0986 2020 June2024
0986 2020 June2024
INFORMATION
• This Insert contains the case study.
*5592801272-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_21_2020_1.2
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2
Simon set up FJ in country Z. It makes fresh fruit drinks. Simon had a well paid job with a large
food and drinks company but he wanted to create his own business. He left his job 6 months ago
to set up FJ. Simon wants to provide people with a healthy alternative to the mass produced drinks
that are available in most shops.
Simon is willing to work hard to make FJ a success. He has lots of ideas for new drinks. He has
been making the drinks at his house and selling them at a market stall. He does not have enough
space to produce a higher output on his own. The first drinks FJ produced were made from just 2
types of fruit to keep costs down. The business has been profitable. Simon now wants to expand
the business rapidly and he needs to raise $100 000 to open a factory. He will need to recruit
production workers. He is considering using crowd-funding instead of a bank loan to raise the
necessary finance.
Simon wants to produce a new type of drink. He has carried out market research using three
methods to help him decide which fruit drink to produce and what price to charge. He has estimated
demand, costs and prices for two possible new drinks, as outlined in Appendix 3. He must decide
which one FJ should produce.
Simon plans to open more fruit drink market stalls in busy areas of the city. He needs to recruit a
manager to operate all of FJ’s drink stalls. This person will need to be reliable and able to make
their own decisions. Simon may have to pay to train the new manager. If these market stalls are
successful, Simon can start opening market stalls in other cities.
Appendix 1
The Government in country Z wants to promote healthy eating and drinking to make people more
productive at work and also live longer. The Government plans to spend more money on providing
information about healthy food and drinks. It hopes that this will encourage people to think about
what they are eating and drinking.
The Government is also worried about slow economic growth. It has recently increased government
spending on improving public transport and paying higher wages to public sector employees.
Appendix 2
Three applicants for the position of manager of the fruit drink market stalls
Expected wage
$6 per hour $15 per hour $10 per hour
rate
Reason for Long hours of work with few Wants to gain a Wants more of a challenge
changing job holidays promotion at work
Appendix 3
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effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*2265153034-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_22_2020_1.1
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2
ES makes scooters (small motorcycles) which are sold in country Z. ES is a public limited company
which was founded 40 years ago. It has grown by taking over other smaller scooter manufacturers.
This meant that ES could use the factories and skilled employees of these other businesses. ES
is now planning to take over another scooter manufacturing business based in country Z, either
company ABC or company FGH. Financial information about these companies is shown in Appendix
1.
Currently ES uses a flow production method with many workers and only a few machines. The
work is boring and employees have to work long hours doing the same job. However, wages are
calculated by using time rate and this is higher than the legal minimum wage. There are no other
financial rewards for the workers.
ES currently has 30% market share in country Z. It is planning to export its products and has drawn
up a business plan for this expansion. This plan includes the promotion methods ES is considering
for its scooters in export markets. To start exporting, ES will have to increase production. It needs
to recruit 100 additional production workers and invest $10m in new technology production
machinery. This should ensure higher output as well as higher productivity.
Appendix 1
Financial information (2019) for the two companies ES is planning to take over.
Current ratio 2 3
Appendix 2
The economy of country Z has grown rapidly over the last 5 years and incomes are high. This has
resulted in inflation. The Government is now taking action to stop inflation rising any further.
Unemployment has now started to increase. This has been welcomed by some businesses but not
all. The demand for luxury products is likely to fall if unemployment continues to rise.
Appendix 3
The Government has introduced many new laws that will have an impact on ES. These legal controls
include those affecting consumer protection, location decisions and environmental protection. We
will have to consider how each of these new laws will affect our costs and operations.
Please make sure you have carried out a full analysis of what these changes will mean for ES.
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Published
Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.
This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam. The answer column of the mark scheme shows the
proposed basis on which Examiners would award marks for this exam. Where appropriate, this column also
provides the most likely acceptable alternative responses expected from students. Examiners usually review
the mark scheme after they have seen student responses and update the mark scheme if appropriate. In the
June series, Examiners were unable to consider the acceptability of alternative responses, as there were no
student responses to consider.
Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Asking a large number of people each for a small amount of money to raise
finance for a project [2]
Two from:
• Purchasing/bulk buying
• Marketing
• Technical
• Financial
• Risk bearing
• Managerial
1(c) Outline two reasons why a bank might want Kara to produce a 4
business plan before agreeing to give a loan.
Note: The focus of the question is from the viewpoint of the bank and not the
business.
1(d) Explain two factors Kara should consider when deciding whether to 6
increase prices.
1(e) Do you think delaying payments to suppliers is the best way for a 6
small business to improve its cash-flow? Justify your answer.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
2(c) State four factors that might affect the leadership style used by a 4
manager.
Other methods
• Meetings [k] allows for feedback [an] but can be difficult to arrange a
suitable time when everyone can attend [an]
• Letter [k] have a copy that can refer back to [an] but language used may
not be clear if use technical language [an]
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Partial definition e.g. something that makes the product easy to recognise
[1]
Correct formula and incorrect answer e.g. 2000 / (40 – 24) [1]
3(c) Outline two possible problems for NWA of having a high level of debt. 4
3(d) Explain how two methods of sales promotion could increase sales for 6
NWA.
3(e) Do you think that having many levels of hierarchy is the best type of 6
organisational structure for a large business? Justify your answer.
4(a) Identify two reasons why a government might support business start- 2
ups.
4(e) Do you think the exchange rate is the most important factor for a 6
business to consider when deciding whether to import parts for a high
quality product? Justify your answer.
Published
Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.
This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam. The answer column of the mark scheme shows the
proposed basis on which Examiners would award marks for this exam. Where appropriate, this column also
provides the most likely acceptable alternative responses expected from students. Examiners usually review
the mark scheme after they have seen student responses and update the mark scheme if appropriate. In the
June series, Examiners were unable to consider the acceptability of alternative responses, as there were no
student responses to consider.
Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
When people and businesses concentrate on what they are best at [2]
1(c) Outline two ways DWT could try to ensure quality production. 4
Award 1 mark for identifying the objective of each stakeholder group (max 2).
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business (max 2).
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2).
Pressure groups
• encourage the use of sustainable methods [k] such as solar panels
[app] to protect the environment [an]
• reduce/limit amount of pollution/environmental damage [k]
1(e) Do you think that all businesses will benefit from operating in a country 6
which is experiencing rapid economic growth? Justify your answer.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Partial definition e.g. A group who fight for workers’ rights [1]
2(b) Calculate the average cost of one motorcycle. Show your working. 2
2(d) Explain two possible problems for MLC of relocating its operations to 6
another country.
On-the-job training:
• Can reinforce errors/bad habits of trainer [k] reducing sales/damage
reputation [an]
• Fewer new ideas/skills will be taught [k]
• Control what is taught/employees learn exact way business wants things
done [k] so workers only learn skills needed [an]
• Employees can carry on working [k] so some output is still produced [an]
• Cheaper (than off-the-job) [k]
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
3(b) Identify two reasons why a business might downsize its workforce. 2
3(c) Outline two reasons why Kala’s business might need finance. 4
Disadvantages:
• Difficult to stand out from competition [k] at a time when she is worried
about increased competition [app] leading to lower sales [an]
• Not everyone has access to internet [k]
• No passing trade [k] so could mean fewer sales [an]
• Increased costs of postage/distribution [k] as need to arrange for
delivery/vans [an]
• Need to pay for pop-ups to advertise on popular sites [k]
• Lack of personal service [k]
• Customers may want to try before buy [k]
3(e) Do you think selling to different market segments is the best way for a 6
small business to respond to increased competition? Justify your
answer.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Profit is the amount of money that a business makes once costs have been
subtracted from the revenue [2]
Total revenue minus total costs [2].
Note: For both marks must have idea that there is both sales and cost
element to profit.
4(b) State two problems of using the number of employees to measure the 2
size of a business.
4(c) Outline two possible ways ALB can try to reduce its costs. 4
4(e) Do you think changes in legal controls over employment issues will 6
always reduce business profits? Justify your answer.
Published
Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.
This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam. The answer column of the mark scheme shows the
proposed basis on which Examiners would award marks for this exam. Where appropriate, this column also
provides the most likely acceptable alternative responses expected from students. Examiners usually review
the mark scheme after they have seen student responses and update the mark scheme if appropriate. In the
June series, Examiners were unable to consider the acceptability of alternative responses, as there were no
student responses to consider.
Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Indicative response:
Simon is a risk taker (1) as he risked giving up his well-paid job to start his
own business (app).
1(b) Explain the three main methods of production FJ could use to produce 12
its products in the factory. Which method should FJ use? Justify your
answer.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
1(b)
Justification might include:
For example:
Crowd-funding will allow large amounts of capital to be raised (1) so Simon can
start producing a large output of fruit drinks quickly (app). This will allow
Simon to enter the new market before competitors can copy his drinks (1)
and he will not have to pay back the money, unlike a bank loan. (1)
2(b) Consider the following three methods of market research Simon used. 12
Which do you think is the best method to use when deciding which
product to produce? Justify your answer.
• Online questionnaire
• Accessing government population data
• Focus group
0 No creditable response. 0
For example:
Government may increase purchases from other businesses (1) increasing the
revenue of these businesses (1).
0 No creditable response. 0
For example:
As a return on his investment (1) as Simon gave up his job and risked his
own money in starting FJ (app). If no profit is made, then Simon could have
put his money elsewhere and gained a return on it (1) and he may decide to
close down FJ and start up another business. (1)
0 No creditable response. 0
Published
Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.
This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam. The answer column of the mark scheme shows the
proposed basis on which Examiners would award marks for this exam. Where appropriate, this column also
provides the most likely acceptable alternative responses expected from students. Examiners usually review
the mark scheme after they have seen student responses and update the mark scheme if appropriate. In the
June series, Examiners were unable to consider the acceptability of alternative responses, as there were no
student responses to consider.
Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
1(a) Explain one benefit and one problem for ES of taking over other 8
businesses.
For example:
The cost of buying other companies is high (1) and ES will have to raise large
amounts of funds to allow them to do this (1). As a public limited company
(app), it could sell additional shares to raise the finance, but this may lead to
the existing shareholders losing some control over the business (1).
0 No creditable response. 0
For example:
Forecast financial documents will show potential profit to be made (1) can
see if it will give a satisfactory return on the investment. (1)
2(b) ES has been considering the following three methods of promotion for 12
its products in export markets. Which method should ES choose?
Justify your answer.
• Advertise on national television
• Advertise on ES website
• Display its products in shopping malls
0 No creditable response. 0
For example:
Output per worker is higher (1) so ES may be able to offer financial rewards
than just time wage rate payments (app) which can result in more highly
motivated production workers (1) making them less likely to leave and
consequently ES will have lower recruitment costs. (1)
3(b) Consider three methods of motivation ES could use for its production 12
workers. Which is the best method for ES to choose? Justify your
answer.
0 No creditable response. 0
4(a) Explain how the following four legal controls may affect ES. 8
For example:
Environmental laws may restrict pollution from exhaust fumes (1) this may
mean ES has to change the engines of its scooters which may increase
costs (app).
• Increasing unemployment
• Increasing inflation
0 No creditable response. 0
• Lower incomes
• Lower sales on expensive items such as
scooters
• However, if scooters are bought instead of cars
Increasing then sales may be higher
unemployment • Easier to recruit employees as larger pool of
unemployed workers available to select the
additional 100 production workers
• Less pressure on wage rate increases to be well
above the legal minimum wage rate
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_11_2020_1.2
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2
1 Kara’s business makes wax candles. She sells them to retailers at low prices. She gives retailers
60 days to pay. Kara has to pay her suppliers when raw materials are delivered. Kara used
crowd-funding to set up her business. The bank would not give Kara a loan as she did not have a
business plan. Last year revenue was $50 000. Demand is increasing but Kara is not yet able to
benefit from economies of scale. She said: ‘Cash-flow is a problem. All cash inflows are used to
buy inventory.’
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two reasons why a bank might want Kara to produce a business plan before agreeing
to give a loan.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two factors Kara should consider when deciding whether to increase prices.
Factor 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 2: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think delaying payments to suppliers is the best way for a small business to improve
its cash-flow? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
2 BCK is a multinational company which operates many gold mines. One of BCK’s objectives is to
contribute to sustainable development. The Managing Director said: ‘We value all of our stakeholders.
With 10 000 employees it is important to have the right leadership style. BCK needs well-motivated
employees.’ The Managing Director also thinks that effective communication with suppliers is very
important.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) State four factors that might affect the leadership style used by a manager.
Factor 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 2: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 3: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 4: ...........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think using communication methods based on information technology (IT) is the best
way for a large business to communicate with its suppliers? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
3 NWA is a large and profitable airline business. It has grown quickly over the past 10 years and new
aeroplanes have helped to improve its brand image. NWA offers low priced flights for tourists to
50 countries. Sales promotion is an important part of NWA’s marketing mix. The Finance Director
is worried that NWA has a high level of debt as its main source of finance is bank loans. The
organisational chart of NWA has many levels of hierarchy with narrow spans of control.
Table 3.1
Cost and price data for a typical NWA flight (2019)
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Calculate the break-even number of customers for a typical NWA flight. Show your working.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two possible problems for NWA of having a high level of debt.
Problem 1: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Problem 2: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain how two methods of sales promotion could increase sales for NWA.
Method 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Method 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think that having many levels of hierarchy is the best type of organisational structure
for a large business? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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4 BMT is a business partnership owned by 2 brothers. The brothers received government support
when they started BMT 6 years ago. BMT now has 30 employees who make high quality watches.
The business tries to achieve lean production. Demand has increased each year and in 2019 BMT
sold 8000 watches. BMT makes some parts for watches and all the other parts are imported. BMT
had to consider a number of factors, including exchange rates, when deciding whether to import
parts for watches.
(a) Identify two reasons why a government might support business start-ups.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Type 1: ..............................................................................................................................
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Type 2: ..............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Disadvantage 1: ................................................................................................................
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Disadvantage 2: ................................................................................................................
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Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think the exchange rate is the most important factor for a business to consider when
deciding whether to import parts for a high quality product? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_12_2020_1.7
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2
1 DWT makes solar panels in country Y. This is a low-cost country which is experiencing rapid
economic growth. DWT’s production method makes use of specialisation. All 120 of DWT’s
employees know that ensuring quality production is important. DWT imports some of its raw materials.
The Government of country Y plans to introduce import tariffs of 50%. DWT’s Managing Director
said: ‘This decision will affect all of our stakeholders. Why do governments introduce trade restrictions
such as import controls?’
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two reasons why a government might introduce import controls.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two ways DWT could try to ensure quality production.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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(d) Explain one objective of each of the following stakeholder groups of DWT.
Customers: .......................................................................................................................
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(e) Do you think that all businesses will benefit from operating in a country which is experiencing
rapid economic growth? Justify your answer.
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2 MLC makes motorcycles. The Managing Director has been analysing MLC’s costs. An extract of
this information is shown in Table 2.1. To reduce average costs, MLC plans to close its factory and
relocate production to another country. Only 50 of the existing employees will be offered jobs at
the new location. The trade union has been informed. All the new employees will be given either
on-the-job training or off-the-job training. This planned relocation will have an impact on MLC’s
income statement.
Table 2.1
Cost and other information for MLC’s current factory (2019)
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Calculate the average cost of one motorcycle. Show your working.
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Feature 1: .........................................................................................................................
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Feature 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Feature 3: .........................................................................................................................
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Feature 4: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two possible problems for MLC of relocating its operations to another country.
Problem 1: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Problem 2: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think on-the-job training is a better method of training for a manufacturing business to
use than off-the-job training? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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3 Kala always wanted to be an entrepreneur. She used to work for a business which downsized its
workforce 5 years ago. She then decided to start up CHL. She produced a business plan which
helped her obtain finance. Kala now designs customised sports clothes for women. Kala sells these
products directly to customers using e-commerce. She has a loyal customer base of 25-40 year
olds. However, Kala is worried about increased competition in this niche market. One idea she has
is to target different market segments.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two reasons why a business might downsize its workforce.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two reasons why Kala’s business might need finance.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to Kala of using e-commerce to sell her products.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think selling to different market segments is the best way for a small business to respond
to increased competition? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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4 ALB is a large bank. It has 300 branches and 5 000 employees. ALB provides a range of financial
services to its business customers. As it operates in a competitive market, ALB aims to maintain
customer loyalty. Last year ALB’s profit decreased to $3 000m. The Managing Director is analysing
ways to reduce ALB’s costs. She also has to decide how new legal controls over employment
issues might affect the business. The Government plans to improve protection of employees by
changing laws on the minimum wage and health and safety.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) State two problems of using the number of employees to measure the size of a business.
Problem 1: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Problem 2: ........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two possible ways ALB can try to reduce its costs.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [4]
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think changes in legal controls over employment issues will always reduce business
profits? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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BLANK PAGE
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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_21_2020_1.2
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2
Characteristic 1: ................................................................................................................
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Characteristic 2: ................................................................................................................
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Characteristic 3: ................................................................................................................
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Characteristic 4: ................................................................................................................
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(b) Explain the three main methods of production FJ could use to produce its products in the
factory. Which method should FJ use? Justify your answer.
Method 1: ..........................................................................................................................
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Method 2: ..........................................................................................................................
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Method 3: ..........................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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2 (a) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to Simon of using crowd-funding as a source
of finance for FJ.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the following three methods of market research Simon used. Which do you think is
the best method to use when deciding which product to produce? Justify your answer.
• Online questionnaire
• Accessing government population data
• Focus group
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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3 (a) Explain four ways an increase in government spending may affect a business.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 3:................................................................................................................................
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Way 4: ...............................................................................................................................
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(b) Referring to Appendix 2, consider the suitability of the three applicants for the position of
manager. Which applicant should Simon select? Justify your answer.
Joe: ...................................................................................................................................
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Zabeen:.............................................................................................................................
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Jim: ...................................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the two products outlined in Appendix 3. Which product should FJ produce? Justify
your answer using relevant calculations.
Drink A: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Drink B:..............................................................................................................................
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Recommendation:.............................................................................................................
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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_22_2020_1.4
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2
1 (a) Explain one benefit and one problem for ES of taking over other businesses.
Benefit: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Problem: ...........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the financial information in Appendix 1. Which company should ES take over? Justify
your answer using appropriate ratios.
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 3: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 4: ...............................................................................................................................
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(b) ES has been considering the following three methods of promotion for its products in export
markets. Which method should ES choose? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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Advertise on ES website:...................................................................................................
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Recommendation:.............................................................................................................
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Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation:.......................................................................................................................
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Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider three methods of motivation ES could use for its production workers. Which is the
best method for ES to choose? Justify your answer.
Method 1: ..........................................................................................................................
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Method 2: ..........................................................................................................................
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Method 3: ..........................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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4 (a) Explain how the following four legal controls may affect ES.
Misleading promotion:.......................................................................................................
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Location: ...........................................................................................................................
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Pollution:............................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the effect on ES of the following two economic changes in country Z. Which change
is likely to have the biggest effect on ES’s profit? Justify your answer.
• Increasing unemployment
• Increasing inflation
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/11
Short Answer/Data Response
Key messages
• This is the second year for this new version of the syllabus. Small differences in the weighting of the
assessment objectives since 2020 have resulted in some changes in the mark scheme for some
parts of questions.
• Part (c) of each question continues to have 4 marks. However, one of the part (c) questions is a
generic question with 4 knowledge marks. The remaining part (c) questions continue to be applied
questions. Questions which require application refer to the business in the scenario by name.
• Candidates should be reminded to use information from the stem to help answer question parts (c)
and (d) when appropriate as this provides the basis for application.
• Part (e) of each question no longer includes any marks for application. These questions now have 2
knowledge, 2 analysis and 2 evaluation marks.
General comments
Questions requiring definitions and knowledge, such as parts (a) and (b) of each question were generally
well attempted. Many candidates needed to be more precise when defining business terms. This was a
particular issue in Questions 1(a), 1(b) and 4(a).
For most part (c) and all part (d) questions, candidates are required to link each point made to the context
outlined within the stem of the question. Candidates should be reminded to use a different point of
application and analysis for each point made as each point can be credited only once.
Effective evaluation is an area which requires development. Candidates should be reminded that evaluation
must include a justified decision that follows on from the points raised in the answer. A repetition of points
already explained in the answer will not gain evaluation marks. The mark scheme for each part (e) question
includes one example of how evaluation can be demonstrated in the answer.
Question 1
(a) A significant proportion of candidates were unable to give a precise definition of this term. A
common error was to confuse the sector with an individual business.
(b) Candidates were generally unsure of the meaning of this term. The strongest responses often
provided the formula; total revenue minus total costs. Common mistakes were to define gross profit
or to confuse costs with expenses.
(c) Candidates clearly understood this topic. A common error was to identify measures of success,
such as profit, rather than size, or to repeat the same measure using slightly different wording. This
part (c) question did not require application to the business in the stem.
(d) This question produced a range of responses. The best answers clearly stated an objective for the
stakeholder in the question and then explained how this would impact upon the costs or revenue
for this insurance business. Some candidates lost the application marks available by not referring
to the business in the stem. These candidates often mentioned the cost of raw materials which
would not be a significant consideration for a service business. Weaker responses were often able
to identify stakeholder objectives but could not explain the link to profit.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(e) This was one of the most challenging questions on the paper for many candidates. The strongest
answers recognised that lower unit costs gained through economies of scale are one reason for
takeovers, but greater market power may provide an alternative motivation. Very few candidates
were able to provide effective evaluation for this question. Many candidates showed some
understanding of different economies of scale and therefore gained the two knowledge marks
available. A small, but significant, number of candidates did not answer this question.
Question 2
(a) Well answered by many candidates. A common error was to confuse the physical limit of a quota
with the financial limit of an import tax.
(b) Generally, a well answered question. Some candidates misread the figures and presented gross
profit as 3300 rather than 3330. A small but significant number of candidates did not attempt this
question.
(c) This part (c) question required application to the business in the question stem. Many candidates
were able to show good understanding of a benefit and limitation of developing new products. The
strongest responses explained how this fashion business could benefit from increased customer
loyalty or have raised costs. A common error was to explain the benefits to the consumer rather
than the business.
(d) Candidates found this to be one of the more challenging questions on the examination paper. The
strongest candidates were aware that ratio analysis could be used to measure performance. Even
the most able candidates struggled to develop their points sufficiently to gain analysis marks. A
common error was to describe profit or cash flow rather than profitability and liquidity. A significant
number of candidates did not attempt this question.
(e) This was the most challenging question for candidates. Although candidates were aware of the
issues surrounding multinationals many needed to address their answers correctly to the question
set, i.e. the benefit to a country of accepting multinationals. Frequently candidates discussed the
benefits to the multinational business. Many candidates applied their answers to the business
outlined in the question although no application marks are available in part (e) questions. The
strongest candidates discussed the benefits of job creation and increased tax revenue for the
government. Very few were able to make effective evaluative comments on this question.
Question 3
(b) Candidates were confident in their understanding of this topic. The most frequent correct answers
included the level of demand and the number of competitors. Some candidates stated nearness to
suppliers, which would not be an important consideration for a service business.
(c) Candidates had good knowledge of this topic and a variety of different correct answers were
provided. A common error was to give imprecise answers such as ‘cheaper’. To gain credit for this
advantage the candidate would need to state that the method was cheaper than off-the-job training.
Some candidates lost the application marks available by providing detailed explanations of points
with no reference to the business in the stem.
(d) This question produced a range of responses. The strongest answers explained the motivational
benefits and costs in terms of slow decision-making for this small printing business. A mark of three
was common as candidates often developed both their points by explaining the impact upon
productivity which could only be credited once. Many candidates stated incorrectly that democratic
leadership would mean the owner loses all control over the business.
(e) Candidates did not always understand what was required in this question, many simply stated the
different methods of finance available to businesses. The strongest answers focused on the idea
that a sole trader would be most concerned about the cost of the finance and the time taken to
repay the funds. Even the most able candidates needed to sufficiently develop the points made to
gain full marks.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 4
(a) This term was not well understood by many candidates. Candidates frequently described signs of
economic growth, such as falling unemployment, rather than providing the precise definition
required.
(b) Most candidates provided clear and correct definitions of this term. Weaker candidates confused
this with quality control or simply restated the question by identifying this as ‘assuring quality’.
(c) Many candidates showed good knowledge of the reasons for building customer relationships. The
best responses were then able to link both answers to the scenario outlined in the stem of the
question. A small number of candidates provided two similar points, such as loyalty and customer
retention, which could only be rewarded once.
(d) There were many good answers to this question which made effective use of the information
provided in the question stem. Candidates who identified the disadvantage as ‘expensive’ needed
to develop the point sufficiently to gain the analysis and application marks available. A significant
number of candidates thought that the business in the scenario produced mobile phones (they
produce phone cases), this limited their ability to gain application marks.
(e) A small but significant number of candidates did not attempt this question. Those that did often
achieved two marks for demonstrating appropriate knowledge. The strongest candidates
recognised the importance of being in a niche market when choosing a pricing strategy. These
answers often considered the benefit of an alternative pricing strategy to this business. The
weakest responses described pricing methods but needed focus on why they may be the best
method in this situation.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/12
Short Answer/Data Response
Key messages
• Most candidates would benefit from a more precise understanding of key business terminology when
answering questions requiring definitions.
• Candidates should be reminded to use information from the stem to help answer part (c) and part (d)
questions as this provides the basis for application. Candidates should not repeat the same application
for both points. The same analysis point should not be used twice in the same question.
• Effective evaluation is an area which requires attention. Candidates should be reminded that evaluation
must include a justified decision that follows from the points raised in the answer, not a repetition of
points already explained. An example of an answer which includes evaluation can be found in the mark
scheme for each part (e) question.
General comments
Overall candidates demonstrated good knowledge and understanding, but many struggled to access the
marks available for application, analysis and evaluation.
Questions requiring definitions and knowledge, such as part (a) and (b) of each question were generally well
attempted. However, most candidates lacked the necessary precision when defining concepts.
For most part (c) (excluding 2c which only assessed knowledge) and all part (d) questions, it is important
that each point made is linked to the context. To do this, candidates should use the information from the
scenario provided at the start of the question, to ensure that points raised are appropriate to the business
described. Candidates should use a different point of application for each answer given.
It is important to remind candidates that part (e) is a general question. Many candidates contextualised their
part (e) answers but there are no marks for application.
Part (e) questions assess evaluation. Candidates are required to make a supported judgement. This should
follow on from points raised in the answer but not simply repeat points already made. Of those candidates
who did attempt an evaluative statement, most were unable to provide reasoned statements to back up the
decision made. To access the evaluation marks, one approach that candidates could use is to make a
choice, provide a reason for this decision, and then explain why it is better than the alternative option or
viewpoint discussed.
Question 1
(a) Most candidates understood that the ‘plus’ element of the cost-plus pricing related to profit. The
best responses provided a precise definition of the term. A common mistake was to reorder the
words by stating it was price based on cost, or simply that the price is higher than cost. Others
confused the concept of profit with price or extra cost.
(b) Most candidates were able to provide a partial definition as they understood that the marketing mix
involved price, product, promotion and place. A common mistake was to confuse the term with
market research, product development or incorrectly listing elements of the marketing mix.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(c) There were many good answers to this question. Candidates were familiar with reasons why being
able to offer a high-quality service might be important. Some candidates needed to apply their
answers to access the application marks. A small number of candidates misread the question and
incorrectly outlined reasons why customers might be interested in high-quality.
(d) Good knowledge was evident in most responses with ‘no need to share profit’ and ‘makes all
decisions’ being typical answers. Only the stronger candidates were able to develop the points
made in the context of this photography business. Instead of analysis, many repeated a knowledge
point or identified a different advantage. Others repeated the same application for both answers.
(e) This question provided a range of responses. Many candidates were able to identify at least one
relevant advantage or disadvantage of either a niche market or a mass market. Most candidates
then needed to develop their answers to gain the analysis marks. Weaker responses tended to
offer mirror arguments which could only be rewarded once. For example, many candidates stated
that a business is likely to have fewer customers in a niche market whereas there are more
potential customers in a mass market. Most candidates ignored the fact that this was a general
question about small businesses so lost valuable time trying to apply their answer to the case
study.
Question 2
(a) The best responses provided a full definition of ‘opening balance’. Many answers lacked precision
so used vague words such as ‘funds’ or ‘capital’ which are not the same as cash. Some simply
reordered the words ‘opening’ and ‘balance’ while others stated it was last month’s closing balance.
None of these answers were credited.
(b) There were many correct answers to this question. A common error was to repeat methods of
motivation instead of stating different ways. Others wrongly identified ways to increase output
rather than productivity.
(c) Most candidates were able to identify two sources of internal finance, with ‘retained profits’ and
‘sale of non-current assets’ being typical answers. A common error was to identify external sources
of finance which the question excluded.
(d) This question proved to be a good discriminator. Better answers recognised that buying new
technology would increase cash outflows. Most candidates struggled to identify an additional effect.
Some suggested that jobs would be lost but did not explain the financial impact of this on the cash
flow forecast. For example, it could mean less wages which would reduce cash outflows or
redundancy payments which in turn would increase cash outflows.
(e) This question was poorly answered by some candidates. Most candidates gained at least one
knowledge mark. The best responses were then able to develop their points, such as full-time
employees are likely to be more committed or that part-time employees offer greater flexibility in
terms of hours worked, to show how or why it might be beneficial for businesses. Evaluation was
rare. There were many vague answers about cost, motivation, skills and experience which needed
further clarification to be credited. Other candidates confused part-time workers with temporary
workers. A small number of candidates misread the question so wrongly focused on production
rather than employees in the tertiary sector. None of these answers were credited.
Question 3
(a) Most candidates understood that fixed costs do not change. Many were then able to provide a
precise definition as they recognised the relationship these costs had with sales or output. A
common error was to identify examples which were not rewarded.
(b) This question required candidates to calculate the margin of safety. Candidates either knew the
formula, so gained both marks, or they did not. A small number of candidates wrongly expressed
their answer in monetary terms. Other incorrect answers attempted to calculate profit or performed
complex calculations which did not answer the question.
(c) Most candidates understood that a short chain of command was likely to result in improved
communication. Better responses also gained application marks for linking their answer to the
scenario. A common point of application used was 600 employees. Only the best responses
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
identified two relevant advantages. There were two common mistakes. Some candidates repeated
the same knowledge point for both answers. Others made vague statements about easier to
control, higher standards of work or increased output.
(d) Good knowledge was evident in many responses. Having a flexible workforce and the ability to
replace others when someone is absent were correctly identified as an advantage of using job
rotation, but most candidates then needed to develop their point. The section on disadvantages
was better answered as candidates recognised that workers might not be skilled in all the tasks
which could result in lower quality or lower efficiency. Most candidates gained at least one
application mark for an appropriate reference to steel production or 600 employees. Some wrongly
focused on potential benefits to the employee such as the work might be less boring. Others
repeated the wording from the question by simply stating it would motivate or demotivate them. A
small number of candidates defined the term which did not answer the question. None of these
answers were credited.
(e) Candidates clearly understood this topic and showed strong knowledge of stakeholder groups.
Better responses were then able to explain why each stakeholder was important to a business. The
best responses built on their analysis and made a supported decision about why one stakeholder
group was likely to be more important to the success of the business than another. Instead of
evaluation, some candidates repeated earlier points made which had already been credited. Many
candidates applied their response to the case study. This was unnecessary and did not gain any
credit.
Question 4
(a) This question was well answered by most candidates. A common mistake was to identify examples
rather than define the term.
(b) Most candidates were able to identify at least one objective. A common wrong answer was to state
ways to achieve the objective rather than identifying the objective itself.
(c) Many answers identified either an external cost or benefit. Examples of pollution were the most
common response for external costs while job opportunities were recognised as an external
benefit. Most candidates who gained knowledge marks were able to link their answers to the
context. Incorrect answers tended to identify private costs or outlined benefits to Raul.
(d) Many candidates found this question challenging. The best responses recognised that selling
directly to a manufacturer meant there is no middleman or that it provided a more predictable
demand. They were then able to develop these points. Common errors included vague statements
about saving time, better communication and less storage. Some candidates suggested it would
increase sales which was incorrect as the business in question already sold all its products to a
single business.
(e) It was pleasing to see that many candidates understood the difference between an import tariff and
an import quota and were able to explain the effect of these different trade restrictions on an export
business. There were some excellent answers to this question and the best responses gained both
evaluation marks for a fully supported decision. For example, some concluded that it might be
possible for a business to find alternative markets which would reduce the effect of a quota, as it
would only limit sales in some markets compared to a situation where customers cannot afford to
buy the items as the result of higher tariffs resulting in fewer sales overall. Weaker answers
confused the two concepts so wrongly stated that quotas would increase price or defined the terms
instead of explaining how the two trade restrictions worked.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/21
Case Study
Key messages
This is the first June paper sat by candidates for the new syllabus. The style of the question paper has
remained the same. However, differences in the weighting of the assessment objectives have resulted in
small changes to the mark scheme. The (a) questions have more analysis marks awarded and fewer
application marks. The (b) questions have had no change to the weighting of the assessment objectives but
had the level descriptors amended slightly. This has not changed the awarding of marks on the 12-mark
questions. These small changes have not made any significant difference to the marks achieved overall; in
fact, for some candidates, they may have raised their marks.
Candidates should be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is except for one of the
(a) questions which will now be generic. Applying answers to the case will ensure responses are appropriate
for each given situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both parts (a) and (b) for
application. In this particular case study, candidates were expected to refer to a business that is a
manufacturer of wooden furniture. It is advisable for candidates to ask themselves about the size and
nature of the business, if it is a new or established business and what type of business organisation it is.
This may add to the quality of candidates’ answers.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of both the positive and negative consequences of a
business decision when this is asked for. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple
description; listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the
answer to Level 2.
• Several questions on this paper ask candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on a balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case and make reference to why the other
alternative option(s) were rejected.
General comments
Candidates had generally been well prepared for this examination and understood what was expected of
them. The context of FO, a furniture manufacturer established twenty years ago, provided an accessible
scenario for candidates. Those who applied their answers to the context of FO were the most successful.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, so
that they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. Many
candidates showed good knowledge and understanding of the full range of the syllabus that was assessed,
but in some instances it was clear that certain topics were not as well understood. The weakest
understanding was apparent in the topic areas of the relative importance of the sectors of an economy and
the management and control of growing businesses.
There were a few examples where candidates had continued an answer to a question in the extra space
provided on the blank pages at the end of the question paper. It would be helpful if candidates could indicate
that they have continued their response and where this answer can be found.
Overall, there were some good scripts seen as well as a number of weaker ones. Application marks were
often gained but candidates should make sure that different examples of application are included in the (a)
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
questions and the conclusion/recommendation in (b) questions should also be applied to the case.
Candidates should aim to consider the consequences / implications / long-term / short-term / balance issues
of their decisions to secure Level 2 or Level 3 marks in the conclusion/recommendation.
Question 1
(a) Candidates who demonstrated sound knowledge of the changing sectors of the economy included
ideas such as industrialisation, increased use of technology and rising levels of economic growth.
However, a number of candidates overlooked the focus of the question, reasons for the changes,
and simply described the sectors of the economy. Better candidates were able to explain that the
depletion of natural resources in an economy resulted in a decline in the size of the primary sector.
Other strong answers identified economic growth as a cause of change resulting in higher levels of
disposable income bringing about an increase in the demand for services and therefore a growing
tertiary sector in a country.
(b) This question was only answered well by a minority of candidates. As a business grows it becomes
difficult to ensure close supervision of workers, communication across different sites is challenging
and workers may become inefficient. Application marks were easily achieved when answers
included reference to FO’s three factories being spread across different regions of the country.
However, weaker responses repeated that it was difficult to control the business with little or no
additional comment. Stronger candidates recognised that lack of finance was, in part, caused by
the fact that the business was a private limited company with a relatively small number of
shareholders. Weaker responses often confused a clash of business cultures with a clash of
regional cultures. The conclusion should have focused on an effective solution to the problems
associated with takeovers. Strong responses often suggested the easiest solution would have been
to raise additional finance for fixed assets by asking the bank for a loan. Since FO had been a
successful business for twenty years it would be likely that a loan of a significant amount would be
granted with an extended period of time for repayment. Application as part of this justification
raised marks still further for those candidates in the Level 3 mark band.
Question 2
(a) Generally, a well answered question with the most popular points including the importance of
minimising waste and the need to avoid underproduction. Good responses discussed managing
the inventory to avoid increased storage costs and potential damage to components or finished
wooden furniture. Some answers discussed managing labour resources to avoid inefficiency in
production. Weak responses often included simple statements which did not develop the chain of
reasoning linking insufficient ordering with production levels and meeting customer expectations for
delivery. Application marks were often gained when reference was made to ordering nails,
brackets, and paint.
(b) The majority of candidates were able to discuss the relevant advantages and disadvantages of the
three methods of communication successfully. Weaker responses did little more than identify the
expense of each communication method such as mobile phone calls can be expensive whilst
sending letters is a cheaper option. Often weaker responses discussed communication with the
customer rather than the supplier. Stronger responses discussed the effectiveness of each method
of communication such as emails and letters providing a hard copy of the details of the late order
whilst mobile phones allowed a direct two-way conversation with the possibility of direct
questioning. Recommendation of the most suitable method of communication usually focused on
the speed of the response necessary to resolve the problem of the late delivery. The best answers
chose the fastest communication so that the delivery of paint, nails and brackets could be speedily
organised to avoid delays in production of wooden furniture. This justification in the context of the
specific business earned Level 3 marks with additional reward for application.
Question 3
(a) This proved to be a straightforward question with a number of candidates identifying retained profit
as a suitable source of internal finance. Many responses indicated that as a successful business
running for twenty years there was likely to be a reasonable amount of retained profit at FO which
could be used for expansion. Further development of the answer pointed out that there would be
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
no interest to pay which would keep expenses down. Many candidates discussed taking a bank
loan as a suitable external source of finance. A specific sum could be requested from the bank to
purchase particular assets such as electric vehicles and the repayment of the loan could be spread
over several years.
(b) The majority of candidates demonstrated sound knowledge of channels of distribution. They were
able to discuss the advantages and disadvantages of wholesalers, retailers, and direct selling
effectively. The benefit of selling in bulk to a wholesaler was contrasted with the likely reduction in
profit margin for the wooden furniture. The experience of retailers in displaying and promoting
furniture was contrasted with the likelihood of competitors’ furniture being sold at the same shop.
