important C. different D. interesting
34: According to Hilary Waterhouse, the most important thing for a tribal tourist is to_______.
A. forget about negative experiences B. respect local customs and traditions
C. learn about other guests D. be accompanied by other travellers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
E-waste is being produced on a scale never seen before. Computers and other electronic equipment
become obsolete in just a few years, leaving customers with little choice but to buy newer ones to
keep up. Millions of tons of computers, TVs, smartphones, and other equipment are discarded each
year. In most countries, all this waste ends up in landfills, where it poisons the environment - e-
waste contains many toxic substances such as lead, mercury, and arsenic that leak into the ground.
Recycling is the ideal solution to the problem. E-waste contains significant amounts of valuable
metals like gold and silver that make it attractive to recycle. In theory, recycling gold from old
computers is more efficient - and less environmentally destructive - than digging it from the earth.
The problem is that a large percentage of e-waste dropped off for recycling in wealthy countries is
sold and diverted to the developing world, posing an increasing threat to the health of the people
there.
To address the problem of the international trade in e-waste, 170 nations signed the 1989 Basel
Convention, an agreement requiring that developed nations notify developing nations of hazardous
waste shipments coming into their countries. Then, in 1995 the Basel Convention was modified to
ban hazardous waste shipments to poor countries completely. Although the ban hasn’t taken effect
the European Union, where recycling infrastructure is well developed, has already written it into
their laws. One law holds manufacturers responsible for the safe disposal of electronics they
produce.
Companies like Creative Recycling Systems in Florida, the USA, are hoping to profit from clean e-
waste recycling. The key to their business is a huge, building-size machine able to separate
electronic products into their component materials. As the machine’s steel teeth break up e-waste,
all the toxic dust is removed from the process. This machine can handle some 70,000 tons of
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electronics a year. Although this is only a fraction of the tota1, it wouldn’t take many more
machines like this to process the entire USA’s output of high-tech trash.
Unfortunately, under current policies, domestic processing of e-waste is not compulsory, and while
shipping waste abroad is ethically questionable, it is still more profitable than processing it safely in
the USA. Creative Recycling Systems is hoping that the US government will soon create laws
deterring people from sending e-waste overseas.
(Adapted from "Reading explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and Nancy Hubley )
35: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Waste Recycling: A Storm in a Teacup B. Domestic Recycling: Pros and Cons
C. E-waste - An Export Commodity of the Future D. E-waste - A Mess to Clear up
36: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. outdated B. inaccurate C. broken D. incomplete
37: As stated in paragraph 2, a large percentage of e-waste meant for recycling in the developed
countries_______.
A. is buried deep in the soil at landfills B. contains all valuable metals except gold
C. is later recycled in local factories D. is eventually sent to developing nations
38: The word “notify" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assure B. notice C. excuse D. inform
39: The word ‘it’ in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. the ban B. recycling infrastructure
C. the European Union D. the Basel Convention
40: According to the European Union’s law, electronics manufacturers are required to_______.
A. upgrade their recycling infrastructure regularly
B. sell their e-waste to developed nations only
C. sign the Basel Convention
D. take responsibility for disposing of their products safely
41: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The USA’s total e-waste output amounts to 70,000 tons per year.
B. Creative Recycling Systems has made a fortune from their recycling machine.
C. The Basel Convention originally banned the import of high-tech trash into European countries.
D. Shipping e-waste abroad yields greater profit than recycling it safely in the USA.
42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most countries have made enormous efforts to manage their e-waste exports.
B. Legislative action is fundamental to solving the problem of e-waste effectively.
C. Strict laws against sending e-waste abroad have recently been upheld in Florida.
D. Developing nations benefit more from the trade in e-waste than their developed counterparts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
43: Peter moved abroad for a fresh start. He regrets it now.
A. If only Peter had moved abroad for a fresh start.
B. Peter wishes he hadn't moved abroad for a fresh start.
C. If Peter moved abroad for a fresh start, he would regret it.
D. Peter regrets not having moved abroad for a fresh start.
44: Smartphones are becoming reasonably priced. New applications make them more appealing.
A. Appealing though smartphones are with new applications, they are becoming less
affordably priced.
B. Whatever new applications smartphones have, they are becoming more appealing with
reasonable prices.
C. No matter how reasonable the prices of smartphones are, they are not so appealing with new
applications.
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D. Not only are smartphones becoming more affordable but, with new applications, they are
also more appealing.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
45: It was wrong of you to criticise your son in front of his friends
A. You shouldn’t have criticised your son in front of his friends
B. You must have criticised your son in front of his friends.
C. You mightn’t have criticised your son in front of his friends.
D. You could have criticised your son in front of his friends.
46: My father likes reading newspapers more than watching TV.
A. My father doesn’t like watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
B. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers
C. My father doesn’t like reading newspapers as much as watching TV.
D. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
47: “How long have you lived here, Lucy?” asked Jack.
A. Jack asked Lucy how long did she live here. B. Jack asked Lucy how long she had lived
there.
C. Jack asked Lucy how long she lived here. D. Jack asked Lucy how long had she lived
there.

Mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction ỉn each of the following questions.
48: At the beginning of the ceremony, there was a respectable one-minute silence in remembrance of
A B C
the victims of the earthquake.
D
49: My mother gets up usually early to prepare breakfast for the whole family.
A B C D
50: The money raised in the appeal will use to help those in need in remote areas.
A B C D

HẾT

Đáp án đề 401

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KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019

Mã đề thi 402
Họ tên thí sinh: ………..
Số báo danh: .................
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on four answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: The aroma of freshly baked bread in the morning has always ......memories of his
childhood home.
A. evoked B. reminisced C. instilled D. incited
Question 2: Schoolchildren shouldn't make fun of those who are intellectually.....to them.
A responsible B familiar C. inferior D. essential
Question 3: John is......most hard-working student I’ve ever known.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 4: Joseph would never forget......by his boss through no fault of his own.
A. criticising B. being criticised C. to criticise D. to be criticised
Question 5: Once with sufficient information, the freshmen will feel more confident to start the new
course.
A. having provided B. provided C. are provided D. providing
Question 6: I’m sony. I didn’t mean to......your feelings when I said such a thing.
A. injure B. hurt C. destroy D. break
Question 7: Backpacking is best suited for those who are in good physical condition......
A. without being required to walk several miles
B. so that it would require walking several miles
C. as it may require walking several miles
D. so as not to require walking several miles
Question 8: Laura came to......me for taking care of her dog when she was away.
A. thankful B. thankfulness C. thankfully D. thank
Question 9: My uncle tries to spend time playing with his children......he is very busy.
A. because of B. although C. moreover D. despite
Question 10: Linda took great photos of butterflies while she......in the forest.
A. is hiking B. was hiking C. hiked D. had hiked
Question 11: If you follow my directions, you......her house easily.
A. will find B. would have found C. would find D. found
Question 12: The children are highly excited.....the coming summer holiday.
A. with B. about C. to D. for
Question 13. The film was so intriguing that the audience were all......to the screen until the end.
A. stuck B. hooked C. glued D. attached
Question 14: A key component of Industry 4.0 is the Internet of Things characterized by the
connections of all mobile......
A. accessories B. devices C. utensils D. vehicles
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 15: Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving.
~ Linda: “I think drink-driving should be severely punished.”
~ Peter: “......... It may cause accidents or even deaths.”
A. I don’t think so. B. I absolutely agree with you.
C. I don’t understand what you mem. D. You must be kidding.
Question 16: A porter is talking to Mary in the hotel lobby.
~ Porter: “May I help you with your suitcase?"
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~ Mary: ".........”
A. What a shame! B. Me too. C. Yes, please. D. You're welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17: Many experts support the view that children should start learning English as early as
possible.
A. reason B. problem C. reaction D. opinion
Question 18: The young singer’s career took off after her latest album topped the charts.
A. ended in failure B. became successful
C. went unnoticed D. remained unchanged
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: My kids only have a faint memory of our hometown as they have lived away from it
for a long time.
A. clear B. poor C. quick D. vague
Question 20: For a fruitful discussion, the chairman should make sure that every member is at
liberty to voice their opinion.
A. getting approval B. having no restriction
C. getting satisfaction D. having no fredom
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21:
A. leave B. learn C. speak D. teach
Question 22:
A. discussed B. performed C. cancelled D. followed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23:
A. terrific B. beautiful C. general D. chemical
Question 24:
A. provide B. listen C. repeat D. collect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 25: He badly suffered cyberbullying himself. He realised the true dangers of social media
only then.
A. Such was his suffering of cyberbullying that he didn’t realise the true dangers of social media.
B. Only when he had realised the true dangers of social media did he badly suffer cyberbullying
himself.
C. But for his terrible suffering of cyberbullying, he wouldn’t realise the true dangers of social
media.
D, Not until he had badly suffered cyberbullying himself did he realise the true dangers of social
media.
Question 26: Mike didn't follow his parents’ advice on choosing his career. He regrets it now.
A. Mike regrets having followed his parents’ advice on choosing his career.
B. Mike wishes he had followed his parents’ advice on choosing his career.
C. If only Mike followed his parents’ advice on choosing his career.
D. If Mike followed his parents’ advice on choosing his career he would regret it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Jack (A) cycles usually to work to (B) avoid traffic (C) jams at (D) rush hour.
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Question 28: (A) With his (B) important contributions, Albert Einstein (C) considered one of the
(D) greatest physicists of all time.
Question 29: Our grandfather, who had an (A) excellent memory (B) when young, has become very
(C) forgettable in recent years due to his (D) old age.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 30. “What have you done to my laptop, Jane?” asked Tom.
A. Tom asked Jane what she had done to his laptop.
B. Tom asked Jane what had she done to his laptop.
C. Tom asked Jane what has she done to his laptop.
D. Tom asked Jane what she has done to his laptop.
Question 31: I’m certain that Joe attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
A. Joe needn’t have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
B. Joe mightn’t have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
C. Joe must have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
D. Joe could have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
Question 32: Many teenagers like facebooking more than doing sport.
A. Many teenagers like doing sport more than facebooking.
B. Many teenagers like doing sport as much as facebooking.
C. Many teenagers don’t like facebooking as much as doing sport.
D. Many teenagers don’t like doing sport as much as facebooking.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 33 to 37.
Effects of Television on Childhood Literacy
Nowadays, television occupies a large portion of children’s time. From when they start in
preschool, children spend more time watching television than participating in any other
(33)......except sleeping. (34)......, this is not necessarily a bad thing.
The results of some research suggest that there is a considerable overlap between the
comprehension processes activated while reading, and the processes (35)......take place during a
period of television viewing. If this is so, it may very well be the case that children who learn
comprehension skills from television viewing before they are ready to read are (36)......with some
very important tools when they later learn to read. It has been noted that children are frequently
better at recalling televised stories they have watched compared to those they have simply heard.
Due to the fact that it is a visual medium, television can present information more concretely than
written and spoken text, making it an ideal medium in which to (37)......some of the skills and
knowledge needed for later reading.
Question 33:
A. activity B. actively C. activate D. active
Question 34:
A. Due to B. Because C. However D. For example
Question 35:
A. who B. where C. that D. when
Question 36:
A. covered B. equipped C. obsessed D. occupied
Question 37:
A. cultivate B. allocate C. manipulate D. regulate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Edinburgh, the capital of Scotland, is in the south-east of the country Edinburgh is situated on the
coast, and the beautiful green Pendand hills are not far from the city centre. Castle Rock stands in
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the centre of Edinburgh and is the best place for fantastic views of the city. With a population of
almost half a million people, the city is an exciting mix of traditional and modern.
The first stop for most visitors to the city is the castle on Castle Rock. It is certainly worth a visit
and the area nearby is full of shops that sell whisky and tartans to the tourists. Edinburgh’s most
famous street, the Royal Mile, runs from the castle to the Palace of Holyroodhouse and the Scottish
Parliament. Along the street, you can see many interesting buildings and you can stop for a drink at
a traditional, old Scottish pub.
During your visit, you should certainly take the time to see other parts of the city. Princes Street
has lovely gardens, museums and shops. The New Town is a superb area for walking with its
attractive 18th century houses, offices and churches. Finally, the Grassmarket is an old part of the
city, which is full of cafés, bars and restaurants.
Edinburgh's nightlife is excellent. Clubs usually stay open until three in the morning. You can hear
live music in pubs, choose from a number of first-class cinemas or go to a 'ceilidh' (a traditional
Scottish dance).
The best time to come to the city is in August. Thousands of people visit the Edinburgh Festival,
the world's biggest arts festival held every summer. With concerts, opera, theatre and art
exhibitions, there is something for everyone. For winter visitors, Hogmanay (the Scottish New
Year) is also an incredible experience that you will never forget.
(Adapted from “Straightforward – Pre-Intermediate” by Philip Kerr)
Question 38: Which best serves as the title of the passage?
A. Description of Scotland B. Famous cities in Edinburgh
C. The Future of Edinbrugh D. Destination Guide to Edinburgh
Question 39: The word "mix" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.....
A. action B. mood C. combination D. mess
Question 40: The word “It” paragraph 2 refers to.....
A. the area B. a visit C. the city D. the castle
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is a 'ceilidh'?
A. It is a kind of music. B. It is a the name of a Scotish pub.
C. It is the first Scotish cinema D. It is a traditional Scotish dance.
Question 42: According to paragraph 5, what is NOT true about the Edinburgh Festival?
A. It is a famous event. B. It offers arts performances.
C. It attracts thousands of visitors. B. It takes place in winter.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the best answer to each of the questionsfrom 43 to 50.
The first impressioos are rather menacing. Visitors must sign in and show identification before
being allowed into the building. Such tight security gives one the feeling of entering a prison or
some other dangerous place. But what a deceptive first impression! Manhattan Comprehensive
Night High School may be the friendliest, most caring institution in all of New York City. A school
of last resort for many of its students, it is their best chance to turn their lives around, and make
friends in the process. Manhattan Comp, as it is called, is the first full-time night high school in
America.
High school is compulsory until the age of sixteen in America, but many students drop out, either
before or after they reach sixteen, and before receiving their high school diplomas. Until now, night
education programmes for dropouts only provided the basics and then awarded an equivalency
certificate. But now, Manhattan Comp offers the total high school experience, complete with a
'lunch'
Break, physical education and clubs. The students receive an academic diploma, which they say is
more helpful in getting a job than an equivalency certificate. More than sixty percent of Manhattan
Comp's students go to to college.