Weaker responses showed some confusion by stating that FO might set up their own retail
operation and that direct selling requires the customer to go to the factory to collect the tables and
chairs. Better responses offered a range of advantages and disadvantages rather than repeating
that one channel of distribution was cheaper and another more expensive. The conclusion was
often a repetition of earlier statements and did not add anything new. Only the best candidates
made a clear decision and explained why the other channels of distribution were less suitable. For
example, some chose direct selling because it ensured a stronger relationship between FO and its
customers whereas the other two distribution methods would mean a lower profit margin for FO
and less direct customer feedback about its tables and chairs. Additional reference to the context of
wooden furniture in the conclusion enabled candidates to access the higher marks within the
Level 3 band.
Question 4
(a) (i) This question provided candidates with an opportunity to use their numeracy skills. Those who had
learned the formula to calculate break-even were able to earn maximum marks with relative ease.
A small number of responses stated incorrectly that the unit of measurement was dollars when in
fact it was a measurement of tables.
(ii) Fewer candidates were successful in calculating the margin of safety per month for tables but
those who did this accurately achieved both available marks. It has been mentioned before that
candidates need to develop their numeracy skills and practise calculations regularly so that they
can maximise their overall mark.
(iii) Only a few candidates had sound knowledge of the uses of break-even analysis. It is important that
an understanding of the limitations of such analysis can be properly explained. Weak responses
simply mentioned that break-even was not always accurate. A more specific answer was needed.
Those candidates who mentioned that break-even was based on assumptions such as all products
were sold, or no inventories were held offered the correct level of detail and were rewarded
accordingly.
(b) This question required candidates to use information from the insert to assess the profitability of the
three sustainable development options. There were many general answers referring to the impact
of each option on the environment whilst other responses simply repeated statements or data from
Appendices 2 and 3. To earn higher level marks it was necessary to offer a detailed discussion of
the advantages and disadvantages of each option. Some candidates explained that using
packaging that can be recycled might attract more sales from ethical consumers, but such
packaging may not be suitable for large items such as tables. Level 2 credit was given to answers
which used the data in Appendices 2 and 3 to calculate the potential rise in variable costs for option
1, the rise in selling price for option 2 and the fall in variable costs for option 3. To gain the highest
marks in the Level 3 band, the conclusion needed to justify why one way to contribute to
sustainable development would be likely to maximise profit more than the other two options.
Candidates who made reference to specific calculations to support their decision were able to
make meaningful judgements. The conclusion also needed to be in the context of FO to move a
Level 3 answer higher up the mark band.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/22
Case Study
Key messages
This is the first June paper sat by candidates for the new syllabus. The style of the question paper has
remained the same. However, differences in the weighting of the assessment objectives have resulted in
small changes to the mark scheme. The (a) questions have more analysis marks awarded and fewer
application marks. The (b) questions have had no change to the weighting of the assessment objectives but
had the level descriptors amended slightly. This has not changed the awarding of marks on the 12-mark
questions. These small changes have not made any significant difference to the marks achieved overall; in
fact, for some candidates, they may have raised their marks.
Candidates should be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is except for one of the
(a) questions which will now be generic. Applying answers to the case will ensure responses are appropriate
for each given situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both parts (a) and (b) for
application. In this particular case study, candidates were expected to refer to a business that is about
to open as a toy shop. It is advisable for candidates to ask themselves about the size of the business,
consider whether it is a service business or manufacturer and what type of business organisation it is.
This may add to the quality of candidates’ answers.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of both the positive and negative consequences of a
business decision when this is asked for. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple
description; listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the
answer to Level 2.
• Several questions on this paper ask candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on a balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case and make reference to why the other
alternative option(s) were rejected.
General comments
Candidates had generally been well prepared for this examination and understood what was expected of
them. The context of TT, a new toy shop, provided an accessible scenario for candidates. Those who applied
their answers to the context of TT were the most successful.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, so
they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. Many candidates
showed good knowledge and understanding of the full range of the syllabus that was assessed, but in some
cases it was clear that certain topics were not as well understood. The weakest understanding was seen in
the following topic areas; the importance of a cash-flow forecast and the stages in the recruitment process.
There were a few examples where candidates had continued an answer to a (b) question underneath the
facing page with the (a) question answer. Questions should be answered in the answer space provided or on
the blank pages at the end of the question paper, with a clear reference to where the answer has been
continued.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Overall, there were some good scripts seen as well as a number of weaker ones. Application marks were
often gained but candidates should make sure that different examples of application are included in the (a)
questions. The conclusion/recommendation in (b) questions should also be applied to the case. Candidates
should aim to consider the consequences / implications / long-term / short-term / balance issues of their
decisions to secure Level 2 or Level 3 marks in the conclusion/recommendation.
Question 1
(a) Many candidates demonstrated sound knowledge of the advantages and disadvantages of setting
up a business as a private limited company. The most popular answers were related to limited
liability and selling shares to family and friends, rather than the public and the legal formalities
required to set up as a private limited company. Stronger candidates were able to explain that a
private limited company is unlikely to be taken over without the consent of shareholders. Weaker
candidates thought governments were involved in running companies, confused limited with
unlimited liability or gave vague answers regarding profit and employees.
(b) This question was well answered by many candidates. They were able to use the information given
in Appendix 1 to help them consider the factors that could affect the location of the new toy shop.
Application marks were easily achieved when answers included analysis of the information
provided in the appendix. However, weaker responses included information copied from Appendix
1 with little or no additional comment, or just stated opposite points as explanation, for example, in
A rent is expensive but in B rent is cheaper. Better candidates recognised the target market as high
income earners and that the shoppers in location B would be less likely to afford expensive toys.
High rent was justified by high sales of toys. High/low competition was a very popular answer for
nearby shops and that the facilities in the mall brought in potential customers. Many weaker
responses included a conclusion that was just a repeat of the statements already made and a
minority of candidates did not choose a location. Better responses included a conclusion that chose
one location and justified this choice but also included why the alternative location was rejected.
Application as part of this justification raised marks still further for those candidates in the Level 3
mark band.
Question 2
(a) Generally, a well answered question with the most popular advantages being that the pushchairs
are likely to be cheaper, a more varied range of pushchairs would be available or good quality
products can be purchased. Import restrictions such as tariffs and quotas, or increased transport
costs were the main disadvantages discussed. Weak answers often identified an advantage or
disadvantage but were unable to explain it in context. Some responses needed to understand
imports and treated the toy shop as being the exporter or simply answered the question ‘why TT
should sell pushchairs’. Vague comments, such as ‘high costs’, ‘increased sales’ or ‘profits
increasing’, were stated but without further explanation could not be rewarded. Application marks
were not often gained as candidates rarely went beyond discussing pushchairs and this was in the
question.
(b) The majority of candidates were able to discuss the relevant advantages and disadvantages of
each option and apply their answers by using the information about the two options provided in the
case study. Weaker responses did little more than repeat the information without including any
analysis of the points, such as the wholesaler is more expensive, and the manufacturer is cheaper.
Better responses said if buying from the wholesaler TT may have to charge higher prices and be
less competitive leading to lower sales, and if buying from the manufacturer although the price is
cheaper TT will have higher costs from storage of a large quantity and it may also have cash flow
problems from such a large payment. A wholesaler was the choice for the majority of candidates in
the recommendation as the quantities purchased were much smaller and could be purchased as
and when needed with only one day for delivery which was much more suitable for a new toy shop
with limited working capital.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 3
(a) This proved to be a difficult question with a number of candidates confusing a positive cash
balance on the cash flow forecast with profit. Many responses indicated that candidates thought it
showed what sales and costs had already been made rather than it being a forecast and therefore
not happened yet. Where candidates recognised that it could identify possible liquidity problems,
help with decision-making or help to apply for a bank loan, they needed to develop these reasons
further. Stronger candidates indicated that the forecast is forward-looking and helps the owner plan
ahead. Application opportunities were often missed by not using or referring to the information
provided in Appendix 3.
(b) The majority of candidates could offer some points worthy of credit but overall, this was a low
scoring question for many candidates. The majority of answers were generic and rarely made
reference to the recruitment being for a shop manager. Weaker responses were vague, such as a
job description explains what someone ‘needs to do’ or ‘describes the job’, rather than being more
specific and stating that it ‘gives details for the tasks and duties of the job’. Only a minority of
candidates were able to fully explain how the job description would help the business attract more
suitable applicants which could save time and make sure these applicants were clear about the
role and responsibilities of the position before they applied. Job specification was the best
understood out of the three recruitment processes and candidates often mentioned the ‘skills’,
‘experience’ and ‘qualifications’ required for the job. Stronger candidates developed their answers
to include the qualities of good leadership, selling skills or knowledge of the toy industry. Short-
listing was not well understood with many candidates confusing it with interviewing to select the
best applicant to offer the job to. Vague responses such as ‘it makes the list shorter’ were often
given. Better candidates referred to shortlisting being a pre-requisite to the interview process itself
and hence again saving time. The conclusion was often a repetition of earlier statements and did
not add anything new. Only the best responses gave a conclusion that answered the question and
also explained why the other stages in the recruitment process were less important for the
recruitment of the most suitable person to manage the new toy shop.
Question 4
(a) The majority of candidates could successfully identify at least some reasons why the level of
inventory is important to TT, but answers were often generic. Weaker responses repeated the
same point such as 'meeting customer demands' and hence reduced the number of reasons that
could be credited. Better candidates had a good grasp of the concept of inventory, such as how it is
important to keep track of inventory in order to meet demand, to avoid running out of certain
popular toys, the importance of a buffer for unexpected demand fluctuations and to minimise
storage costs. The main reason why marks were not gained was due to the answers not being
discussed in context. Only the best responses discussed these reasons in the context of TT as
stated in the question.
(b) In this question candidates were asked to consider the effect of three legal controls on TT. Weaker
candidates found this question quite challenging. There were many repetitions across the three
legal controls such as being sued if the legal controls were not followed. A minority of candidates
misunderstood the first legal control and thought that it referred to promotion for employees in their
job. The possible impact on sales from misleading promotion was often stated but very little was
usually discussed about the costs of having to redo the current promotion or that misleading
promotion may not apply to the branded toys TT intends to sell. Legal control two was the better
explained of the three and was usually in context. The majority of candidates could confidently
discuss ‘all goods must be safe for the consumer’ and relate their answers to children and the
likelihood of children being hurt if the products were unsafe. Better answers for the third legal
control referred to changing from plastic to environmentally friendly packaging and included the
increase in costs for doing so. However, weaker candidates referred to information provided on the
packaging rather than the type of packaging allowed. Weaker responses included a conclusion that
was simply a repeat of what had already been said in the earlier part of the answer. Better
candidates directly referred to the effects of the legal controls on TT, such as the impact on sales,
revenue, profit, or reputation. To gain the highest marks the conclusion needed to justify why one
legal control would have the greatest effect on TT and why the other two legal controls would have
less effect. The conclusion also needed to be in the context of TT to move a Level 3 answer higher
up the mark band.
© 2021
Grade thresholds – June 2021
The maximum total mark for this syllabus, after weighting has been applied, is 160.
The overall thresholds for the different grades were set as follows.
Combination of
Option 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Components
X 11, 21 94 81 68 58 48 38 31 24 17
Y 12, 22 94 81 68 58 48 38 31 24 17
Learn more! For more information please visit www.cambridgeinternational.org/igcse or contact Customer Services
on +44 (0)1223 553554 or email [email protected]
™
Cambridge IGCSE (9-1)
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*2492671442-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_21_2021_1.5
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2
FO has been a private limited company for 20 years. It is owned and run by the Chan family and
is located in country Z. In country Z the secondary sector has become relatively more important as
the country has developed. FO is a manufacturer of wooden furniture that is suitable for outdoor
use. Its products include tables, chairs and other outdoor furniture.
Customers order online from the FO website. The furniture is then delivered to customers in country
Z using FO’s own delivery vehicles. However, FO is considering changing to selling its furniture
through either wholesalers or large retailers in country Z.
The Chan family have the business objective of contributing to sustainable development. FO only
uses sustainably sourced wood when making furniture. This is from local forests in country Z and
the wood is more expensive than imported alternatives.
For many years FO shareholders have reinvested profits to provide the finance for growth. FO
recently took over 2 other furniture businesses in country Z and plans further takeovers. The Chan
family plan to continue to control and manage FO after this expansion. The leadership style of these
two companies is very different to that of FO and their factories are located several miles away
from FO in different regions of country Z.
FO need to manage all its resources effectively. It tries to use the same components such as nails,
brackets and paint for all its furniture designs. It is important to not run out of raw materials and so
orders to suppliers must be carefully planned to avoid late deliveries. FO want to keep wastage of
materials to a minimum. FO also need to consider how many employees are required to complete
each order.
FO - the only business to go to when you need new outdoor furniture for your garden.
FO produce a range of high quality furniture to meet all your needs for fashionable, well designed
outdoor furniture. Be reassured our furniture is only made from the highest quality wood from sustainable
forests.
Our furniture is only available online so order today and have your furniture delivered in the next few
weeks. Email any questions to us and we will reply quickly.
Appendix 2
Extract of cost, selling price and sales data for one of FO’s products
Appendix 3
A report from the International Committee for the Planet states that manufacturers must find more
sustainable ways to produce their products as global warming is becoming more of an issue.
• Only use raw materials from sources that replace what they have used. This is estimated to
raise variable costs by 20%
• Only use packaging that can be recycled. Costs are estimated to increase but the selling price
may not rise by more than 10%
• Only use electric vehicles to deliver products. The cost of buying electric vehicles is more than
petrol or diesel vehicles. Using electric vehicles could enable variable costs to be reduced by
5%.
BLANK PAGE
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effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*2018653272-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_22_2021_1.3
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2
Tandeep is planning to set up a toy shop in country Z. He worked for a toy manufacturer for 10
years. Tandeep thinks he has enough knowledge of toys and customer needs to start his own
business.
Tandeep plans to sell a large range of toys which will include products for all ages of children from
babies through to teenagers. The toys will all be well known brands and aimed at higher income
groups. The most popular product is likely to be toy cars. Tandeep also plans to sell a range of
accessories for babies such as pushchairs (strollers) which he may have to import. Making sure
there is inventory to always meet demand is very important to the success of TT.
Tandeep has a loan of $40 000 from his family to invest in the business. He wants to set up as a
private limited company. He knows that he will need working capital to run his business. He may
offer credit to some customers for more expensive items such as nursery furniture. Tandeep knows
that there are several legal controls to protect consumers.
Tandeep has been looking at locations for his toy shop. He has identified two locations to choose
between as outlined in Appendix 1.
Tandeep will need to recruit several employees to work in his shop. He plans to recruit a shop
manager and 5 sales assistants. Tandeep will carry out all the administration. As part of the
recruitment process he will need to produce job descriptions, job specifications and then shortlist
applicants.
Appendix 1
Location A
The shop is located in a popular shopping mall in the city centre. Parking is expensive and the rent
is high. The mall is open from 8.00 to 22.00 every day. There are several other toy shops located
in the mall as well as banks, a cinema and children’s playground.
Location B
The shop is located on a busy street in a local town. There are many other shops and a street
market in the area. Local people frequently visit the shopping area to buy food. Parking is always
available and is free. The rent is low. There are no other toy shops in the town.
Appendix 2
Appendix 3
Rent and
500 500 500 500 500 500
wages
Purchases of
300 100 100 100 100 100
inventory
Shop
40 000
equipment
Opening
40 000 (200) 200 600 1000 2 400
balance
Closing
(200) 200 600 1 000 2 400 3 800
balance
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the
scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Amount of money left after all costs have been subtracted from revenue. [2]
1(c) Identify four ways to measure the size of a business 4 Only award the first four responses given.
1(d) Explain one way each stakeholder’s objectives might conflict with 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
BKH’s objective to increase profit. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2). the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2).
• Insurance (of house or car)
Points might include: • 18 (locations)
• 2000 (employees)
Customers • Public limited company
• Shareholders
• May want low prices / value for money [k] when buying insurance • Takeover or expand.
[app] which could reduce revenue [an]
• Desire high-quality customer service [k] which requires more than Other appropriate examples in context can
2000 staff [app] increasing costs/expenses [an] be credited.
• May want offices in more locations [k] than 18 [app] which could
increase costs [an]
Employees
• May want high/regular pay [k] for its 2000 employees [app] which
could lead to higher costs [an]
• May require job security / contract [k] after the takeover [app]
• Job satisfaction / motivation / training / promotion [k]
1(e) Do you think economies of scale are the most important reason for 6 This is a general question so there are no
taking over another business? Justify your answer. marks for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant issues. Two knowledge marks are available for
examples of economies of scale.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Lower average unit costs may be [k] or [an]
Award up to 2 marks for justified decision as to whether economies of scale but do not credit the same point twice.
are the most important reason for taking over another business.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
2(b) Calculate PJA’s gross profit margin. Show your working. 2 0.45 alone = 0
2(c) Outline one benefit and one limitation to PJA of developing new 4 Note: To use words from the stem as
products. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to
Award 1 mark for each relevant benefit/limitation. the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Points might include:
• Correct use of data from table 2.1
Benefit: • Clothes
• Fashion
• Attract new customers / sales / growth [k] for its clothes [app] • 16–25-year-olds / young customers
• Need to replace products in decline / keep up with changing customer • Local
tastes [k] of 16–25-year-olds [app] • Factory
• Retain customers / to maintain market share [k] • Multinational companies
• Spread risk / attract new markets / have other products to rely on for • 3 weeks / 21 days.
sales [k]
• Charge a higher price [k] Other appropriate examples in context can
• Improve reputation [k] still be credited.
• Can create a unique selling point [k]
Limitations:
2(d) Explain two ways PJA’s managers can use ratio analysis. 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2). appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to
the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). appropriate for this question:
2(e) Do you think multinational companies always benefit the countries 6 This is a general question so there are no
they operate in? Justify your answer. marks for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant issues. Analysis should focus on the impact on the
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. country.
Award up to 2 marks for justified decision as to whether multinational
companies always benefit the countries, they operate in.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Employees swapping around and doing each specific task for only a limited
time [2]
3(b) State two factors that a service sector business should consider when 2 Only award the first two responses given.
deciding where to locate.
Do not award access to raw materials, as
Award 1 mark per factor. this is not appropriate for a service sector
business.
Points might include:
Do not award answers such as cost alone -
• Customers / level of demand must be explained.
• Cost of rent/taxes
• Availability of land/space/parking
• Government assistance
• Cost/availability of labour
• Legal controls
• Competitors / near to other business
• Transport / accessibility / technology / infrastructure or examples such
as electricity, water, gas
• Personal preference of owners
• Climate
3(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to APB of using on-the- 4 Note: To use words from the stem as
job training. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to
Award 1 mark for each relevant advantage/disadvantage. the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Points might include:
• Sole trader
Advantage: • Printing services / leaflets / brochures
• Printing / new machine
• Some output produced while training [k] so able to still print some • 6 employees
brochures [app]
• Costs less than off-the-job [k] and cost might be important issue as he Other appropriate examples in context can
is a sole trader [app] still be credited.
• Specific to business / control what is taught [k] using the printing
machines [app].
Disadvantage:
• Trainer may not produce as much output / potential disruption [k] when
teaching the 6 employees [app]
• Trainer may not have the necessary skills / may not know up-to- date
methods [k] for the new machine [app]
• Trainer may pass on bad habits / may be a poor-quality trainer [k]
• Employees make more mistakes when learning which increases waste
[k]
3(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage of Alex having a 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
democratic leadership style. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage/disadvantage the point being made.
(max 2).
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). appropriate for this question:
3(e) Do you think the amount of money needed is the most important factor 6 This is a general question so there are no
for a sole trader to consider when deciding on an appropriate source marks for application.
of finance? Justify your answer.
To gain both evaluation marks response
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. must clearly relate to a sole trader.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether the amount of money Do not award answers which only identify
needed is the most important factor for a sole trader to consider when sources of finance.
deciding on an appropriate source of finance.
4(a) Define ‘economic growth’. 2 For 2 marks the answer must relate to a
country not individual business.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
High GDP [0]
When a country’s GDP increases / more goods and services are produced
than in the previous year [2]
4(b) Define ‘quality assurance’. 2 Do not credit answers such as check at end
or check final product as this defines quality
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition. control.
Checking for quality standards throughout production process / at every Do not credit explanations of why it is done
stage [2] e.g. manufacturer wants product to be
perfect.
Partial definition e.g. checking work done [1]
4(c) Outline two reasons why building customer relationships might be 4 Note: To use words from the stem as
important to TGH. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to
Award 1 mark for each relevant reason. the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Points might include:
• Personalised
• Increase sales [k] of phone cases [app] • (Mobile/phone) cases
• Customer loyalty/retention [k] when using e-commerce [app] • New business/start-up
• Help build reputation / brand image / act as free advertising [k] for this • Economic growth
new business [app] • Niche market
• Opportunity for feedback / help identify customer needs [k] as operate • E-commerce
in a niche market [app] • 8 employees
• Provide a competitive advantage [k] as other businesses may also set
up because of economic growth [app] Other appropriate examples in context can
still be credited.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
Do not award phones as application as
business does not make them only the
covers.
4(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to TGH of using job 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
production. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage/disadvantage the point being made.
(max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business (max 2). appropriate for this question:
Disadvantages:
• Skilled labour can cost more [k] for the 8 employees [app] which
increases labour costs [an]
• No economies of scale (likely) [k] leading to higher average cost [an]
• Production can take a long time [k] causing lower output / efficiency /
productivity [an]
• Costs are higher as it is labour intensive [k]
• Mistakes can be expensive to correct [k]
4(e) Do you think cost-plus is the best pricing method for a new business 6 This is a general question so there are no
to use when selling products to a niche market? Justify your answer. marks for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. To gain both evaluation marks response
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. must clearly relate to a new business
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether cost-plus pricing is the operating in a niche market.
best pricing method for a new business to use when selling products in a
niche market.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
(a) DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
(b) DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
(c) DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
(d) DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
(e) DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
(f) DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
(g) DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners who
marked that paper.
1(a) Define ‘cost-plus pricing’. 2 First mark is for explaining what the ‘plus’ is e.g. profit.
Second for reference to / description of mark-up.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a
partial definition. Price is based on / related to cost of product [0] (reordering
only).
The price is based on the cost of making a product and the
addition of a fixed percentage for profit [2]
1(b) Define ‘marketing mix’. 2 For 2 marks candidates must understand that it involves
four elements AND what it is used for (e.g. help sell
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a products / attract customers / make marketing decisions /
partial definition. market a product).
All activities that go into the marketing of a product or Do not award answers such as 4P’s or 7P’s these do not
service. These activities are often summarised as the four define the term.
P’s – product, promotion, place and price [2]
1(c) Outline two reasons why offering a high quality service 4 Note: To use words from the stem as application, the
might be important for Pamela’s business. reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reason.
The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. question:
1(d) Explain two advantages to Pamela of operating as a 6 Note: To use words from the stem as application, the
sole trader. reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage
(max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business
(max 2). • 30 years
• Photography / posters / calendars / (fashion)
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). magazines / pictures / camera
• Niche market
Points might include: • Cost-plus pricing
• 2 employees
• Keeps all the profit [k] from photography business [app] • High-quality (service)
so has an incentive to (continue to) work hard [an] • Successful business
• Has complete control / makes all the decisions / does
not need to consult with anyone [k] such as the 2 Other appropriate examples in context can still be credited.
employees [app] so able to take decisions more quickly
[an] Do not award points about start-up as business has been
• Own boss [k] operating for 30 years e.g. quick/easy to set up [0],
• Freedom to choose her own holidays / schedule / work requires little capital [0], few legal requirements [tv]
time [k] so can choose time off when the business is
less busy so does not miss out on sales [an]
• Able to keep (financial) information private / do not
need to produce annual accounts [k] so competitors
cannot use information to take away her customers /
market share [an] which can help her stay successful
[app]
• Has close contact with customers / able to offer a more
personal service [k] as it’s a niche market [app] which
can help encourage customer loyalty [an]
1(e) Do you think operating in a niche market will help a 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
small business have a better chance of success than application.
operating in a mass market? Justify your answer.
To access evaluation marks, candidates must identify
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. points for both types of markets.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. To gain both evaluation marks, answer must clearly relate
to a small business.
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether operating
in a niche market will help a small business have a better Do not award definitions of terms as this is NAQ.
chance of success than operating in a mass market.
Advantages of operating in one type of market can be
Points might include: presented as disadvantages of the other option but do not
award the same point twice as mirror answers are not
Niche market: accepted.
• Able to focus more closely on customer’s needs [k]
leading to customer loyalty / good customer relations
[an]
• Less competition [k] less pressure to lower prices /
easier to attract customers [an]
• May be able to set higher prices (for a high status,
exclusive product) [k] so able to have high / increase
profit margin [an]
• Can become expert in the segment [k]
• Small size of market means will not benefit from
economies of scale [k] leading to higher average costs
[an]
• Less potential for growth / low potential demand [k]
• Over dependence on single product / less able to
spread risk / vulnerable to changes in consumer
spending patterns [k]
• Likely to attract competition if successful [k]
2(b) State two ways a business can increase productivity. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
2(c) Identify four sources of internal finance a business 4 Only award the first four responses given.
might use.
Four from:
• (Retained) profit
• Sale of (existing) non-current assets
• Sale of inventories / reduce inventory levels / sell
current assets
• Owner’s savings
• Reduce trade receivables / ask customers to pay more
quickly / reduce time given for customers to pay
2(d) Explain two possible effects on NPX’s cash-flow 6 Note: To use words from the stem as application, the
forecast of introducing the new technology. reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant effect (max
2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this
business (max 2). • $40 000
• 35 / 60 full-time (employees) / redundant
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2.) • Correct use of data e.g. $110 000 cash outflow in
September
Points might include: • Online retailer
• Warehouse
• Higher repayment costs / initial cost to buy machinery [k] • Selecting and packing items
which increases cash outflow [an] as need to pay • To improve productivity
$40 000 [app]
• Internal/external source of finance
• Reduce wage costs [k] as need 35 fewer employees
[app] lowering cash outflow [an]
Other appropriate examples in context can still be credited.
• Increased training costs [k] increasing cash outflows
[an]
For analysis answers must focus on the impact on cash
• Possible redundancy payments [k] increasing cash-
outflow or cash inflow.
outflow [an]
• Sell old machinery / use an external source of finance
[k] which would generate a cash inflow [an]
2(e) Do you think it is better for a tertiary sector business to 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
use full-time employees rather than part-time application.
employees? Justify your answer.
Do not award answers about manufacturing/production as
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. question about tertiary sector
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. Do not award definitions or statements such as full-time
employees work longer hours.
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether it is better
for a tertiary sector business to employ full-time workers Do not award vague statements about skills, experience,
rather than part-time employees. tiredness.
• Consistent service / more familiar with business [k] Some points could be awarded as [k] or [an] but do not
which helps build / maintain customer relationships / award same point twice.
better reputation [an]
• Workers likely to be loyal / more committed / less likely to To gain both evaluation marks, response must clearly
leave business [k] reducing recruitment costs [an] relate to a tertiary sector business.
• Easy to communicate / update (compared to part-time
employees) [k] leading to fewer errors /
misunderstandings [an]
• Need to recruit / train fewer employees [k] saving time
or cost of recruitment / training [an]
2(e) Part-time:
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a Do not award also ‘known as overhead costs’ as this does
partial definition. not define the term.
OR Costs that do not vary in the short run with the number
of items sold or produced. [2]
3(b) Calculate the margin of safety for product X in 2020. 2 Award only 1 mark if 7500 is written as part of the answer
Show your working. but is not given as the final answer.
Award 2 marks for correct answer. Award 1 mark for correct Where candidates present their answer with a $ sign
method but incorrect answer. award only 1 mark as this is not a financial value.
Correct answer: 7500 (units) [2] If correct answer given with no working shown, award 2
marks.
Correct method but incorrect answer:
3(c) Outline two advantages to GHT of having a short chain 4 Note: To use words from the stem as application, the
of command. reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant advantage.
The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. question:
3(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to GHT of 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
using job rotation to improve employee motivation. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the
point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant
advantage/disadvantage (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this
business (max 2). • Steel / gates / garage doors
• 600 employees
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • Public limited company
• 22 500 (break-even output)
Points might include: • 30 000 (units sold)
• $100 (price per unit)
Advantage: • $900 000 (fixed costs)
• $60 (variable cost per unit)
• (As work more varied) fewer workers might leave [k]
from its 600 employees [app] leading to lower Other appropriate examples in context can still be credited.
recruitment costs [an]
• Business has a more flexible / skilled workforce / Do not award motivate or demotivate employees as stated
multiskilling [k] leading to higher productivity / higher in the question.
output [an]
• Easier to cover / replace others when someone is
absent [k] so may be able to meet an order on time [an]
• Can help business identify where employees work best
[k]
3(d) Disadvantage:
3(e) Do you think the shareholders are the most important 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
stakeholder group to the success of a limited application.
company? Justify your answer.
Candidates may focus on other stakeholders, but the
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. evaluation must focus on whether shareholders are the
most important stakeholder to the success of a limited
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. company.
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether To gain both evaluation marks, response must clearly
shareholders are the most important stakeholder group to relate to a limited company.
the success of a limited company.
Shareholders/owners
• Provide finance / invest money / capital in business [k]
which can help the business expand / buy more equipment
[an] so can increase output [an]
• Influence the aims of the business [k]
• Have the power to vote out the directors [k]
• They have little / no influence over day-to-day decisions
[k]
4(a) Define ‘primary sector’. 2 Do not award examples as this does not answer the
question.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a
partial definition. For 2 marks need to understand extraction of raw
materials or they are raw materials / natural resources
Extracts and uses the natural resources of the earth to gathered for use by other businesses.
produce raw materials used by other businesses [2]
4(b) Identify two government economic objectives. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
Two from:
4(c) Outline one external benefit and one external cost that 4 Note: To use words from the stem as application, the
Raul’s business activity might create. reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Award 1 mark per external benefit/external cost.
The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Points might include: question:
4(d) Explain two advantages to Raul’s business of selling 6 Note: To use words from the stem as application, the
direct to a manufacturer. reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage
(max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this
business (max 2). • (Small) farm
• Oranges
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • Primary sector
• 600 tonnes
Points might include: • Export business / manufacturer in another country
• (Sell direct to) drinks manufacturer
• No need for intermediaries / middlemen [k] increasing • Quotas/tariffs
profit margin [an] for the farm [app]
• More predictable demand [k] which makes planning Other appropriate examples in context can still be credited.
easier [an]
• Better understand customer needs [k] such as which Do not award country Z or E as application.
type of oranges [app] which can help maintain customer
loyalty / sales [an] Do not award manufacturer as [app] as stated in question.
• Can sell in large quantity / does not need to deliver to
many businesses [k] as sell all to drinks manufacturer
[app] which can reduce distribution / transport cost [an]
• Less paperwork / saves time as have to deal with fewer
/ one customer [k] which reduces administration costs
[an]
• Less / no need for marketing [k] as does not need to
find retailers to buy his oranges [app] which reduces
cash outflows [an]
4(e) Do you think the introduction of import tariffs is likely 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
to have a greater effect than the introduction of import application.
quotas on an exporting business? Justify your answer.
To access evaluation marks must have at least identified
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. relevant points for both tariffs and quotas.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. To gain both evaluation marks, response must clearly
relate to an exporting business.
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether the
introduction of import tariffs is likely to have greater effect
than the introduction of import quotas on an exporting
business.
Tariffs
Quotas
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
• The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
• If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
• Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
• Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
1(a) Explain four reasons for changes in the relative importance of the 8
primary, secondary and tertiary sectors in a country.
One mark for each reason for the change (maximum of 2).
For example: Incomes have increased (1) and consumers have more
purchasing power for manufactured goods increasing the importance of the
secondary sector (1).
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
Clash of • If the other two businesses that have been taken over
business have very different cultures and ways of doing things –
cultures may have clashes between staff
(as a result • Employees not working effectively together as
of growth by leadership styles were different at the two
takeovers) companies – reduced efficiency as output per employee
drops
• Resistance by workers to do things differently – reduces
efficiency – workers demotivated after the takeover
2(a) Explain two reasons why it is important for FO to manage all of its 8
resources effectively when manufacturing products.
2(b) Consider the benefits and limitations of the following three methods of 12
communication FO could use. Which method of communication would
be most suitable when contacting suppliers about a late delivery?
Justify your answer.
• Email
• Mobile (cell) phone
• Letter
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
3(a) Explain how one internal source and one external source of finance 8
could be used by FO as it expands.
Internal
• Retained profit – nothing to repay / no interest to pay – keeps expenses
down
• Sale of existing non-current assets – these might be unused equipment
and not affect existing production levels
• Sale of inventories to reduce inventory levels
External
• Bank loan – easier to obtain due to previous business success –
repayments can be spread out over several years
• New share issue – existing shareholders may be willing to increase their
investment due to business success – may be able to attract more family
and friends for investment in new capital
• Grants and subsidies from the government – funds may be available from
the government to support sustainable businesses – FO would qualify for
these grants – do not have to be repaid
• Debentures
• Crowd-funding
For example: Bank loan (1) is easier to obtain due to previous business
success (1) over the last 20 years (app). Repayments can be spread out over
several years (1).
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
3(b)
Recommendation • Direct to customer should be chosen as FO sells
furniture that is not bought in large quantities by
customers and a higher price can be charged.
Wholesalers may not convey the sustainable
features of the furniture to smaller retailers so
fewer sales. Retailer may take part of the profit
margin reducing the profit for FO.
• If FO use a wholesaler or a retailer to sell its
furniture FO will need to discount the price so it
will make less profit from these methods of
distribution.
• Customers pay a high price for furniture if sold
direct to the customer so it will allow FO to make a
high profit margin on each item of furniture.
Contribution (Selling price per unit $250 – Variable cost per unit $125) = $125
4(b) Refer to Appendix 2 and Appendix 3 and other information. Consider the 12
following three ways FO could use to contribute to sustainable
development:
• only use raw materials from sources that replace what they have
used
• only use packaging that can be recycled
• only use electric vehicles to deliver products.
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
4(b)
Recommendation • Using wood from sustainable sources would
enhance the image of FO and make it more
attractive to ethical consumers leading to much
higher sales and revenue leading to maximising
profit. However, as furniture are large items then
packaging will be less important. Electric vehicles
will require too large a capital investment.
• Recycled packaging will have the greatest effect
on maximising profit as very little packaging is
used for furniture and this packaging can be
reused for future customers. The increase in costs
is likely to be less than the 20% increase from the
use of raw materials from sustainable sources.
• Electric vehicles is the only option which results in
a fall in variable costs – by 5% and therefore the
reduction in running costs delivering its furniture
to all parts of the country would be significant
hence reducing total costs and maximising profit.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2021 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
• The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
• If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
• Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
• Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
Advantages
• Raise capital from the sale of shares – may raise more capital than if a
sole trader / partnership
• Limited liability – will not lose personal possessions if business fails
• Separate legal identity – company can be sued instead of the owners
• Continuity
• Cannot be taken over without the consent of the shareholders
Disadvantages
• Cannot sell shares to the public / cannot be sold on the stock exchange
– as can only be sold to family and friends so restricts the capital that
can be raised from share issue
• Legal formalities setting up the company – have to complete paperwork
to register the company which takes time and money
• Accounts / financial statements are available for the public to see
• Not easy to transfer shares – as must have the approval of the other
shareholders
• Financial statements need to be audited each year – increase in annual
expenses
For example: Capital can be raised from the sale of shares (1) and this may
provide more finance than if just owners’ savings are used if a sole trader.
(1)
1(b) Consider the following three factors that affect the location of TT’s 12
shop. Which of the locations in Appendix 1 should Tandeep choose?
Justify your answer.
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
2(a) Explain one likely advantage and one likely disadvantage for Tandeep 8
if he decides to import the pushchairs (strollers) he sells.
For example: This may mean Tandeep will have a wider range of
pushchairs in the shop (1) and this may appeal to high income customers
who are their target market (app) meaning Tandeep will have higher sales
(1). Meeting these customer needs should ensure the business makes a
profit and is successful in the future (1).
Application might include: toys, nursery, toy shop, toy manufacturer, shop
manager, 5 sales assistants, administration tasks; higher income groups,
babies, accessories. ‘Pushchairs (strollers)’ is included in the question and
therefore cannot be rewarded as application.
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
For example: Tandeep may use the cash-flow forecast to take to the bank to
support the application for an overdraft (1) as in the first month of trading he
will need to borrow $200 to keep trading (app). This will allow TT to make a
successful start even though Tandeep does not have sufficient funds to start
with (1) but TT will quickly be able to pay the overdraft back in the following
month (1).
Application might include: toys, nursery, toy shop, toy manufacturer, shop
manager, 5 sales assistants, administration tasks, information from
Appendix 3 cash-flow forecast.
3(b) Consider how a job description, job specification and the shortlist of 12
candidates will be helpful in the recruitment process for TT. Which is
the most important stage to ensure Tandeep recruits the best person
to be a manager at TT? Justify your answer.
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
Job • Outlines the duties of the job – sets out clearly what
description the toy shop manager will be expected to do – more
likely to get suitable applicants as they will know what
is required of them and if they will be able to carry out
the necessary tasks
• Makes it clear what the applicant should be able to do
– if they cannot do these tasks necessary to manage
the toy shop then they should not apply for the job
• Helps to ensure only suitable people apply for the job
as they are clear about the roles and responsibilities
of the position
Job • Makes it clear what qualifications, experience and
specification skills are required for the job
• Makes it easier for Tandeep to decide between
candidates as to who may be most suitable for the
manager of the toy shop – as qualifications, skills,
personal qualities and experience are listed
• Easier for candidates to see if they could do the job
and therefore decide whether to apply for the job –
people without the necessary qualifications should
not apply – less time is wasted reading through
applications that are not suitable
• Easier when shortlisting applicants for interview to
select the most suitable people
Shortlisting • Selects the most suitable applicants to interview so
less time wasted with unsuitable people for the job of
manager of the toy shop
• May use references to help shortlist applicants to
remove unsuitable people even though the application
form may make the person seem most suitable
Conclusion • A job description makes it clear what the job requires
and therefore it is easier for Tandeep to know what
tasks in the toy shop he wants the applicant to be
able to do. It is no good shortlisting unsuitable
applicants and the job specification only lists skills
and qualifications but does not give details of the job
of manager of the toy shop. Therefore, a job
description is the most important
• A job specification is most important as it makes it
clear what qualifications, experience and skills are
required to be the manager of the toy shop. Without
this an unsuitable person may be recruited and
someone without the necessary experience could not
do the job
• Without shortlisting Tandeep could waste a lot of time
interviewing unsuitable applicants for the job of
manager when they may not know anything about toy
shops
4(a) Explain four reasons why the level of inventory is important to TT. 8
For example: To ensure demand can be met to avoid losing customers (1)
for pushchairs/strollers (app).