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Most of the students have either been expelled from or dropped out of other high schools. Some
have been in two or three schools before this one. What seems to make this school work for these
hard-to-place students is the staff and, most importantly, the principal. All students call him
Howard. As he walks through the building, he greets students by name, asks about their families or
jobs and jokes with them about the lack of variety in the school cafeteria.
Most students at Manhattan Comp are between eighteen and twenty-two years old. You must be at
least seventeen to enrol. The classes run from 5 to 11 p.m., Monday through Thursday, with all-day
enrichment programmes or Sundays which explore topics like playwriting, art and video
production. School terms are ten weeks long, which give students the opportunity to take time off
for family matters or jobs. Most students already have some academic credits from previous
schools, so instead of the actual four years in high school, they spend between six months and two
years at Manhattan Comp.
Question 43: Which best serves as the title of the passage?
A. A Day in the Life of a Manhatan Comp Student
B. Manhattan Comp: One of a Kind
C. Night Schools: A Passing Fad
D. The Success Story of a Typical American School
Question 44: The word "deceptive" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.....
A. misleading B. unwelcoming C. subjective D. lasting
Question 45: What do Mahattan Comp students say about their academic diploma?
A. It demonstrates their superior academic competence.
B. It ensures their admission to well-known colleges.
C. It reflects a more thorough schooling experience.
D. It improves their chances of getting employed.
Question 46: The phrase "expelled from" in paragraph 3 mostly means.......
A. invited to attend B. asked to stay
C. forced to leave D. qualified to graduate
Question 47: The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to......
A. schools B. years C. credits D. students
Question 48: How long does it generally take students to complete the education at Mahattan
Comp?
A. Two years and a half B. Four years
C. Ten weeks D. From six months to two years
Question 49: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Visitors to Manhattan Comp are required to go through certain security procedures.
B. The schooling experience at Manhattan Comp is likely to change the students' lives for the better.
C. Many students at Manhattan Comp have never had any formal schooling before.
D. All of the students at Manhattan Comp are seventeen or above.
Question 50: What can be inferred about Mahattan Comp from the passage?
A. It plays down the importance of extra-curricular activities.
B. It has recently been equipped with state-of-the-art facilities.
C. Its principalis is well-liked among the students for his amiability.
D. Its students are required to work part-time while pursuing their studies there.
.
The End

ANSWER KEY

1A 2C 3A 4B 5B 6B 7C 8D 9B 10B

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11A 12B 13C 14B 15B 16C 17D 18B 19A 20D
21B 22A 23A 24B 25D 26B 27A 28C 29C 30A
31C 32D 33A 34C 35C 36B 37A 38D 29C 40D
41D 42D 43B 44A 45D 46C 47D 48D 49C 50C

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019

Mã đề thi 421
Họ tên thí sinh: :...................................
Số báo danh:........................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Joana and David, two lecturers, are talking about library skills.
~ Joana: "I think we should teach our students how to use the library."
~ David: ".......... . Library skills will help them use resources effectively."
A. You must be kidding. B. You're absolutely wrong.
C. That's not a good idea. D. 1 couldn't agree with you more.
Question 2: John is having dinner al Linda's house.
~ John: "This roast beef is so delicious."
~ Linda: "............"
A. No, don't worry. B. Sure. I'd love to.
C. I'm glad you like it. D. I don't, either.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 3: Laura is...... most intelligent girl I've ever known.
A. Ø B. a C. the D. an
Question 4: You shouldn't use that ladder as it doesn't look......enough.
A. certain B. stable C. correct D. constant
Question 5: The candidate took a......breath before he walked into the interview room.
A. deep B. deepen C. deeply D. depth
Question 6: The manager is directly responsible.......the efficient running of the office.
A. in B. at C. about D. for
Question 7: He would never forget...... a medal for bravery after saving three boys from drowning.
A. to be awarded B. to award C. awarding D. being awarded
Question 8: ........., playing music is an effective way for them to open their heart to the outside
world.
A. For those with visual impairments B. Having been visually impaired
C. Being visually impaired people D. Such were their visual impairments
Question 9: My aunt used to sell vegetables at the local market to......a living.
A. earn B. do C. take D. have
Question 10: If the weather......fine tomorrow, we will have our biology lesson outdoors.
A. will be B. would be C. will have been D. is
Question 11: Young people are ambitious by nature, so they tend to set their......high on
whatever they do.
A. visions B. sights C. views D. eyes
Question 12: Mr Brown, a self-made businessman, attributed his success to hard......and a bit of
luck.
A. work B. task C. mission D. career
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Question 13: With their undeveloped immune systems, young infants are......to a wide range of
minor ailments.
A. conducive B. susceptible C. favourable D. receptive
Question 14: The children.......lheir kites 10 the field when it started to rain heavily.
A. will fly B. would fly C. were flying D. are flying
Question 15: Many students work to earn money......their parents are rich.
A. however B. despite C. because of D. although
Question 16: When.......as captain of the national foolball team, he knew he had to try harder.
A. have appointed B. appointing C. appointed D. appoint
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 17: A. steal B. bread C. peak
D. heat
Question 18: A. threatened B. promised C. injured
D. agreed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. holiday B. summary C. festival D. selection
Question 20: A. delete B. study C. survive D. reward
Mark the letterA, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Much to their disappointment, their start-up project fell through, though it had been
carefully planned.
A. succeeded B. moved C. failed D. expanded
Question 22: A new road has just been built to connect my hometown with the city centre.
A. locale B. transport C. move D. link
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: As an advocate of women's rights, James strongly rejects the view that women should
stay at home to take care of their families.
A. regards B. supports C. dismisses D. denies
Question 24: Judy was not so worried about having left her bag on the bus as there was nothing
expensive but a few odds and ends in it.
A. trivial things B. valuable items
C. familiar objects D. personal belongings
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each ofthe numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
The Cyberspaee Learning Initiative
Advances in technology have generated revolutionary applications that could change the face of
education as we know it today. Online learning, also known as electronic learning, may (25)......the
future of education thanks to recent developments in the Internet and multimedia technologies.
It is anticipated that cyberspace institutions or online universities will replace traditional
educational (26)...... . Virtual classrooms will be multi-functional, acting simultaneously as learning
platforms, forum and (27)...... networks They will be geared towards promoting the acquisition of
knowledge as a life-long endeavour, (28)...... occurs through global collaboration. Cyberspace
institutions can go a long way towards achieving this as they are able to liberate us from the
limitations of time and space. Flexibility of time and location makes e-leaming a highly accessible,
international resource (29)......, prospective students will, regardless of age, background or origin,
have unlimited access to both formal and informal learning opportunities. The pursuit of knowledge
will consequently become an end in itself and not a means to an end.
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Qnestion 25: A. see B. plan C. shape D. view

Qnestion 26: A. provisions B. specifications C. backgrounds D. establishments
Qnestion 27: A. socialise B. socially C. social D. society
Question 28: A. when B. where C. which D. who
Question 29: A. Although B. However C. Therefore D. Because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Dubai is the second largest of the emirates which make up the United Arab Emirates In the 1950s,
it was a tiny coastal village. Now it is a huge modern city with a population of over 700,000. It
offers an excellent modern lifestyle and is known around the world as a top tourist destination.
Dubai has something for everyone. Holidaymakers can enjoy a relaxing break, and people looking
for adventure can find something new and exciting. The excellent hotels and facilities make it a
popular place for business conferences and exhibitions.
Dubai offers many unusual holiday experiences. Visitors can go on a desert safari or drive in the
sand dunes in the four-wheel drive, watch camels racing or learn how to hunt with falcons. They
can try sand skiing. More relaxing is a cruise in a wooden dhow in the Gulf or a visit to the city
markets.
There are many opportunities to take photographs. The traditional architecture is amazing, and
there are many magnificent palaces and mosques. Visitors can visit a Bedouin village and see
camels and herds of goats. There are beautiful desert oases and the best sunsets in the world.
It is said that Dubai is the shopper's paradise. Many people come to Dubai for the shopping.
Visitors enjoy everything from modern malls to traditional markets. Low customs duties mean that
many products are less expensive than products bought tn other countries. While Dubai's official
language is Arabic, many shopkeepers speak English. Bur Juman Centre and Al Ghurair Centre are
places that every shopper should try.
Question 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Dubai: an Ancient City in Desertn B. Dubai: Things to Avoid
C. Dubai: Present and Future D. Dubai: Things to Do for Everyone
Question 31: The word “offers” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to......
A. receives B. provides C. exchanges D. attends
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, why is Dubai a popular place for business conferences
and exhibitions?
A. Because it offers new and exciting holidays.
B. Because it provides new business opportunities.
C. Because it has world-famous artists.
D. Because it has excellent hotels and facilities.
Question 33: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to......
A. falcons B. visitors . holiday experiences D. sand dunes
Question 34: According to paragraph 5, what is NOT true about shopping in Dubai?
A. Visitors can shop in both modern malls and traditional markets
B. Many products are cheaper than in other countries.
C. Bur Juman and Al Ghurair are popular shopping centres.
D. Most shopkeepers can't speak English.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 41.
For over 300 yean since its appearance in Britain in 1621. newspapers were written and read by
only a tiny minority. In 1896. a new newspaper was produced in large numbers and at such low
prices that ordinary people could buy it on every street corner, and it was an instant success. The
Daily Mail, which is still running today, was the mother of the modern tabloid. and the beginning

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of a whole new subculture in the British press. Today more than twice as many tabloids are sold
than the so-called 'quality press' titles such as The Times or The Guardian.
Originally, the word tabloid referred to the size and format. But today, for most people, the word
tabloid has nothing to do with shape and size. What makes a tabloid a tabloid is content, and above
all, style. Tabloids follow a special formula; they report the news, but only certain kinds. Tabloids
dedicate most of their pages to stories about celebrities. This involves photographing them in
embarrassing situations, gossiping about their private lives and generally making them look a bit
silly. However, the tabloids are not simply an irritation for celebrities; they are also a vehicle for
self-promotion.
Though they have millions of devoted readers, tabloids are also widely criticised in Britain. They
are accused of being sensationalist, in bad taste, and of having no ethical standards in their
reporting and ‘researching’ methods. They may tap celebrities’ phones or even break into their
houses just to get a story. When criticised, the tabloids state that the public has a right to know
about everything, but celebrities have no rights to privacy at all.
So why does Britain, which has access to the best press agencies and the highest journalistic
standards, consume tabloids like chocolate? Maybe the reason is that we have enough news on the
television, the radio and in the quality newspapers. Tabloids are not actually about news at all.
Tabloids are just about gossip. And when it comes to gossip, what matters is not what is true or
what is kind, but what is entertaining and what is funny. The more in bad taste a story is, the
funnier it seems. And bad taste is what the British tabloids have made into an art.
(Adapted from Oxford Exam Excellence” by Dannula Gryca et al.)
Question 35: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Guardian: Feeding Bad Taste for Gossip
B. Tabloids: Too Kind to Be True
C. Tabloids versus Broadsheets: An Ongoing War
D. The Art of Bad Taste: The British Tabloid
Question 36: The word “formula” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to......
A. sequence B. readership C. design D. method
Question 37: The phrase “a vehicle” in paragraph 2 mostly means.....
A. a set of instructions on how to do something B. means of transporting something
C. a way of achieving something D. a method of researching
something
Question 38: The word "They" in paragrpah 3 refers to......
A. houses B. readers C. people D. tabloids
Question 39: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as an accusatiion against tabloids?
A. They feature sensational news stories.
B. They vilolate the public's rights to privacy.
C. They bug celebrities' phone conversation.
D. They gain entry into celebrities' houses illegally.
Question 40: According to paragraph 4, what explains the popularity of tabloids Britain?
A.They are deemed to be more aesthetic than ‘quailty press’.
B. They provide thorough accounts of current issues.
C. They contain light-hearted stories that entertain readers.
D. They are governed by the highest journalistic standards.
Question 41: According to the passage, tabloids in Britain......
A. have the same sales figures as chocolate
B. are considered as a mixed blessing for celebrities
C. vary in shape, size, and format
D. are outsold by such ’quality press’ title as The Times
Question 42: Which of the tollowing is LEAST likely to be found in a modem tabloid?
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A. An Oscar winner accused of tax evasion