Application could include: toys, nursery, toy shop, toy manufacturer, shop
manager, 5 sales assistants, administration tasks, pushchairs/strollers,
nursery furniture, well known brands of toys, target market is higher income
groups, products aimed for all ages of children from babies to teenagers,
meeting demand is seen as important, start-up business, accessories.
4(b) Consider how the following three legal controls will affect TT. Which 12
legal control will have the greatest effect on TT? Justify your answer.
• No misleading promotion
• All goods must be safe for the consumer
• Restrictions on the type of packaging allowed
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
4(b)
Conclusion • As TT is a toy shop it will need to make sure its
advertising of toys is not misleading because it may
gain a bad reputation if claims about the toys it sells
are not true, so this is the most important legal control
for TT. It can easily make sure it does not advertise
lower price sales when the prices have not been
reduced. Packaging is likely to be provided by the toy
manufacturer and so is unlikely to affect TT. As TT
sells branded goods then these are all likely to have
been tested and are safe for children.
• Toys being safe will have the greatest effect on TT if
this legal control is not followed as TT could be sued
for damages and this will raise its costs and result in a
bad reputation leading to lower sales at the toy shop.
• Restrictions on the type of packaging will have the
greatest effect on TT as the toy manufacturer may
have to increase its prices to TT and therefore TT may
need to raise its prices leading to lower demand and
revenue.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_11_2021_1.2
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2
1 BKH is a large public limited company. It has 2 000 employees across 18 locations. BKH sells a
range of insurance products including house and car insurance. BKH’s shareholders want the
business to increase profit. The Managing Director knows increasing profit can conflict with the
objectives of other stakeholder groups. She said: ‘Private sector businesses have different objectives
to public sector organisations.’ BKH is also planning to expand by taking over another insurance
company.
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Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 3: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 4: ...............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one way each stakeholder’s objectives might conflict with BKH’s objective to increase
profit.
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(e) Do you think economies of scale are the most important reason for taking over another
business? Justify your answer.
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2 PJA make fashion clothing for 16-25 year olds. Many of its competitors are multinational companies.
PJA produce new products every 3 weeks. All PJA’s products are made in a local factory because
of import quotas. The Managing Director is reviewing PJA’s financial statements using ratio analysis.
An extract is shown in Table 2.1.
Table 2.1
Extract from PJA’s financial statements for 2020
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
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(c) Outline one benefit and one limitation to PJA of developing new products.
Benefit: .............................................................................................................................
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Limitation: .........................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two ways PJA’s managers can use ratio analysis.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think multinational companies always benefit the countries they operate in? Justify
your answer.
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3 Alex started APB as a sole trader business 4 years ago. APB provide printing services for local
businesses such as leaflets and brochures. Alex thinks having a good location is important to any
business. All APB’s 6 employees receive on-the-job training. Alex has a democratic leadership
style and uses job rotation to help keep employees motivated. To meet an increase in demand,
Alex plans to buy an additional printing machine. This will cost $1 800. Alex has to decide on an
appropriate source of finance.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) State two factors that a service sector business should consider when deciding where to
locate.
Factor 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 2: ...........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to APB of using on-the-job training.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage of Alex having a democratic leadership style.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think the amount of money needed is the most important factor for a sole trader to
consider when deciding on an appropriate source of finance? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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4 Economic growth in country X has created many opportunities for new businesses such as TGH.
TGH manufacture a range of personalised mobile (cell) phone cases using job production. Quality
assurance is important to all 8 employees. TGH operate in a niche market. The Marketing Manager
uses e-commerce as TGH’s channel of distribution. She is considering ways to build customer
relationships.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two reasons why building customer relationships might be important to TGH.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to TGH of using job production.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think cost-plus is the best pricing method for a new business to use when selling
products to a niche market? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_12_2021_1.1
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2
1 Pamela is a sole trader. She started her successful photography business 30 years ago. She
specialises in taking pictures of people and places for use in posters, calendars and fashion
magazines. It is a niche market. Pamela uses cost-plus pricing as part of her marketing mix. Offering
a high quality service is important to Pamela and her 2 employees.
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two reasons why offering a high quality service might be important for Pamela’s
business.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2:.....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think operating in a niche market will help a small business have a better chance of
success than operating in a mass market? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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2 NPX is an online retail business. All orders are sent directly to customers from its warehouse. NPX
employs 60 full-time workers. The Operations Manager is analysing NPX’s cash-flow forecast. An
extract is shown in Table 2.1. To improve productivity, the manager plans to introduce new
technology that can select and pack all the items for each order. This will make 35 workers redundant.
The technology will cost $40 000. The manager is considering using either internal sources or
external sources to finance this technology.
Table 2.1
NPX’s cash-flow forecast for the period July – September 2021 ($000)
Opening balance 5 15 45
Closing balance 15 45 75
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Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
Source 1: ..........................................................................................................................
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Source 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Source 3: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Source 4: ..........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two possible effects on NPX’s cash-flow forecast of introducing the new technology.
Effect 1: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Effect 2: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think it is better for a tertiary sector business to use full-time employees rather than
part-time employees? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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3 GHT is a public limited company. It produces steel products including gates and garage doors.
GHT has a flat organisational structure and a short chain of command. GHT has many stakeholder
groups including 600 employees. The Managing Director is considering introducing job rotation to
improve employee motivation. He has also been analysing some financial data. An extract is shown
in Table 3.1.
Table 3.1
Extract of revenue and cost data for one of GHT’s products (product X)
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to GHT of using job rotation to improve employee
motivation.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think the shareholders are the most important stakeholder group to the success of a
limited company? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
4 Raul owns a small farm that grows oranges. His farm is based in country Z. Like all primary sector
activities, farming creates external costs and external benefits. Raul sells all 600 tonnes of his
oranges direct to a drinks manufacturer in country E. The Government of country E plan to introduce
either import tariffs or quotas. Raul said: ‘This might help country E’s Government achieve one of
its economic objectives but how will it affect companies that export to country E?’
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Objective 1: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Objective 2: .......................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline one external benefit and one external cost that Raul’s business activity might create.
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [4]
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think the introduction of import tariffs is likely to have a greater effect than the
introduction of import quotas on an exporting business? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_21_2021_1.5
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2
1 (a) Explain four reasons for changes in the relative importance of the primary, secondary and
tertiary sectors in a country.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Reason 3:..........................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 4: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following three problems for FO as it grows through takeovers. Which problem
will be the easiest for FO to overcome? Justify your answer.
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
2 (a) Explain two reasons why it is important for FO to manage all of its resources effectively when
manufacturing products.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation:.......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the benefits and limitations of the following three methods of communication FO
could use. Which method of communication would be most suitable when contacting suppliers
about a late delivery? Justify your answer.
• Email
• Mobile (cell) phone
• Letter
Email: ................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Letter: ...............................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
3 (a) Explain how one internal source and one external source of finance could be used by FO as
it expands.
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages to FO of using a wholesaler, retailer or selling
direct to the customer when distributing its products. Which channel of distribution should FO
use? Justify your answer.
Wholesaler: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Retailer: ............................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ [2]
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ [2]
Limitation 1:............................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
Limitation 2:............................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
Limitation 3:............................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
Limitation 4:............................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................ [4]
(b) Refer to Appendix 2 and Appendix 3 and other information. Consider the following three ways
FO could use to contribute to sustainable development:
• only use raw materials from sources that replace what they have used
• only use packaging that can be recycled
• only use electric vehicles to deliver products.
Which way should FO choose to maximise profit? Justify your answer.
Only use raw materials from sources that replace what they have used: ........................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_22_2021_1.3
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2
1 (a) Explain two advantages and two disadvantages of setting up a business as a private limited
company.
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage 1: ................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage 2: ................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following three factors that affect the location of TT’s shop. Which of the locations
in Appendix 1 should Tandeep choose? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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Rent: .................................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
2 (a) Explain one likely advantage and one likely disadvantage for Tandeep if he decides to import
the pushchairs (strollers) he sells.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation:.......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation:.......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Refer to Appendix 2 and other information. Consider the advantages and disadvantages of
TT purchasing toy cars either from a wholesaler or manufacturer. Which channel of distribution
should TT choose? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
3 (a) Explain two reasons why the cash-flow forecast in Appendix 3 is important to TT.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider how a job description, job specification and the shortlist of candidates will be helpful
in the recruitment process for TT. Which is the most important stage to ensure Tandeep recruits
the best person to be a manager at TT? Justify your answer.
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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4 (a) Explain four reasons why the level of inventory is important to TT.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 3: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 4: .........................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider how the following three legal controls will affect TT. Which legal control will have the
greatest effect on TT? Justify your answer.
• No misleading promotion
• All goods must be safe for the consumer
• Restrictions on the type of packaging allowed
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
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BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/11
Short Answer/Data Response
Key messages
• Centres should be reminded that all aspects of the syllabus will be assessed at some stage.
• As in previous sessions candidates should be reminded to learn precise definitions for all key terms
and to use a different point of application and analysis for each point of knowledge. A point can only
be credited once within a given answer.
• Effective evaluation is an area which continues to require development. Candidates should be
reminded that evaluation must include a justified decision that follows on from the points raised in the
answer. A repetition of points already explained in the answer will not gain evaluation marks. The
mark scheme for each part (e) question includes one example of how evaluation may be
demonstrated in the answer.
General comments
Candidates this session found some of the topic areas assessed quite challenging. This was particularly true
of the topics assessed in Questions 2 and 4. Candidates had quite limited knowledge of some aspects of
these topics. This led to candidates trying to alter the questions asked to fit with their knowledge base. This
was most noticeable in Questions 3(d) and 4(c).
Candidates would benefit from a greater knowledge of topics 1.5.3, 2.1.1, 2.4.2 and 6.2.
Question 1
(a) Candidates were generally aware of this term. Weaker responses lost marks by stating that prices
would be lower than competitors. Such answers were too vague to be credited as predatory and
penetration pricing methods set price below competitors. The key point of difference is that
competitive pricing is set in line or slightly below the competitor’s price.
(b) The precise meaning of this term was not well understood. The strongest candidates were aware
that this was a future financial plan for the promotional activities of the business. Many candidates
gained one mark for some understanding that this is money spent on marketing.
(c) Candidates clearly understood this topic, and many gained both knowledge marks available. Some
candidates struggled to apply their knowledge to the question set or the business in the stem of the
question. Weaker responses described the benefits of e-commerce not the threats.
(d) This question produced a range of responses. The best answers explained how loyalty cards and
communicating with customers could be used in a small gift shop. Some candidates lost marks by
suggesting general promotional activities, or sales, which were not related to existing customers.
Even the strongest candidates struggled to develop their answers fully to gain both explanation
marks available. Candidates who simply stated that customers would be loyal gained no analysis
marks.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(e) This was a challenging question for candidates and a mark of one or two was common as many
candidates were not able to provide effective evaluations. The strongest answers recognised that
risk taking is essential for enterprise but that successful enterprises also require the new ideas
generated by creativity. The weakest responses described other entrepreneurial characteristics
which were not rewardable.
Question 2
(a) Well answered by many candidates. A common error was to confuse a public sector (government
owned) business with a public limited company.
(b) This calculation was not well understood. Many candidates thought incorrectly that the margin of
safety was the difference between maximum output and break-even output. Some candidates did
not attempt this question.
(c) This question required application to the business in the question stem. The strongest candidates
recognised that inflation would increase manufacturing costs, lower sales, and therefore impact
upon the break-even output for this bed manufacturer. A mark of three was common as many
candidates struggled to find a second point of application. The weakest responses stated that
inflation would increase revenues and profit for the business as prices would rise.
(d) Candidates found this to be one of the more challenging questions on the examination paper. The
strongest candidates were able to explain how the flexibility and staff motivation benefits of batch
production could assist this bed producer. Candidates who were able to explain why batch is
cheaper than job production gained marks. However, candidates who simply stated that batch is
cheaper or quicker were not rewarded.
(e) Candidates showed strong knowledge of environmental issues, but many did not focus their
answers correctly on the question set. Frequently answers lacked the required business
perspective. The strongest candidates explained the benefit of improved reputation on sales and
the cost of buying new equipment or materials. Very few were able to make effective evaluative
comments such as those suggested in the mark scheme. A significant number of candidates
applied their answers to the business outlined in the question stem although application marks are
not available in part (e) questions.
Question 3
(a) Candidates showed strong understanding of shareholders, but many were unaware of this term.
Many candidates confused this with dividends.
(b) A wide variety of suitable financial statements were given in answer to this question. Some
candidates however, provided financial words which could be part of a statement such as profit or
revenue. These answers were not rewardable.
(d) This question produced a range of responses. Candidates had a stronger understanding of the use
of accounts to shareholders than to suppliers. Candidates frequently repeated the same application
point in both parts of the question which could only be rewarded once. Some candidates thought
that accounts meant the bank account of the business. Such candidates often explained in detail
how money could be transferred between stakeholders and gained zero marks. Several candidates
did not attempt this question.
(e) Candidates struggled to gain the analysis and evaluation marks available in this question, many
simply identified two other factors that should be considered when making a location decision. The
strongest answers focussed on the view that a labour-intensive manufacturer would not produce
without suitable labour, but that this would be less important for capital intensive production.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 4
(a) Candidates frequently identified general objectives which could apply to any organisation, such as
gaining profit or government objectives, such as economic growth. Only the strongest candidates
provided the objectives as stated in the mark scheme.
(b) Very few candidates provided precise definitions of this term. Many gained one mark by showing
some awareness that it concerns how information is passed in an organisation. Some candidates
incorrectly defined other aspects of the organisation chart such as span of control or hierarchy.
(c) This was the most difficult question on the exam paper for many candidates. Very few candidates
showed clear understanding of Herzberg’s motivators. The best responses identified an action,
such as promotion of doctors, which linked to Herzberg’s recognition or achievement. Many
candidates either attempted to use Maslow’s hierarchy or described hygiene factors such as
improved pay. These responses gained zero marks. A noticeable number of candidates did not
attempt this part of the question.
(d) There were few good answers to this question. Candidates who explained the need for feedback or
delayering often scored highly. Such candidates were able to clearly apply their answers to the
situation described in the question stem. A significant number of candidates repeated similar
solutions when discussing both messages lost and the use of jargon, this limited their ability to gain
marks. A small but significant number of candidates did not attempt this question.
(e) A mark of 2 or 3 was common on this question. Candidates were aware that external recruitment
would provide a wider choice of applicants and new skills. Very few candidates could explain why
these would be beneficial to a firm and therefore gain the analysis marks available. Those that did
often gained a mark by explaining the potential to recruit the best person for the job. Some
candidates stated that costs would be higher when recruiting externally but could not explain why
this would be the case. Many candidates stated that internal recruits would not require training,
showing a lack of understanding that promotion usually requires some form of training.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/12
Short Answer/Data Response
Key messages
• Candidates need to be able to provide clear and precise definitions of business terms.
• Many candidates missed application marks. Candidates should be encouraged to use information from
the stem to help answer part (c) and part (d) questions as this provides the basis for application.
• Candidates should use a different point of application for each point made. The same analysis point
should not be used for both points within the same question.
• Evaluation is more than a decision, or a summary of earlier points made. Evaluation requires candidates
to make a supported judgement which should follow on from points raised in the answer. It should
clearly answer the question set. An example of an answer which includes evaluation can be found in the
mark scheme for each part (e) question.
General comments
This paper included some topics which candidates found challenging. It is important to remember that any
area of the syllabus can be assessed. Many candidates showed good knowledge of concepts but found
accessing the application, analysis and evaluation marks more difficult.
Parts (a) and (b) of each question were generally well attempted. However, many candidates lacked the
necessary precision in their definitions or range of knowledge to access all the marks available.
For most part (c) (excluding 4c which only assessed knowledge) and all part (d) questions, it is important
candidates use the information from the stem to link their answers to the context. This helps ensure that any
point raised are appropriate to the business. Candidates should use a different point of application for each
point made.
Candidates need to be aware of which skills are being assessed in each question. Many continue to include
analysis in part (c) questions and application in part (e) questions. However, the questions do not assess
these skills so marks cannot be awarded. Part (c) questions either assess knowledge or knowledge and
application whilst part (e) assesses knowledge, analysis and evaluation.
Candidates need to develop their evaluative skills. Of those who did attempt an evaluative comment, most
were unable to provide reasoned statements to back up the decision made. One approach is to make a
choice, provide a reason for this decision and then explain why it is better than the alternative option or
viewpoint discussed.
Question 1
(a) Most candidates understood that current liabilities were debts that needed to be repaid. Stronger
responses were able to provide a precise definition. A common mistake was to refer to ‘short-term’
which was too vague as candidates needed to specify that repayment had to be made in less than
12 months. Some candidates confused the term with non-current liabilities or current assets.
(b) This question was well answered by most candidates. A common error was to identify examples of
current assets. Some candidates repeated similar points for both answers which could only be
awarded once.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(c) Most responses identified at least one reason, with pay day-to-day expenses being a typical
response. Better responses then linked points to the context to access application marks. A
common mistake was to select similar points which had been classified together in the mark
scheme. For example, paying wages and paying suppliers are both examples of day-to-day costs
so this is classed as repetition. Some candidates wrongly assumed that liquidity is used to measure
profit.
(d) This question produced a range of responses. Stronger responses recognised that delegation
might increase employee motivation or allow managers time to focus on other tasks. These points
were then developed to show how they could benefit the business in terms of higher productivity or
better decision making. Good application was evident in many answers, as candidates correctly
mentioned the business had 4 managers, 30 employees or that it sold gardening products. Weaker
responses tended to lack precision. For example, some recognised motivation could increase but
forgot to say whether this referred to the manager or employees. Others ignored the fact that the
business was a retailer, therefore any references to increased production could not be awarded as
analysis.
(e) This was one of the most challenging questions on the paper. Even the best responses struggled
to gain more than two or three marks. Those who did well often focused on the advantages of other
methods that an established business might use, such as cost-plus or promotional pricing. These
answers recognised cost-plus pricing may allow the business to cover costs which may not be
possible using competitive pricing. However, many candidates struggled to access the knowledge
marks. A common mistake was to assume that competitive pricing involved setting lower prices or
it would automatically attract customers. Other candidates defined the terms which was
unnecessary. Many discussed methods such as price skimming and penetration pricing which were
not appropriate. There were also vague statements about higher or low prices. Some candidates
attempted to link points to the context but this is a general question so there are no marks available
for application.
Question 2
(a) Many candidates understood that ‘off-the-job’ training was training away from the workplace. The
second mark was often not achieved as the candidate did not mention ‘who’ provided the training
or ‘where’ it would happen. Some candidates wrongly interpreted ‘off-the-job’ as ‘outside of working
hours’ whilst others identified reasons why training was given. A common mistake was to confuse
the term with induction training.
(b) Well answered by most candidates. A common mistake was to identify two reasons from the same
category on the mark scheme. Others identified financial reasons such as provide for basic needs,
which the question did not allow. Candidates should be reminded to read the question carefully.
(c) Methods of motivation was a strong topic for many candidates with a significant number of
responses gaining full marks. A common wrong answer was promotion. This, or points linked to it,
were not accepted as it is classed as a non-financial method. Others offered descriptions of
methods without naming them as the question required. Some candidates missed the opportunity
to gain application marks as they either did not link points to the context or tried to use the same
application for both answers.
(d) This question produced a range of responses. Stronger responses recognised that legal controls
over the environment could result in the business having to reduce the level of production or having
to pay fines. They were then able to develop these points to show the impact on the business in
terms of fewer sales or higher costs. Application to the business was generally good but analysis was
often limited. A common mistake was to misread the question and discuss the impact on the
environment or to focus on other areas of legal controls not related to the environment such as
Health and Safety or minimum wage. References to ethics were not awarded as this is a different
concept. Some discussed the impact on reputation or brand image, but as legal controls affect all
businesses these answers were not accepted.
(e) This question was poorly answered by most candidates. The best responses recognised that a
reduction in unemployment could result in higher demand or that it might be difficult to recruit
employees. Better responses were able to develop these points to show the positive and negative
impacts on businesses in terms of increased revenue and higher costs. However, many
misunderstood this question and discussed the impact on businesses of recruiting or having more
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
employees. Assumptions such as more people employed means all businesses have more
employees and therefore increased output were common. Evaluation, where attempted, tended to
be a decision without a clear reason to support it.
Question 3
(a) Most candidates could identify a benefit but then found it difficult to identify a cost of developing
new products. Many simply repeated it would be expensive or would cost money to develop which
was stated in the question. Others made vague statements about failure, losses or customers
might not like the product.
(b) Those candidates who knew the formula for break-even output did well on this question. Some
made a mistake by representing the answer as a financial value, by adding the dollar sign ($) so
could not be awarded the second mark. Candidates should be reminded to include formulas in their
answers as often method marks can still be awarded when the final answer is wrong. Other
candidates did not understand the formula, leading to many incorrect answers.
(c) Some candidates clearly understood the concept of margin of safety and correctly outlined ways to
improve it. Application was often awarded for quoting relevant information from the table or by
recognising that the business made cameras. Sometimes the increase or decrease was the wrong way
round while common wrong answers included more advertising or increase production. A few candidates
clearly did not understand the term so outlined ways safety of products or workers could be
improved.
(d) This was one of the most challenging questions on the paper. To access the knowledge marks,
candidates needed to identify both the stage and either the level or purpose of promotion. For
example, at introduction there is likely to be a high level of promotion or promotion is used to raise
awareness. There were many common mistakes. Many candidates did not identify the stage or
simply referred to start, end, peak or declining which were inaccurate. Some identified the stage
but then discussed the impact on pricing or sales, not promotion. Others identified methods of
promotion which the question did not require. One misconception was to assume saturation is a
stage when it is a point in the maturity stage. Others confused the product life cycle with the
business cycle, so used terms such as boom and slump. A small number of candidates did not
understand the concept so discussed whether promotion was the best way to motivate employees.
(e) Good knowledge of production methods was evident in most responses. Stronger answers were
able to develop the points made. Many candidates discussed the merits of other methods, such as
batch production, which opened another way to gain analysis marks. However, all candidates
struggled to access evaluation marks. Weaker answers tended to list points, without developing
them. A common misconception was to assume that high output will automatically lead to an
increase in sales. Others made assumptions about quality which were not credited.
Question 4
(a) This question was well attempted by most candidates. A common mistake was a lack of precision.
This resulted in answers which confused an entrepreneur with a sole trader, investor, or manager.
Many forgot to mention the entrepreneur is responsible for starting the business and not simply
someone who manages, invests or owns it.
(b) It was pleasing to see that many candidates were able to provide a precise definition of opportunity
cost. A common mistake was to mix up which option was being given up so wrongly stated that it
was the alternative which was chosen. Others simply wrote it was the next best alternative without
stating that it was being given up. This was a key omission.
(c) This question only assessed knowledge. Those who did well often achieved three or four marks on
this question. A common mistake was repetition. Many candidates were unable to differentiate
similar points such as lack of finance or liquidity. These are alternative ways of saying the same
thing and not different reasons so can only be awarded once. Candidates need to ensure points
made are clearly distinct from each other.
(d) It was clear that most candidates were familiar with sources of finance. Many candidates also
gained application for references to $700 or that Tom planned to start a window cleaning business,
possibly with his sister. The most popular answers were owner’s savings and bank loans. Stronger
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
candidates recognised that owner’s savings did not need to be repaid but most found it difficult to
explain the benefits of other sources. A common mistake was to focus on the negative aspects such
as bank loans need to be repaid, which did not answer the question. Others identified sources such
as debentures or retained profit which are not options for a start-up business. Some misread the
question so discussed what the business might want to buy rather than how the purchases would
be financed.
(e) Good knowledge was evident in most responses. However, most candidates focused on
knowledge and did not offer any development to show why points such as more ideas or risk of
disagreements would represent an advantage or disadvantage for a new business. Where analysis
marks were gained it was often for an advantage or disadvantage of another form of ownership
such as sole trader. Instead of development most candidates identified additional points, which
restricted answers to two marks as this is the maximum available for knowledge. Some candidates
confused unlimited and limited liability in relation to partnerships and private limited companies.
Attempts at evaluation were rarely successful as if candidates included a decision, they tended to
summarise points already made which does not constitute justification.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/21
Case Study
Key messages
Candidates should be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is apart from one (a)
question that will usually be generic. Applying answers to the case will ensure responses are appropriate for
each given situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both parts (a) and (b) for
application. In this particular case study, candidates were expected to refer to a small bakery that
produces bread. It is advisable for candidates to ask themselves about the size of the business, is it a
service or manufacturer and what is the type of business organisation? This may add to the quality of
their answers.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of positive and negative consequences of a business
decision when this is asked for. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple description;
listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the answer to
Level 2. Few well developed points will score higher marks than a long list of simple statements.
• Several questions on this paper ask candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without full
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case and make reference to why the alternative
option(s) was rejected.
General comments
Candidates had generally been well prepared for this examination and understood what was expected of
them. The context of MB, a small bakery producing bread, provided an accessible scenario for candidates.
Those who applied their answers to the context of MB boosted their marks much further. The majority of
candidates seemed to have time to complete the paper and attempted all questions.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, so
they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. Also the question
should be read carefully to ensure answers are appropriate and clearly address the question asked, such as
answering from the point of view of a business rather than its employees. Many candidates showed good
knowledge and understanding of the full range of the syllabus that was assessed, but in some cases it was
clear that certain topics were not as well understood, the weakest understanding was of lean production
methods and business ethics.
Overall, the standard was good with very few weak scripts. Candidates often provided answers in context
which enabled access to application marks. However, candidates should make sure that different examples
of application are included in each section of (a) questions (not 1(a) on this particular paper) and the
conclusion/recommendation should also be applied to the case in (b) questions. A lack of analysis and
evaluation resulted in answers remaining in the lower-level mark band. Candidates should aim to consider
the consequences/implications/long term/short term/balance issues of the decisions to secure Level 2 or
Level 3 marks in the conclusion/recommendation.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates could name and explain four ways in which governments might support
business start-ups. Many responses mentioned lowering unemployment, increasing GDP and
raising tax revenue. Some candidates found it difficult to develop their answer by including extra
reasoning or detail. For example, supporting a business start-up might be a way of reducing
unemployment so that the government had fewer welfare benefits to pay or increasing GDP would
bring about a raise in living standards for households.
(b) This question required careful reading. It asked for benefits of two specific sections of a business
plan. A significant number of candidates also discussed the drawbacks of sections about market
research and resources which did not answer the question. Consideration of the negative impact of
market research or resources was only given credit in the conclusion to the response. The benefit
of market research was that MB could identify a target market for eating bread and could respond
to the findings by producing baked items which seemed to be popular in the survey. Stronger
responses supported their answer by referring to the 70 per cent of customers who wanted to
purchase cakes as well as bread from the bakery. This research data would help Yasin to confirm
the idea of widening his product range and would help him to devise a marketing plan for his new
launch. The section of the business plan covering details of the resources would help Yasin to
identify the start-up costs of the bakery. Only a few candidates went on to link this to judging
whether he would need some external source of capital. This meant conclusions generally did not
go beyond the lower-level mark band.
Question 2
(a) Knowledge of break-even charts was quite weak amongst many candidates. Many candidates did
not appreciate it was a predictive rather than an analytical tool. However, some of the stronger
responses explained that the chart would help Yasin identify how much bread he would need to
produce and sell to reach the break-even point where there would be no loss but no profit either.
This would allow him to plan effectively to ensure that the minimum quantity was produced to
ensure business survival. The disadvantages of using a break-even chart were not as confidently
explained. There would need to be a separate chart for each product made. Since Yasin was
planning to produce cakes as well as bread this would require more calculations and careful
forecasting of how many cakes he would need to make and sell to reach a different break-even
point.
(b) The majority of candidates found this to be the most challenging question on the paper. There
appeared to be quite weak knowledge of lean production and of Kaizen particularly. Stronger
candidates explained that the two bakery employees might be able to offer suggestions of how
small continuous changes in the bread production might improve the efficiency of the bakery.
Further development pointed out that the flow-through on the production line would reduce the
wastage of time and ingredients so that bread would be produced as quickly as possible and be as
fresh as possible. The disadvantage of using Kaizen would be that the bakery was only small so
only limited changes could be introduced and there would be disruption to production whilst any
reorganisation took place. Candidates had better knowledge of JIT principles. Control of JIT
inventory required that the response was focused on ingredients rather than storage of bread.
Some good responses mentioned that there would be less need for storage space which would cut
wastage of stale flour and yeast, resulting in lower costs of production.
Question 3
(a) Questions about marketing are popular and often well-answered. This question proved accessible
for the majority candidates with many being able to identify billboards, social media, local radio and
posters as suitable methods of advertising the bakery. Some candidates confused advertising with
promotion and suggested free samples, competitions, and food fairs. Application was awarded for
linking the advertising method to the context of a small bakery such as using posters where large
images of the new cake range could tempt customers to buy.
(b) Candidates displayed strong numeracy skills. Many candidates were able to make good use of the
data in Appendix 2 to calculate levels of profit, margin of safety and units of breakeven for both
options of developing the business. Correct calculations of this nature earned Level 2 credit with
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
additional application marks for referring to the appropriate data in the case study and providing
evidence to support a justified decision by the candidate. The best answers earned Level 3 credit
by using the calculated data to explain which option would be a better plan for development and
why the other option would not be such a good choice. Weaker responses simply copied data
about monthly sales, fixed costs and gross profit margin which did not earn any credit.
Question 4
(a) This question was well answered by many candidates. Sound knowledge of democratic leadership
was developed into an explanation of the advantage of employees welcoming the opportunity to
offer ideas and opinions in running the business, making them feel valued and increasing their
motivation. The disadvantage of democratic leadership was less well answered. Some responses
offered mirror image arguments or suggested that Yasin would lose complete control over his
business. A minority of candidates did not score marks because they confused democratic with
autocratic leadership.
(b) The topic of business ethics was not widely known. Some responses offered a general discussion
of the three ways that Yasin could improve the ethical image of MB without referring to ethics at all.
Their focus centred on the impact on profitability rather than a strong moral code and positive
concern for the environment. The discussion about increasing wage rates to 20 per cent above the
legal minimum wage was well covered by some candidates who were able to suggest that MB
would be seen as a caring employer, attracting more applications to join the business whilst
possibly not affecting their ethical image at all if the news about increased wages did not spread
outside the business. Better recommendations did more than offer repeated earlier points and
weighed up the benefits against the drawbacks of each possible action as part of the justification
for the decision made. Their choice took into account the one that would have the most positive
impact on the reputation of the bakery in caring for the environment, community and employees.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/22
Case Study
Key messages
Candidates should be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is apart from one of the
(a) questions which will be generic. Applying answers to the case will ensure responses are appropriate for
each given situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both parts (a) and (b) for
application. In this particular case study, candidates were expected to refer to a business that
manufactures toys for young children. It is advisable for candidates to ask themselves about the size of
the business, is it a service or a manufacturer, and what is the type of business organisation. This may
add to the quality of their answers.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of the positive and negative consequences of a business
decision when this is asked for. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple description;
listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the answer to
Level 2. A few well developed points will score higher marks than a long list of simple statements.
• Several questions on this paper asked candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without full
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case and make reference to why the alternative
option(s) were rejected.
General comments
Candidates had generally been well prepared for this examination and understood what was expected of
them. The context of TT, a manufacturer of toys for young children, provided an accessible scenario for
candidates. Those who applied their answers to the context of TT achieved higher marks. The majority of
candidates seemed to have time to complete the paper and attempted all questions.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, so
they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. They should read
each question carefully to ensure answers are appropriate and clearly address the question asked, such as
answering from the point of view of a business rather than its employees. Many candidates showed good
knowledge and understanding of the full range of the syllabus that was assessed, but in some cases it was
clear that certain topics were not as well understood, the weakest understanding was of economies of scale,
lean production methods and statement of financial position.
Overall, the standard was good with very few weak scripts. Candidates often provided answers in context
which enabled access to application marks. However, candidates should make sure that different examples
of application are included in each section of (a) questions, and that the conclusion/recommendation should
also be applied to the case in (b) questions. A lack of analysis and evaluation resulted in answers remaining
in the lower level mark band. Candidates should consider the consequences/implications / long-term / short-
term / balance issues of the decisions to secure Level 2 or Level 3 marks in the conclusion/recommendation.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates could name and explain two ways the business could grow. Popular
ways were internal and external growth as listed in the syllabus but there were also examples of
internal growth, such as developing a new product and entering new markets, and examples of
external growth, such as merger or takeover of another toy manufacturer. Weaker candidates
found it difficult to explain how the way resulted in growth for TT and provided the benefits of
growth such as increased revenue or profit. Application was often present with answers being in
the context of a new toy being developed or by taking over a toy manufacturer in another country.
(b) This proved to be the most challenging question on the paper. The question asked for benefits of
three specific economies of scale. The majority of candidates could not explain that each of the
economies lead to lower average cost. Vague comments such as costs are lower were often
present when in fact total costs are likely to be higher with the increased output and it is average or
unit costs that are lower. The question asked for benefits and therefore drawbacks were only
appropriate for the conclusion not the main body of the answer. Purchasing economy was the best
understood of the three, but answers often did not go beyond stating that raw materials would be
purchased in bulk leading to discounts. The final link to lower average or unit costs was rarely
made. Technical economy was about increased use of specialised equipment, but the link was
rarely made to increased speed of production leading to lower unit costs. Financial economy was
often just seen as easier to obtain loans at a lower interest rate, but few candidates went on to link
this to a lower cost of borrowing. This meant conclusions generally did not go beyond the lower
level mark band.
Question 2
(a) Just-in-time (JIT), as an example of lean production, was better understood than kaizen by the
majority of candidates. Many candidates gave a generic explanation. Reduced cost of storage was
the most popular explanation for JIT, but answers did not always make it clear why this was the
result. There were vague answers about reduced waste and continuous improvement for kaizen,
but answers did not specify why production was improved. Candidates that did have a clear
understanding of lean production could explain that JIT resulted in raw materials arriving just before
the production of toys which meant that warehouse space was not required for the raw materials
and hence storage costs were saved. Kaizen was explained in several ways such as consulting
employees as to how wasted movement may be saved during the production process to reduce the
time to produce toys, hence efficiency improved. A small number of weaker candidates focused on
the benefits to employees and not to TT. Occasionally there was some confusion between lean
production and flow production.
(b) The majority of candidates could answer this question, but weaker answers did not go beyond
referring to the figures being higher or lower than the previous year, therefore limiting answers to
the lower mark band. Many candidates calculated the current ratio and acid test ratio for 2022 and
gave some explanation of what the figures showed achieving the Level 2 mark band. However, one
error was to write the ratios as a monetary value and another error was to express the ratio as total
assets and liabilities rather than current assets and liabilities. Stronger candidates went on to
include a conclusion that did more than just repeat the earlier statements about the liquidity and
financial position being better or worse than the previous year. Simple copying of the figures
without any comparison between the years or comments on what the figures showed did not gain
any credit.
Question 3
(a) This question proved accessible for the majority candidates with many being able to make it clear
how the information provided in the charts might be useful to TT. The first two charts were most
likely to be answered well for recognising that chart one provided information about the potential
market in the new country while chart two indicated the ease with which TT might be able to recruit
employees for its new factory or the disposable income of potential customers and hence potential
demand. Weaker candidates confused chart three with that of competitors in the market rather than
indicating which distribution channels TT should use and chart four occasionally saw confusion
around the market share with selling shares in a business. Application was awarded for use of the
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
information in the appendix as part of the explanation. However, some weaker candidates just
repeated what the chart showed rather than how it was useful for TT.
(b) Many candidates found this question easy to write an extensive answer to, but often it just referred
to the same response for each applicant, such as speaks 2 languages so can communicate well,
speaks 1 language so communication might be difficult. Many candidates thought more IGCSEs,
and A levels made Labiba better educated than Shahin who had a degree. Weaker responses
made statements, such as Samihah speaks 6 languages so she will be good at communication but
there was no other explanation as to how this might have affected the decision to employ her or
not. Stronger answers included explanation, such as Shahin only had experience in a different
industry which was likely to make her less successful in the new market as although she may be
familiar with the culture in that country she was not familiar with the toy industry. However, TT
could pay for her to have training to provide her with this knowledge. Application was achieved
easily by the majority of candidates by making reference to information in Appendix 3. Many
candidates did move into Level 2 by including a conclusion which had a decision that justified the
chosen applicant and reasons why the other two applicants were less suitable. Lack of analysis of
the applicants in the earlier part of the answer meant that only the strongest candidates achieved
the highest mark band for the conclusion as it built on earlier analysis of the applicants in justifying
the choice. Good answers discussed the time and money element of training due of lack of
experience, new ideas brought in by the applicants or the need to replace an internal applicant.
Question 4
(a) This question was well answered by the majority of candidates. A wide range of answers covering
both positive and negative effects were rewarded, such as providing the employees with skills,
increased productivity, fewer errors made, improved quality, increased motivation, output lost whilst
training was taking place, cost of training, employees expecting higher pay. Errors were to repeat
explanation such as leads to higher productivity as explanation for several effects or writing about
the effects of training for employees and not the business.
(b) Many candidates could list benefits and drawbacks for a country of having a business build a new
factory there. The most popular benefits were increased employment/decreased unemployment,
increased GDP/economic growth and tax revenue for the government. The most popular
drawbacks were pollution, increased competition for local businesses, depletion of natural
resources and repatriation of profits. However, only stronger candidates developed an explanation
of the benefits or drawbacks, such as increased tax revenue from income tax due to higher
employment may provide the government with funds to improve health, education and
infrastructure in the country leading to growth/development of the country. The error from a minority
of candidates was to write about the benefits and drawbacks for TT rather than the country. Better
recommendations did more than just repeating earlier points and weighed up the benefits against
the drawbacks as part of the justification for the decision made. Answers were often generic
although some candidates recognised that as unemployment was increasing (Appendix 1) it would
be a beneficial to allow the business to build a factory to provide employment.