B. Miss Universe lying about her A level results
C. Future changes in European economies
D. A Premier League footballer failing his dope test
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Jack dropped out of school al the age of 15. He now regrets it.
A. Jack regrets not having dropped out of school when he was 15.
B. Jack wishes he hadn't dropped out of school when he was 15.
C. If only Jack had dropped out of school when he wras 15.
D. If Jack dropped out of school when he was 15, he would regret it.
Qwcsdan 44: The green campaign was strongly supported by the local people The neighbourhood
looks fresh and clean now.
A Only if the local people had strongly supported the green campaign would the neighbourhood
look fresh and clean now.
B But for the strong support of the bocal people for the green campaign, the neighbourhood would
look fresh and clean now
C. Had the local people not strongly supported the green campaign, the neighborhood wouldn't look
fresh and clean now
D. Scarcely had the green campaign been strongly supported by the local people when the
neighbourhood looked fresh and clean.
Question 45: 'Why didn't you attend the meeting. Maty?" Tom asked.
A. Tom asked Mary why didn't she attend the meeting.
B. Tom asked Mary why hadn't she attended the meeting.
C. Tom asked why she hadn’t attended the meeting.
D. Tom asked Mary why she wasn't attending the meeting.
Question 46: I’m sure that they had practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They shouldn’t have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
B. Thev must have practised hard for to games as they won a lot of medals.
C. They might have practised hard for the gamesas they won a lot of medals.
D. They couldn’t have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Question 47: I like reading books more than surfing the Internet.
A. I don't like reading books as much as surfing the Internet.
B I don't like surfing the Internet as much as reading books.
C. I like reading books less than surfing the Internet.
D. I like surfing the Internet more than reading books.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: The school year (A) starts usually in late August (B) in most (C) parts of (D) the
country.
Question 49: Plastic bags (A) are harmful to (B) the environment (C) so they (D) should replace by
paper bags.
Question 50: Thanks to (A) advances in medical science, (B) life expectation for both men and
women (C) has improved greatly over the (D) past decades.
The End

ANSWER KEY 421

1D 2C 3C 4B 5A 6D 7D 8B 9C 10D

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11C 12A 13C 14C 15D 16C 17B 18B 19D 20B
21C 22D 23B 24B 25A 26C 27C 28C 29C 30D
31B 32D 33B 34D 35A 36D 37D 38D 39B 40C
41A 42C 43B 44C 45C 46B 47B 48A 49A 50B

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018

Mã đề thi 403

Họ, tên thí sinh: ............................................................SBD: ................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. dream B. wear C. treat D. mean
Question 2: A. attacks B. medals C. concerns D. fingers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. behave B. relax C. enter D. allow
Question 4: A. disaster B. origin C. charity D. agency
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the
country; she must be on cloud nine now.
A. extremely panicked B. obviously delighted
C. incredibly optimistic D. desperately sad
Question 6: People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in the
disaster-stricken areas.
A. uncertainty B. willingness C. awareness D. reluctance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. cancelled B. continued C. changed D. delayed
Question 8: The chairman’s thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the
participants in the workshop:
A. triggered B. arose C. defined D. hosted
Question 9: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: “Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum.”
- Kate: “________. It is an essential life skill.”
A. Oh, that’s a problem. B. I can’t agree with you more.
C. Not at all D. You can make it.

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Question 10: Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage.
- Jane: “_________.”
- Mike: “It’s my pleasure.”
A. It’s too heavy. B. It’s not my duty.
C. Thanks a lot, indeed. D. Welcome back.
Question 11: Only after he _________ the job as a computer programmer did he realise how much
he loved it.
A. has left B. had left C. was leaving D. would leave
Question 12: You must not _________ any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to
cook the dish properly.
A. quit B. skip C. leave D. hide
Question 13: If you didn’t have to leave today, I _________ you around the city.
A. have shown B. showed C. will show D. would show
Question 14: I’ve been waiting for hours. You _________ to tell me you would come late.
A. oughtn’t to have phoned B. must have phoned
C. should have phoned D. needn’t have phoned
Question 15: The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to _________
environmental consequences.
A. far-reaching B. far-gone C. far-off D. far-flung
Question 16: He promised _________ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. buy B. to buy C. to buying D. buying
Question 17: Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good education
will enable them to _________ in the future.
A. turn up B. get on C. get out D. turn away
Question 18: The _________ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from
owning a house there.
A. forbidding B. competitive C. prohibitive D. inflatable
Question 19: Michael rarely returns to his hometown, _________?
A. hasn’t he B. does he C. has he D. doesn’t he
Question 20: Susan has achieved great _________ in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully
Question 21: After a momentary _________ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus
and completed the test.
A. lapse B. fault C. failure D. error
Question 22: Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems _________ child abuse.
A. involved B. to involve C. involving D. are involving

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among
which the financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23)
______ tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In
addition to direct costs of hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies, athletes’ village,
security, etc.), cities often must build expensive new venues (24) ______ lesser-known sports.
Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional maintenance costs long after the Games
have ended.
While costs are the (25) ______ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For one,
an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate
sponsorship, and television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually
made a large profit from the Games they hosted. (26) ______, hosting the Olympic Games confers
prestige on a host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism. The Olympics
are also an opportunity to invest in projects (27) ______ improve the city’s quality of life, such as
new transportation systems.
(Adapted from “Skillful Reading & Writing 4” by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)
Question 23: A. outnumber B. exceed C. overcharge D. surmount
Question 24: A. on B. at C. in D. for
Question 25: A. instrumental B. primary C. influential D. supplementary
Question 26: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. However
Question 27: A. which B. who C. what D. whom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In
North America people don’t generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of
body langauge contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however,
that body language varies in different cultrues. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a
child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures
the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign
of disrespect.
Americans who don’t know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas
South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will
stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is
intimacy between them.
Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm - or
move any other part of the body - to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that
people all over the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find
that the same gestures can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example

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of a gesture that could be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of
making a mistake, but in some places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the
language of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate
successfully.
(Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)
Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The significance of non-verbal signals in America
B. Misunderstandings in communication
C. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
D. Non-verbal communication across cultures
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American
child is expected to _________.
A. stand close to the person B. look directly at the person
C. raise his/her eyebrows D. point a finger at the person
Question 30: The word “intimacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. enjoyment B. closeness C. strength D. agreement
Question 31: The word “misinterpreted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. misbehaved B. misunderstood C. mispronounced D. misspelled
Question 32: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. an example B. making a mistake
C. the country D. sticking out the tongue.
Question 33: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person _________.
A. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture
B. to travel to as many countries as possible
C. to use the body language of the people from that culture
D. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture
Question 34: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. posture B. gesture C. distance D. eye movement
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is
changing the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small
minority, and their goals of reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered
unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is growing, as builders have been able to take advantage
of new technology.