© 2022
Grade thresholds – June 2022
The overall thresholds for the different grades were set as follows.
Maximum
Combination of
Option mark after 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Components
weighting
X 160 11, 21 96 84 73 62 52 42 33 25 17
Y 160 12, 22 96 84 73 62 52 42 33 25 17
Learn more! For more information please visit www.cambridgeinternational.org/igcse or contact Customer Services
on +44 (0)1223 553554 or email [email protected]
™
Cambridge IGCSE (9-1)
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study
*0645454094-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_21_2022_1.1
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
2
MB is a small bakery that produces bread. Yasin started the bakery 6 months ago with help from
the government. Yasin needed a business plan to support his application for government help. An
extract from the business plan Yasin produced is shown in Appendix 1. The market research was
carried out by Yasin. He asked a small sample of family and friends to fill in a questionnaire. Yasin’s
business plan also contained forecast data.
MB’s bread is freshly-made every day in the bakery, which is located at the back of MB’s small
shop. The bread is then sold the same day. Yasin has 2 employees to help him produce the bread
and 1 employee to serve customers in the shop. All employees work 5 days a week and are paid
the legal minimum wage. Yasin uses a democratic leadership style.
Yasin needs to keep costs low to be competitive. He uses packaging that cannot be recycled. Yasin
also buys the cheapest ingredients, most of which are imported. He is planning to use lean production
in the bakery but he has to decide which method to use.
MB’s main competitors advertise that they only use ingredients from local suppliers. Yasin is thinking
of changing the suppliers he uses for ingredients and packaging. He wants MB to have a good
ethical image which he could use in advertising.
Yasin plans to start making cakes. He is considering two options as outlined in Appendix 2. MB’s
fixed costs will increase as there will be additional expenses whichever option he chooses.
Appendix 1
Section Details
Appendix 2
Option 1 Option 2
Small cupcakes Large birthday cakes
Appendix 3
This will keep your products fresh and protect the environment.
BLANK PAGE
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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*9086478757-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_22_2022_1.1
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
2
TT is a large manufacturer of toys based in country Y. It is a public limited company and has been
trading for 20 years. TT’s products are designed for children up to the age of 5.
TT has benefited from economies of scale as it has grown. The company has been able to buy
specialist new equipment for the flow production line in its factory. TT’s factory uses lean production
methods, such as Kaizen and just-in-time inventory control. All of its employees are well-motivated
and few leave each year. The company provides training for employees in all departments of the
business whenever there are any changes such as introducing new equipment or new products.
Currently, TT only sells its products in country Y but it plans to expand into country Z and become
a multinational company. TT could buy a toy manufacturer located in country Z or build its own
factory there. The government of country Z will need to give permission for TT to build a new factory.
Either option will cost $10 million. The directors are worried about liquidity as TT expands.
TT has developed a new toy for children under 5. The toy is a soft, easy to hold doll which speaks
4 different languages. The Marketing Director thinks this new toy will help TT expand into country
Z, as there are no other products like it in that country. TT is recruiting a new Marketing Manager
for country Z. Details of the shortlisted applicants are in Appendix 3.
The marketing department has already carried out research in country Z and some results are
shown in Appendix 1.
Appendix 1
Appendix 2
Extract from TT’s statement of financial position, 2021 and 2022 (at 31 March)
Inventories 5 5
Cash 0 2
Bank overdraft 1 0
Current ratio 2 ?
Appendix 3
10 years as the
5 years working for TT as 2 years as the Marketing
Marketing Manager of a
Experience the Assistant Marketing Manager of a small food
large toy company in
Manager in country Y company in country Z
country Y
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the
scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not answering the question asked.
question
K Knowledge Indicates knowledge and understanding of the concepts and issues relating to the question.
EVAL Evaluation Indicates where the answer has demonstrated evaluation (part (e) questions only).
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect figure that results from the mistake is used for
subsequent calculations.
SEEN Noted but no Indicates that content has been recognised but not rewarded.
credit given
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
When a product is priced in line or just below competitors’ prices (to try to capture
more of the market) [2]
OR
Setting a price similar to that of competitors products which are already
established in the market. [2]
OR
When the price of a good is set at the same level as other products in the market
and at a level customers expect or are willing to pay [2]
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
A financial plan for the marketing of a product or product range (for a specified
period of time) [2]
OR
The amount of money made available by a business for its marketing activities
during a particular period of time [2]
1(c) Outline two possible threats to Pamela’s business of using e-commerce. 4 To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for each relevant threat (max 2). appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Points might include: appropriate for this question:
Increased competition [k] which makes it harder to calculate a competitive Gift shop
price [app] (celebration) Cards/toys/candy
Unfamiliarity / customers are less likely to buy from a business they don’t Entrepreneur/the owner
know [k] leading to fewer sales of toys [app] 30 years ago
No face-to-face contact which could make it difficult to establish a relationship 5 employees
[k] so difficult to gain customer loyalty [app] Customer loyalty
Website design must be clear / attractive / easy to use, or customers will not Competitive pricing
visit [k] Marketing budget
Limited/no access to the internet [k] Sales promotion
Increasing costs as a specialist may need to be employed / website design /
maintenance of sites [k] Other appropriate examples in context
May need a larger space to store products increasing costs [k] can still be credited.
Packaging/delivery of each item will increase costs per product [k]
Larger number of returns could lead to higher business costs [k] Can outline two separate costs if both
All customers can see negative reviews [k] clearly related to Pamela/business.
1(d) Explain two methods Pamela’s business can use to maintain customer 6 To use words from the stem as
loyalty. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant method (max 2). relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). Gift shop
(celebration) Cards/toys/candy
Points might include: 5 employees
Communicate with customers e.g. newsletters, social media [k] so that they Entrepreneur
remember your business [an] when they next need candy (sweets) / toys / 30 years ago
cards [app] Competitive pricing
Offer rewards to existing customers / introduce a loyalty scheme [k] using Marketing budget
money from the marketing budget [app] so consumers have an incentive to Sales promotion
return [an]
Train staff / offer good quality service [k] from all 5 employees [app] Other appropriate examples in context
Extra services or examples such as delivery / credit facilities [k] can still be credited.
Ask for feedback / carry out market research [k] so the items you are selling
match customer needs [an]
Resolve complaints quickly [k] so that customers don’t go to other businesses
[an]
Introduce new products / high quality products [k] satisfying the customers’
needs [an]
Brand loyalty [k]
1(e) Do you think being a risk-taker is a more important characteristic of a 6 This is a general question so there are
successful entrepreneur than being creative? Justify your answer. no marks for application.
Creative:
New ideas [k] leading to increased sales/revenue [an]
Creativity adds value [k] so higher prices can be charged [an].
Creativity alone does not guarantee success [k] if customers do not purchase
[an]
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Businesses owned by shareholders, but they can sell shares to the public and
their shares are tradeable on the stock exchange [2]
OR
Often a large company, owned by shareholders who have limited liability. The
company can sell its shares to the general public [2]
OR
A company that sells its shares to the general public through a stock exchange
(because the company can sell shares to anyone, it can raise massive amounts of
money) [2]
OR
A business whose shares can be freely bought and sold to the general public [2]
2(b) Calculate the margin of safety for CTF’s children’s beds. Show your 2
working.
Correct method but incorrect answer e.g. Current outputbreak-even output [1]
Award only 1 mark if 4000 is written as part of the answer but is not given as the
final answer.
2(c) Outline two ways an increase in inflation might affect CTF. 4 To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for each relevant way (max 2). appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Points might include: appropriate for this question:
Employees might ask for pay rise [k] reducing its margin of safety [app] Public limited company (PLC)
Increase in raw material costs[k] for manufacturing (beds) [app] (children’s) Beds
Prices may have to increase [k] Factory/manufacturer
Fewer sales / customers cannot afford to buy [k] the beds [app] Margin of safety / 4000
Batch production
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. Environmental pressures
14 000 (break-even output)
18 000 (current output)
25 000 (capacity)
2(d) Explain two possible advantages to CTF of using batch production. 6 To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage (max 2). appropriate (i.e., make sense) in
relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2) appropriate for this question:
Public limited company (PLC)
Points might include: (children’s) Beds
Flexible [k] easy to change the type of beds [app] to adapt to customer Factory/manufacturer
demands [an] Margin of safety / 4000
Economies of scale / materials can be bought in bulk [k] which can help Environmental pressures
reduce average costs [an] improving the margin of safety [app] 14 000 (break-even output)
Production may not be affected to any great extent if machinery breaks down 18 000 (current output)
[k] so some output made [an] so help reach its break-even output of 14 000 25 000 (capacity)
[app]
Variety of products [k] which could lead to increased sales [an] Other appropriate examples in context
Variety of tasks can motivate workers [k] leading to less absenteeism / lower can still be credited.
labour turnover [an] at the factory [app]
Spread risk (as can make more than one type of product) [k] Advantages should focus on
advantages to the business not
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. employees. Answers such as variety of
work on own are too vague [tv].
2(e) Do you think manufacturing businesses should always respond to 6 This is a general question so there are
environmental pressures? Justify your answer. no marks for application.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
(Total sum of) money invested into the business by the owners of the
company [2]
OR
Share capital plus reserves [2]
OR
Total assets minus total liabilities [2]
3(b) Identify two financial statements a public limited company is legally 2 Only award the first two responses
required to publish each year. given.
Award 1 mark for each financial statement. Do not award cash-flow forecast.
Two from:
Income statement (Profit and loss)
Statement of financial position (Balance sheet)
Cash-flow statement/statement of cash flows
Statement of changes in equity
3(c) State whether each of the following are classified as a current asset or a 4
current liability.
Overdraftcurrent liability
Trade receivablescurrent asset
Trade payablescurrent liability
Cash in bankcurrent asset
3(d) Explain one way each of the following stakeholder groups might use VCG’s 6 To use words from the stem as
accounts: application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e., make sense) in
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2). relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). Bags or examples such as
briefcase / travel bag
Points might include: (second) Factory
Shareholders: $2m (revenue)
Help assess business performance / profits [k] to see whether they will $800 000 (equity)
receive a dividend / return on their investment [an] from this bag manufacturer $300 000 (current assets)
[app] $250 000 (current liabilities)
Help decide whether to continue to invest [k] as the business is looking to 1.2 (current ratio)
open a second factory [app] which could mean less dividends paid [an] Highquality
Assess the liquidity [k] they do not want to invest in a business with serious 50 / Skilled workers
cash or liquidity problems [an]
To compare performance over time [k] and how much the $800 000 in equity Other appropriate examples in context
increases [app] to decide whether they should take their money and invest can still be credited.
elsewhere [an]
Compare performance between different businesses [k] to decide whether it Candidates must quote the numbers to
is a good investment [an] be awarded application for use of
Table 3.1 information.
Suppliers:
Can see the total value / level of debt [k] current liabilities $250 000 [app] to Calculation of current ratio is not [an]
help decide whether they should offer (more) credit [an] as it does not answer the question.
Assess whether the business has sufficient cash [k] within current assets of
$300 000 [app] for the business to be able to repay them when debts become
due [an]
Assess profitability / level of sales [k] successful business may need more
materials so maintains or increase revenue for the supplier [an] especially as
make high-quality products [app]
3(e) Do you think access to labour is the most important factor for a 6 This is a general question so there are
manufacturing business to consider when deciding where to locate a new no marks for application.
factory? Justify your answer.
For evaluation to be awarded
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. justification will usually follow on from
relevant analysis of points.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Award 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether access to labour is the most
important factor for a manufacturing business to consider when deciding where to
locate a new factory.
Access to labour:
Skilled labour may be difficult to find/recruit [k] which could increase
recruitment/labour costs [an] but can use machinery to reduce the need for
labour [an]
Labour intensive production requires access to labour [k] without labour they
cannot operate[an]
Can depend on type of workers required (k) unskilled workers may be easy to
find [an]
4(a) Identify two objectives for a business organisation in the public sector. 2 Only award the first two responses
given.
Award 1 mark per objective.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
4(c) Outline two ways MBH can use ideas from Herzberg’s theory to motivate its 4 To use words from the stem as
employees. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
Award 1 mark for each relevant point. relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Points might include: 440 / doctors
Could give employees more responsibility [k] in the hospital [app] (5) Hospitals / or related words
Offer more interesting work [k] as many are skilled employees [app] 5600 employees
Offer more praise for good work [k] Public sector
Give chances for promotion [k] as there is a tall organisational structure [app] Communication barriers
Phone/email
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. Long chain of command
Tall organisational structure
Skilled employees
4(d) Explain how MBH might reduce or remove each of the following 6 To use words from the stem as
communication barriers: application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2). relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). 440 / doctors
(5) Hospitals / or related words
Points might include: 5600 employees
Messages lost: Public sector
Ask for feedback [k] to ensure that the message is received [an] by all 5 Phone/email
hospitals [app] Long chain of command
Make sure the medium of communication is suitable/works [k] Tall organisational structure
Delayering/ flattening the structure [k] because it is a long chain of command Externally recruited
[app]
Other appropriate examples in context
Use of jargon: can still be credited.
Use simple language [k] on the phone/email [app] so easy for everyone /
receiver to understand [an]
Make sure language is appropriate to the receiver [k] to make sure there is no
misunderstanding [an]
Providing opportunities for the receiver to ask questions [k]
4(e) Do you think an organisation should always use external recruitment when 6 This is a general question so there are
recruiting skilled employees? Justify your answer. no marks for application.
Award 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether an organisation should Advantages of external recruitment
always use external recruitment when recruiting skilled employees. can be disadvantages of internal but
do not award the same point twice as
Points might include: mirror answers are not accepted.
External recruitment:
Bring in new skills / ideas [k] which could help improve productivity /
effectiveness / efficiency of business [an]
Can bring in valuable knowledge and experience of competition [k] gaining a
competitive edge [an]
Wider choice of applicants [k] increases possibility of finding best person for
job [an]
No knowledge of how business works / current operations [k] so might need
induction training [an]
Avoids risk of upsetting employees when someone internal is promoted [k]
Higher recruitment costs [k]
More time spent / takes longer to fill vacancy [k]
Required if no suitable candidates in the business [k]
Internal recruitment :
Can help motivate other employees [k] which could lead to fewer people
leaving / reduce absenteeism [an]
Internal promotion can create another vacancy that then needs to be filled [k]
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the
scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not answering the question asked.
question
K Knowledge Indicates knowledge and understanding of the concepts and issues relating to the question.
EVAL Evaluation Indicates where the answer has demonstrated evaluation (part (e) questions only).
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect figure that results from the mistake is used for
subsequent calculations.
SEEN Noted but no Indicates that content has been recognised but not rewarded.
credit given
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
(Short-term) debts owed by a business, to be repaid in less than one year [2]
OR
Debts of a business which it expects to pay before the date of the (next) statement
of financial position [2]
1(b) Identify two examples of non-current assets. 2 Only award the first two responses
given.
Award 1 mark per example (max 2).
1(c) Outline two possible reasons why liquidity is important to AHG. 4 To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for each relevant reason (max 2). appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Points might include: appropriate for this question:
• To make sure the business has access to enough cash/money to pay day-to- • Plants / flowers / gardening
day expenses / (short term) liabilities / avoid interest charges / keep its products or other examples such
suppliers [k] as shown by the current ratio of 1.1 [app] as seeds
• To help arrange/apply for finance [k] for this established business [app] • 660 000 to 600 000
• Ensure business survival / allow it to continue trading [k] to sell flowers [app] • Established (business) / operating
• To provide for (unforeseen) emergencies [k] for a long time
• 4 managers
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. • 30 or 34 employees
• Competitive pricing
1(d) Explain two advantages to AHG of its managers using delegation. 6 To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage (max 2). appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). appropriate for this question:
• Plants/flowers/garden products or
Points might include: other relevant examples such as
• Managers cannot do all tasks on own / reduce managers’ workload / seeds
managers have time to focus on (important/complex) tasks [k] such as • 4 (managers)
improving liquidity [app] so better/quicker decision making [an] • 30 employees
• Can motivate employees [k] as there is less control from its 4 managers [app] • Established business / operating
increasing productivity [an] for a long time
• Quality of managers’ work is often improved / managers are less likely to • Liquidity / current ratio of 1.1
make mistakes [k] leading to a better business reputation [an] of its garden • Statement of financial position
products [app]
• Builds trust between managers and employee / better working relations [k] Other appropriate examples in context
improving loyalty [an] of its 30 employees [app] can still be credited.
• Way to develop skills of employees / increase flexibility of workforce [k]
leading to new ideas [an] Analysis must refer to impact on
business and not employees.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
1(e) Do you think competitive pricing is the best method for an established 6 This is a general question so there are
business to use? Justify your answer. no marks for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Candidates can discuss other
methods of pricing, but evaluation
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. must focus on whether competitive
pricing is the best method to use.
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether competitive pricing is the
best method for an established business to use. Some points could be awarded as [k]
or [an] but do not award the same
Points might include: point twice.
• Price will not discourage customers from buying [k] so maintain customer
loyalty [an] Do not award price skimming or
• Prevents business losing market share [k] which could result in less revenue penetration pricing on own unless
[an] explained.
• Customer may be prepared to pay more (if it is a popular brand) [k]
• Need another way to attract customers [k] which could increase costs [an]
• May not cover the costs [k] so may find it difficult to break even [an]
• Takes time/money to find out competitor’s prices [k]
Competitive pricing will not discourage customers from buying [k] so will buy again
[an]. However, if you base your prices solely on competitors, you might not be able
to cover costs [k] which makes it difficult for a business to break-even [an]. No, as it
depends on what they sell – while cannot ignore what other businesses charge –
especially if it’s a competitive market – but if the business has a good reputation
which an established business might have [eval] it may be able to use other pricing
methods that allow it to charge more [eval].
2(b) Identify two reasons (other than financial) why people work. 2 Only award the first two responses
given.
Award 1 mark per reason (max 2).
2(c) Outline two methods of financial rewards RWB might use to motivate its 4 To use words from the stem as
employees. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
Award 1 mark for each relevant method (max 2). relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Points might include: • Buses
• High(er) wages / wage rates / time-based rates [k] for workers in the factory • 1200 (employees)
[app] • Factory
• Piece rate [k] paid to its 1200 employees [app] • ($1.7 million) loss
• High(er) salary [k] for making buses [app]
• Bonuses [k] but this may be difficult as business has made a loss [app] Other appropriate examples in context
• Profit sharing/share ownership schemes [k] can still be credited.
• Performance related pay [k]
2(d) Explain two ways RWB might be affected by new legal controls over business 6 To use words from the stem as
activities which affect the environment. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2). relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2) • Buses
• 1200 (employees)
Points might include: • Factory
• Change its production methods/equipment e.g. need to buy new machines • ($1.7 million) loss
[k] leading to higher interest/finance costs [an] which may increase its loss • Off-the-job training
[app]
• May need to redesign products [k] so may be able to charge a higher Other appropriate examples in context
price/allow the business to reduce variable costs [an] can still be credited.
• Require more training / retraining [k] for its 1200 employees [app] which could
delay production [an]
• May have to buy (pollution) permits / pay fines/higher taxes / may need to
recycle/change how it disposes of the waste [k] increasing cash outflows [an]
• May have to change materials/components used/switch suppliers / reduced
range/access to materials [k] increase variable costs [an]
• Stop/limit/slow production [k] of its buses [app]
• Lower emissions / use renewable energy [k] in the factory [app] helping to
lower energy costs (in the long run) [an]
• May need to change location [k] increase cost of rent [an]
2(e) Do you think a reduction in the level of unemployment always benefits 6 This is a general question so there are
businesses? Justify your answer. no marks for application.
A reduction in unemployment may mean more sales [k] leading to higher potential
revenue [an]. However, because there are fewer people looking for work it may be
difficult to recruit workers [k] which could make it difficult to increase output [an].
Overall, it may depend on whether the business needs employees or not, as
without sufficient workers they may not be able to produce enough to benefit from
higher potential sales [eval] [eval].
3(a) Identify one benefit and one cost to a business of developing new products. 2 Only award the first response given
for each benefit/cost.
Award 1 mark per benefit/cost (max 1 for each).
Do not award answers such as cost
Benefits might include: on its own.
• Provides diversification / spreads risk
• Increase revenue/sales
• Enter new markets / attracts new customers
• Allow the business to expand into existing markets / increase market share /
improved competitive advantage
• Maintain customer loyalty
3(b) Calculate the break-even level of output for 2021. Show your working. 2 Max 1 where include $ sign as it is not
a financial value.
Correct answer: 2500 [2]
OR Total fixed costs / selling price (per unit) – variable cost (per unit) [1]
Award only 1 mark if 2500 is written as part of the answer but is not given as the
final answer.
3(c) Outline two ways CHW could increase its margin of safety. 2 To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark per way (max 2). appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Points might include: appropriate for this question:
• Lower fixed costs [k] from $200 000 for the year [app] Factory
• Lower variable costs / variable cost per unit [k] from $40 [app] Cameras/electrical products
• Increase price [k] of cameras [app] 500 (margin of safety)
2500 (break even output)
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. Flow production
200 000 (fixed costs)
$120 (selling price)
$40 (variable cost per unit)
3(d) Explain two ways in which the stage of the product life cycle might affect 6 To use words from the stem as
CHW’s marketing decisions about promotion. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant stage and way (max 2). relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • Cameras/electrical products
• 500 / margin of safety
Points might include: • Develop new products
• 2500 (break-even output)
Must name the stage and why or how much promotion to access the • $120 (selling price)
knowledge marks. • $200 000 (fixed costs)
• $40 (variable cost per unit)
Introduction: • Factory
High level/amount of promotional activity [k] to help raise awareness/inform/
attract/persuade new customers [an] about its cameras [app] Other appropriate examples in context
Attract/inform/persuade customers [k] to increase sales/revenue [an] can still be credited.
Establish brand image [k] to make business competitive [an]
Do not award answers which identify
Growth: methods of promotion as this does not
High level/amount of promotion/promotional spending [k] to try to encourage answer the question.
brand loyalty [an] so it can sell 2500 to break even [app]
Attract/inform/persuade customers [k] to increase revenue [an]
Maturity:
Likely to be less promotion [k] as product is well known / business wants to use
its funds for other purposes [an] such as developing new products [app]
To remind customers about its products [k] so maintain sales/market share
[an]
Spending might increase if use an extension strategy [k] to inform people that
the product is worth buying again [an]
3(d) Decline:
Limited promotion/spending [k] to reduce marketing costs [an]
May only use to inform customers of price reductions [k] so no longer selling at
$120 [app] to encourage some sales [an]
May decide to stop promotion during this stage [k]
To clear out inventory [k]
3(e) Do you think flow production is the best method of production for a 6 This is a general question so there are
manufacturing business to use? Justify your answer. no marks for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Can accept discussion of other
methods such as batch production or
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. job production but evaluation must
focus on flow production.
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether flow production is the
best method of production for a manufacturing business to use. Advantages of one method could be
presented as disadvantages of
Points might include: another method, but do not award the
• High output [k] so able to meet demand (on time) [an] same point twice.
• Benefit from economies of scale [k] leading to lower unit costs [an]
• More capital intensive [k] leading to lower labour costs [an]
• Lower (employee) motivation [k] leading to lower productivity [an]
• Can produce 24 hours a day [k]
• If one machine breaks down whole production line stops [k] lose output/fewer
sales [an]
• Requires a large capital investment [k]
Materials can be purchased in large amounts / benefit from economies of scale [k]
leading to lower unit costs [an]. However, it requires a large capital investment [k]
which the business might not be able to afford. [an] It might only be worthwhile if
there is a large market for a standardised product [eval] which can cover the high
initial costs [eval].
A person who takes the risk for a new business venture [2]
OR
An individual who takes the financial risk of starting and managing a new business
[2]
4(c) Identify four reasons why a new business might be at greater risk of failure 4 Only award the first four points given.
than an established business.
4(d) Explain two suitable sources of start-up capital Tom’s business might use. 6 To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant source of start-up capital (max 2). appropriate (i.e. make sense) in
relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). appropriate for this question:
• Window cleaning
Points might include: • $700
• Own savings [k] from his time working in his other job [app] as no need to • Wants to leave his job/other job
repay/no interest to pay [an] • Sister
• Borrow from friends/family [k] such as his sister [app] as may give long time to • Partnership
repay [an] • Opportunity cost
• (Bank) loan [k] for this window cleaning business [app] as could provide all the • Entrepreneur
money at once [an]
• Overdraft [k] can arrange quickly/only pay interest when used [an] Other appropriate examples in context
• Government grant [k] as may be willing to support entrepreneurs [app] as no can still be credited.
interest/no need to repay [an]
• Crowdfunding [k] to raise the $700 [app] so no interest to repay [an] Do not award answers such as
• Micro-finance [k] as does not need security to obtain [an] retained profit/profit or sell shares as
these are not appropriate/available to
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. a start-up.
4(e) Do you think a partnership is the best form of business organisation for a 6 This is a general question so there are
new business? Justify your answer. no marks for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Candidates can discuss other forms of
business organisation, but evaluation
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. must focus on whether a partnership
is the best form.
Award up to 2 marks for justified decision as to whether a partnership is the best
form of business organisation for a new business.
A partnership allows owners to share workload [k] which could allow time for each
partner to specialise on certain activities to improve the business [an]. The main
problem is unlimited liability [k] which means they could lose personal possessions
if unable to pay business debts [an]. However, partnership is a better choice than
starting up as a sole trader. While there is still unlimited liability, it is possible to
share some of the risk with others if you can work together, then extra skills can
help reduce potential problems [eval] which could increase the chances of success
[eval].
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not
question answering the question asked.
APP Application Indicates appropriate reference to the information in the
context.
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect
figure that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
calculations.
SEEN Noted but no credit Indicates that content has been recognised but not
given rewarded.
L1 Level 1 Used in part (b) questions to indicate where a response
includes limited knowledge and understanding.
L2 Level 2 Used in part (b) questions to indicate where a response
has a more detailed discussion and contains some
evidence of justification.
L3 Level 3 Used in part (b) questions to indicate where a response
includes a well-justified recommendation.
1(a) Explain four reasons why governments might support business start- 8
ups.
1(b) Consider the benefits to Yasin of the two sections of his business plan 12
shown in Appendix 1. Which section do you think helped him most
when starting up his business? Justify your answer.
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No Creditable Response 0
2(a) Explain one benefit and one limitation to Yasin of using a break-even 8
chart.
For example: The chart shows the break-even output for MB (1) so Yasin will
know how many units of bread he will need to sell each month to break even
(app). This will allow him to plan for the equipment required (1) so he can
ensure the bakery sells the minimum amount of bread to cover all the costs
and not make a loss (1).
2(b) Consider the following two ways MB could achieve lean production. 12
Which is the best way for Yasin to choose? Justify your answer.
Kaizen.
Just-in-time inventory control.
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
2(b)
Advantages Disadvantages
For example: Leaflets (1) can be handed out in the local town centre and to
raise awareness of where the bakery shop is located (app).
Application could include: bread; bakery; cakes; bakery shop; uses imported
ingredients; ethical image; ingredients; fresh products; sustainable packaging;
consumed by all age groups.
3(b) Consider the two options outlined in Appendix 2. Which option should 12
Yasin choose? Justify your answer using appropriate calculations.
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages:
Better decisions – as employees are consulted – may offer additional
ideas from own experience of doing the job
Motivating for employees – asked to offer opinions before decisions are
made – feel more trusted/valued – less likely to leave/lower labour
turnover
Employees work better due to their sense of belonging/builds a
relationship – more productive/positive
Disadvantages:
Takes time to consult employees – Yasin and the employees could be
more productive doing other jobs – less productive/less output produced
Unpopular decisions may be difficult to make – such as making
employees redundant – may be less effective if employees are asked for
their opinions as the decision may affect them directly – therefore
opinions may be biased
Employees may not have the experience to make suitable contributions –
unable to make helpful suggestions
Suggestions made by employees may be different to the objectives of
management – may lead to conflict/confusion
For example: Better decisions may be made by Yasin (1) because employees
are asked for their opinions before decisions are made (1). Yasin only
employs 3 people (app) so it will be easier for them to offer additional ideas
from their own experience of doing the job (1).
Application could include: bakery; 3 employees; work five days a week: paid
legal minimum wage: produce bread; Yasin needs to keep the business
competitive; introduction of cakes; changing suppliers; ethical image.
4(b) Consider the following three ways Yasin could improve the ethical 12
image of MB. Which way would be most effective? Justify your answer.
Buying all ingredients from local suppliers.
Using only environmentally friendly packaging.
Increasing wage rates to 20% above the legal minimum wage.
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
4(b)
Advantages Disadvantages
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not
question answering the question asked.
APP Application Indicates appropriate reference to the information in the
context.
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect
figure that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
calculations.
SEEN Noted but no credit Indicates that content has been recognised but not
given rewarded.
L1 Level 1 Used in part (b) questions to indicate where a response
includes limited knowledge and understanding.
L2 Level 2 Used in part (b) questions to indicate where a response
has a more detailed discussion and contains some
evidence of justification.
L3 Level 3 Used in part (b) questions to indicate where a response
includes a well-justified recommendation.
For example: Internal growth (1) as TT decides to expand by opening its own
new factory (1). This could be in country Z where TT plans to expand sales
(app). This is a less risky way to grow than taking over another business,
even though it is quite slow if it has to use its own funds (1).
Application could include: manufacture toys; toys/toys for under 5’s; older
children/children; expanding into new markets abroad; existing economies of
scale; toy shops; cost $10m; multinational company; specialist new
equipment; flow production.
1(b) Consider how TT might benefit from the following three economies of 12
scale as it continues to grow. Which is likely to have the greatest effect
on TT’s profit? Justify your answer.
Purchasing
Technical
Financial
0 No creditable response. 0
For example: There is less storage required for components (1). This is
because just-in-time inventory control is used (app) means the components to
manufacture the products are only ordered when required for production (1).
This will reduce the warehouse space required and reduce costs (1).
Application could include: manufacture toys; toys/toys for under 5’s; older
children/children; expanding into new markets abroad; existing economies of
scale; Kaizen; JIT; specialist new equipment; flow production.
0 No creditable response. 0
3(a) Explain one way the information in each chart in Appendix 1 might be 8
useful to TT.
Chart 1 – Can estimate the size of the market – as the number of under
5’s in the population is 20m which is quite a large market
Chart 2 – Higher unemployment increases the availability of potential
employees / lower consumer incomes – therefore easier to recruit
workers for the new factory / consumers may not be willing to pay a
higher price for toys
Chart 3 – Helps to choose the most suitable channel of distribution in the
new country – as the majority of consumers buy their products in
specialist toy shops
Chart 4 – Can know how much competition there is in the market – there
are only 3 main companies so easier to check on competitors’ prices
For example: TT can estimate the size of the market (1) as the research
shows that there are 20 million children under 5 in country Z (app).
3(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider the three applicants 12
for the job of Marketing Manager for country Z. Who is the best applicant
for the job? Justify your answer.
0 No creditable response. 0
3(b)
Benefits Possible drawbacks
For example: The business will have a more flexible workforce (1) this means
when an employee is absent another employee can be moved to cover their
task without production being halted (1).
4(b) Consider the benefits and drawbacks for country Z if TT builds a factory 12
there. Do you think the government of country Z should allow TT to
build this factory? Justify your answer.
0 No creditable response. 0
Benefits Drawbacks
Conclusion:
Allowing TT to locate in the country has more benefits for country Z than
it has drawbacks. The jobs created when unemployment is increasing
will help the country develop and may benefit from a technology transfer
from TT to other businesses in the country. This may increase their
efficiency and improve their productivity – so many other local businesses
may benefit which outweighs the drawbacks to the three local toy
companies that may not be able to compete with TT.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_11_2022_1.3
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
2
1 Pamela is a successful entrepreneur. She is the owner of a gift shop selling celebration cards, toys
and candy (sweets). When Pamela started her business 30 years ago she had no help to manage
the shop. She now has 5 employees. Pamela knows maintaining customer loyalty is important.
She uses competitive pricing. Most of her marketing budget is spent on sales promotion. Pamela
does not use e-commerce.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Threat 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Threat 2: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two methods Pamela’s business can use to maintain customer loyalty.
Method 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Method 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think being a risk-taker is a more important characteristic of a successful entrepreneur
than being creative? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
2 CTF is a public limited company. It manufactures beds using batch production. The Operations
Director is using break-even analysis to calculate the margin of safety for children’s beds. An extract
from CTF’s output data is shown in Table 2.1. The Operations Director wants to know how an
increase in inflation might affect CTF. She knows there are many environmental pressures that a
manufacturing business could respond to.
Table 2.1
Extract from CTF’s output data (children’s beds per month)
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Calculate the margin of safety for CTF’s children’s beds. Show your working.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think manufacturing businesses should always respond to environmental pressures?
Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
3 VCG manufactures high-quality briefcases and travel bags. VCG has 50 skilled production workers
in its factory. VCG is planning to expand by building a second factory. Different locations are being
considered. The Managing Director is reviewing VCG’s financial statements. An extract is shown
in Table 3.1. Both internal and external stakeholder groups of VCG are interested in this information.
Table 3.1
Extract from VCG’s 2021 financial statements ($)
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two financial statements a public limited company is legally required to publish each
year.
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) State whether each of the following are classified as a current asset or a current liability.
Overdraft: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one way each of the following stakeholder groups might use VCG’s accounts:
Shareholders: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Suppliers: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think access to labour is the most important factor for a manufacturing business to
consider when deciding where to locate a new factory? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
4 MBH is a business organisation in the public sector. It controls 5 hospitals and has 5600 employees
including 440 doctors. External recruitment is used when recruiting skilled employees. The Human
Resources Director uses ideas from Herzberg’s theory to improve employee motivation. He is
worried about communication barriers within MBH. The business has a tall organisational structure
and a long chain of command. Most of MBH’s internal communication is by email and phone calls.
(a) Identify two objectives for a business organisation in the public sector.
Objective 1: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Objective 2: .......................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two ways MBH can use ideas from Herzberg’s theory to motivate its employees.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain how MBH might reduce or remove each of the following communication barriers:
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think an organisation should always use external recruitment when recruiting skilled
employees? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_12_2022_1.1
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
2
1 AHG is an established business as it has been operating for a long time. It sells garden products
including plants and flowers. AHG uses competitive pricing. The business has 4 managers and 30
other employees. All AHG’s managers use delegation. The Finance Manager is analysing AHG’s
statement of financial position as she is interested in its liquidity. An extract is shown in Table 1.1.
Table 1.1
Extract from AHG’s statement of financial position at 30 March 2022 ($000)
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Example 1: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Example 2: ........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [4]
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think competitive pricing is the best method for an established business to use? Justify
your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
2 RWB manufactures buses.1200 people work in its factory. All employees receive off-the-job training.
RWB uses financial rewards to motivate its employees. Last year RWB made a $1.7 million loss.
The Managing Director said: ‘There are many external influences affecting our business, including
changes in the level of unemployment and new legal controls over business activities which affect
the environment.’
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two reasons (other than financial) why people work.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two methods of financial rewards RWB might use to motivate its employees.
Method 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Method 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two ways RWB might be affected by new legal controls over business activities which
affect the environment.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think a reduction in the level of unemployment always benefits businesses? Justify
your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
3 CHW manufactures electrical products including cameras. The business is developing new products.
The Managing Director knows that the stage of the product life cycle can influence CHW’s marketing
decisions about promotion. He is analysing data for one of its products. An extract is shown in
Table 3.1. The business would also like to introduce flow production into the factory.
Table 3.1
Extract from CHW’s data for one type of camera (2021)
(a) Identify one benefit and one cost to a business of developing new products.
Benefit: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Cost: .................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Calculate the break-even level of output for 2021. Show your working.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two ways CHW could increase its margin of safety.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two ways in which the stage of the product life cycle might affect CHW’s marketing
decisions about promotion.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think flow production is the best method of production for a manufacturing business
to use? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
4 Tom wants to leave his job to become an entrepreneur. He and his sister plan to start a window
cleaning business. Tom has been told that new businesses are at a greater risk of failure than
established businesses. Tom has to decide whether a partnership is a suitable form of business
organisation for the new business. He has calculated the business will need $700 as start-up capital.
Tom knows that every decision he makes will have an opportunity cost.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Identify four reasons why a new business might be at greater risk of failure than an established
business.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 3: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 4: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two suitable sources of start-up capital Tom’s business might use.
Source 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Source 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think a partnership is the best form of business organisation for a new business? Justify
your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_21_2022_1.1
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
2
1 (a) Explain four reasons why governments might support business start-ups.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 3: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Reason 4: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the benefits to Yasin of the two sections of his business plan shown in Appendix 1.
Which section do you think helped him most when starting up his business? Justify your answer.
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Resources: .......................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
2 (a) Explain one benefit and one limitation to Yasin of using a break-even chart.
Benefit: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Limitation: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following two ways MB could achieve lean production. Which is the best way for
Yasin to choose? Justify your answer.
• Kaizen.
• Just-in-time inventory control.
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(b) Consider the two options outlined in Appendix 2. Which option should Yasin choose? Justify
your answer using appropriate calculations.
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4 (a) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage of Yasin using a democratic leadership style.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the following three ways Yasin could improve the ethical image of MB. Which way
would be most effective? Justify your answer.
• Buying all ingredients from local suppliers.
• Using only environmentally friendly packaging.
• Increasing wage rates to 20% above the legal minimum wage.
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Increasing wage rates to 20% above the legal minimum wage: ......................................
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BLANK PAGE
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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_22_2022_1.1
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
2
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider how TT might benefit from the following three economies of scale as it continues to
grow. Which is likely to have the greatest effect on TT’s profit? Justify your answer.
• Purchasing
• Technical
• Financial
Purchasing: .......................................................................................................................
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Financial: ..........................................................................................................................
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Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
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Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
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(b) Using Appendix 2 and other information, consider TT’s financial position. Do you think TT is
in a good financial position to expand? Justify your answer using suitable calculations.
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3 (a) Explain one way the information in each chart in Appendix 1 might be useful to TT.
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(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider the three applicants for the job of Marketing
Manager for country Z. Who is the best applicant for the job? Justify your answer.
Labiba: ..............................................................................................................................
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Shahin: .............................................................................................................................
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Samihah: ..........................................................................................................................
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Effect 1: .............................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the benefits and drawbacks for country Z if TT builds a factory there. Do you think
the government of country Z should allow TT to build this factory? Justify your answer.