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Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also, they
reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is to
provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to
produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no cost and with
no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To
reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so
that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most
environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building
had to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need
to lesson the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled
materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent,
compared with other buildings of the same size.
It other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according to
green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of
army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy
than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting systems, are also equipped
with solar panels.
A larger projects is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second
phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government
plans to copy these ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green
buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
B. Successfully green building projects all over the world
C. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
D. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were initially
considered unrealistic presumably because _________.
A. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
B. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then
C. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
D. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
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A. rays of the sun B. recycled materials C. green builders D. solar panels

Question 38: The word “insulation” in paragraph 3 mostly means _________.
A. systems that protect buildings from the sun’s rays
B. devices that monitor changes in temperature
C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
D. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
Question 39: What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge and
the project in Vauban, Germany?
A. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably
B. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs
C. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones
D. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating system
Question 40: The phrase “under way” in paragraph 6 mostyly means _________.
A. being notified B. being certified C. being inspected D. being launched
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green
buildings?
A. Improving living conditions B. Proving more economial eventually
C. Being friendly to the environment D. Increasing work productivity
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is
TRUE?
A. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world
B. They are more economical and produce no pollution
C. They have only been built in technologically developed countries
D. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Thursday,” said the teacher to the
students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 44: They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the
quality of the country’s education.
A. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the country’s
education.
B. The quality of the country’s education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
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C. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the country’s
education.
D. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of the
country’s education.
Question 45: She wasn’t early enough to catch the bus.
A. She wasn’t late for the bus. B. She didn’t arrive late for the bus.
C. She arrived too early for the bus. D. She was too late to catch the bus.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
schoolchildren’s behaviour and their academic performance.
A. exhausting B. into
C. behaviour D. academic performance.
Question 47: Most wonders seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A. seems B. with C. new D. conditions
Question 48: It is the night of 5th November that people in Britain light bonfires and have fireworks
as a national tradition.
A. the night of 5th November B. in Britain
C. fireworks D. national
Question 49: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in the
competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn’t do well in the
competition.
C. Such were his friends’ support and encouragement that he couldn’t do really well in the
competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends’ support and encouragement, he couldn’t have done so well in the
competition.
Question 50: Joe has finished his frist-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid
course.
B. Without finishing his first-air course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
C. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn’t finished his first-aid course.
D. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018

Họ, tên thí sinh:................................

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Số báo danh:...................................... Mã đề thi 401

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
~ Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
~ Salah: "................We can't afford such a big event."
A. You can say that again B. I can't agree with you more
C. Yes, you're right D. No, I don't think so
Question 2: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
~ Laura: "................" ~ Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!"
A. I hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow. B. I've passed the exam with an A.
C. I'll get the exam results tomorrow. D. I didn't do well in the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: Thanks to highly technology, scientists have made many important sophisticated
discoveries in different fields.
A. accessible B. confusing C. effective D. advanced
Question 4: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for knowledge and information.
disseminating
A. classifying B. distributing C. adopting D. inventing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to for fear of tighten their
belt getting into financial difficulties.
A. dress in loose clothes B. spend money freely
C. save on daily expenses D. put on tighter belts
Question 6: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is as the government has created mounting
favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking B. varying C. decreasing D. rising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7: A. delays B. begins C. attracts D. believes
Question 8: A. head B. bean C. meal D. team
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. sympathy B. poverty C. equipment D. character
Question 10: A. intend B. install C. follow D. decide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 11: It......to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. comes B. gets C. stands D. lays
Question 12: Our father suggested......to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. to going B. going C. go D. to go
Question 13: The patients......with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. treated B. having treated C. treating D. who treated
Question 14: Only after she......from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. would recover B. has recovered C. had recovered D. was recovering

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Question 15: Several measures have been proposed to......the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. pose B. admit C. address D. create
Question 16: There is no excuse for your late submission! You......the report by last Friday.
A. mightn't have finished B. should have finished C. needn't have finished D. must have
finished
Question 17: The presenter started his speech with a few......jokes to build rapport with the
audience.
A. whole-hearted B. light-hearted C. soft-hearted D. kind-hearted
Question 18: It is advisable that the apprentice should be......to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. permissive B. noticeable C. acceptable D. observant
Question 19: Mary rarely uses social networks,......?
A. isn't she B. does she C. doesn't she D. is she
Question 20: Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good......on job interviewers.
A. impress B. impressively C. impression D. impressive
Question 21: If Martin were here now, he......us to solve this difficult problem.
A. would help B. helps C. will help D. has helped
Question 22: You shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not......by failures.
A. left out B. put off C. switched off D. turned on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase in
the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
Question 24: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have their
talents and efforts recognised.
Question 25: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. B. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
C. I used to join the sports club. D. I never like joining the sports club.
Question 27: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
D. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming
methods.
Question 28: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her.
B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
D. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant
to her.
A. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an
independent life.
B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an
independent life.
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C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family
meant to her.
D. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant
to her.
Question 30: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
B. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher
education.
C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher
education.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been
noticed that the difference (31)......temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open
green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials
retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even
led to thunderstorms (32)......occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (33)......it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In
Singapore, the government has (34)......to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006,
they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this
about. One outcome was the creation of 18 "Supertrees" - metal constructions resembling very tall
trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (35)......to exotic plants and ferns. They also
contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making
them truly self-sufficient.
(Adapted from by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)
"The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS"
Question 31: A. on B. with C. in D. out
Question 32: A. when B. which C. what D. where
Question 33: A. or B. for C. and D. but
Question 34: A. pledged B. committed C. confessed D. required
Question 35: A. home B. house C. land D. place
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant you
an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what you
want from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate
your skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with
professional care, it is likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and
brief, the letter is your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your
background relates to the specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and most relevant
characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be modest.
It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for

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sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And
you should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement
requires that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable."
However, when you go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this
reason, you should investigate both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't
want to ask for less than you deserve or more than is reasonable.
(Adapted from by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen) "Select Readings - Intermediate"
Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Advice on how to find a good job
B. Things to avoid during a job interview
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
D. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to.......
A. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview
B. get further information about the company
C. advertise a product to attract more customers
D. present what he/she wants from the job
Question 38: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to.......
A. the letter of application B. an opportunity
C. your work D. the résumé
Question 39: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to.......
A. clearly B. shortly C. slightly D. quickly
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of
application?
A. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
B. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
C. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
D. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
Question 41: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to.......
A. avoid B. investigate C. introduce D. understand
Question 42: According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to.......
A. accept any salary offered B. negotiate working conditions
C. mention their expected salary range D. talk about the company's budget
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of
other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who
has hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public
adulation, Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore
him.
The dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour
and encouraged more students to focus on their academic achievement.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed
buying a school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively
affect children's conduct," says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of
pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve
recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some
of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems."