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BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/11
Short Answer/Data Response 11
Key messages
• As in previous sessions candidates should be reminded to learn precise definitions for all
key terms and to use a different point of application and analysis for each point of
knowledge. A point can only be credited once within a given answer.
• Effective evaluation is an area which continues to require development. Candidates should
be reminded that evaluation must include a justified decision that follows on from the points
raised in the answer. A repetition of points already explained in the answer will not gain
evaluation marks. The mark scheme for each part (e) question includes one example of
how evaluation may be demonstrated in the answer.
General comments
Candidates this session found some of the questions quite challenging. This was particularly true of
Questions 2(a), 2(d) each of the part (e). Candidates had quite limited knowledge of some aspects of these
topics. This led to candidates trying to alter the questions asked to fit with their knowledge base. This was
most noticeable in Questions 1(d), 2(d) and 4(e).
Candidates would benefit from a greater depth of knowledge of topics 1.3.3, 1.4.1, 6.2.1 and 6.3.1
Question 1
(a) Candidates were generally aware of this term and recognised that the key elements were the focus
and higher skills level. Weaker responses lost marks by confusing specialisation with division of
labour.
(b) This topic was well understood by most candidates. Some responses confused methods of
production with management to achieve lean production. Such responses incorrectly stated lean,
JIT and Kaizen.
(c) Candidates did not clearly understand this topic. Better responses identified the benefits of fewer
complaints and less reworking for this manufacturing business. Some strong responses struggled
to apply both of their knowledge points to the business in the stem of the question and simply
repeated carpet in each answer. Weaker responses incorrectly explained that this would increase
quality or missed the focus of the question and described the benefits to the customer not WLT.
(d) This question produced a range of responses. The best answers explained the benefit of increased
access to new markets and the potential threat of increased competition for this manufacturing
business. Responses needed to develop fully to gain both explanation marks available. Candidates
for example who identified increased competition as a threat could not explain the potential of this
on WLT. Some candidate’s lost marks by confusing globalisation with international trade. A
noticeable number of candidates discussed the dangers of child labour, cultural differences and
quotas which were irrelevant to the question asked.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(e) This was a challenging question for candidates and a mark of one or two was common as
candidates struggled to provide effective analysis. The strongest answers recognised the
improvements may reduce mistakes reducing wastage costs but at a financial cost in terms of
training time and money. The weakest answers simply repeated the word efficiency or stated that
output would increase rather than output per worker.
Question 2
(a) A common error was to define a cashflow problem i.e., cash inflow less than cash outflow rather
than identify the reasons why this might occur. The most common correct answers were a fall in
demand and allowing customers too long a credit period.
(b) Over 80 per cent of candidates correctly calculated these two figures. Some candidates lost a mark
by indicating incorrectly that X was a negative figure.
(c) A wide variety of suitable cash inflows were given in answer to this question. A small number of
candidates did not attempt this question. An error evident in several responses was to state
investors and trade receivables which are not inflows of money. Better responses precisely
identified funds from investors and payments to clear trade receivables.
(d) Some candidates found this to be the most challenging part (d) question on the paper. Advantages
were often explained correctly but a suitable disadvantage was not always clearly identified. A
common incorrect answer was that funds would be limited as this was not a PLC. The question
required a disadvantage of the private limited companies not a discussion of why PLC would be
better. The strongest responses were able to explain how limited liability would benefit the owners,
but that legal formalities would be a disadvantage.
(e) Candidates frequently misunderstood this question. The strongest answers identified that a lack of
finance, a small market size or the fear of diseconomies of scale would limit the ability of a
business to expand. Very few candidates were able to offer effective evaluation, those who
attempted it often simply repeated points already credited as analysis. Weaker answers offered
general statements such as ‘because it is expensive to change’. Such points were too vague for
credit.
Question 3
(a) Some candidates confused a job description and person specification. Often such candidates were
able to gain one mark by showing some understanding of the term. The weakest responses simply
reordered the words and stated that this was a ‘description of the job’ gaining no credit.
(b) All five levels of Maslow were presented in answering this question. Some candidates however,
provided answers which were confused such as psychological or self – fulfilment. These answers
were not rewardable. A small number of candidates did not answer this question.
(c) This question was generally, well answered by most candidates who explained the qualifications,
skills or experience required for this delivery business.
(d) This question produced a range of responses. Candidates who understood suitable methods of
finance frequently repeated the same application and analysis points in both parts of the question.
Most frequently this was by explaining loans would have interest and retained profit would not. This
mirror argument was not sufficient to gain both analysis marks. Several responses confused profit
and revenue with retained profit. The weakest responses stated short-term sources such as an
overdraft which is unlikely to be sufficient to purchase 20 vehicles. Several candidates did not
attempt this question.
(e) Candidates struggled to gain the analysis and evaluation marks available in this question, many
simply identified two points of knowledge concerning part-time workers. The strongest answers
focused on the view that part-time workers would be more flexible and would create an overall
lower wage bill. Weaker answers explained incorrectly that part time workers would be less tired or
lack skills. Such candidates seemed to be unaware that highly skilled consultants are often
employed on a part time basis as their specialist skills are not required full time.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 4
(a) This question was well answered the most common correct answers being sample size, bias, and
poorly worded questions. Weaker responses incorrectly stated that a key factor was the type of
research completed. Primary research was often stated incorrectly as being more accurate.
(b) This topic was not well understood. Very few candidates provided two distinct benefits. Many
gained one mark by showing some awareness that segmentation would make research simpler.
The weakest responses incorrectly stated that segmentation would allow a business to ‘charge a
higher price’. Some candidates did not attempt this question.
(c) Candidates who recognised that the question required an explanation of methods NLR could use to
be more environmentally friendly scored highly. The best responses identified an action, such as
using recyclable material and linked this to the skin care producer. Many candidates confused
environmentally friendly and ethical actions. Such responses often explained that the business
should not test products on animals. These responses gained zero marks.
(d) There were few good answers to this question. Knowledge marks were awarded for correctly
stating either two stages of the product life cycle or pricing methods. Responses which stated a
stage of the life cycle life and then explained how prices would set in this stage scored highly. Such
responses were able to clearly apply their answers to the situation described in the question stem.
Responses which identified pricing strategies by name often struggled to develop in the context of
the question set. The weakest responses confused the product and business cycle and stated peak
and trough as their two stages. A small but significant number of candidates did not attempt this
question.
(e) A mark of 2 or 3 was common on this question. Better responses stated two functions of
packaging. Very few responses effectively explained the link between brand image and packaging
to gain the analysis marks available. Those that did often gained one knowledge mark by
explaining the potential to attract customers or stand out from competitor’s products. The weakest
responses explained the importance of brand image with no link to packaging which was the key
focus of the question.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/12
Short Answer/Data Response 12
Key messages
General comments
This was an accessible paper with most candidates demonstrating good knowledge of most topics. Many
candidates continue to find accessing the application, analysis and evaluation marks more challenging.
Parts (a) and (b) of each question were generally well attempted. However, definitions often lacked the
necessary precision to access the marks available.
Candidates should be reminded that questions can be set on any area of the syllabus. It was clear that some
candidates were not familiar with topics such as why markets are competitive and the stages of the business
cycle.
For most part (c) (excluding 3c which only assessed knowledge) and all part (d) questions, candidates
needed to use information from the stem to link their answers to the scenario to access application marks.
Candidates should not use the same application for more than one point in their answer.
Candidates must understand which skills are being assessed in each question. Some candidates included
analysis in part (c) questions and application in part (e) questions. However, part (c) questions only assess
knowledge or knowledge and application, while part (e) questions assess knowledge, analysis and
evaluation. No other skills can be awarded in these questions.
Developing evaluation skills is important. The School Support Hub provides skills exercises which candidates
might find helpful. Many responses still do not include any decision in part (e) questions. Of those
candidates who did attempt an evaluative comment, most were unable to provide reasoned statements to
support the decision made. One approach is to make a choice, provide a reason for this decision, and then
explain why it is better than the alternative discussed.
Question 1
(b) Candidates who understood break-even charts did well on this question. A common mistake was to
represent break-even output as a financial value instead of as units. Break-even output was 500
units and break-even revenue was $60 000.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(c) There were many excellent answers to this question. A common mistake was to use the same
application for both answers. Other candidates focused on the impact of higher prices on sales -
forgetting that a break-even chart assumes all items are sold.
(d) This question was poorly answered by most candidates. Responses which gained knowledge
marks did tend to gain application for relevant references to this watch manufacturer. However,
most candidates struggled to develop their points. Many candidates continue to make incorrect
assumptions about full-time employees. For example, they must be more skilled, efficient or
motivated which is not necessarily true as this depends on the job and/or the person. Other
candidates defined the term or simply stated they would produce more because they were there for
longer periods of time. These answers were not awarded any marks.
(e) Good knowledge of job production was evident in most responses. Better responses were able to
develop the points made. Instead of analysis weaker responses identified additional knowledge
points. A common error was repetition. For example, stating job production has no economies of
scale while batch production allows for some economies of scale is classed as a mirror argument
so will only be credited once. Flow production was mentioned in many responses, but this is not
appropriate for a small business. Other candidates applied their answer to FBW which was
unnecessary in this generic question. Where a decision was made, this was either not supported or
repeated earlier points made so did not count as evaluation.
Question 2
(a) The best answers identified ways stated in the mark scheme such as help set objectives and
support requests for loans. A common mistake was a lack of precision. Answers such as help
decision making, avoid problems or be more organised were too vague. Other candidates identified
elements of a business plan which was not the focus of this question.
(c) Good knowledge was evident in most responses with speed and no written record typical
advantages and disadvantages respectively. A common mistake was a lack of application which
meant candidates missed two potential marks. Other candidates outlined general factors such as a
language barrier which could refer to any method of communication. Some candidates made vague
references that using a phone was easy without indicating why this might be the case.
(d) Most candidates could identify at least one factor with skills and access to finance popular choices.
Better responses were able to access the application marks by recognising that Meena was a sole
trader or that she was looking to expand her house-cleaning business. Most candidates found it
difficult to offer relevant development. A common mistake was to focus on who should be the
partner rather than whether she should have one.
(e) Candidates were clearly familiar with the concept of market research and most candidates were
therefore able to access the knowledge marks. Better responses tended to gain the analysis marks
for explaining either the advantages or disadvantages of the methods discussed. The best answers
then used this information as the basis for their evaluation. However, to access both evaluation
marks, they needed to focus on this research being for a new product or service. Some candidates
described a method without identifying it which was necessary to access any marks. Other
candidates made vague statements such as it would be easy to gather information or commented
on the accuracy of the data gathered. A small number of candidates had the wrong focus as they
identified reasons for carrying out primary market research.
Question 3
(a) Most candidates understood the term but did not gain the second mark as they said the tax was on
imported goods without stating what an import was. A common mistake was to confuse an import
tariff with a quota. Many responses lacked precision as they referred to money or costs which could
be confused with the general costs of international trade. Other candidates identified reasons why
tariffs were introduced.
(b) This question was poorly answered by most candidates. A common mistake was to identify factors
affecting demand rather than reasons why some markets are more competitive.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(c) Most candidates could identify at least one stage with growth the most popular correct answer. The
most common mistake was to confuse the business cycle with the product life cycle.
(d) This question was split into two parts. Many candidates understood that an import quota is likely to
reduce the amount of goods that could be imported. Better responses developed this point to show
how this might affect the business in terms of lower output or having to find alternative suppliers. A
common mistake was to confuse quotas with tariffs. Most candidates found the second part more
challenging. Many confused currency appreciation with currency depreciation, so wrongly assumed
that imports would be more expensive.
(e) This question produced a range of responses. The best answers understood the role retailers could
play through wider distribution and advertising and explained how this could lead to higher sales or
lower costs. Most candidates had some knowledge of distribution channels, but many had the
wrong focus as they discussed the advantages to retailers, wholesalers or customers rather than
manufacturers. Weaker responses struggled to develop the points made. Without analysis,
candidates could not access evaluation marks.
Question 4
(a) Many candidates showed partial understanding of the term but did not provide a clear definition. A
common mistake was to define profit or identify uses of profit. Other candidates reordered the
words which showed no understanding.
(b) Most candidates either understood that a current asset was owned or that it was held in the
business for less than one year. The best answers mentioned both elements. One common
mistake was to refer to ‘a short period of time’ without specifying what this meant. Some repeated
the word ‘asset’ or gave examples which did not define the term. Other candidates confused assets
with liabilities by saying the assets were owed to others.
(c) Many candidates understood that working capital is used to pay day-to-day expenses. However,
most candidates found it difficult to outline a second reason. Common mistakes were to offer
different examples of costs such as paying employees and suppliers which could only be awarded
once. Other candidates confused working capital with profit. Some responses defined the term
which was unnecessary.
(d) This question produced a range of responses. Candidates generally did better when considering
the effect on employees as stakeholders, but often struggled to explain the effect on suppliers.
Stronger responses recognised promotion could be an opportunity for employees while suppliers
might gain additional orders. They then developed these points to show the effect on wages and
revenue respectively. There were many mistakes and misunderstandings. For example, some
assumed suppliers would provide raw materials to CPF ignoring the context which states CPF was
a retailer. Other candidates assumed the expansion would mean employees being made
redundant or receiving lower wages, while suppliers would not be paid. Some responses focused
on the effect on CPF instead of the named stakeholders.
(e) Good knowledge was evident in many responses, but most candidates struggled to develop their
points. Instead of analysis candidates tended to identify additional points of knowledge. A common
mistake was repetition. Stating a loan incurs interest but equity does not is the same point and will
only be credited once. Care is needed when using abbreviations. For example, PLC is commonly
used to refer to a public limited company so such answers could not be credited. Some candidates
compared the advantages and disadvantages of the two types of limited companies which did not
answer the question. Definitions of a private limited company were unnecessary.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/21
Case Study 21
Key messages
Candidates should be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is apart from one (a)
question that will usually be generic. Applying answers to the case will ensure responses are appropriate for
each given situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both parts (a) and (b) for
application. In this particular case study candidates were expected to refer to a large business that
operates a chain of 500 fast-food restaurants. It is advisable for candidates to ask themselves about the
size of the business, is it a service or manufacturer and what is the type of business organisation? This
may add to the quality of their answers.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of positive and negative consequences of a business
decision when this is asked for. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple description;
listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the answer to
Level 2. Few well developed points will score higher marks than a long list of simple statements.
• Several questions on this paper ask candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without full
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case and make reference to why the alternative
option(s) was rejected.
General comments
Candidates had generally been well prepared for this examination and understood what was expected of
them. The context of VP, a large business operating fast-food restaurants, provided an accessible scenario
for candidates. Those who applied their answers to the context of VP boosted their marks much further. The
majority of candidates seemed to have time to complete the paper and attempted all questions.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, so
they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. Also, the question
should be read carefully to ensure answers are appropriate and clearly address the question asked, such as
answering from the point of view of a business rather than its employees. Many candidates showed good
knowledge and understanding of the full range of the syllabus that was assessed, but it was clear that certain
topics were not as well understood. The weakest understanding was of short- and long-term business
finance and economic influences on business.
Overall, the standard was good with very few weak scripts. Candidates often provided answers in context
which enabled access to application marks. However, candidates should make sure that different examples
of application are included in each section of (a) questions (not 1a on this paper) and the
conclusion/recommendation should also be applied to the case in (b) questions. A lack of analysis and
evaluation resulted in answers remaining in the lower-level mark band. Candidates should aim to consider
the consequences/implications/long term/short term/balance issues of the decisions to secure Level 2 or
Level 3 marks in the conclusion/recommendation.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates could name and explain four barriers to communication for a business
and offered an appropriate explanation. The business operates 500 restaurants across Country Z
so one barrier would be caused by a long chain of command where messages could easily be
distorted as they passed through each level of the hierarchy. Many responses mentioned problems
with the sender or receiver, but the most common response focused on the barrier to
communication of poor technology. Internet failure, lack of computers and weak technology skills
amongst the workers were often discussed. Some responses offered only bullet points with
insufficient explanation to earn the full marks available.
(b) This question required candidates to consider two ways that VP can purchase its inventory, either
by head office or restaurant managers. In the discussion about the head office purchasing the
inventory, many candidates identified the benefit of bulk buying ingredients which would bring
advantages of purchasing economies of scale reducing unit costs. This would then increase profit
margins for VP. However, it might be necessary to store some ingredients in a warehouse because
not all branches would order the same amount at the same time. This kind of developed
explanation earned Level 2 reward. Simple statements which mentioned that head office could
retain responsibility and control for ordering ingredients for all 500 restaurants earned only Level 1
reward. Consideration of the restaurant managers ordering their own inventory often cited the
benefit of local suppliers being able to deliver much more quickly in response to changes in
demand. More importantly the food would be fresher which would enhance the reputation of VP’s
restaurants. However, the restaurant managers are already very busy and may not have the time
to order ingredients.
Question 2
(a) Knowledge of the topic of delegation was generally strong. Many candidates identified the
advantages of restaurant managers delegating tasks to assistant managers as an opportunity for
the manager to focus on other tasks and to give the assistant manager the chance to develop new
skills and gain experience in a managerial role. The disadvantages of delegation were well
considered. The restaurant manager would still carry the responsibility of the quality of food served
and the reputation of the restaurant, whilst lack of experience on the part of the assistant manager
might require extra training in customer service or food hygiene knowledge. There were four
application marks in this question, so it was possible to earn maximum marks by making four clear
points with reference to the context of VP Restaurants in each part of the response. Some weaker
responses offered repetition of points or answered in a generic style.
(b) Some candidates found this question quite challenging. Using the information from the case study,
they were asked to compare country A and country B as possible locations for new restaurants. In
Country A the higher average variable costs and higher wage rates would lead to higher costs
overall. Even though VP might charge $20 for each meal they would have to be mindful of the high
level of competition which might require an expensive marketing campaign. This would further
increase costs and reduce profit margins. The option of locating new restaurants in Country B
would allow VP to operate with much lower variable costs and wage rates. Since unemployment
was high it would likely be easier to recruit cooks and servers for the new restaurants. However,
high unemployment would make it less likely for customers to afford fast food because the average
disposable income would be quite low. This might keep sales below the expected level and
therefore restaurants might not be profitable. To earn Level 3 credit in the conclusion responses
needed to make a justified judgement about which option would be the ideal choice. The best
answers avoided repeating points made earlier in the response and related to why one location
was more suitable and the other less suitable for VP.
Question 3
(a) This was a well-answered question. Many candidates were able to outline the aim of gaining higher
profit or accessing new markets as a possible reason for expansion. The benefits of operating on a
large scale to reduce unit costs from bulk buying of food ingredients was often discussed by
candidates. Other strong responses explained that expansion would help VP gain a larger share of
the market which could strengthen the brand image and develop customer loyalty. To gain the
highest number of marks on this question additional explanation was required which also referred
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
to the context of VP’s restaurants. Some responses briefly mentioned several reasons for
expansion instead of developing the explanation of just two points.
(b) This question required candidates to consider the benefits and limitations of VP entering a new
country as a joint venture or franchising. Not all responses showed good knowledge of these two
methods of operating a business. The discussion about operating as a joint venture often
mentioned the benefit of sharing ideas and using the partner’s knowledge of the local market
before the restaurants opened in the new country. This would make it less risky for VP and less
expensive in terms of market research. However, the joint venture might result in disagreements
and an unequal sharing of the workload and resources. The possibility of franchising the VP brand
would reduce the start-up costs of new restaurants for VP. The franchisee would make the bulk of
the investment in premises and kitchen equipment rather than VP. VP would benefit from the fees
paid by the franchisee and expansion of the restaurants could occur quite rapidly. Some weaker
candidates wrongly assumed that VP themselves would be franchisees and made contradictory
arguments in their response.
Question 4
(a) This question required candidates to explain, using an example, the reason why VP might need
short-term and long-term finance. Strong responses mentioned that VP would need short-term
finance to pay day-to-day expenses such as paying wages to more than 25, 000 restaurant
workers. This might require an overdraft from the bank to enable wages to be paid on time every
week. Long-term finance might be needed for the restaurants that needed to update ovens and
cooking equipment. This would be very expensive. A bank loan might be an appropriate method of
finance in this case so that VP could spread repayments over a few years. This topic did not seem
to be well-known by quite a large number of candidates. Some responses offered brief mention of
debts without explaining a specific reason for needing finance and, more importantly, not linking
their answer to VP itself.
(b) The discussion about the impact of three changes in the economy of Country Z resulted in some
varied responses. It was often mentioned that an increase in interest rates would not only increase
repayments on any loans taken by VP but also reduce consumer spending in the economy as a
whole. As a result, sales of fast-food at VP might fall and profits decrease. Many candidates argued
that there would be a significant impact on VP following the depreciation of the exchange rate in
Country Z. Imported food ingredients would cost much more, especially since 30 per cent of VP’s
ingredients were imported. It might mean that the business buys from local suppliers instead of
importing to keep their costs down, but the quality of the food may not be as good as the imported
food supplies. Many candidates suggested that introducing legal controls for listing ingredients in
its meals would not have a major impact on VP. They already reprint menus frequently when new
meals were introduced so listing would require just a little more time and attention to detail. Better
recommendations did more than offer repeated earlier points – they weighed up the impact, large
or small, which resulted from the economic changes. The best answers justified their decision with
reasoned argument about which would affect VP the most.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/22
Case Study 22
Key messages
Candidates should be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is apart from one (a)
question which will be generic. Applying answers to the case will ensure responses are appropriate for the
given situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both (a) and (b) questions for
application. In this particular case study, candidates were expected to refer to a start-up theatre
business. It is advisable for candidates to ask themselves about the size of the business, whether it is a
service business or a manufacturer, and the type of business organisation.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of both the positive and negative consequences of a
business decision when this is asked for. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple
description; listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the
answer to Level 2. A few well developed points will achieve higher marks than a long list of simple
statements.
• Several questions on this paper ask candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on a balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without full
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case and make reference to why the alternative
option(s) was rejected.
General comments
Candidates had generally been well prepared for this examination and understood what was expected of
them. The context of ET, a start-up theatre business, provided an accessible scenario for candidates. Those
who applied their answers to the context of ET achieved higher marks. The majority of candidates seemed to
have time to complete the paper and attempted all questions.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, so
they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. The question
should be read carefully to ensure answers are appropriate and clearly address the question asked, such as
answering from the point of view of a business rather than its employees.
Many candidates showed good knowledge and understanding of the full range of the syllabus that was
assessed, but in some cases it was clear that certain topics were not as well understood. The weakest
understanding was of incorporated and unincorporated businesses, the objectives of a social enterprise, the
importance of preparing a cash-flow forecast and the roles of marketing.
Overall, the standard was good, with very few weak scripts, which was in line with previous years.
Candidates often provided answers in context which enabled them to access the application marks.
However, candidates should make sure that different examples of application are included in each section of
(a) questions, and that the conclusion/recommendation is also applied to the case in (b) questions. A lack of
analysis and evaluation resulted in answers remaining in the lower level mark band. Candidates should aim
to consider the consequences / implications / long-term / short-term / balance issues of the decisions to
secure Level 2 or Level 3 marks in the conclusion/recommendation.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates were able to state at least three, if not four, characteristics of an
entrepreneur as well as explaining some of these characteristics. The most popular characteristics
were risk-taker, hard worker, effective communicator, creative and innovative. A few candidates
stated the characteristics but explained the characteristics using the same term in the explanation,
for example, being creative... an entrepreneur should be creative to be successful or a risk-taker…
that the entrepreneur would have to take risks. Some candidates attempted to apply their
explanations to ET even though this was a generic question. The weakest responses did not focus
on the personal attributes of the entrepreneur but on other factors for a successful business, such
as having sufficient capital and drawing up a business plan.
(b) This was a challenging question. Many candidates were able to identify the benefits and drawbacks
of partnerships and private limited companies. However, they did not always compare them with
each other but with sole traders or public limited companies. Some responses included mirror
arguments, such as listing ‘not a separate legal identity’ for partnerships and ‘separate legal
identity’ for private limited companies which could only be credited once. Weaker responses
confused limited and unlimited liability, and private limited companies with the public sector. The
concepts of personal liability, continuity, ease of setting up and privacy of information were well
understood and well explained in stronger responses. However, only the strongest candidates
could justify which option to choose and which one to reject without repeating earlier points.
Question 2
(a) This question was well answered with the majority of candidates identifying survival or profit as the
objective for ET and helping the community as the objective for Daycare. A large number of
candidates could explain the objectives well and in context. However, weaker responses did not
focus on one objective, or they focused on how the objective could be achieved rather than why ET
or Daycare would have that objective. An error made by some candidates in the first section about
ET’s objectives was to think that profit is acquired in order to pay expenses rather than being the
surplus after those expenses have been met. A minority of candidates got confused and thought
ET was running Daycare.
(b) This question differentiated candidates into those that could carry out calculations using the data
provided and those who could not. It should be emphasised to candidates that when the question
says justify your answer using suitable calculations then calculations should be included in the
answer. Answers need to go beyond comments such as makes a loss and give the actual figure.
Weaker responses gave a basic answer and included a comparison of the figures from Appendix 2,
such as the forecast revenue is higher for Option 2. Some answers simply said the revenue was
high, but it is not known whether this is true. Some candidates stated that Option 1 made a loss
and did not include the actual figure but did calculate the actual profit for Option 2. Stronger
candidates could calculate both the profit and loss figures. Some candidates also calculated the
profit margins for both options as well, although this was not necessary to make a valid
recommendation. The most popular recommendation was to choose Option 2 as it made a profit,
and this was argued to be important for a new business. A smaller number of candidates argued
that the low-income area may not yield many customers who could pay the higher price for Option
2 and therefore Option 1 should be chosen as the profit was only a forecast and may not be
achieved. A minority of weaker responses made assumptions about staff motivation or the quality
of the performance, which was based on their own opinions rather than the actual information
provided in the appendix.
Question 3
(a) This question was not well answered by the majority of candidates. The most common error was to
confuse cash flow with profit. Stronger candidates recognised the use of cash flow in planning,
decision-making, for obtaining a bank loan, ensuring there is cash for day-to-day activities and
avoiding a liquidity problem. For those candidates who were able to identify appropriate reasons,
most were not able to apply them to the case study and therefore did not gain the second mark for
each reason. A number of candidates discussed cash inflows and outflows separately. The terms
‘revenue, expenditure, finance, money’ were used instead of ‘inflows, outflows, cash, working
capital.’ It was important for candidates to recognise that this was a forecast not a report on the
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
previous period. Another reason for weaker answers was the amount of repetition, for example
candidates gave multiple examples of expenses as cash outflows that could be monitored via the
cash-flow forecast.
(b) Many candidates could discuss the importance of identifying customers’ needs. Weaker responses
offered repetition of the question and often resulted in overlapping answers between the three parts
of the question. Better responses discussed in detail why identifying a specific target market was
important and also recognised the significance of providing suitable performances at a price that
would satisfy customers, particularly in a low-income area. Additionally, these candidates
established a connection between maintaining a strong reputation through excellent customer
service and gaining customer loyalty, ultimately leading to an increase in revenue and market
share. Many candidates did provide a justified conclusion with ‘identifying customers’ needs’ most
likely to be seen as the most important because the other two roles are based on this. A small
minority of candidates did not answer the question as they explained how the three roles could be
achieved rather than why they were important, for example, providing a description of primary
research methods to identify customers’ needs.
Question 4
(a) The majority of candidates answered this question well and discussed the leadership styles of
autocratic and democratic with laissez-faire being the least popular style. Many candidates then
went on to explain how each leadership style was used including its benefits and/or drawbacks.
The most common errors confused democratic leadership with delegation. Weaker responses
included explanations that were too vague, for example it was not always clear if an explanation
was for democratic or laissez-faire. Many answers were generic and hence application marks were
not gained so full marks were not achieved, even if the response had a good explanation of each
leadership style. Some weaker candidates mixed up the explanation of the leadership style, for
example they explained autocratic under the heading of democratic.
(b) Candidates were able to consider the three ethical issues. Strong responses often discussed:
better motivation and increased costs when paying fair wages; support for the local community and
reduced transport costs but then the quality of the costumes may be lower when buying from
suppliers in the local area; and gaining a better brand image increasing sales to ethically minded
consumers but increased costs for refreshments supplied by producers that do not damage the
environment. Responses from weaker candidates lacked development and so remained in the
Level 1 mark band. These included simple statements such as ‘it will be more expensive’ rather
than explaining why this was a disadvantage to the business by increasing costs which might lead
to higher prices and consequently lower sales. A small number of candidates thought that paying
fair wages meant paying the same amount to all employees and felt that most qualified employees
would be demotivated by this. Stronger responses demonstrated their understanding by outlining
the drawbacks of each change and offering a conclusive judgment on the change that was likely to
have the most significant impact on ET. This did not just repeat earlier points but justified the
choice by providing reasoning as to why this particular change would have a greater effect
compared to the other two changes.
© 2023
Grade thresholds – June 2023
The overall thresholds for the different grades were set as follows.
Maximum
Combination of
Option mark after 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
components
weighting
X 160 11, 21 104 93 82 71 60 49 38 28 18
Y 160 12, 22 104 93 82 71 60 50 38 27 16
Learn more! For more information please visit www.cambridgeinternational.org/igcse or contact Customer Services
on +44 (0)1223 553554 or email [email protected]
™
Cambridge IGCSE (9-1)
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*7306362678-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_21_2023_1.2
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2
VP was started 10 years ago in country Z. It is a public limited company. VP has a chain of 500 fast-food
restaurants that operate across country Z. The VP brand is famous for its vegetarian food, this means
none of its meals contain meat.
VP has a head office in Main City where all the directors and senior managers work. There are many
barriers to communication. Each VP restaurant has a Manager, an Assistant Manager and 50 employees
who cook and serve the meals. Restaurant Managers are often very busy and they are considering
delegating some of their tasks to the Assistant Managers.
The ingredients for the restaurants are ordered in bulk by head office and then distributed from its
warehouse to each of the restaurants. However, some senior managers think that Restaurant Managers
should purchase their own ingredients from local suppliers. This would mean the ingredients would be
fresher and would allow variations in the meals served.
VP wants to expand into another country. It will choose between the two countries shown in Appendix
2. VP will also need to decide how to enter a new market in another country. It has the option of forming
a joint venture with another business or franchising the VP brand. The choice of finance will need to be
considered for the expansion and the amount of finance will depend on the option chosen.
Appendix 1
Choose VP for the finest vegetarian meals. Our service is the fastest possible!
Delicious and varied meals for even the biggest of appetites and all at competitive prices.
Appendix 2
Summary of the two possible countries that VP could choose to locate its new restaurants.
Country A Country B
Appendix 3
Did you see the news this morning that interest rates will be raised from 3% to 5% later today? This will
have several effects on our business in country Z.
The news also said that the exchange rate in country Z has depreciated. We will have to consider how
this will affect our business, especially as we import 30% of our ingredients into country Z.
There are also new legal controls being introduced that mean we have to list all the ingredients used in
each of our meals on the menu. We do reprint menus every time we change the meals, but it is something
to consider.
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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*3081804448-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_22_2023_1.2
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2
Zane and Zaara are both actors. They plan to start up a theatre in a low-income area of Main City. Zane
and Zaara believe that helping the community is as important as being successful entrepreneurs.
The theatre will be a private sector business and Zane and Zaara have to decide whether to start up as
an unincorporated business (partnership) or as a limited company. Zane is planning to prepare a cash-flow
forecast for the first year. Zaara knows they will need to set business objectives for the theatre and also
decide on a leadership style to use when managing employees. ET will have 24 part-time employees
as shown in the organisational chart in Appendix 1.
Zane and Zaara plan to put on performances in the evenings for local people and tourists. There will be
100 seats in the theatre but not all the seats will be sold if the price is too high. The Marketing Manager,
Zaara, will need to decide which performances to put on, what price to charge and which refreshments
to sell. Zaara will also need to decide between the two possible options for the first performance when
the theatre opens. Information on the two options is shown in Appendix 2.
In the daytime the theatre building will be used by Daycare, a local social enterprise. Daycare takes care
of young children up to the age of 5 so that low-income family members can go out to work. It also
provides education for the children which helps their development and progress before they start school.
Some of Daycare’s objectives are different to those of ET.
Appendix 1
Note: The numbers in brackets are the number of part-time employees who work in each department.
Appendix 2
Forecast data for the two possible options for ET’s first performance at the theatre
Number of actors/employees 7 24
Forecast revenue assuming all 100 seats are sold $1000 $2500
Appendix 3
To: Zaara
From: Zane
We want to support the local community and we need to make decisions about the following.
Should we:
• Pay fair wages even though they may be higher than those paid by competing theatres?
• Only buy costumes produced in the local community?
• Purchase all refreshments from suppliers that do not pollute the environment?
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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not answering the question asked.
question
K Knowledge Indicates knowledge and understanding of the concepts and issues relating to the question.
EVAL Evaluation Indicates where the answer has demonstrated evaluation (part (e) questions only).
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect figure that results from the mistake is used for
subsequent calculations.
SEEN Noted but no Indicates that content has been recognised but not rewarded.
credit given
1(b) Identify two methods of production. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
Award 1 mark per method (max 2). Two from: Do not award answers such as lean production or cell
Job (production) production.
Batch (production)
Flow/mass (production)
1(c) Outline two advantages to WLT of using quality 4 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
assurance. must be appropriate, (i.e. make sense) in relation to the
point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant advantage (max 2).
The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business question:
(max 2). Carpets
40%/exported
Points might include: Globalisation
Reduces faults/errors at all stages of production/fewer Specialisation
mistakes [k] when making carpets [app] 60 (employees)
Less waste/less rework (of faulty products) [k] which Efficiency
could help improve efficiency [app] Manufactures/production
Encourages teamwork which may motivate worker [k]
among its 60 employees [app] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Fewer customer complaints/fewer customer
returns/replacements [k] Do not award:
Better brand image/improve/maintain reputation [k] improve customer satisfaction
Reduce inspection costs/do not need to hire inspectors [k] better quality
Allows business to know at what stage mistakes happen increase sales
[k] lower cost on its own
encourages teamwork/motivation on its own
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
1(d) Explain one opportunity and one threat of globalisation 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
for WLT. must be appropriate, (i.e. make sense) in relation to the
point being made.
Award 1 mark for each opportunity/threat (max 2).
The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business question:
(max 2). Award one mark for each relevant explanation Carpets
(max 2). 40%/exported
Specialisation
Opportunities might include: 60 (employees)
Increase potential sales/access to more markets [k] as it Efficiency
exports 40% of its products [app] increasing revenue Manufactures/production
[an]
Cheaper raw materials from other countries [k] to Other appropriate examples in context can be credited.
manufacture [app] which can improve the profit margin
[an] Accept sales as either [k] or [an] but not both.
Labour may be cheaper [k] reducing (labour) costs [an]
Economies of scale or relevant examples [k]
Global brands are more recognised/desirable [k]
1(e) Do you think improving labour skills is the best way for 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
a manufacturing business to increase efficiency? application.
Justify your answer.
For evaluation to be awarded justification will usually follow
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. on from relevant analysis of points.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Award up to 2 marks for justified decision as to whether Do not award as [an]:
improving labour skills is the best way for a manufacturing increased productivity
business to increase efficiency. profitability
lower cost
Points might include: more output
2(a) Identify two reasons why a business might have cash- 2 Only award first two answers given.
flow problems.
2(c) Identify four examples of a cash inflow. 4 Only award the first four responses given.
Award 1 mark per example (max 4). Points might include: Can award ‘sales’ if the candidate does not identify specific
(Cash) sales/revenue examples (of cash or credit sales).
Payments from trade receivables/money from credit
sales Can allow ‘additional income from renting assets’.
Grants Allow Debt factoring if seen.
Bank loan
Sponsorship Do not award trade receivables alone.
Sale of non-current assets
Funds from investors/share issue/capital introduced by
owner
Dividends from shares in other companies
Interest received from savings/bonds/investments
2(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to LMA of 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
becoming a private limited company. must be appropriate, (i.e. make sense) in relation to the
point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant advantage/disadvantage
(max 2). Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
business (max 2). Award 1 mark for each relevant question:
explanation (max 2). Restaurant
Partnership
Points might include: Remain small
Advantages: 20 years ago
Limited liability [k] so personal assets are not at risk if Family(-owned)
the business is not able to repay its debts/ only liable
for the amount invested [an] Other appropriate examples in context can be credited.
Separate legal identity [k] so the owners are not held
responsible for the actions of the business [an] which is
not true for a partnership [app]
Able to raise finance by selling shares [k] to fund
expansion [an] if the business decides it does not want
to remain small [app]
Continuity [k]
Can choose who buys shares [k]
Disadvantages:
More legal formalities [k] which takes time away from
other activities [an] in the restaurant [app]
Separation of ownership and control [k] so the owners
may not be involved /agree with business decisions
taken [an] as the directors may not listen to the family
[app]
Expensive/time consuming to change to this form of
business organisation [k]
Accounts must be made available [k]
Dividends may/ be paid [k] reducing retained profit [an]
2(e) Explain two reasons why a business might remain 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
small. Which reason is likely to be most important? application.
Justify your answer.
3(b) Identify two levels from Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
Award 1 mark per level (max 2). Two from: Do not award examples such as job security.
Physiological/physical
Safety/security Do not award answers such as ‘psychological’ or ‘basic
Social/(love and) belonging needs’ as too vague.
Esteem
Self-actualisation
3(c) Outline two factors DZD should consider when deciding 4 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
which applicants to recruit. must be appropriate, (i.e. make sense) in relation to the
point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant
factor (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for all
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business responses on this question:
(max 2). Delivery business or examples such as parcels
60 employees
Points might include: Large business
Experience [k] of delivering parcels [app] (20) vehicles
Qualifications or relevant examples such as do they Part-time
have a driving licence [k] to drive the (20) vehicles [app] Planning to expand
Skills or examples such as good at communication [k] as Maslow
will work in a large business [app] Human resource director
Whether they match the requirements of business/job or
examples such as physical ability/know the area [k] Other appropriate examples in context can be credited.
willing to work part-time [app]
Whether they match the culture of the business [k]
Performance during interview/testing [k]
Age [K]
References [K]
3(d) Explain two sources of finance DZD might use for the 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
new vehicles. must be appropriate, (i.e. make sense) in relation to the
point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant source of finance (max 2).