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Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school
for children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one.
Rosie Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into
school for three years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in
literacy lessons. Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka.
"Their anxiety about mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced
when they read to him," says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional
love and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris
Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a
positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me
as a bit of a publicity stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this
sentiment, Henry remains as popular as ever.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming
about being able to interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if
he falls behind, that opportunity will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round.
Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming
effect on them.
(Adapted from by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern) "Ready for Advanced"
Question 43: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons B. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School
C. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend
Question 44: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.......
A. excessive admiration B. deserved attention
C. considerable controversy D. unrealistic expectation
Question 45: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is.......
A. difficult to control B. reluctant to explore
C. inclined to disagree D. impossible to understand
Question 46: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a
pet?
A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. Better recovery from illness
C. A greater desire to influence others D. Long-term changes in conduct
Question 47: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to........
A. a school dog B. a craze
C. a Mulberry staff member D. a primary school
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by
Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
B. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
Question 49: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5?
A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
C. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
Question 50: Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
B. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.
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C. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will benefit
their students.
D. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their
message across to young people.
The End

Các mã đề 401 – 407 – 409 – 415 – 417 – 423 có chung 1 nội dung
Answer Key
1D 2B 3D 4B 5B 6C 7C 8A 9C 10C
11C 12B 13A 14C 15C 16B 17B 18D 19B 20C
21A 22B 23B 24A 25A 26B 27A 28D 29C 30C
31C 32B 33C 34A 35A 36C 37A 38A 39A 40D
41C 42C 43C 44A 45A 46B 47A 48B 49B 50B

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KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018

Họ, tên thí sinh:................................
Số báo danh:...................................... Mã đề thi
402

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
~ Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
~ James: "................ We had sweet memories together then."
A. I'm afraid so B. Absolutely. C.That's nonsense D. I doubt it
Question 2: John and Mike are talking about Mike’s new car.
~ John: "....................."
~ Mike: "Thanks. I'm glad to hear that."
A. Where did you buy your car? B. What a nice car!
C. Your car is new, isn't it? D. My car is very expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. apartment B. benefit C. argument D. vacancy
Question 4: A. explain B. involve C. borrow D. discuss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A. great B. cheap C. clean D. mean
Question 6: A. improves B. destroys C. suggests D. reminds
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The research findings were reliable since modem technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. exactness B. inaccuracy C. insecurity D. flexibility
Question 8: Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of time
just before the check-in counter closed.
A. with all our luggage B. in a terrible condition
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are turning to
digitalised reading materials.
A. scarcity B. deficiency C. popularity D. intensity
Question 10: Heavily contaminated with wastes from nearby factories, the water in this river is not
suitable for daily use.
A. polluted B. pure C. cleaned D. deadly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 11: If he didn’t have to work today, he.......his children to the zoo.
A. will take B. takes C. would take D. has taken
Question 12: Only after the bus.....for a few miles did Jane realise she was on the wrong route.
A. was running B. had run C. has run D. runs
Question 13: Many people head for the countryside where the flat......of fields helps them escape
from the hectic city life.

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A. extension B. expansion C. extent D. expanse

Question 14: It is believed that travelling is a good way to expand our......of the world
A. knowledgeable B. knowledgeably C. knowledge D. know
Question 15: Maria decided......her education after a gap year.
A. to continue B. to continuing C. continue D. continuing
Question 16: We know that we are at fault for our third consecutive defeat, so there is no need
to......salt into the wound.
A. spread B. rub C. apply D. put
Question 17: Despacito, ......over four billion times on YouTube, is one of the most favourite songs
among teenagers worldwide.
A. is viewed B. which viewed C. viewing D. viewed
Question 18: The school drama club is.......a play for the school's anniversary, which is due to take
place next month.
A. turning up B. making off C. putting on D. bringing down
Question 19: The students' plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received..... support
from the school administrators.
A. light-hearted B. warm-hearted C. big-hearted D. whole-hearted
Question 20: Parents often advise their children to study hard in the hope that they will.......success
in the future.
A. gather B. collect C. master D. achieve
Question 21: Adrian got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He......his lessons very carefully.
A. would have revised B. needn't have revised C. can't have revised D. must have revised
Question 22: Sue rarely misses a chance to do voluntary work, ......?
A. doesn't she B. does she C. is she D. isn't she
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work
helps foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often
simultaneously, thus teaching people how to (23)......their way through different systems. It
therefore brings people into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to
impart to others that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (24)......they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and
enthusiasm can be harnessed for the benefit (25)......their fellow human beings, and ultimately
themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved
is (26).......
Employers will generally look favorably on people (27)......have shown an ability to work as part
of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be
desirable qualities in any employee.
(Adapted from "IELTS Testbuilder 2" by Sam McCarter)
Question 23: A. take B. work C. put D. give
Question 24: A. but B. so C. or D. for
Question 25: A. under B. of C. on D. out
Question 26: A. impassable B. unattainable C. undetectable D. immeasurable
Question 27: A. which B. what C. whose D. who.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
There are many African tribes but, for many people, the Maasai are the most well-known. They
are famous for their bright red clothing and their ceremonies with lots of music and dancing.