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
(max 2). question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). Delivery business or examples such as parcels
Planning to expand/expansion
Points might include: Large business
Bank loan [k] as able to purchase immediately [an] so 20 (vehicles)
there is no delay to the planned expansion [app]
Retained profit [k] as it's a large business [app] as no Do not award ‘vehicles’ as application as stated in question.
need to repay [an] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Leasing [k] of the 20 [app] vehicles as do not need to
make a large initial payment [an] Do not award short-term options such as overdraft as not
Hire purchase [k] appropriate in this context.
Grant [k]
Selling of assets [k]
Owner’s capital/share issue [k]
Debenture [k]
Crowdfunding [k]
3(e) Do you think a service business should only employ 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
part-time workers? Justify your answer. application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. The focus should be on the benefit/cost to the business not
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. the worker.
Award up to 2 marks for justified decision as to whether a
service business should only employ part-time workers.
Do not award points such as part-time workers are likely to
Points might include: be less tired, more motivated, lack skills, do not have a
contract.
Part-time:
When not working no need to pay wages [k] helping to Do not award answers which confuse part-time with
reduce labour costs [an] temporary/seasonal workers.
Need to recruit/train more employees [k] taking more
time/money [an]
Could allow the business to recruit wider range of skills
[k]
More flexible hours/less likely to take time off for
appointments [k]
Easier to extend worker hours at busy times [k] or [an]
Some employees may not be willing/want part-time jobs
[k] so may miss out on possible candidates if not
offered full-time option [an]
Full-time:
Able to offer consistency of service [k] so could improve
reputation/increase customers [an]
Workers may be committed to business [k] which could
increase the productivity of the business [an]
Easier to communicate/update [k]
Less workers needed [k]
4(a) Identify two factors that might affect the accuracy of 2 Only award the first two answers given.
market research.
4(b) Identify two benefits to a business of using market 2 Only award the first two responses given.
segmentation.
4(c) Outline two ways NLR might respond to environmental 4 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
pressures. must be appropriate, (i.e. make sense) in relation to the
point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2).
The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this question:
business (max 2). • Skincare or examples such as hand cream
• Packaging
Points might include: • 85% of consumers/customers
Reduce amount of materials used/wastage [k] when • Product life cycle
making its skincare products [app] • Market research
Use recycled materials [k] for the packaging [app] • Branded
Develop environmentally friendly products [k] based on
its market research [app] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Buy energy efficient/environmentally friendly
machinery/use renewable energy [k] Do not award environmental pressures as [app] on its own
Offer different sizes/only make to order/reduce number as stated in question.
of products available [k]
Alter/reduce transport use [k]
Promote/support environmentally friendly causes [k]
Ask customers to reuse containers (when buying from
shops) [k] as 85% of consumers (want the business to
respond to environmental pressures) [app]
4(d) Explain how NLR’s pricing decisions might be affected 6 Attract customers/To use words from the stem as
at two different stages of the product life cycle. application, the reference must be appropriate, (i.e. make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant stage of life cycle/pricing
method (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business question:
(max 2). Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max Skincare or examples such as hand cream
2). 85%
Market research
Points might include: Packaging
During introductory stage [k] the business may set a low Environmental pressures
price to attract customers [an] to their hand cream [app] Branded (product)
At growth stage [k] prices may be lowered due to Market segmentation
increased competition [an]
At maturity stage [k] price is likely to be similar to Other appropriate examples in context can be credited.
competitors to retain market share [an] for the branded
products[app]
During decline stage[k] discounts might be offered to
maintain sales/ sell of remaining inventory [an]
Skimming pricing [k] can be used at the introductory
stage to recover development costs [an] of new
packaging [app]
Penetration pricing [k] in some market segments [app]
Cost plus pricing [k]
Competitive pricing [k]
Promotional pricing [k]
4(e) Do you think promoting the brand image is the most 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
important role of packaging? Justify your answer. application.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not answering the question asked.
question
K Knowledge Indicates knowledge and understanding of the concepts and issues relating to the question.
EVAL Evaluation Indicates where the answer has demonstrated evaluation (part (e) questions only).
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect figure that results from the mistake is used for
subsequent calculations.
SEEN Noted but no Indicates that content has been recognised but not rewarded.
credit given
1(a) Identify two reasons why a business might offer training to its 2 Only award the first two responses given.
employees.
1(c) Outline two possible effects on FBW’s break-even chart if the prices of 4 To use words from the stem as application,
its products are increased. the reference must be appropriate (i.e.
make sense) in relation to the point being
Award 1 mark for each relevant effect (max 2). made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Points might include: Watches
Reduce/lower break-even output [k] below 500 units [app] 5 (employees)
Increase the margin of safety [k] above 100 [app] Training (every year)
Increase contribution per unit [k] when using job production [app] Job production
Increase revenue [k] from sale of its watches [app] 600 units (sold)
Reduce break-even revenue [k] 500 (break-even output)
Increase profit margin [k] 100 (margin of safety)
Increase (potential) profit/reduce (potential) loss [k] $4000 (profit at 600 units)
$60 000 (break even revenue)
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
Other appropriate examples can be credited.
1(d) Explain two benefits to FBW of having full-time employees. 6 To use words from the stem as application,
the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant benefit (max 2). sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). Watches
5 (employees)
Points might include: (Regular) training
Workers likely to be more loyal/committed [k] so lower labour Job production
turnover/lower cost of recruitment [an] for its 5 employees [app] 600 units sold
Easy to communicate/update [k] when making its watches [app] so could 500 (break-even output)
be more efficient [an]
Consistent standard of work [k] leading to better reputation [an] which is Other appropriate examples can be
helpful as using job production [app] credited.
Fewer workers needed [k] so less training required [an]
Less employees to manage [k] so managers can focus on other issues
[an]
Employees become more familiar with the business [k]
Always available/can find when needed [k]
1(e) Do you think job production is the best method of production for a 6 This is a general question so there are no
small business to use? Justify your answer. marks for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Some points could be written as an advantage
or a disadvantage of each method but only
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. award once.
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether job production is Some points can be [k] or [an] but do not
the best method of production for a small business to use. award the same point twice.
2(a) Identify two ways a business plan can help a business to reduce risk. 2 Only award the first two answers given.
2(b) Identify two possible reasons why a business might want to expand. 2 Only award the first two answers given.
2(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to Gloria of using 4 To use words from the stem as application,
telephone calls as a method of communication with her employees. the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage/disadvantage
(max 2). The following words are likely to be
appropriate on this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). (House) cleaning
4 employees
Points might include: Sole trader
Can help share her workload
Advantages:
Instant/quick to contact [k] her 4 employees [app] Other appropriate examples can be
Opportunity to get immediate feedback [k] about cleaning jobs [app] credited.
Can talk to employees who are anywhere/elsewhere [k]
Can leave a message/voice note [k]
Disadvantages:
Technical problems e.g. no internet/signal [k] so will not help reduce her
workload [app]
No hard copy/nothing to refer to [k]
Receiver may not answer the phone/might be busy when call [k]
Not face to face/no body language [k]
May only be able to speak to one person at a time [k]
Cannot show data/chart over a phone [k]
Cost [k]
2(d) Explain two factors Gloria should consider when deciding whether to 6 To use words from the stem as application,
take on a business partner. the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant factor (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). appropriate for this question:
(House) cleaning
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). Expand/repair service
4 employees
Points might include: Effective communication is important
Have to share responsibilities/management/control [k] of the cleaning Reduce her workload
business [app] which could lead to conflict [an] Sole trader
Offer skills (or examples of) [k] which could lead to business Market research
opportunities [an] such as the repair service [app]
May offer experience/expertise/knowledge [k] increasing efficiency [an] Other appropriate examples can be
to help reduce the workload [app] credited.
Access to finance/capital [k] so can grow faster/upgrade equipment [an]
making it easier to expand [app] Takes time to make decisions is [k] or [an]
Different objectives/ways of working [k] which could lead to slower but do not award the same point twice.
decision-making/conflict [an]
Whether want to share decision-making/take longer to make decisions Reduce workload can be [k], [app] or [an]
[k] but may lead to better decisions [an] but only award once.
Someone to share risk/losses/costs [k]
Whether wants/have to share any profit [k] compared to staying as a Conflict/argument is [an] only.
sole trader [app]
2(e) Explain two methods of primary market research a business could use 6 This is a general question so there are no
to find out the demand for a new product or service. Which would be marks for application.
the best method to use? Justify your answer.
Some points could be written as either
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. advantages or disadvantages of different
methods but only award once.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Some points can be awarded as [k] or [an]
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to which is the best method of but only award once.
primary market research for a small business to use to find out the demand
for a new product or service.
Observation [k]:
• Seeing what people do can be more accurate than what they say [an]
• More expensive (than other methods) [an]
• Test marketing/product trials [k]:
• Cost of any mistake is limited to a small output [an]
• Takes longer for final product to reach main market [an]
A tax placed on imported goods when they arrive into a country [2]
OR
A specific form of tax imposed on imported goods [2]
Partial definition e.g. type of tax [1] OR tax on imported goods [1]
3(b) Identify two reasons why some markets can become more competitive. 2 Only award the first two answers given.
3(c) State the four stages of the business cycle. 2 Award the first four responses only.
Award 1 mark per stage (max 4). The order does not matter.
Recession
(Economic) growth
Boom
Slump/depression
3(d) Explain one possible effect of the following changes on VVA when 6 To use words from the stem as application,
importing raw materials: the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant effect [max 2].
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business [max 2]. appropriate for this question:
School backpacks/bags
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation [max 2]. 45% (raw materials) / 55% locally
Retailers
Points might include: Increased level of competition
3(e) Do you think retailers are the best channel of distribution for a 6 This is a general question so there are no
manufacturing business to use? Justify your answer. marks for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Points must focus on viewpoint of
manufacturing business.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Some points can be presented as
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether using retailers is advantages/disadvantages of different
the best channel of distribution for a manufacturing business to use. channels but only award point once.
Points might include: Some points can be written as [k] or [an] but
only award once.
Retailers:
Wide distribution/access to customers/sell in different places [k]
increase sales/revenue [an]
Retailers will carry out/pay for advertising/promotional activities [k] raise
awareness/increase sales [an]
Can sell in large quantities/higher sales [k]
Manufacturer can hold less inventory [k] lower storage costs [an]
Price may be higher [k] leading to fewer sales [an]
No direct contact with customers [k] so difficult to build/maintain
customer relationship [an]
Loss of (some) control of marketing mix/promotion/price/product [k]
Retailer takes some of the profit [k] which reduces profit margin [an]
Manufacturer must pay delivery costs to the retailers [k]
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Profit (left, or) reinvested back into the business, (after all payments have
been made) [2]
OR
Profit (remaining after all expenses, tax and dividends have been paid), which
is ploughed back into the business [2]
Partial definition e.g. profit /money to reinvest [1] OR profit left after dividends /
shareholders paid [1]
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Items owned by/belong to business and used within one year [2]
OR
Resources that the business owns and expects to convert into cash before
the date of the next statement of financial position [2]
Partial definition e.g. items in the business for less than one year/12
months/within a financial year [1] OR assets owned
4(c) Outline two possible reasons why working capital is important for CPF. 4 To use words from the stem as application,
the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
Award 1 mark for each relevant reason (max 2). sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2) The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Points might include: (4) shops/retailer/stores
To pay day-to-day expenses/(short term) debts or examples such as pay 30 (employees)
wages [k] for its 30 employees [app] Clothes
To pay for unexpected expenses/emergencies [k] especially as the Private limited company
business is looking to expand [app] Plans to expand
To ensure the business has a good credit reputation [k] for the 4 shops Retained profit is low
[app]
Ensures the business can take advantage of special offers/discounts on Other appropriate examples can be credited.
bulk purchases [k] of its clothes [app]
To cope with seasonal demand [k]
4(d) Explain one way each of the following stakeholder groups might be 6 To use words from the stem as application,
affected by CPF’s plans to expand its business. the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). appropriate for this question:
(4/new) shops/retailer/stores
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). 30 (employees)
Clothes
Points might include: Private limited company
Low retained profit
Employees:
Opportunities for promotion [k] for the 30 employees [app] so may be Other appropriate examples can be credited.
able to benefit from higher wages [an]
Work extra hours [k] at the new shop [app] so gain extra payments/which Some points can be [k] or [an] but only
may lead to mistakes [an] award once.
Greater variety/different tasks/work to do [k] making the work more
interesting/less boring for them [an]
More job security [k] increasing motivation [an]
Employees may have to move location [k] so long time to get to
work/travel costs increase [an]
Suppliers:
Additional orders/sales/produce more [k] of clothing [app] leading to
additional revenue [an]
Security/certainty of regular orders [k] so able to plan effectively [an]
May struggle to meet extra demand [k]
May have to distribute goods to a new area [k] increasing transport costs
[an]
4(e) Do you think it is better for a private limited company to use debt (e.g. 6 This is a general question so there are no
a loan) or equity (issuing more shares) as a source of long-term marks for application.
finance? Justify your answer.
Some points could be written as either
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. advantages or disadvantages of different
sources but only award once.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Some points can be written as [k] or [an] but
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether it is better for a only award a point once.
limited company to use debt (e.g. a loan) or equity (issue shares) as a source
of long-term finance.
Debt:
May be difficult to raise additional finance [k] if banks/suppliers
concerned about its ability to repay existing loans [an]
No change of ownership [k] so lenders have no say in decisions [an]
Can receive all the money at once/at the same time [k]
Must pay interest [k] which increases costs/cash flow problems [an]
Need to repay [k]
Need security [k] which can lose if unable to repay debt [an]
Equity/issue shares:
No interest/finance costs to pay [k] so no extra cash outflows [an]
Permanent source of capital/no need to repay [k]
Can only sell to friends and family/small number of shareholders [k]
which can limit the amount of capital raised [an]
Dividends expected/paid to shareholders [k] so less retained profit [an]
Give up some ownership [k]
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to
reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too
vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not
question answering the question asked.
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect
figure that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
calculations.
SEEN Noted but no credit Indicates that content has been recognised but not
given rewarded.
Award a maximum of one additional mark for each explanation of the barrier.
For example: Problems with the sender (1) they may use language that
includes jargon or technical terms so do not understand instructions (1).
1(b) Consider the following two ways VP can purchase its inventory. Which 12
way should it use? Justify your answer.
0 No creditable response. 0
1(b)
Justification might include:
All inventory is purchased by head office is
the best way for VP to choose as this will
allow considerable cost savings due to
purchasing economies of scale. This will
allow VP to keep prices low and to be more
competitive with other similar restaurants,
possibly increasing revenue. Ordering only
from local suppliers may make it difficult to
Recommendation meet customer demand as food ingredients
may run out if local suppliers are small.
Each Restaurant Manager purchases their
own inventory is the best way to choose
because each restaurant can meet local
demand, and this will attract more customers
leading to higher revenue. Also the costs of
storage are lower as smaller quantities can
be purchased so profit from selling fast-food
will be higher.
For example: Restaurant Managers can focus on their most important tasks
(1) which will help them to make better decisions for the fast-food
restaurants (app).
2(b) Using Appendix 2 and other information, consider the two countries VP 12
could choose to locate its new restaurants.
Which country should VP choose? Justify your answer.
0 No creditable response. 0
Benefits Drawbacks
2(b)
Lowest variable Lower gross profit
cost per meal at between price of
$2 rather than $6 $10 and costs of
in country A – $2 = $8, whereas it
makes it easier to is $14 in country A
charge the lowest Few competitors
price of $10 per may indicate that
meal demand for
High vegetarian fast-
unemployment food in country B
makes it easier to is low – VP needs
recruit new to spend on market
employees for the research to be sure
restaurants – there is a market in
more likely to country B –
remain with VP as investment could
few alternative be wasted if there
Country B
employment is not a sufficient
opportunities in demand to make
country B – the expansion
lowering successful
recruitment
costs/training costs
in the future
Lowest wage costs
at $5 per hour –
reducing total
labour costs
Low price at $10
per meal may
attract many
customers –
possibly increasing
revenue
3(b) Consider the benefits and limitations of the following two ways VP can 12
enter a new market in another country. Which way should VP choose?
Justify your answer.
• Joint venture
• Franchising
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
3(b)
Saves time on Poor quality
expanding into the management may
foreign market – as lead to a lowering of
business operating the reputation of the
fast-food VP brand – if the
restaurants will franchisee in the
make the foreign country
investment does not maintain
Payment from standard of
franchise fees for delivering fast food
using the VP brand in 5 minutes
- fee goes back to Low level of control
VP which may by VP Directors –
increase profits – over how the
making a return franchise operates
Franchising from the expansion the vegetarian
for low investment fast-food chain
from VP The franchisee has
Lower capital information about
requirement - no the food
need to raise ingredients and
finance for the recipes of VP and
expansion – no may use these
need to sell when the franchise
additional shares agreement has
with possible loss of expired – could
control/no bank loan develop a better
required so no need version and become
to pay interest rates a competitor
increasing fixed
costs
short-term finance
long-term finance.
For example: To provide working capital for the business (1) so that
day-to-day expenses can be paid for (1). An overdraft may be suitable as it is
only used if needed which potentially reduces the interest to be paid
(1) when buying food ingredients for the restaurants (app).
4(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider how the following 12
three changes in country Z may affect VP. Which change is likely to
have the greatest effect on VP's profits? Justify your answer.
Increase in interest rates.
Depreciation of country Z’s exchange rate.
New legal controls which require all restaurants to list the
ingredients in their meals.
0 No creditable response. 0
4(b)
Justification may include:
• Increase in interest rates will have the greatest
effect on profit because VP will need to take out
large bank loans to finance the expansion in
another country leading to a large increase in
costs from the interest payable which will reduce
VP profits. Depreciation will have little effect as
ingredients are only a small proportion of costs
and only 30% of ingredients are imported. The
new legal controls will have little effect on profit
as these are a relatively small cost and the
menus are printed regularly anyway when the
Conclusion of
menus change with the new meals.
which is likely
• Depreciation of the exchange rate of country Z
to have the
will have the greatest effect on profit as 30% of
greatest effect
food ingredients are imported. This will lead to
on profits
a large increase in variable costs which will
reduce gross profit and then profit for VP.
• New legal controls that require all restaurants to
provide information about the ingredients in their
meals will have the greatest effect on profit as
menus will have to all be reprinted every time a
new meal is developed. As VP do this regularly to
encourage customers to return so they do not get
bored with the same meals it will result in a
regular increase in costs and therefore a
reduction in profit.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to
reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too
vague.
NAQ Not answered question Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not
answering the question asked.
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect
figure that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
calculations.
SEEN Noted but no credit Indicates that content has been recognised but not
given rewarded.
For example: Self-confident (1) as the entrepreneur has a strong belief in their
own ability and ideas to convince others such as banks to lend to them (1)
0 No creditable response. 0
1(b)
Recommendation Justification may include:
ET should be an unincorporated business
because it is easy to set up the partnership. Zane
and Zaara will have complete control of the
theatre and keep all the profits. There are not
the legal formalities with a partnership that will
increase costs that there are if ET was a private
limited company.
ET should be a limited company to gain the
benefits of limited liability. If anything goes
wrong with the theatre, then any liability will only
be for an amount invested in the business, all
Zane and Zaara's personal belongings will be
safe.
2(a) Explain one business objective for ET and one other objective that a 8
social enterprise like Daycare might have.
For example: To provide a service to the community (1) to look after the pre-
school children (app) and support disadvantaged groups in the society that
cannot afford to pay for these services (1) so it will allow parents/guardians
to go to work and improve their family’s income (1)
2(b) Using Appendix 2 and other information, consider the two options for 12
the first performance at the theatre. Which is the best option for Zaara
to choose? Justify your answer using suitable calculations.
0 No creditable response. 0
2(b)
Justification may include:
• ET should choose Option 1 to have in the
theatre as it has the cheapest total cost at
$1210 per performance. As the theatre is
new it should try to keep its costs as low as
possible. Option 2 has much higher costs to
put on the performances and ET may not
have the funds to do this. Also the price per
Recommendation
ticket is higher for the other option and as the
theatre is located in a low-income area of
Main City the theatre may not sell all 100
seats and the estimated revenue may not be
received.
• ET should choose Option 2 for the theatre as
it makes a profit of $260 per performance when
the revenue is $2500.
3(a) Explain four reasons why it is important that Zane prepares a cash-flow 8
forecast before starting ET.
Award a maximum of one additional mark for each explanation of the reason
which must be applied to this context.
For example: To manage the cash flows in and out of the business (1) so
that Zane and Zaara will be aware of how much cash they may have
available to spend at the theatre (app).
3(b) Consider the following three roles of marketing for ET. Which role will 12
be the most important for ET to be successful? Justify your answer.
0 No creditable response. 0
3(b)
Justification may include:
Identifying customer needs is most important
because if these needs are not understood then the
theatre may plan and pay to put on a performance
that will not attract customers, leading to a loss.
Satisfying customer needs is less important to the
success of the theatre as if the needs have been
identified then it is more likely that these will be met by
the chosen performance. As theatres may keep
attracting new audiences such as tourists then
maintaining customer loyalty may be less important
as long as the different needs of these audiences
have been identified.
Conclusion
Satisfying customer needs is most important
because if customers are disappointed with the
performance, then they will tell their friends and
family about it and ET will gain a poor reputation.
This may lead to fewer sales of seats for future
performances leading to ET being less successful.
Maintaining customer loyalty is most important as
without this it will mean the theatre will need to keep
attracting new customers and this is expensive to
research suitable plays and shows that they will want
to see. Marketing costs will therefore be lower if
regular customers keep coming back to watch the
shows.
4(a) Explain two leadership styles that Zane and Zaara could use when 8
managing ET’s employees.
Democratic
Gets employees involved in decision-making about the business
Information about future plans for the business shared with employees and
discussed before owners make the final decision
Communication is both downward and upward allowing the experience of
employees to be considered by the owners – leading to possibly better
decisions being made
Motivating for employees as they feel more involved in the business –
less likely to leave/reduced labour turnover
Laissez-faire
Main objectives of the new business are shared with employees but
then they are left to organise their own work and take decisions without any
interference
Communication can be difficult as the leader has little involvement in the
decisions being made
Employees can be motivated as they are valued and trusted to take the
decisions
Employees can be creative with fresh ideas about how to operate the
business
For example: They could use a democratic leadership style (1) where
communication is both downward and upward allowing the experience of
employees to be considered by the owners (1) leading to possibly better
decisions being made (1) about how to operate the theatre (app).
4(b) Consider the following three ethical issues for the theatre. Which ethical 12
issue is likely to have the biggest effect on ET? Justify your answer.
0 No creditable response. 0
4(b)
Justification may include:
Paying fair wages is likely to have the
biggest effect on ET as this may
increase costs which may lead to higher
prices for the 100 seats so customers
may go to their competitors instead and
reduce revenue. Costumes from the
local community may be of lower quality
but if the performance is good then
people will still buy tickets and revenue
will not be affected. Refreshments only
have a small impact on the theatre as
they are a small proportion of the
overall costs and revenue. So higher
costs and lower revenue due to paying
fair wages is likely to have the biggest
Conclusion
effect on ET.
Costumes produced locally provides
work for the local community, so ET is
more likely to sell all 100 seats for
each performance as local people
have the income to buy the tickets.
Higher revenue from sales will lead to
the biggest effect on ET.
Refreshments purchased from ethical
suppliers will lead to a good reputation
for the theatre and hence attract
customers concerned with the
environment so revenue will be higher
as more tickets are sold for each
performance leading to higher profits
for ET.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_11_2023_1.3
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2
1 WLT manufactures carpets. It exports 40% of its products. Globalisation has created opportunities
and threats for WLT. Its method of production allows WLT to use specialisation. All of its 60
employees understand that quality assurance is important. WLT’s directors are considering the
best way to increase efficiency.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Method 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Method 2: ..........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one opportunity and one threat of globalisation for WLT.
Opportunity: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Threat: ..............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think improving labour skills is the best way for a manufacturing business to increase
efficiency? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
2 LMA is a family-owned restaurant. The business was started 20 years ago and has remained small.
LMA is a partnership. The partners are considering whether LMA should become a private limited
company. The Finance Manager is analysing LMA’s cash-flow forecast. An extract is shown in
Table 2.1.
Table 2.1
Extract from LMA’s cash-flow forecast 2023 ($000)
Opening balance 60 70 50
Closing balance 70 50 Y
(a) Identify two reasons why a business might have cash-flow problems.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
X: ......................................................................................................................................
Y: ...................................................................................................................................... [2]
Example 1: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Example 2: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Example 3: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Example 4: ........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to LMA of becoming a private limited company.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Explain two reasons why a business might remain small. Which reason is likely to be most
important? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
3 DZD is a large parcel delivery business. Many of its employees work part-time. DZD’s directors are
planning to expand the business and have to decide on a suitable source of finance for 20 new
vehicles. DZD will also recruit 60 new employees. The Human Resources Director is preparing a
job description for the new employees. She is considering using Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to
increase the motivation of DZD’s employees.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
1: .......................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
2: .......................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two factors DZD should consider when deciding which applicants to recruit.
Factor 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 2: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two sources of finance DZD might use for the new vehicles.
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think a service business should only employ part-time workers? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
4 NLR manufactures a range of branded skincare products including hand cream. Packaging of the
products is important. Like many businesses, NLR makes use of market segmentation. The Marketing
Director knows the stage of the product life cycle can influence NLR’s pricing decisions. He is
analysing market research data. This shows 85% of consumers expect businesses to respond to
environmental pressures.
(a) Identify two factors that might affect the accuracy of market research.
Factor 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 2: ...........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain how NLR’s pricing decisions might be affected at two different stages of the product
life cycle.
1: .......................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
2: .......................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think promoting the brand image is the most important role of packaging? Justify your
answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_12_2023_1.2
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2
1 FBW manufactures watches using job production. It employs 5 full-time production employees.
Each worker is offered regular training. Last year FBW sold 600 watches. The Managing Director
plans to use break-even analysis to help decide whether to increase the price of its products. FBW’s
current break-even chart is shown in Fig. 1.1.
100 000
total revenue
total costs
80 000
costs and
revenue $
60 000
40 000
0
0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800
number of watches
Fig. 1.1
(a) Identify two reasons why a business might offer training to its employees.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two possible effects on FBW’s break-even chart if the prices of its products are
increased.
Effect 1: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Effect 2: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think job production is the best method of production for a small business to use?
Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
2 Gloria is a sole trader. Her business provides house-cleaning services. Gloria uses telephone calls
to communicate with her 4 employees. She wants to expand the business by offering a repair
service. Gloria plans to carry out some market research. She has been told producing a business
plan can help to reduce risk. Gloria would also like to reduce her workload and is considering taking
on a business partner.
(a) Identify two ways a business plan can help a business to reduce risk.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two possible reasons why a business might want to expand.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to Gloria of using telephone calls as a method
of communication with her employees.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two factors Gloria should consider when deciding whether to take on a business
partner.
Factor 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 2: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Explain two methods of primary market research a business could use to find out the demand
for a new product or service. Which would be the best method to use? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
3 VVA is a business based in country X. It manufactures school backpacks (bags). VVA uses retailers
as its channel of distribution. The Managing Director knows there are many factors that can affect
demand including the stage of the business cycle and how competitive the market is. VVA imports
45% of its raw materials. The Managing Director is worried that the introduction of import tariffs
and import quotas, as well as an appreciation in country X’s exchange rate, will affect VVA.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two reasons why some markets can become more competitive.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
1: .......................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
2: .......................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
3: .......................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
4: .......................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one possible effect of the following changes on VVA when importing raw materials:
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think retailers are the best channel of distribution for a manufacturing business to use?
Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
4 CPF is a clothing retailer. It is a private limited company. It has 4 shops and 30 employees. The
Finance Director is concerned about the amount of current assets because working capital is
important. The amount of retained profit is also low. CPF’s directors are planning to expand the
business by opening a new shop. A suitable source of long-term finance will need to be identified.
The plan to expand will affect many of CPF’s stakeholder groups.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two possible reasons why working capital is important for CPF.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one way each of the following stakeholder groups might be affected by CPF’s plans
to expand its business.
Employees: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Suppliers: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think it is better for a private limited company to use debt (e.g. a loan) or equity (issuing
more shares) as a source of long-term finance? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_21_2023_1.2
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2
Barrier 1: ...........................................................................................................................
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Barrier 2: ...........................................................................................................................
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Barrier 3: ...........................................................................................................................
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Barrier 4: ...........................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following two ways VP can purchase its inventory. Which way should it use?
Justify your answer.
Head Office purchases the inventory for all the restaurants: ...........................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Restaurant Managers purchase their own inventory from local suppliers: .......................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
2 (a) Explain two advantages and two disadvantages of VP’s Restaurant Managers delegating
tasks to their Assistant Managers.
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Disadvantage 1: ................................................................................................................
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Disadvantage 2: ................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Using Appendix 2 and other information, consider the two countries VP could choose to locate
its new restaurants. Which country should VP choose? Justify your answer.
Country A: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
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Country B: .........................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the benefits and limitations of the following two ways VP can enter a new market in
another country. Which way should VP choose? Justify your answer.
• Joint venture
• Franchising
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Franchising: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
• short-term finance
• long-term finance.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider how the following three changes in country
Z may affect VP. Which change is likely to have the greatest effect on VP's profits? Justify
your answer.
• Increase in interest rates.
• Depreciation of country Z’s exchange rate.
• New legal controls which require all restaurants to list the ingredients in their meals.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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New legal controls which require all restaurants to list the ingredients in their meals: .....
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_22_2023_1.2
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2
Characteristic 1: ................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Characteristic 2: ................................................................................................................
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Characteristic 3: ................................................................................................................
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Characteristic 4: ................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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2 (a) Explain one business objective for ET and one other objective that a social enterprise like
Daycare might have.
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Using Appendix 2 and other information, consider the two options for the first performance at
the theatre. Which is the best option for Zaara to choose? Justify your answer using suitable
calculations.
Option 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Option 2: ...........................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
3 (a) Explain four reasons why it is important that Zane prepares a cash-flow forecast before starting
ET.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 3: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 4: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following three roles of marketing for ET. Which role will be the most important
for ET to be successful? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
4 (a) Explain two leadership styles that Zane and Zaara could use when managing ET’s employees.
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following three ethical issues for the theatre. Which ethical issue is likely to have
the biggest effect on ET? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Purchasing all refreshments from suppliers that do not pollute the environment: ............
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
The overall thresholds for the different grades were set as follows.
Maximum
Combination of
Option mark after 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
components
weighting
X 160 11, 21 98 86 75 64 54 44 35 26 18
Y 160 12, 22 107 97 87 75 63 52 40 29 18
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INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*4671073904-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_21_2024_1.3
© UCLES 2024 [Turn over
2
EP is a private limited company set up 40 years ago in country Y. It manufactures pottery products
including plates, cups and bowls. EP has a reputation for producing high-quality products. The Managing
Director is considering the best way to increase the added value of EP’s products by either increasing
prices or reducing raw material costs. Raw materials are currently purchased locally as imported raw
materials are of a lower quality.
EP operates in a very competitive market. Many of EP’s competitors sell lower-quality products at lower
prices. There are many substitutes for pottery products, including products made from plastic or bamboo.
Consumer spending patterns have been changing in country Y and this has affected EP’s sales.
EP currently advertises its pottery in newspapers and magazines. EP does not have a website and only
sells its products to retail shops in country Y. EP needs a new Marketing Manager and the Managing
Director thinks EP should employ someone from outside the business. The new Marketing Manager will
need to consider which of the following three ways EP could use to increase sales:
The Managing Director wants to increase efficiency in the factory. She is considering either improving
labour skills or introducing more automation and technology. Both methods will need additional finance.
The Managing Director will consider different factors before choosing which source of finance to use.
Appendix 1
Advertisement for EP
We sell a wide range of plates, cups and bowls which are sold in all good retailers.
EP’s products are all high quality and made using materials from local suppliers.
Appendix 2
Managing Director
Total employees = 84
Appendix 3
We need to keep our costs low and therefore I suggest we stop making either Product A or Product B.
I have included some data in the table below to help us make the decision.
Demand is forecast to increase in 2024 for both products. Total costs are expected to remain unchanged.
Let me know which product you would choose to stop making and why.
Product A Product B
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INFORMATION
• The insert contains the case study.
*3098732281-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
06_0986_22_2024_1.1
© UCLES 2024 [Turn over
2
JJ is a large manufacturer of jewellery such as bracelets, earrings and rings. JJ was set up 25 years
ago in country X and is a public limited company. One of JJ’s objectives is for the business to expand
and another objective is to increase profit each year.
JJ manufactures all its jewellery in a factory in country X. All raw materials are purchased from local
suppliers. JJ has 60 full-time and 25 part-time employees to make the jewellery. Most of these employees
are skilled.
JJ’s jewellery is beautiful but not expensive and therefore affordable for many people. The business has
many competitors. JJ currently sells 70% of its products in country X through jewellery shops. The other
30% are sold using ecommerce and sold directly to customers in other countries. Demand for JJ’s
jewellery is continuing to increase.
JJ’s Marketing Manager is planning to launch a new item of jewellery in country X and needs to choose
between two products. Information on these two products is shown in Appendix 1. They will also need
to decide the most effective way to promote the new product in country X.
Appendix 1
Product A Product B
Fixed cost for each product per week $50 000 $50 000
Appendix 2
After several years of economic growth the government is predicting a change in the economy this year.
Unemployment is forecast to increase from 3% to 6% by the end of the year. Increases in unemployment
are expected to continue for the next two years. Many businesses will be affected by this increase.
Appendix 3
Pressure groups have identified two environmental issues when we manufacture our jewellery.
• We use coal for fuel in our factory which we know contributes to global warming. Other jewellery
manufacturers also use coal. We know the price of coal is increasing and will continue to increase in
the future. However, the government in country X is encouraging businesses to invest in solar panels
and is providing a 25% grant.
• The gem stones used in our jewellery come from local mines. We have been told that the land around
these mines cannot be returned to agricultural use after the mine is closed. However, pressure groups
have told us that we can buy gems from suppliers that use alternative ways of mining which do not
damage the environment. These mines are further away from our factory.
We need to respond to these issues or our sales and profit may be affected.
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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2024 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not answering the question asked.
question
K Knowledge Indicates knowledge and understanding of the concepts and issues relating to the question.
EVAL Evaluation Indicates where the answer has demonstrated evaluation (part (e) questions only).
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect figure that results from the mistake is used for
subsequent calculations.
SEEN Noted but no Indicates that content has been recognised but not rewarded.
credit given
1(a) Define ‘diseconomies of scale’. 2 For two marks candidates must have the idea that ‘business
grows’ and it ‘increases average/unit costs’.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial
definition. Do not award examples as this does not define the term.
1(b) Identify two ways a business can use cost data to help 2 Only award the first two responses given.
make decisions.
Allow ‘carry out break-even analysis’.
Award 1 mark for each relevant way (max 2).
1(c) Identify four fixed costs a business might have. 4 Only award the first four responses given.
Award 1 mark per fixed cost (max 4). Do not award: wages/direct labour costs or power.
1(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to FBM of 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
holding a high level of inventory. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant reason (max
2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business question:
(max 2). Boat (building) or related words
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). 100 employees
Skilled (workers)
Points might include: Diseconomies of scale
Advantages: $5000 (variable cost)
Maintain production [k] so able to meet orders on time $600 000 (fixed costs)
[an] of boats [app] 300 (boats)
Benefit from (purchasing) economies of scale [k] leading Total cost 2 100 000
to lower average/unit cost [an]
Able to respond quickly to unexpected order [k] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
increasing customer loyalty [an]
The same analysis can be used for different points but only
Disadvantages: award once.
Space needed to store products [k] increasing (storage)
costs [an] so costs increase above $600 000 [app]
Cash/money tied up in inventory [k] leading to cash
flow/liquidity problems [an]
Risk of damage/waste[k]
Opportunity cost [k]
Insurance [k]
1(e) Do you think customers have a more important role in 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
the success of a business than its employees? Justify application.
your answer.
For evaluation to be awarded justification will usually follow
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. on from relevant analysis of points.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether
customers have a more important role in the success of a
business than its employees.
Employees:
Make the products [k] otherwise there is nothing to sell
[an]
Employees can affect quality [k] which could
damage/improve its reputation [an]
Employees provide customer service [k] which is
important for brand image [an]
Without sufficient employees the business may not be
able to meet demand [k]
Workers can be replaced by machines [k]
2(b) Define ‘autocratic leadership style’. 2 For two marks the candidates need to show awareness that
the decision making is by a leader or manager not a director
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial or person in the company.
definition.
2(c) Outline two benefits to ADN of having full-time 4 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
employees. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant benefit (max 2).
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
(max 2). question:
Food or related words
Points might include: 5 (locations)
Shops/retailer
Consistent service [k] at the 5 shops [app] 300 employees
Workers likely to be loyal/less likely to leave [k] the food Tall hierarchical organisational structure
retailer [app] Narrow span of control
Easy to communicate with/update [k] the 300 employees Autocratic leadership style
[app] Planning to expand/internal growth/external growth
Need to recruit/train fewer employees [k]
Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Other appropriate responses should be credited.
2(d) Explain one benefit and one limitation to ADN of using 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
off-the-job training. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant
benefit/limitation (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business question:
(max 2). Food or related words
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). 5 (locations)
Shops/retailer
Points might include: 300 employees
Benefits: Full-time
Learn the latest/new methods [k] for use in the 5 shops Narrow span of control
[app] so business can remain competitive [an] Autocratic leadership style
Broad range of skills can be taught [k] to the full-time Planning to expand / internal growth / external growth
employees [app] so they can be become more efficient
[an] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Can learn from experts/specialists [k] which may be
helpful as trying to expand [app]
Can focus 100% on training [k] therefore make less
mistakes [an]
Mistakes when learning don’t affect the business [k]
which can protect the reputation [an] of the food retailer
[app]
Workers do not learn bad habits [k] so mistakes are
avoided [an]
It does not disrupt work of other employees [k]
Increased motivation of employees [k]
2(d) Limitations:
High cost/expensive [k] as have 300 employees [app]
which increases expenses [an]
Loss of working time [k] leading to less work done/fewer
sales [an]
Not necessarily tailored to individual business [k]
Additional qualifications mean it is easier for the
employee to leave/find another job [k] increasing
time/cost of recruitment [an]
2(e) Do you think it is better for a business to use internal 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
growth or external growth when planning to expand? application.
Justify your answer.
Advantages of one method can be presented as
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. disadvantages of the other method but do not award the
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. same point twice as mirror answers are not accepted.
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether it
is better for a business to use internal growth or external Do not award general advantages and disadvantages of
growth when planning to expand. growth such as economies of scale as applies to both
methods.
Points might include:
Internal growth: For evaluation to be awarded justification will usually follow
Easier to control/manage growth [k] which can help on from relevant analysis of points.
avoid diseconomies of scale [an]
Lower investment may be needed [k] so less need to
borrow (as much) [an]
Slow method [k] so business may become
uncompetitive/may miss business opportunities [an]
Less risk [k]
External growth:
Quick method [k] so able to take advantage of new
market opportunities [an] which can increase revenue
[an]
Removing a competitor [k] increases market
share/power [an] may be able to set/influence prices [an]
Large amounts of finance may be required [k] which
increases finance costs [an]
3(a) Define ‘mass market’. 2 For two marks candidates must have the idea of a
‘Large number of sales’ and it is for ‘one product’.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial
definition.
3(b) Calculate IDT’s working capital in 2023. 2 Award only 1 mark if $140 million is written as part of the
answer but is not given as the final answer.
Award 2 marks for correct answer.
Award 1 mark for correct method but incorrect answer. Award max 1 where candidate calculates working capital for
2022 using the correct method i.e. $130 million [1].
Correct answer: $140 million [2]
For 2 marks the answer must have the right units
Correct method e.g. 420 – 280 [1] i.e. million/m in answer.
OR
Current assets – current liabilities [1]
3(c) Outline one reason why IDT might need the following 4 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
types of finance: must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reason (max 2).
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
(max 2). question:
Multinational company
Points might include: Clothes or related words such as shirts, trousers
Short-term finance: Manufacturer
To pay day-to-day costs/working capital [k] when making Mass market
clothes [app] Factory
Improve cash flow position/liquidity [k] of the 4 countries
multinational company [app] $140 million (working capital)
Meet any unexpected emergencies/opportunities [k] $280 million (current liabilities)
$400 million (non-current liabilities)
Long-term finance:
Fund expansion/growth [k] such as the new factory Other appropriate examples can be credited.
[app]
Purchase non-current assets [k] in one of the 4 countries
[app]
Develop new products [k]
3(d) Explain two ways an increase in non-current liabilities 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
might affect IDT. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2).
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
(max 2). question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). Multinational company
Clothes or related words such as shirts, trousers
Points might include: Manufacturer
Must pay interest [k] on the $400 m [app] which Mass market
increases expenses/cash outflows [an] Factory
Difficult to raise additional finance/more collateral 4 different countries
required [k] as lenders may worry whether the business Working capital / $140 million
will be able to repay [an] despite being a multinational $400 million (non-current liabilities)
company [app] $280 million (current liabilities)
More difficult to repay loans/more debt to pay back [k] $420 million (current assets)
increases financial risk [an] for this clothing retailer [app]
Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Other appropriate responses should be credited.
3(e) Explain two advantages to a business of being a 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
multinational company. Which advantage do you think is application.
likely to be the most important? Justify your answer.
4(b) Identify two ways legal controls over marketing might 2 Only award the first two responses given.
affect a business.
4(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to CFG of 4 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
using skimming as its pricing method. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant advantage/disadvantage
(max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business question:
(max 2). Social enterprise
Cocoa beans
Points might include: Local farmers
Advantages: Chocolate (bar)
Helps establish a high-quality image/customers may Retailers
think it is a good quality [k] which may also help as want Ethical
to be ethical [app] (Developed) a new product
Can quickly recover research/development costs [k] which Legal controls over marketing
is important as developed a new product [app]
Higher revenue per item [k] for its chocolate [app] Other appropriate responses can be credited.
May have a lower break-even output [k]
Disadvantages:
High price might discourage (potential) customers [k] for
this social enterprise [app]
High prices/profitability could encourage competitors to
enter market [k] so may not be able to support local
farmers [app]
4(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to CFG of 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
using retailers as its distribution channel for the new must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
product. being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
advantage/disadvantage (max 2). question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business Social enterprise
(max 2). Cocoa beans
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). (Make) bars of chocolate
Ethical
Points might include: (Local) farmers
Advantages: Legal controls over marketing
Producers can sell in large quantities to retailers [k]
increasing revenue [an] from its new product [app] Other appropriate responses can be credited.
Reduced costs (compared to selling direct to
consumers) [k] increasing profit margin [an] in this
social enterprise [app]
Retailer shares the cost of holding inventory [k] lowering
expenses [an]
Retailers will promote the product [k] reducing the cost of
promotion/increasing sales [an]
Access wider range of customers [k]
Disadvantages:
No direct contact with consumer [k] about its chocolate
bar [app] so may not adapt to changing needs [an]
Final price (paid by consumer) is often high [k] so may
be uncompetitive [an]
Retailer takes some of profit away from the producer [k]
Producer loses some control of marketing mix [k]
Retailers usually sell competitors’ products as well [k]
4(e) Do you think being ethical will always lead to lower 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
profit for a business? Justify your answer. application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Increase cost can be awarded as [k] once where candidates
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. do not refer to specific examples of costs.
Award up to 2 marks for justified decision as to whether
being ethical will always lead to lower profit for a business. Do not credit answers which relate to the costs of being
unethical as this is NAQ.
Points might include:
Limited/fewer sources of materials [k] leading to less
output [an]
Higher cost of materials [k] leading to higher variable
costs/cost of goods [an] which lowers gross profit
margin [an]
Workers may have to be paid more/fair pay [k]
increasing labour costs [an]
May take time to source ethical supplies [k] which could
delay production [an]
Good image/reputation [k] so can charge high(er) prices/
lead to customer loyalty [an]
High(er) demand / increase sales / enter new market /
more customers [k] which could increase revenue [an]
Help recruit/motivate/retain workers [k] leading to lower
absenteeism/increased productivity [an]
Investors more likely to invest [k]
Can help create better supplier relations (by paying a
fair price) [k]
Less opposition from pressure groups [k]
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2024 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to reward a response.
doubt
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not answering the question asked.
question
K Knowledge Indicates knowledge and understanding of the concepts and issues relating to the question.
EVAL Evaluation Indicates where the answer has demonstrated evaluation (part (e) questions only).
OFR Own figure If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect figure that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
rule calculations.
SEEN Noted but no Indicates that content has been recognised but not rewarded.
credit given
1(a) Identify two reasons why a government might support 2 Only award the first two responses given.
business start-ups.
1(b) Identify two ways a business can build customer 2 Only award the first two responses given.
relationships.
1(c) Outline one benefit and one limitation to Nicky’s 4 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
business of operating in a niche market. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant benefit/limitation (max 2).
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
(max 2). question:
Entrepreneur
Points might include: Start-up/new business
Benefits: Building customer relationships
Less/low competition [k] for her start-up business [app] (Walking) holidays/tickets
Needs of customers can be focused on/help to target Travel business/tourism
customers [k] for her holidays [app] Business plan
Builds up specialist skills/knowledge [k] which can help Decision-making
build customer relationships [app] Government support
Can often charge a higher price [k] influencing decision-
making [app] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Limitations:
Lack of economies of scale [k] which can affect
business plan [app]
Limited sales/revenue/customers/target market is small
[k] for this entrepreneur [app]
Does not spread risks/relying on one product [k]
1(d) Explain one way each of the following sections in the 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
business plan might be helpful to Nicky. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2).
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
(max 2). question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • Entrepreneur
• Start-up/new business
Points might include: • (Walking) holidays/tickets
Business objectives: • Travel business/tourism
Can act as a goal/target/sense of direction [k] for the • Niche market
travel business [app] which she can use to • Government support
measure/monitor progress/to provide motivation [an] • Building customer relationships
Improved decision-making/planning [k] so fewer
errors/chance of failure/increase efficiency/save Other appropriate examples can be credited.
cost/saves time/increase sales [an] of the new business
[app] K can be awarded for identifying what the section shows or
Act as a measure of success [k] so able to check how it can be used.
progress [an] to know whether she is a successful
entrepreneur [app]
1(e) Explain two characteristics of a successful 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
entrepreneur. Which characteristic is likely to be the application.
most important? Justify your answer.
[k] can only be awarded for identifying characteristics.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. [an] is awarded for explaining the characteristic or explaining
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to which why it is important.
characteristic is likely to be the most important.
To access [eval], must discuss two valid characteristics. The
Points might include: second [eval] mark must be awarded for a comparison
Creative [k] have (new/unique) ideas / make a business between two valid characteristics.
stand out from its competitors [an] therefore help gain
sales [an]
Risk-taker [k] as investment may be lost [an]
Perseverance/determination/resilience/self-motivated [k]
as will need to be prepared to keep going when faced
with problems [an]
Effective communicator [k] as may need to convince its
suppliers/banks/customers to provide goods/lend/buy
products [an]
Good decision-maker/manager [k] as changes in market
may require action [an]
Hard-working [k] as must be ready to do everything
themselves [an]
Independent [k] as be able to work without any help [an]
Optimistic [k] so always think they will succeed [an]
Self-confident [k] so convince people/banks to invest
[an]
Innovative [k] able to put ideas into practice in
new/different ways [an]
(Multi-)skilled [k] may not need to recruit employees for
specific roles [an]
2(a) Define ‘tertiary sector’. 2 1st mark is for understanding it provides services.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial 2nd mark for reference to whom services are provided.
definition.
2(b) Calculate GTB’s Return on Capital Employed (ROCE). 2 Answer must be shown as a percentage (%) to gain both
Show your working. marks.
Award 2 marks for the correct answer. Award only 1 mark if 20% is written as part of the answer but
is not given as the final answer.
Award 1 mark for correct method but incorrect answer.
2(c) Outline two ways GTB could improve its profit margin. 4 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
Award 1 mark for each relevant way (max 2). being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business
(max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
question:
Points might include: Café
Increase price [k] of the food [app] Selling food/drinks or examples such as coffee
Lower/control fixed costs (or examples such as lower 5 (cafes)
rent) [k] of its cafes [app] 25% (profit margin)
Lower/control variable costs (or examples) [k] which $ 600 000 (revenue)
could help increase the profit margin of 25% [app] $ 150 000 (profit)
$ 750 000 (capital employed)
Other appropriate responses should be credited. Social media for promotion
2(d) Explain two advantages to GTB of using social media as 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
its method of promotion. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage
(max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business question:
(max 2). Café
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). Selling food/drinks or examples such as coffee
• 5 (cafés)
Points might include: • 25% (profit margin)
Can target specific groups of customers [k] which could • Improve profit margin
help encourage brand loyalty [an] at each of the 5 • $ 600 000 (revenue)
locations [app] • $ 150 000 (profit)
Low-cost [k] so fewer cash outflows/lower expenses [an] • $ 750 000 (capital employed)
which could help improve the profit margin of 25% [app] • Tertiary sector
Cover wide area/seen by many people [k] increasing
sales/revenue/attract customers [an] for the cafe [app] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Quick to update [k] so can spend time on other tasks
[an] such as analysing the financial statements [app] Advantages must be to the business not the customer.
Can reach groups that are difficult to reach any other
way [k]
2(e) Do you think banks are the main external users of the 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
accounts of a business? Justify your answer. application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Some points can be [k] or [an] but do not award the same
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. point twice.
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether
banks are the main external users of the accounts of a [K] can be awarded for identifying what information the user
business. is looking for, or how they would use the accounts.
Points might include: Some points can be awarded for different external users but
Banks: only award once.
Whether to give a bank loan [k] to see if a business can
repay [an]
Whether a business can repay loans/overdraft [k] as this
will influence the terms/interest rate/period of the loan
[an]
To help decide the interest rate to set [k] to reflect the
level of risk [an]
To decide the amount to lend [k]
Check interest payments can/are being made [k]
3(a) Define ‘laissez-faire leadership style’. 2 For both marks need the idea that it links to decision making
– and it is the employees/workers who make them.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial
definition.
3(b) Identify two roles of a manager. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
Award 1 mark per role (max 2). Accept any tasks that managers are likely to do.
3(c) Outline one external cost and one external benefit 4 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
RBG’s business activities might create. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant external cost/benefit (max
2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business question:
(max 2). • Oil
• 6 countries
Points might include: • Pressure groups
External costs: • 2000 employees
Loss of space/land [k] from its operations in 6 countries • 60 managers
[app] • IT based methods
Pollution/waste or examples such as gas emissions [k]
which is why it must respond to pressure groups [app] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Congestion/traffic [k]
Deplete/exploit natural/non-renewable resources [k]
Use of energy [k]
External benefits:
Employment opportunities/lower unemployment [k] as
may recruit more than 2000 employees [app]
Taxes will be paid to governments [k] from extracting oil
[app]
Improved infrastructure/better transport systems [k]
3(d) Explain two methods of IT based communication RBG 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
might use with its employees. must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant method
(max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business question:
(max 2). • Oil
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • 6 countries
• 2000 employees
Points might include: • 60 managers
Email [k] written record [an] for all 2000 employees • Laissez-faire
[app]
Text messages/SMS/DM [k] saves time/quick [an] for Other appropriate examples can be credited.
the 60 managers [app]
Website/social media or examples e.g. Can award the following as [an] for different methods but
Facebook/X/Twitter [k] seen by many people at once only award once:
[an] in the 6 countries [app] Low cost
Video conferencing or examples e.g. Zoom/Teams/ Quick
online meeting [k] as can see body language [an] Send to many people at once
Phone/mobile (call) [k] at the oil company [app] as able Send large amounts of information/able to send
to get feedback/allows for two-way communication [an] attachments
Written record/can refer to later
Other appropriate responses should be credited. Able to get (instant) feedback
Do not have to travel
3(e) Explain two ways a pressure group might try to 6 This is a general question so there are no marks for
influence business decisions. Which way do you think application.
is likely to be the most effective? Justify your answer.
Some points of analysis can be used for different ways but
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. do not award the same development twice.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to which is To access [eval], must discuss two valid ways.
the most effective way for a pressure group to try to
influence business decisions.
4(a) Define ‘import quota’. 2 To award both marks the answer must include the idea of
limit on number/quantity of goods and the idea of
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial imported/into the country.
definition.
Do not award:
Physical limit on the number/amount of goods that can be answers which confuse the term with a tariff.
imported/allowed into a country [2]
OR
Restriction on the quantity of a product than can be imported
[2]
4(b) Identify two benefits to a business of lower rates of 2 Only award the first two responses given.
taxation.
4(c) Identify four legal controls over employment. Only award the first four responses given.
Award 1 mark per legal control (max 4). Allow examples of discrimination only once.
4(d) Explain one reason why DLT needs to consider each of 6 To use words from the stem as application, the reference
the following factors when deciding where to relocate in must be appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point
country X: being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant reason (max The following words are likely to be appropriate for this
2). question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business Cups/plates
(max 2). Flow production
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). (30%) exported
Factory
Points might include:
75 employees
Suppliers:
Increased demand (for its products)
Distance [k] if closer to the factory [app] may reduce
transport costs/may be able to get resources quicker
Other appropriate examples can be credited.
[an]
May need to change supplier/can they still use current
supplier [k] leading to delays [an] so cannot meet
increase in demand [app]
Quality/range of materials [k] could damage its
reputation [an] of its cups/plates [app]
Cost [k] which could lower its profit margin [an]
Suitability of land:
May need a large area/space [k] otherwise this could
limit production/so able to expand [an] for its exports
[app]
Access to power/water/electricity [k] as using flow
production [app] so need continuous supply to operate
24 hours a day [an]
Cost of land/rent [k] as may increase fixed costs [an]
Links to transport/accessible [k] to ensure deliveries can
be made on time [an]
Environmental impact [k]
Government influence or examples such as taxes [k]
4(e) Do you think the advantages for a manufacturing This is a general question so there are no marks for
business of using flow production are greater than the application.
disadvantages? Justify your answer.
Analysis:
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Some [an] can be used for different points but only
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. award once.
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether [An] of economies of scale [k] must be lowers
the advantages to a manufacturing business of using flow unit/average costs, and not simply lowers costs.
production are greater than the disadvantages. Lower cost can be [an] but only award once unless
clearly specify two different costs e.g. labour and
Points might include: training costs.
Advantages:
Benefit from economies of scale [k] lowering To access [eval] must discuss a valid advantage and a valid
unit/average costs [an] disadvantage.
Capital intensive [k] so can lower the labour/wage costs
[an]
Output can be produced 24 hours a day/continuous [k]
Workers can specialise/little training may be needed [k]
Disadvantages:
Inflexible/difficult to change/cannot customise products
[k] so may not meet customer needs [an]
Demotivate employees [k] raises absenteeism/labour
turnover [an]
If one machine breaks down the whole production line
will stop [k] so delays output [an]
Requires high level of raw materials/inventory [k]
increasing storage space/cost [an]
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2024 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level
descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to
reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too
vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not
question answering the question asked.
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect
figure that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
calculations.
SEEN Noted but no credit Indicates that content has been recognised but not
given rewarded.
Application could include: pottery; cups; plates; bowls; trading for 40 years;
new Marketing Manager; Managing Director; 84 employees; 6 levels; external
recruitment/recruitment from outside the business; high-quality products; want
to increase efficiency; private limited company; information from Appendix 2.
1(b) Consider the following two ways EP could use to increase added value. 12
Which way should EP use? Justify your answer.
Increasing prices
Reducing raw material costs
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
For example: There may be a wider choice of applicants (1) who have more
experience in the production of pottery products (app).
2(b) Consider the following three ways EP could use to increase the sales of 12
its products. Which would be the best way for EP to use? Justify your
answer.
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No Creditable Response 0
Advantages Disadvantages
2(b)
Makes information Increased costs of
about EP’s pottery paying for a
more accessible to specialist to set up
potential customers the website/
searching for its improvements
products – makes Cost of postage
them more likely to and packaging
purchase a set of On-going costs of
dinner plates maintenance of the
Have complete control website, e.g.
over the way its updating prices of
pottery is shown in plates
Setting up a the adverts Search engines
website Prices can be quickly may not bring up
updated EP’s products on
Can include the first page of a
interactive search unless EP
adverts/videos, which pays for this which
are more attractive to can be expensive
customers Relies on people
Website can be used finding the
for online ordering – website/may be
more accessible for relatively unknown
customers living
further away from
retailers
3(a) Explain four reasons why consumer spending patterns for a product 8
might change.
Award 1 mark for each reason why consumer spending patterns may have
changed (max 4).
Award a maximum of one additional mark for each explanation of the reason.
For example – There are changes in consumer tastes and fashions (1) so if a
product becomes less fashionable then demand for these products will
decrease (1).
3(b) Consider the following two ways EP could increase efficiency in its 12
factory. Which would be the best way for EP to use? Justify your
answer.
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
3(b)
Advantages Disadvantages
3(b)
Recommendation Justification might include:
Improving labour skills is the best way to
increase efficiency at EP’s factory. The 50
production employees will learn more skills
which will enable them to produce more output
per worker than previously. This will motivate
the employees to work harder and produce
more output. Automation is very expensive and
unless sales increase EP may find it difficult to
raise sufficient funds for the investment.
Introducing automation and technology in the
factory to make pottery products such as
plates is the best way to increase efficiency.
Technology will mean fewer production
workers will be needed so saving on wage
costs and greatly increasing output for each
remaining employee in the factory.
For example: The purpose for using the finance. (1) If the finance is required
for ways to improve efficiency at EP (app) then a source such as a bank loan
could be chosen (1) as this finance can be used to increase efficiency and
then repaid over a longer period of time as unit costs are reduced and
profitability increases (1).
Application could include: pottery; cups; plates; bowls; trading for 40 years;
private limited company; high-quality products; want sales to increase; plastic
or bamboo products; wants to increase efficiency; improving labour skills;
more automation and technology; information from Appendix 2.
4(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider the following two 12
products EP makes. Which product should EP stop making? Justify
your answer.
Product A
Product B
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
4(b)
Recommendation Justification might include:
EP should stop producing Product A because
demand is growing at only 10% per year
whereas demand for Product B is growing at
20% so will increase revenue at a faster rate
hence profit should overtake the $60 000
profit made from Product A.
EP should stop producing Product B because
the total cost is much higher at $350 000, and
the Managing Director wants to keep costs
low. Product B also makes a lower profit of
$50 000 in 2023.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2024 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level
descriptions for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
marks are not deducted for errors
marks are not deducted for omissions
answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to
reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too
vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not
question answering the question asked.
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect
figure that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
calculations.
SEEN Noted but no credit Indicates that content has been recognised but not
given rewarded.
1(a) Explain two reasons why setting business objectives is important to JJ. 8
Award a maximum of 3 additional marks for each explanation of the reason why
setting business objectives is important – one of which must be applied to
this context.
For example: To give a clear target for employees and managers to work
towards (1) so they all know what is expected of them (1) when producing
different items of jewellery (app). Therefore, this means the target is more likely
to be achieved (1).
1(b) Using Appendix 1 and other information, consider the two new products 12
JJ could produce. Which product should JJ choose? Justify your
answer using break-even calculations.
Product A
Product B
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
2(a) Explain two benefits and two limitations for JJ of employing part-time 8
workers in its factory.
For example: If the employee sees the job as temporary, then they may be
less committed to the business (1) and produce fewer items of jewellery (app).
2(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages of the following three ways 12
JJ could promote its new product in country X. Which way should JJ
use? Justify your answer.
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
2(b)
Advantages Disadvantages
For example: If the business makes a good profit, then it may attract investors
(1) to help it raise capital by selling additional shares (1).
3(b) Consider the opportunities and threats of ecommerce for JJ. Which is 12
likely to have the most effect on JJ? Justify your answer.
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No Creditable Response 0
4(a) Using Appendix 2 and other information, explain two ways JJ may be 8
affected by the forecast increase in unemployment in country X.
For example: May make it easier for JJ to recruit new employees (1) as there
is a larger pool of unemployed people to choose from (1) and many of these
workers may be skilled people available for work (1) with experience of how to
manufacture jewellery (app).
4(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider the following two 12
environmental issues when JJ manufactures its products. Which issue
should JJ choose to solve first? Justify your answer.
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response 0
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_11_2024_1.2
© UCLES 2024 [Turn over
2
1 FBM is a boat building business. It has 100 skilled employees. The Operations Director is concerned
that FBM holds a high level of inventory. She is also concerned that the business is starting to
experience diseconomies of scale. The Finance Director has been asked to analyse FBM’s cost
and output data. An extract is shown in Table 1.1.
Table 1.1
Extract from FBM’s cost and output data
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two ways a business can use cost data to help make decisions.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to FBM of holding a high level of inventory.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think customers have a more important role in the success of a business than its
employees? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
2 ADN is a food retailer. It has 5 shops and 300 full-time employees. All ADN’s employees receive
off-the-job training. ADN has a tall hierarchical structure. Managers have a narrow span of control
and all use an autocratic leadership style. ADN’s directors are planning to expand the business
and cannot decide whether it is better for a business to use internal growth or external growth.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one benefit and one limitation to ADN of using off-the-job training.
Benefit: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Limitation: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think it is better for a business to use internal growth or external growth when planning
to expand? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
3 IDT manufactures clothes for the mass market. It is a multinational company with factories in 4
countries. IDT has short-term and long-term financial needs. The Finance Director is analysing
IDT’s statement of financial position. An extract is shown in Table 3.1. He has been asked to
calculate working capital and to explain how an increase in non-current liabilities might affect IDT.
Table 3.1
Extract from IDT’s statement of financial position ($ million)
2022 2023
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Working: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
(c) Outline one reason why IDT might need the following types of finance:
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two ways an increase in non-current liabilities might affect IDT.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Explain two advantages to a business of being a multinational company. Which advantage
do you think is likely to be the most important? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
4 CFG is a social enterprise. It buys cocoa beans from local farmers and then uses the beans to
make chocolate. Being ethical is important to the business. CFG has developed a new chocolate
bar. The Marketing Manager plans to use skimming as its pricing method, and retailers as its
distribution channel for the new product. He knows there are many legal controls over marketing
that might affect a business.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two ways legal controls over marketing might affect a business.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to CFG of using skimming as its pricing method.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to CFG of using retailers as its distribution
channel for the new product.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think being ethical will always lead to lower profit for a business? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
06_0986_12_2024_1.3
© UCLES 2024 [Turn over
2
1 Nicky wants to be a successful entrepreneur. She plans to start up a travel business specialising
in walking holidays. Nicky will be operating in a niche market. She is preparing a business plan to
help with her decision-making. Nicky has been told government support is available for business
start-ups. She knows building customer relationships will be important.
(a) Identify two reasons why a government might support business start-ups.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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(c) Outline one benefit and one limitation to Nicky’s business of operating in a niche market.
Benefit: .............................................................................................................................
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Limitation: .........................................................................................................................
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(d) Explain one way each of the following sections in the business plan might be helpful to Nicky.
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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2 GTB is a business which operates in the tertiary sector. It owns 5 cafés selling food and drinks.
The business uses social media as its method of promotion. The Finance Manager, Moeen, is
analysing GTB’s financial statements. An extract is shown in Table 2.1. He is considering ways to
improve GTB’s profit margin. Moeen knows there are other users that are interested in the accounts
of a business.
Table 2.1
Extract from GTB’s financial statements 2023
...........................................................................................................................................
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(b) Calculate GTB’s Return on Capital Employed (ROCE). Show your working.
Working: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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(c) Outline two ways GTB could improve its profit margin.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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(d) Explain two advantages to GTB of using social media as its method of promotion.
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(e) Do you think banks are the main external users of the accounts of a business? Justify your
answer.
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3 RBG is an oil company. It has operations in 6 countries. RBG has 2000 employees including 60
managers. Some of its managers use a laissez-faire leadership style. All of RBG’s internal
communication uses information technology (IT) based methods. The Managing Director knows
RBG’s business activities can create external costs and external benefits. She says: ‘Pressure
groups often try to influence business decisions.’
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Role 1: ..............................................................................................................................
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Role 2: ..............................................................................................................................
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(c) Outline one external cost and one external benefit RBG’s business activities might create.
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(d) Explain two methods of IT based communication RBG might use with its employees.
Method 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Method 2: ..........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(e) Explain two ways a pressure group might try to influence business decisions. Which way do
you think is likely to be the most effective? Justify your answer.
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4 DLT manufactures cups and plates in country X. Its factory uses flow production and has 75
employees. The Human Resources Director is aware that there are many legal controls over
employment. DLT exports 30% of its products to country Y where it benefits from lower rates of
taxation and no import quotas. DLT’s Managing Director is considering relocating its factory to
another part of country X to meet the increased demand for its exports.
...........................................................................................................................................
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Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
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Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
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(d) Explain one reason why DLT needs to consider each of the following factors when deciding
where to relocate in country X:
Suppliers: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(e) Do you think the advantages for a manufacturing business of using flow production are greater
than the disadvantages? Justify your answer.
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BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_21_2024_1.3
© UCLES 2024 [Turn over
2
Drawback 1: ......................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Drawback 2: ......................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following two ways EP could use to increase added value. Which way should
EP use? Justify your answer.
• Increasing prices
• Reducing raw material costs
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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2 (a) Explain two advantages and two disadvantages of using external recruitment to find EP’s new
manager.
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
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Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
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Disadvantage 1: ................................................................................................................
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Disadvantage 2: ................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the following three ways EP could use to increase the sales of its products. Which
would be the best way for EP to use? Justify your answer.
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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3 (a) Explain four reasons why consumer spending patterns for a product might change.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 3: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 4: .........................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the following two ways EP could increase efficiency in its factory. Which would be
the best way for EP to use? Justify your answer.
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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4 (a) Explain two factors EP should consider when choosing a source of finance.
Factor 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Factor 2: ...........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider the following two products EP makes. Which
product should EP stop making? Justify your answer.
• Product A
• Product B
Product A: .........................................................................................................................
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Product B: .........................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
06_0986_22_2024_1.1
© UCLES 2024 [Turn over
2
1 (a) Explain two reasons why setting business objectives is important to JJ.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Using Appendix 1 and other information, consider the two new products JJ could produce.
Which product should JJ choose? Justify your answer using break-even calculations.
• Product A
• Product B
Product A: .........................................................................................................................
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Product B: .........................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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2 (a) Explain two benefits and two limitations for JJ of employing part-time workers in its factory.
Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
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Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
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Limitation 1: ......................................................................................................................
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Limitation 2: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages of the following three ways JJ could promote its
new product in country X. Which way should JJ use? Justify your answer.
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 3: .........................................................................................................................
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Reason 4: .........................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the opportunities and threats of ecommerce for JJ. Which is likely to have the most
effect on JJ? Justify your answer.
Opportunities: ...................................................................................................................
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Threats: ............................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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4 (a) Using Appendix 2 and other information, explain two ways JJ may be affected by the forecast
increase in unemployment in country X.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider the following two environmental issues
when JJ manufactures its products. Which issue should JJ choose to solve first? Justify your
answer.
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/11
Short Answer/Structured Response
Key messages
This was the first examination paper for this variant following the introduction of the new syllabus. There
have been slight changes to the way some questions are marked which was not always clearly understood
by candidates.
Candidates should be made aware that there are application marks available in most part (c) questions, in
this paper, Questions 1, 2 and 4. Stating the name of the business in the question is a signal that points
should be applied to this business. Part (e) of each question has two knowledge, two analysis and two
evaluation marks available. Candidates will not gain credit for application points in part (e) questions.
The lack of effective evaluation continues to be an issue in many scripts. Candidates should be reminded
that evaluation must include a justified decision that follows from the points raised in the answer, not a
repetition of points already explained. The mark scheme for each part (e) question gives an example of how
this may be displayed in the answer.
General comments
It was good to see an increasing number of candidates attempting to apply their answers to the relevant
business.
There was some evidence that this question paper tested areas of the syllabus that candidates did not fully
understand. Areas of confusion include:
In some cases, candidates needed to carefully read the question to have the correct focus in their answer.
Issues were seen in Question 2b where candidates discussed technology, and Question 4d where internal
rather than external stakeholders were often explained.
© 2020
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies November 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) Precise definitions were provided by many candidates. Some less successful candidates referred
to a group of people rather than workers. Weaker candidates identified this as a union of different
businesses.
(b) For many candidates this was one of the most challenging questions. Only the most successful
gained both marks by providing a precise definition. An error made by many was to explain a
hierarchical organisational structure, rather than one level of that structure.
(c) A small but significant number of candidates did not attempt this question. The most frequently
presented correct answers included the reduction in workload for managers and possible
motivation for workers. Many candidates then needed to apply their answers to a bank to achieve
application marks. Some candidates stated, incorrectly, that delegation would lead to improved
communication.
(d) Many candidates were able to identify two factors. Some then needed to explain why these factors
should be considered. Candidates who focused on the skills/performance of the manager and the
amount of time they had been employed were most successful in achieving analysis marks. The
strongest candidates linked their point to the banks need to save $1 m when faced with increasing
competition.
(e) Candidates clearly understood this topic and showed strong knowledge particularly of advertising.
Many applied this knowledge to the material provided, although no application marks are available
for part (e) questions. The strongest candidates explained a benefit of each option before making a
justified choice by explaining a disadvantage of the option not chosen. The weakest answers
provided lists of knowledge. Some candidates explained in detail the type of advertising a business
might use. These answers could gain no credit as they did not answer the question set.
Question 2
(a) Many candidates were aware that the flow production method leads to high output but needed to
show that production is continuous. Some candidates confused flow with batch production.
(b) The majority of candidates were able to identify two correct methods. Several candidates lost
marks by ignoring the instruction to identify methods other than technology. A common error was to
state that employing more staff would improve efficiency.
(c) This question clearly differentiated between candidates. Most candidates were aware of
appropriate sources of finance. Only the most successful achieved full marks by using two different
pieces of application. The weakest candidates stated short term sources, which would not be
appropriate for purchasing new technology.
(d) This question was divided into two parts. Candidates showed better understanding of the lack of
local knowledge than of import quotas. A significant number of candidates concentrated upon the
general problems of entering new markets rather than problems caused by lack of local knowledge.
These candidates often discussed the problems caused by language difficulties which was not
rewarded. Quotas were often confused with tariffs.
(e) Many answers consisted of lists of knowledge with no appropriate development of points.
Candidates generally did not attempt to provide evaluation. Those that did attempt to conclude
often repeated points made earlier in the answer. The strongest answers explained how gaining
local knowledge and reduced competition would benefit a business. Common errors were to
explain in detail how language barriers could be avoided or confused a joint venture with a merger.
© 2020
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies November 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 3
(a) The majority of candidates provided a precise definition. Some candidates confused a sole trader
with an entrepreneur.
(b) Generally, a well answered question. A small number of candidates correctly calculated the figures
but placed them next to the wrong letter in their answer. Unfortunately, the Examiner could not
award marks to these answers.
(c) This question was the only part C question which did not require application. Many answers were
awarded two marks as candidates struggled to identify four different factors. Candidates who lost
marks often repeated costs or stated the size of the market.
(d) Candidates clearly had a good understanding of niche markets. Many answers contained a
definition of the term which could not be rewarded as candidates needed to explain an advantage
or disadvantage. The most successful answers explained the benefits of possible higher prices and
problems of lack of economies of scale. Candidates did not always develop their answers
sufficiently to gain the application and analysis marks available. Application was often limited to
stating the type of products sold. A small, but significant, number of candidates discussed higher or
lower profits rather than profit margins. These answers were too vague to be credited.
(e) Candidates found this question straightforward. Many were able to demonstrate analysis with a
wide range of correct calculations. The strongest answers used the advice in the question and
calculated the gross profit and profit ratios. Only the very strongest candidates were able to make
an evaluative conclusion answering the question set. To gain knowledge marks candidates were
required to show understanding of whether the figures had improved or worsened over the period
shown. Weaker candidates often either repeated the figures from Table 3.1 or presented
calculations without comment. These answers gained no credit as the candidate had not shown
understanding of what the figures meant.
Question 4
(a) This question was the most challenging on the paper for many candidates. A large number of
candidates confused the business cycle with the product life cycle or simply listed the terms used in
the business cycle chart.
(b) Many candidates gained full marks on this question by stating two distinctly different reasons. A
common error was to repeat the same point, for example, stating two changes in economic
conditions. Some candidates did not understand the question and stated two possible objectives
rather than the reasons why they may change.
(c) The advantages of a takeover were understood but candidates often struggled to explain any
disadvantages. The strongest candidates were able to explain points such as those listed in the
mark scheme. The weakest candidates simply stated that the business would gain more customers
after the takeover. Application was noticeably weak in this question. Some candidates were able to
gain one application mark by stating that the business produced building materials.
(d) Stakeholder groups were not well understood. Several candidates did not attempt this question.
Some candidates confused internal and external stakeholders and a significant number thought
that stakeholders were shareholders. Candidates who could correctly identify two external
stakeholders often struggled to fully develop their answers. The best candidates explained the
impact on customers, suppliers, and banks. Even the most able candidates struggled to provide
two distinctly different points of application.
(e) Candidates found the analysis and evaluation part of this question particularly challenging. The
effect legal controls and interest rates would have on business were not always fully understood.
This made evaluation difficult for candidates. The strongest candidates recognised that legal
controls would limit what a business would be allowed to do, and interest rates would add to the
cost of loans. The weakest candidates confused interest rates with taxes and thought that legal
controls could be ignored.
© 2020
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/21
Case Study
Key messages
This is the first November paper for the new syllabus. The style of the question paper has remained broadly
the same. However, the differences in the weighting of the assessment objectives have resulted in small
changes to the mark scheme. This has meant the (a) questions have more analysis marks awarded and
fewer application marks. The (b) questions have had no change to the weighting of the assessment
objectives but have had the level descriptors amended slightly. This has not changed the awarding of marks
on the 12-mark questions. These small changes have not made any significant difference to the marks
achieved; in fact, for some candidates, they may have raised their marks.
Candidates should still be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is except for one of the
(a) questions that will now usually be generic. This will ensure responses are appropriate for each given
situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both parts (a) and (b) for
application. In this particular case study, candidates were expected to refer to a jewellery retailer.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of both the positive and negative consequences of a
business decision when this is asked. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple
description; listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the
answer to Level 2.
• Several questions on this paper ask candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on a balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without full
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case, and compare options including reference to
why the alternatives were rejected.
General comments
Candidates had generally been well prepared for this examination. Many candidates are developing a strong
examination technique and clearly understand what is expected of them. The context of GJ, a jewellery
retailer, provided an accessible scenario for candidates. Those who applied their skills to the context of GJ
were the most successful.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, so
they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. Many candidates
showed good knowledge and understanding of the full range of the syllabus that was assessed, but in a
minority of cases it was clear that some topics were not well understood. These included the purpose of
business objectives, recruitment, the concepts of liquidity and profitability, sales promotion and external
influences on business operations. Candidates should ensure they are prepared to respond to questions on
the whole syllabus, as they could earn marks by using business terms confidently.
Overall, many good scripts were seen; very weak ones were less common. Application marks were often
gained but candidates should make sure that different examples of application are included in the (a)
questions and the conclusion/recommendation in the (b) questions should also be applied. Candidates
should aim to consider the consequences/implications/long-term/short-term/balance issues of the decisions
to secure Level 2 and Level 3 marks.
© 2020
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates demonstrated good knowledge of the purpose of business objectives.
Strong responses focused on discussion of goals and giving the business a sense of direction.
There were several ways of developing the answer, for example, making links to strategy and
decision-making. Application marks were awarded to candidates who referred to the case study,
noting Gemma’s aim to increase sales and market share. Weaker candidates tended to describe
business objectives rather than explain the reason for them.
(b) Many candidates were confident in their knowledge of franchise operations. They were able to
explain benefits such as a well-established business reputation and support from the franchisor
with regard to advertising and training. The best answers then gave a balanced discussion about
the disadvantages of not being able to make significant decisions or operate independently.
Candidates who achieved Level 3 marks were able to make a supported decision about using a
franchise agreement, often mentioning that Gemma would be the only business in the area selling
Beautywise jewellery and that the help from the franchisor reduced the risk of business failure.
Question 2
(a) This question required candidates to consider the job specification for the new shop manager.
Relevant points included experience of selling jewellery, communication skills to ensure excellent
customer service and product knowledge appropriate to the jewellery business. The strongest
answers identified these requirements and then applied them to the context of selling high-priced
rings and bracelets and knowledge of gem stones. Some candidates confused job specification
with job description and listed the shop manager’s responsibilities.