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Probably, one of the most colorful ceremonies is the festival of "Eunoto," when the teenage boys of
the Maasai become men.
Eunoto lasts for many days and Maasai people travel across the region to get to a special place
near the border between Kenya and Tanzania. The teenage boys who travel with them are called
"warriors". This is a traditional name from the past when young men fought with other tribes.
At the beginning of the ceremony, the teenagers paint their bodies while their mothers start to
build a place called the "Osingira," a sacred room in the middle of the celebrations. Later, the
senior elders from different tribes will sit inside this place and, at different times, the boys go inside
to meet them. Later in the day, the boys run around the Osingira, going faster and faster each time.
The teenagers also have to alter their appearance at Eunoto. Masai boys' hair is very long before
the ritual but they have to cut it off. In Maasai culture, hair is an important symbol. For example,
when a baby grows into an infant, the mother cuts the child’s hair and gives the child a name. At a
Maasai wedding, the hair of the bride is also cut off as she becomes a woman. And so, at Eunoto,
the teenage boy’s mother cuts his hair off at sunrise.
On the final day, the teenagers meet the senior elders one more time. They get this advice: "Now
you are men, use your heads and knowledge." Then, people start to travel back to their homes and
lands. The teenagers are no longer warriors. They are adult men and now they will get married and
have children. Later in life, they will be the leaders of their communities.
(Adapted from "Life" by John Hughes. Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)
Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The ceremony that marks the beginning of Maasai boys' adulthood
B. The journey by Maasai teenage boys to the festival of Eunoto
C. The importance of Eunoto in African people's lives
D. The reasons for the Masai's popularity over other African tribes
Question 29: The word "warriors" in paragraph 2 mostly means.......
A. dancers B. fighters C. musicians D.
travellers
Question 30: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to .......
A. different tribes B. their mothers C. the boys D. the
senior elders
Question 31: According to paragraph 3, the Osingira is built by......
A. the Maasai senior elders B. Maasai teenagers C. the Maasai teenage boys' mothers D.
Maasai men
Question 32: The word "alter" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to.......
A. differ B. change C. maintain D.
distinguish
Question 33: According to the passage, what do the teenage boys do at Eunoto?
A. Painting their bodies B. Receiving new names
C. Changing their clothes D. Fighting with other tribes
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The Maasai teenage boys are given advice from senior elders before attending Eunoto.
B. The Maasai teenage boys will become adults and get married after attending Eunoto.
C. Eunoto lasts for a day, across the region between Kenya and Tanzania.
D. Eunoto is the ceremony for both Maasai teenage boys and girls.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
In this modern world where closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras are everywhere and
smartphones in every pocket, the routine filming of everyday life is becoming pervasive. A number
of countries are rolling out body cams for police officers; other public-facing agencies such as
schools, councils and hospitals are also experimenting with cameras for their employees. Private
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citizens are getting in on the act too: cyclists increasingly wear headcams as a deterrent to
aggressive drivers. As camera technology gets smaller and cheaper, it isn’t hard to envisage a
future where we're all filming everything all the time, in every direction.
Would that be a good thing? There are some obvious potential upsides. If people know they are on
camera, especially when at work or using public services, they are surely less likely to misbehave.
The available evidence suggests that it discourages behaviours such as vandalism. Another upside
is that it would be harder to get away with crimes or to evade blame for accidents.
But a world on camera could have subtle negative effects. The deluge of data we pour into the
hands of Google, Facebook and others has already proved a mixed blessing. Those companies
would no doubt be willing to upload and curate our body-cam data for free, but at what cost to
privacy and freedom of choice?
Body-cam data could also create a legal minefield. Disputes over the veracity and interpretation of
police footage have already surfaced. Eventually, events not caught on camera could be treated as if
they didn't happen. Alternatively, footage could be faked or doctored to dodge blame or incriminate
others.
Of course, there’s always the argument that if you're not doing anything wrong, you have nothing
to fear. But most people have done something embarrassing, or even illegal, that they regret and
would prefer they hadn't been caught on film. People already censor their social media feeds - or
avoid doing anything incriminating in public - for fear of damaging their reputation. Would
ubiquitous body cams have a further chilling effect on our freedom?
The always-on-camera world could even threaten some of the attributes that make us human. We
are natural gossips and backbiters, and while those might not be desirable behaviours, they oil the
wheels of our social interactions. Once people assume they are being filmed, they are likely to clam
up.
The argument in relation to body-cam ownership is a bit like that for guns: once you go past a
critical threshold, almost everyone will feel they need one as an insurance policy. We are nowhere
near that point yet - but we should think hard about whether we really want to say "lights, body
cam, action."
(Adapted from https://www.newscientist.com)
Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The current public obsession with modern technology B. The ubiquity of cameras and ensuing
problems
C. Legal disputes fuelled by body-cam data D. Data overload experienced by social
network users
Question 36: The word "envisage" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.......
A. embrace B. fantasise C. reject D. visualise
Question 37: As mentioned in paragraph 2, misbehaviour can be discouraged if potential
offenders........
A. are aware of being filmed at the time B. know that they may be subjected to
criticism
C. realise that they may be publicly punished D. are employed in the public sector
Question 38: The phrase "a mixed blessing" in paragraph 3 probably means........
A. something that is neither good nor bad B. something that produces unexpected
results
C. something that has both advantages and disadvantages D. something either negative or positive
in nature
Question 39: What does the author imply in paragraph 3?
A. Body-cam ownership could eventually give rise to information overload, which, in turn, raises
public concern.

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B. Social networks provide their users with greater freedom of choice while depriving them of their
privacy and animity.
C. Companies like Facebook may have their own intentions behind their willingness to take care of
their users' body-cam data.
D. Google and similar enterprises tend to refrain from harvesting their customers' data fof illicit
purposes.
Question 40: It is stated in paragraph 4 that unrecorded events........
A. may go unnoticed or be ignored completely B. could be manipulated to charge innocent
people
C. should be kept open to interpretation D. could provoke legal disputes among media
companies
Question 41: According to paragraph 5, why do social media users already act more carefully on
line?
A. Because they regret doing something illegal
B. Because thev disapprove of uncensored social media feeds
C. Because they want to avoid being recognised in public.
D. because they wish to protect their image.
Question 42: The word "they" in paragraph 6 refers to.........
A. wheels B. social interactions C. desirable behaviours D. people
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the follow ing questions.
Question 43: Laura practised playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her
performance.
A. Hardly had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her
performance.
B. Had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
C. However much Laura practised playing die instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
D. As soon as Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better.
Question 44: Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
A. Lucy had hardly decided to donate part of her savings to the children when she paid a visit to the
local orphanage.
B. It was only when Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the children that she paid a
visit to the local orphanage.
C. Before she paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to
the children there.
D. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the
children there.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 45: My friend has stopped eating fast food.
A. My friend sometimes eats fast food. B. My friend doesn't like eating fast food.
C. My friend no longer eats fast food. D. My friend has never eaten fast food.
Question 46: "You should take better care of your health," said Tom’s mother.
A. Tom’s mother promised to take better care of his health.
B. Tom’s mother ordered him to take better care of his health.
C. Tom’s mother required him to take better care of his health.
D. Tom's mother advised him to take better care of his health.
Question 47: They report that soil pollution has seriously threatened the livelihood of many local
farmers.
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A. The livelihood of many local farmers was reported to be seriously endangered by soil pollution.
B. It is reported that the livelihood of many local farmers has led to serious soil pollution.
C. Soil pollution is reported to have posed a serious threat to the livelihood of many local farmers.
D. It has been reported that soil pollution has actually put many local farmers’ lives at risk.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organisers
of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
A. keynote speaker B. complementary remarks C. organisers D. proceeded
Question 49: It was the year 2003 that Vietnam hosted the Southeast Asian Games (SEA Games)
for the first time.
A. the year 2003 B. hosted C. for D. time
Question 50: My classmates is going on a trip to Cuc Phuong National Park this weekend.
A. My B. is C. a D. this weekend

The End

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