(b) The information in Appendix 3 provided the data needed to compare the three possible locations
for a new shop in Town A, B or C. Too often there were detailed answers merely copying figures
from the case study for rent, running costs and estimated gross profit. Candidates needed to use
the data to make comparisons and calculate potential net profit. Better responses not only included
net profit calculations for each location but also concluded that by choosing Town A, Gemma would
make nearly twice as much net profit as Town B and over five times as much as Town C.
Successful calculations in this response produced effective analysis and given candidates access
to Level 2 and then Level 3. Candidates should always prepare for a question that tests numeracy
skills using data from the case study.
Question 3
(a) This was a generic question testing candidates’ knowledge of liquidity and profitability as well as
their ability to explain their importance to a business. No application marks were available in this
question. Good responses explained that liquidity was important to enable short-term debts to be
repaid to avoid selling business assets. Sometimes reference was made to calculating current and
acid test ratios to judge the liquidity position. Amongst the responses about profitability, the best
answers identified how to calculate profit margins or ROCE and then explained the importance of
being able to use these to analyse business performance and hopefully secure bank loans or
attract investment from new shareholders.
(b) Many candidates found this question accessible at the lower end of the mark range. They could
explain that reducing the price of a second purchase or offering a discount of 10% on all stock
would likely increase sales. The majority of candidates then needed to develop their analysis to
discuss the impact that such price reductions would have on gross profit and the quality image of
the jewellery being sold. Candidates were generally more successful in considering the advantages
and disadvantages of paying a celebrity to open the new shop. Well-balanced answers mentioned
the expense of inviting a famous celebrity to be offset against the extra sales revenue that might be
earned from increased numbers of customers. Responses which judged the most effective
promotion to maximise revenue over the longest time period achieved Level 3.
© 2020
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2020
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 4
(a) This question required candidates to consider the external influences of exchange rate depreciation
and increases in income tax. Better candidates could explain that a depreciation in the exchange
rate would result in higher costs for importing the jewellery. This might require prices to be
increased to maintain profit margins which would, in turn, cause demand for Gemma’s Jewels to
fall. On the other hand, export prices would become more competitive so GJ might experience
increased sales from overseas customers, especially now that Gemma has a website for online
ordering. The discussion about the impact of an increase in income tax most often referred to
decreases in disposable income, reducing spending power and a consequent fall in sales of luxury
items like jewellery.
(b) Many candidates realised that GJ’s jewellery is ethically sourced so stating the country where the
product has been made would likely improve the reputation of GJ and boost sales and profit.
Features of a boom phase include higher levels of income and increased consumer confidence,
both of which would make higher sales of jewellery more likely. There would be an opportunity to
raise prices and hence increase profit at the same time. The impact of increased mobile (cell)
phone usage was discussed effectively by many candidates, mentioning Gemma’s new website
and phone app for ordering items from GJ across a wider market. Better candidates explained the
disadvantages of each of these changes and included a conclusion that made a judgement about
which change resulted in the greatest effect on GJ’s profit without simply repeating earlier points,
and then went on to justify why this would have a greater effect than the two other changes.
Application, particularly in the conclusion enabled candidates to achieve higher marks.
© 2020
Grade thresholds – November 2020
The maximum total mark for this syllabus, after weighting has been applied, is 160.
The overall thresholds for the different grades were set as follows.
Combination of
Option 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Components
X 11, 21 102 89 76 65 54 43 34 25 17
Learn more! For more information please visit www.cambridgeinternational.org/igcse or contact Customer Services
on +44 (0)1223 553554 or email [email protected]
™
Cambridge IGCSE (9-1)
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*5395313548-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
11_0986_21_2020_1.2
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2
Gemma set up GJ as a sole trader 5 years ago in country Z. She started by selling rings and
bracelets from a rented shop. She used her own savings to start the business. The first year was
successful. After this first year Gemma decided to expand by selling more expensive items of
jewellery. Gemma thinks it is important to set clear business objectives. She wants her business
to increase sales by 10% each year and to increase market share.
As the business grew Gemma needed more finance for a computer, inventory and working capital
to avoid liquidity problems. She decided to convert the business to a private limited company and
sell shares to members of her family. Gemma still owns more than 50% of the shares in GJ.
In 2019, Gemma purchased a franchise from Beautywise Jewellery. This means GJ is now only
able to sell Beautywise products in its shop. GJ has to purchase all of its inventory from Beautywise
and in addition pay 20% of gross profit to Beautywise. More details about the franchise are in the
advertisement in Appendix 1.
Gemma has developed a website so customers can order online. Customers can also download
a mobile (cell) phone app to view and order jewellery.
Gemma plans to open a second shop as a Beautywise franchise in a nearby town. She has to
decide which method of sales promotion to use. GJ needs to recruit a manager for the new shop.
The manager will be responsible for operating the shop and making most of the decisions about
which items of inventory to buy. The manager will also need to ensure excellent customer service
is provided and that the new employees are motivated and working efficiently.
Appendix 1
Become a franchisee to sell Beautywise Jewellery and improve your chances of success!!
Appendix 2
The demand for jewellery in country Z is likely to be affected by some recent changes. Consumers
are becoming more aware of the ethical issues involved in jewellery production in some countries.
The exchange rate of the currency of country Z is likely to depreciate over the next 12 months. The
Government is planning changes to tax rates which might reduce the effects of the current economic
boom.
Appendix 3
$45 000 per year for 5 $35 000 per year for 10 $20 000 per year for 15
Shop rent
years years years
Note: Franchise fee is $50 000 per year and 20% of gross profit is paid to Beautywise.
BLANK PAGE
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effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2020 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the
scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
1(a) Define ‘trade union’. 2 Do not award pressure group as this does not
answer the question.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial
definition.
1(b) Define ‘level of hierarchy’ 2 Note: To gain 2 marks the answers should show
that workers are on a similar level and are within
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial one organisation.
definition.
1(c) Outline two advantages of SRB using delegation. 4 Points can relate to employees or the business.
Award 1 mark for each relevant advantage. Note: To use words from the stem as application,
the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. sense) in relation to the point being made.
Points might include: The following words are likely to be appropriate for
• Workload spread more evenly/reduced workload for managers [k] this question:
in its 80 branches [app]
• Management can focus on more important matters [k] such as • Business customers
responding to increased competition [app] • 100 managers
• Motivates employees/gives sense of responsibility [k] so less • 80 branches
problems with trade unions [app] • Removing one level of the hierarchy
• Improved efficiency/better quality of work (because workers are • Saving $1m in costs
specialised) • Increased competition
• Career opportunities [k] as able to do similar work to the 100 • Bank (services) or related words such as
managers [app] loans
• Management can measure the success of staff more easily [k] • Develop new products and services
• Can assist with training [k] • Trade union
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. Other appropriate examples in context can still be
credited.
1(d) Explain two factors SRB should consider when deciding which 6 Note: To use words from the stem as application,
managers to make redundant. the reference must be appropriate (i.e. Make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant factor (max 2).
The following words are likely to be appropriate for
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • Business customers
• 100 managers
Points might include: • 80 branches
• Importance of the role being performed [k] to maintain contact • Removing one level of the hierarchy
with business customers [app] to ensure good customer service • Saving $1m in costs
[an] • Increased competition
• Performance/experience/skills/flexibility [k] such as not able to use • Bank (services) / give loans
delegation [app] so not able to do the job required [an] • Delegation.
• Length of time worked/redundancy costs [k] may be cheaper to
choose people who have not been there for a long time [an] Other appropriate examples in context can still be
• Attitude/attendance/disciplinary record [k] will want to lose poor/ credited.
bad workers [an] from the 80 branches [app]
• Wages/salary [k] as removing higher paid employees would help Do not accept reduced costs alone as [k] or [an]
reduce costs long term [an] helping to reach the cost reduction of as this is [tv].
$1m [app]
• Which departments need to lose/retain workers [k]
• Number of customers [k] at the branch [app]
• The number of subordinates under each manager [k] as workers
may become inefficient if poorly supervised [an]
• Those who volunteer [k]
1(e) Do you think that more advertising is a better way for a business 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
to respond to increased competition than introducing new for application.
products? Justify your answer.
Some points could be awarded for different
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant issues. options, but do not award the same point twice.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. For evaluation to be awarded justification will
usually follow on from relevant analysis of points.
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether more advertising is
a better way for a business to respond to increased competition than For the second evaluation mark the candidate
introducing new products. must address that there is increased competition.
Advertising:
• To raise awareness of its products [k] to increase revenue [an] but
products might not be what customers want which will limit
effectiveness [an]
• No guarantee that target customers may see it [k] so sales may
not rise [an]
• More advertising will increase costs [k]
• Widen target market/appeal to more potential customers [k]
2(b) Identify two methods (other than technology) a business can use 2 Only award the first two responses given.
to improve efficiency.
Accept practical examples such as examples of
Award 1 mark per method. performance related pay as motivation methods.
Points might include: Do not accept employ more workers as this will
• Reorganise layout/reduce waste/Kaizen/JIT/lean production not improve efficiency.
• Training/improve employee skills/employ more skilled workers
• Improve motivation/communication
• Specialisation
2(c) Outline two sources of finance YMG could use for the new 4 Long term sources are required for this
technology. investment.
Award 1 mark for each relevant source of finance. Note: To use words from the stem as application,
the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. sense) in relation to the point being made.
Points might include: The following words are likely to be appropriate for
this question:
• Sell shares/owners capital [k] as a private limited company [app]
• Bank loan [k] as need $60m [app] • Private limited company/sell shares to family
• (Retained) profits [k] as likely to have funds as it is the largest and friends
manufacturer [app] • Flow production
• Leasing [k] as move into new markets overseas may not be • $60m.
successful [app] • New markets
• Hire purchase [k] • The largest manufacturer
• Owners savings [k] • 3 billion litres
• Sell unwanted assets [k] • Soft drinks
• Crowdfunding [k]
Other appropriate examples in context can still be
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. credited.
2(d) Explain how each of the following problems might affect YMG 6 Note: To use words from the stem as application,
when entering new markets in other countries. the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant problem (max 2).
The following words are likely to be appropriate for
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business this question:
(max 2). • Private limited company
• Flow production
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • $60m.
• The largest manufacturer
Points may include: • 3 billion litres
• New technology
Lack of local knowledge: • Soft drinks
• May not be aware of competitors actions [k] leading to fewer sales • Expanding production
/lower revenue [an] of soft drinks [app]
• May not understand customer buying habits [k] so must spend Other appropriate examples in context can still be
more money developing new products [an] rather than investing credited.
$60m in new technology [app]
• Customers may not like [K] the soft drinks [App] Do not accept answers which clearly refer to
tariffs.
Import quotas:
• This limits the number of items that can be brought into the Do not accept the same analysis point for both
country [k] so fewer litres needed [app] which could lead to higher problems.
prices[an]
2(e) Do you think a joint venture is the best way for a business to 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
enter a new market in another country? Justify your answer. for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. For evaluation to be awarded justification will
usually follow on from relevant analysis of points.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Answers which only discuss alternative options
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether a joint venture is cannot be awarded evaluation marks.
the best way for a business to enter a new market in another country.
Joint venture
• Allows the business to gain important local information about
customers [k] so better able to meet customer requirements [an]
ensuring sales [an]
• Wider range of contacts/better access to resources [k] so may be
able to obtain cheaper resources [an] reducing production costs
[an]
• Less competition [k] as working with local business [an] helping to
increase its market share [an]
• Can provide access to other specialist staff and technology [k]
• Clash of management styles [k] lead to conflict/problems with
decision making [an]
• Must share profits [k]
3(a) Define ‘sole trader’. 2 Do not accept features such as unlimited liability
as this is NAQ.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial
definition.
X = 8400
Y = 7000
3(c) State four factors that can influence the amount of inventory a 4 Only award the first four responses given.
business might hold.
3(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to Elton of 6 Note: To use words from the stem as application,
operating in a niche market. the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage and
disadvantage (max 1 for each). The following words are likely to be appropriate for
this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business • Sole trader
(max 2). • 5 years
• Clothing and equipment for sports
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • shop
• Remained small
Points might include: • Wide range of inventory needed
• Profit margin was 35%
Advantages:
• Use of figures from Table 3.1
• Less competition [k] so easier to attract/retain customers [an] to
his shop [app] Other appropriate examples in context can still be
• Clear focus/easier to target customers [k] interested in certain credited.
sports [app] reducing costs of advertising [an]
• Builds up specialist skills and knowledge [k] Candidates may gain credit for changes to profit
• Can often charge a higher price [k] helps improve profit margin margin only once in either the advantage OR the
[an] disadvantage.
• Customers are prepared to pay for expertise [k]
• Customers tend to be more loyal [k] so may remain in business
for another 5 years [app]
Disadvantages:
• Lack of economies of scale [k] leading to higher unit costs [an] so
not able to lower cost of sales of $7000 [app]
• Risk of over dependence on a single product or market [k]
• Likely to attract competition if successful [k]
• Vulnerable to market changes [k]
3(e) Do you think Elton should be pleased with the financial 6 Relevant calculations for analysis:
performance of his business? Justify your answer using
appropriate ratios. Profit margin:
32% in 2019
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant issues. Fallen by 3% in 2019
• Gross profit margin has improved [k] from 70 % [an] to 72% [an]
However profit margin has decreased. [k] He should be pleased
as sales and gross profit are rising [eval] but he must be
concerned about expenses. [eval]
4(a) Define ‘business cycle’. 2 Do not award alternative names such as trade
cycle.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial
definition.
4(b) Identify two reasons why a business might change its objectives. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
4(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to KTF of taking 4 Note: To use words from the stem as application,
over the other business. the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each advantage/disadvantage.
The following words are likely to be appropriate for
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. this question:
• Building materials/cement and bricks
Points might include: • $25bn
• Started 60years ago
Advantages: • Main competitors
• Reduces competition/increased market share [k] as this is one of • Combined sales of $40bn/raise of $15bn
its main competitors [app] • Business cycle
• Possible economies of scale [k] reducing the unit costs of bricks • Interest rates
[app] • Legal controls
• Possible cost savings [k] which could be one of its objectives • Protecting the environment
[app] • Stakeholder groups
• Buying an existing brand can be cheaper than internal growth [k]
• Access to new skills or expertise [k]. Other appropriate examples in context can still be
credited.
Disadvantages:
• Clash of culture and leadership styles/objectives [k] for a business
started 60 years ago [app]
• Possible legal action (as gain too much market power) [k] so
could face the risk of new legal controls to protect environment
[app]
• Possible diseconomies of scale or examples e.g. control/
communication problems [k]
• Over reliant on one market [k] especially when enter different
stages of business cycle [app]
• Pressure groups could oppose [k]
• Cost of redundancies [k]
• Expensive to buy the firm [k].
4(d) Explain how two external stakeholder groups might be affected 6 Note: To use words from the stem as application,
by the takeover. the reference must be appropriate (i.e. make
sense) in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant stakeholder group.
The following words are likely to be appropriate for
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. this question:
• Building materials/cement and bricks
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation. • manufacturing
• $25bn
Points might include: • Started 60years ago
• Main competitors
• Banks [k] may have increased demand for loans [an] to pay for • Combined sales of $40bn
taking over its main competitor [app] • Business cycle
• Government [k] as may receive more tax revenue [an] if KTF can • Interest rates
increase its $40bn sales [app] • Legal controls
• [Local] community [k] may be concerned about possible job • Protecting the environment
losses [an]
• Suppliers [k] could lead to fewer / increased orders [an] for Other appropriate examples in context can still be
building materials [app] credited.
• Pressure groups [k]
• Consumers [k] as may lead to less choice [an] Do not award answers which refer to internal
• Competitors [k] as they will be concerned about possible price stakeholders such as: owners (shareholders),
drops due to the economies of scale gained [an] employees.
4(e) Do you think businesses will be more affected by new legal 6 For evaluation to be awarded justification will
controls to protect the environment than an increase in interest follow on from relevant analysis of points.
rates? Justify your answer.
Answers which only discuss one option cannot be
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant issues. awarded both evaluation marks.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2020 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
Indicative response:
An objective is a target to work towards (1) and Gemma has set the objective
of increasing sales (app). By setting this objective all the employees can try to
find ways to increase sales (1), which should ensure all the employees and
managers work towards a common goal making it more likely to be
achieved. (1)
Application could include: increase market share, increase sales by 10% each
year, jewellery, rings and bracelets, she plans to open a second shop.
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
2(a) Explain four requirements for the new manager that Gemma should 8
include in the job specification below.
For example:
Experience (1) of working in a jewellery shop so that they will know what to
do. (app)
Application could include: operating the shop, making decisions about which
items of inventory to buy, ensuring excellent customer service, ensuring new
employees are motivated.
2(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages of the three towns for the 12
new shop shown in Appendix 3. Recommend which town Gemma
should choose for the location of the new shop. Justify your answer.
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Town B • The wages and salaries are $10 000 lower than
town A (L1)
• Estimated gross profit is $100 000 more than town
C (L1)
• Total costs are $110 000 (not including the
franchise payments) (L1)
• Profit = $80 000 (L2)
• Total expenses = $220 000 (L2)
Award 1 mark for each relevant reason or explanation of the reason for
liquidity and profitability:
Liquidity:
• Allows a business to see if it is able to pay back the short-term debts of
the business
• Measured by current ratio/acid test ratio
• If it cannot pay the debts, then it will not be able to buy more inventory or
raw materials
• If the business becomes illiquid it may be forced to sell business assets to
pay debts and will cease trading
Profitability:
• It measures how well profit is being made from sales or capital invested in
the business
• Could be used to reinvest into the business/use retained profits for
expansion
• Measured by gross profit margin/profit margin/ROCE
• It can be a measure of efficiency
• Can compare business performance over time/compare against other
businesses
• It helps investors or bank to decide whether to invest in the business or
lend it money
• Retain shareholders/pay dividends/return on investment for the owners
For example:
3(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages of the following three sales 12
promotion methods Gemma could use for the new shop. Recommend
which method Gemma should choose to maximise revenue. Justify your
answer.
• Buy one, get 50% off second purchase
• 10% off everything in the shop for one week after opening
• Pay a celebrity to open the shop
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Pay a celebrity to • Many people may visit the shop to meet the
open the shop celebrity – increasing sales while people are in the
shop
• Gains full gross profit on each item as opposed to
the two alternative options
• If customers like the jewellery then may visit the
shop again later and sales may continue to
increase
• Increased cost of paying the celebrity to visit the
shop which can be very expensive
• Improved the image of the shop – as the shop may
be associated with the celebrity and the luxury
nature of GJs jewellery
3(b)
Recommendation Justification might include:
• Revenue is likely to increase in all three options.
However, buy one get 50% off second purchase of
jewellery will attract customers to the make more
than one purchase leading to the highest increase
in revenue. The second option may only gain a
small increase in revenue because a 10%
reduction in price is a small discount and may not
encourage much more than a 10% increase in
sales. Although the celebrity may attract
customers to the shop it is a one day promotion
and will only increase sales and revenue for one
day.
• A price reduction of 10% may be the most effective
in maximising revenue by encouraging increased
sales of all items of jewellery. The loss in revenue
from the price reduction of 10% could then be
more than compensated for assuming a higher
than 10% increase in the number of jewellery
sales.
• Paying a celebrity may increase revenue the most
because many people will be made aware of the
shop and be attracted to its opening. Many of
these people may then make purchases of
jewellery when at the new shop which would not
otherwise have been made, therefore increasing
revenue by the highest amount.
For example:
Depreciation in the exchange rate will result in import prices rising. (1) This
will increase the cost of jewellery to GJ (app) which will lead to either higher
prices and lower sales (1) or lower gross profit being made if she keeps prices
the same. (1)
Note: Gemma sells expensive items of jewellery, rings and bracelets may be
considered to be luxury goods.
4(b) Consider how the following three changes might affect GJ. Which 12
change is likely to have the most effect on GJ’s profit? Justify your
answer.
• All jewellery packaging must state in which country the product has
been made
• Country Z has entered a boom phase of the business cycle
• A higher percentage of people in country Z use mobile (cell) phones
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
4(b)
Conclusion Justification might include:
• The changes to packaging may have the most effect
if consumers are concerned about ethical issues and
even if they have a higher income from the boom,
they will not purchase jewellery from shops that do
not sell ethically sourced inventory so GJ should
have increased profit.
• Economic boom is likely to have the biggest effect on
profit as consumers will have higher incomes and be
more likely to spend some of this on expensive
jewellery rather than cheaper jewellery and therefore
GJ will have higher revenue and higher profit even
after payments to the franchisor. If only some
consumers are concerned about ethical issues this
change will have less effect on sales and profit.
• More mobile (cell) phones will allow GJ to increase
the target customers for sales from beyond where the
shop is located as they have their own mobile
phone app. The potential increase in the number of
customers and therefore sales may be greater than
the increase in disposable income of local residents
near to the shops. Therefore, this may provide the
greater increase in revenue and possibly profit as
costs of selling on the internet are also lower.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
11_0986_11_2020_1.1
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2
1 SRB is a bank which provides loans to business customers. SRB plans to make 100 managers’
jobs redundant from its 80 branches. This would remove one level of hierarchy. This is part of its
plan to save $1m in costs over the next 2 years. The Managing Director said: ‘SRB is working with
the trade union about this plan. SRB will make more use of delegation.The bank has to respond
to increased competition from online banks. SRB could either advertise more or develop new
products and services.’
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........................................................................................................................................... [2]
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Advantage 1:.....................................................................................................................
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Advantage 2:.....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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(d) Explain two factors SRB should consider when deciding which managers to make redundant.
Factor 1:............................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Factor 2:............................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think that more advertising is a better way for a business to respond to increased
competition than introducing new products and services? Justify your answer.
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2 YMG is a private limited company. It is the largest manufacturer of soft drinks in country V. YMG
produces 1 billion litres a year using flow production. The Managing Director wants YMG to expand.
He said: ‘I plan to increase production to 3 billion litres over the next 5 years. This will allow us to
start selling our products in new markets in other countries. I know import quotas and lack of local
knowledge can cause problems but there are ways we can overcome them.’ The Managing Director
also plans to invest $60m in new technology to improve efficiency.
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two methods (other than technology) a business can use to improve efficiency.
Method 1:...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Method 2:...........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two sources of finance YMG could use for the new technology.
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(d) Explain how each of the following problems might affect YMG when entering new markets in
other countries.
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think a joint venture is the best way for a business to enter a new market in another
country? Justify your answer.
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3 Elton is a sole trader. He sells specialist clothing and equipment for sports, including baseball and
hockey. It is a niche market. Elton started his business 5 years ago and it has remained small. A
wide range of inventory is important. Elton has been looking at the financial performance of his
business. The profit margin for 2018 was 35%. An extract of the accounts is shown in Table 3.1.
Table 3.1
Revenue and cost information for Elton’s business for 2018 and 2019 ($)
2018 2019
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
X : .......................................................................................................................................
Y: ....................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) State four factors that can influence the amount of inventory a business might hold.
Factor 1:............................................................................................................................
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Factor 2:............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 3:............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 4:............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to Elton of operating in a niche market.
Advantage:........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Disadvantage:....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think Elton should be pleased with the financial performance of his business? Justify
your answer using appropriate ratios.
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4 KTF makes building materials, including cement and bricks. Last year KTF had sales of $25bn.
KTF’s objectives have often changed since it was started 60 years ago. The Managing Director
wants KTF to expand. KTF is going to take over one of its main competitors. The newly expanded
business will have combined sales of $40bn. The Managing Director said: ‘Many stakeholder groups
will be affected by this decision.’ She knows there are many external factors that affect business
activity including the business cycle, interest rates and legal controls to protect the environment.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two reasons why a business might change its objectives.
Reason 1:..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2:..........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to KTF of taking over the other business.
Advantage:........................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
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Disadvantage:....................................................................................................................
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(d) Explain how two external stakeholder groups might be affected by the take over.
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Explanation:.......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think businesses will be more affected by new legal controls to protect the environment
than an increase in interest rates? Justify your answer.
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BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
11_0986_21_2020_1.2
© UCLES 2020 [Turn over
2
1 (a) Explain two reasons why having business objectives is important to Gemma.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages of buying the Beautywise franchise. Do you think
Gemma was right to buy the franchise? Justify your answer.
Advantages: ......................................................................................................................
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Disadvantages: .................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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2 (a) Explain four requirements for the new manager that Gemma should include in the job
specification below.
Requirement 1: .................................................................................................................
Explanation:.......................................................................................................................
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Requirement 2: .................................................................................................................
Explanation:.......................................................................................................................
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Requirement 3: .................................................................................................................
Explanation:.......................................................................................................................
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Requirement 4: .................................................................................................................
Explanation:.......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages of the three towns for the new shop shown in
Appendix 3. Recommend which town Gemma should choose for the location of the new shop.
Justify your answer.
Town A: .............................................................................................................................
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Town B: .............................................................................................................................
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Town C: .............................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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Liquidity: ...........................................................................................................................
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Profitability: .......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages of the following three sales promotion methods
Gemma could use for the new shop. Recommend which method Gemma should choose to
maximise revenue. Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
10% off everything in the shop for one week after opening:.............................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Recommendation:.............................................................................................................
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(b) Consider how the following three changes might affect GJ. Which change is likely to have the
most effect on GJ’s profit? Justify your answer.
• All jewellery packaging must state in which country the product has been made
• Country Z has entered a boom phase of the business cycle
• A higher percentage of people in country Z use mobile (cell) phones
All jewellery packaging must state in which country the product has been made:............
...........................................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/11
Short Answer/Data Response
Key messages
This is the second year for this new version of the syllabus. Small differences in the weighting of the
assessment objectives since 2020 have resulted in some changes in the mark scheme.
Part (c) of each question continues to have four marks. However, one of the part (c) questions each session
is a generic question, Question 4(c) in this paper. The remaining part (c) questions continue to be applied
questions which assess knowledge and application.
Part (e) of each question no longer includes marks for application. Many candidates continue to try to apply
their answers to the case study which uses valuable time.
Questions which require application refer to the business in the scenario by name. Candidates should be
reminded to use information from the stem to help answer parts (c) and (d) when appropriate as this
provides the basis for application.
General comments
Questions requiring definitions and knowledge, such as parts (a) and (b) of each question were not well
answered this session. Many candidates were unsure of the terms or needed to be more precise when
defining them. This was a particular issue in Questions 1(b), 3(a) and 4(a).
Weak understanding of business terminology was also an issue in a number of other questions notably,
Questions 1(d), 1(e) and 2(c). Understanding the usefulness of business documents requires further study
for many candidates. This was an issue within Question 1(c).
For most part (c) and all part (d) questions, candidates are required to link each point made to the context
outlined within the stem of the question. Candidates should be reminded to use a different point of
application and analysis for each point of knowledge. Each application point can be credited only once within
any question.
Effective evaluation is an area which requires development. Candidates should be reminded that evaluation
should include a justified decision that follows on from the points raised in the answer, not a repetition of
points already explained. The mark scheme for each part (e) question includes an example of how
evaluation may be demonstrated in the answer.
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates were able to identify two distinct features of this type of business
organisation. A common error was to confuse a sole trader business with an entrepreneur. Some
candidates therefore incorrectly stated characteristics that an entrepreneur may possess such as
risk taking.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(b) Candidates were sometimes unsure of the meaning of this term. Some candidates provided the
formula. Although a formula is not a precise definition, as required in the question, candidates were
awarded for showing awareness of the term. A common mistake was to define starting capital
rather than working capital.
(c) This question required application to the business stated in the stem. Candidates needed to clearly
understand the topic of break-even as many struggled to explain how the information would be
used by a business. A common error was to state that break-even would show the profit made,
rather than the potential profit at any level of output.
(d) The concept of added value was not well understood by many candidates. Most candidates
struggled to explain how changing packaging would add value to a drink, instead they explained
how this would attract more customers. These answers could not be credited. The best responses
explained that changing packaging would improve perceived quality allowing a higher price to be
charged therefore increasing the profit margin on each drink. The impact of cheaper materials was
better understood although candidates struggled to fully develop their answers to gain the analysis
marks available.
(e) The strongest answers recognised that free samples are most appropriate for food items where
customers may be persuaded to purchase by the taste. Very few candidates were able to provide
an effective evaluation for this question. Most offered simple decisions without justification, or
repeated points previously stated in the answer. Some candidates confused methods of sales
promotion and methods of advertising. They often stated that free samples were not appropriate
and then discussed at length the methods of advertising that might be suitable instead. These
candidates showed no knowledge of the concept of sales promotion and therefore their answers
were not credited.
Question 2
(a) Well answered by many candidates. Some candidates needed to show awareness that these
companies have production or service operations in many countries.
(c) This was one of the more challenging questions for candidates. The strongest candidates
explained how JIT could reduce the space needed to store stock of car parts, but it requires a
reliable supplier to ensure production continues. Many candidates stated incorrectly that no
warehouse space would be required or confused inventory control with JIT production. This
question also required application to the business in the question stem.
(d) Although candidates showed awareness of the concept of economic growth, the focus of their
answers was frequently incorrect. Only the strongest responses were able to explain how the
decision to build a new factory would be affected by this situation. Even the most successful
candidates struggled to develop their points sufficiently to gain analysis marks. A common error
was to describe how economic growth would benefit the local population with no reference to
NSN’s decision to build a new factory.
(e) This was a very challenging question for candidates. Although candidates were aware of the issues
surrounding the introduction of technology many needed to address their answers directly to the
question set, in this case the benefit to (all) employees. Some candidates discussed the impact on
the business rather than the employees. The strongest candidates discussed the benefits of safer
working conditions and the risks of redundancy. Very few were then able to make effective
evaluative comments. A significant number of candidates gained one mark only for knowledge that
workers may lose their jobs.
Question 3
(a) This was the most challenging question on the paper for most candidates. Very few were able to
offer a clear and precise definition of the term. A significant number of candidates did not attempt
the question.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(b) Candidates were confident in their understanding of this term. Many provided clear and precise
definitions. A small but significant number of candidates confused stakeholders with shareholders.
(c) Good knowledge of this topic was evident. A variety of different correct answers were provided. A
common error was to give imprecise answers such as ‘for growth’. To gain credit for this point the
candidate would need to state that profit could be used as a source of finance for growth. Some
candidates missed out on the application marks available by not referring to the business in the
question.
(d) The strongest answers identified delegation and team working as ways to involve employees in
decision-making. Many of these answers were effectively applied to the business in the stem of the
question, a paint factory. However, some candidates repeated the same point of application which
could only be credited once. Even the most successful candidates often struggled to explain how
the identified ways would work. Many candidates misunderstood the question and incorrectly
explained a list of different decisions that employees could be allowed to make such as the colour
of paint.
(e) Candidates who explained that wholesalers buy in large quantities and advertise the products on
behalf of manufacturers scored highly on this question. Even the most successful candidates
struggled to fully develop their answers to make an effective decision and gain evaluation marks. A
mistake made in the weakest responses was to confuse wholesalers and agents. These
candidates often explained in some detail how the wholesaler would help a business to sell in a
foreign country. These answers were not credited.
Question 4
(a) This term was not well understood. The weakest responses frequently repeated the phrase stating
that cost of sales is the cost of making sales. Several candidates provided the method by which
cost of sales would be calculated. Although this is not a precise definition of the term it was
credited in this instance as showing understanding of the meaning of the term. Candidates should
be encouraged in future sessions to learn precise definitions rather than methods of calculation.
(b) Many candidates provided correct calculations for both figures. Weaker responses were unsure of
the calculations required and a wide variety of incorrect answers were provided. The correct
answers were revenue of $900 000 and expenses of $320 000.
(c) Many candidates showed good knowledge of the stages in the recruitment process and gained all
marks available. Some candidates stated incorrectly that training was part of the recruitment
process. Candidates often lost marks through imprecise use of language such as stating ‘applying’
rather than ‘application forms sent/received’.
(d) There were many good answers to this question which made effective use of the information
provided in the question stem. The strongest answers explained how clear communication would
ensure employees completed their tasks correctly and would be motivated. Candidates who
identified speed of communication as a point often did not link this to decision-making and
therefore did not gain the knowledge mark. A significant number of candidates discussed the
importance of feedback but did not link this to customer preferences in this cinema chain. These
answers could not be credited.
(e) Many candidates demonstrated appropriate knowledge but were unable to fully develop their
answers to show analysis. The most common knowledge shown was that shares would be a
permanent source of capital and loans would need to be repaid with interest. The strongest
responses recognised the effect on the business of increased debt or limits to decision-making.
The weakest responses focussed on the issue of limited liability which would not be an important
factor in this decision.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies November 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/21
Case Study
Key messages
Candidates should be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is apart from one of the
part (a) questions that is generic. Applying answers to the case will ensure responses are appropriate for
each given situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both parts (a) and (b) for
application. In this particular case study, candidates were expected to refer to a business that
manufactures soap powder.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of both the positive and negative consequences of a
business decision when this is asked for. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple
description; listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the
answer to Level 2.
• Several questions on this paper ask candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on a balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case and make reference to why the other
alternative option(s) were rejected.
General comments
Candidates were prepared for this examination and understood what was expected of them. The context of
SSM, a soap powder manufacturer established twenty-five years ago, provided an accessible scenario for
candidates. Those who applied their answers to the context of SSM were the most successful.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, to
make sure they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. Many
candidates showed good knowledge and understanding of many of the topics from the syllabus that were
assessed, but in some instances, it was clear that a few topics were not as well understood. The weakest
understanding was apparent in the topic areas of economies of scale, ways in which a business can grow
and the economic environment in which businesses operate.
There were a few examples where candidates had continued an answer to a question in the extra space
provided on the blank pages at the end of the question paper. Candidates should make it clear that there is a
continuation of the response and where the answer can be found.
Overall, there were some good scripts seen and a number of weaker ones. Application marks were often
gained but candidates should make sure that different examples of application are included in the (a)
questions. The conclusion/recommendation should also be applied to the case in the (b) questions.
Candidates should aim to consider the consequences / implications / long-term / short-term / balance issues
of their decisions to secure Level 2 or Level 3 marks.
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies November 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) Candidates demonstrated good knowledge of the benefits and drawbacks of specialisation. The
most common answers focused on the benefits of highly skilled workers who were able to produce
high levels of output with fewer mistakes. Drawbacks included the boredom from the monotony of
performing the same task repeatedly. Weaker responses confused a discussion about
specialisation with points about flow production. Stronger responses achieved full marks because
they made a valid point and then developed it with reasoning. This was the only question on the
paper that was generic so there was no need for application to the case study.
(b) Candidates were required to consider the problems rather than the benefits of entering new
markets in other countries. Stronger responses noted that cultural differences presented a problem
of different traditions regarding the use of soap powder and then developed their explanation of
how this would affect the marketing strategy for SSM. Lack of knowledge would make it difficult for
the business to compare its product to that of the competition and may make it hard to know which
retail outlets would be appropriate to use. Some weaker responses were more confident in
discussing the problem of import restrictions due to tariffs and quotas. Stronger candidates
included a justified conclusion about the most serious problem faced by SSM, and also justified
why the other problems were less significant. A minority of candidates wrongly assumed that SSM
was going to manufacture rather than market soap powder in other countries.
Question 2
(a) Many candidates were able to outline methods of both internal and external growth. Some
responses explained about the process of a takeover or merger which would allow SSM to remove
some of their competition and provide access to new ideas and customers. Strong responses often
suggested developing new products aimed at a different sector of the market, thereby resulting in
diversification in the business. Weaker responses considered the options of new sources of finance
rather than growth of the manufacturing business. Two of the available marks were awarded for
application to the case study so it was relevant to refer, for example, to the decision to expand the
factory and to sell soap powder in other countries.
(b) Many candidates were able to access Level 1 marks by explaining that the main advantage of
primary research was to acquire first-hand, relevant, and comprehensive data about the specific
market. The key advantage of secondary research is to obtain data about the whole market quickly
and without too much expense. Weaker candidates tended to stray away from the question and
discuss disadvantages. Stronger candidates linked the benefit of the research method to an
appropriate sales strategy to achieve Level 2. For example, data from secondary research would
allow SSM to learn about their competitors’ range of soap products and consider their own
advertising and pricing strategy to maximise sales. Answers were often applied by including
reference to the customers’ habits of washing clothes and the soap powder market. Stronger
responses included a recommendation that justified one method of research, giving a reason for
this choice without simply repeating earlier points, and then justified why the alternative method
was rejected. The recommendation also needed to be in the context of this business which
manufactured soap powder. Weaker recommendations simply repeated earlier points without any
further development of the answer to justify why a particular method was chosen.
Question 3
(a) This was a well-answered question. Motivation was a topic that was clearly understood by many
candidates and a wide range of suitable answers were offered such as increasing wages, paying a
bonus, using job rotation or job enrichment. Four marks were awarded for identifying the
motivational factors, but candidates were then required to apply each point to the context of SSM to
earn the remaining four marks. For example, the increase in wages would be given to all sixty
production workers and job rotation would help to solve the problem that they often complain their
jobs are boring. Some responses lacked this development.
(b) This proved to be a difficult question for candidates. Some stronger responses stated that large
scale production would bring the benefit of buying in bulk with a discount. This would have earned
Level 1 credit but further development of the point to explain that average or unit cost would
therefore be lower was needed to achieve Level 2. For financial and managerial economies of
© 2021
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9-1)
0986 Business Studies November 2021
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
scale, it was important to link the point made to how it would result in reducing average cost. This
would access the higher levels. Some candidates used the case material well, referring to
ingredients for soap powder, the need to obtain $15 m for expansion and the management of
factory workers on many different production lines. Stronger answers included a conclusion that
explained the greater benefit of one economy of scale and then justified, in context, why the other
two economies of scale would have less benefit.
Question 4
(a) Many candidates demonstrated sound knowledge of how to overcome cash flow problems. There
was some very useful information in Appendix 2 to help candidates apply their knowledge to this
business context. Better responses mentioned reducing the number of debtor days from the current
level of 60 to the previous levels of 40 or even 20. This would increase cash inflow. Similarly, using
the case study, strong answers suggested increasing creditor days from the current level of 20 to
the previous level of 30 or 40. This would reduce cash outflow. Weaker responses wrongly entered
into a discussion about profit rather than cash flow.
(b) This question was answered by many candidates in a simple way, showing limited understanding.
Increases in the overall level of employment in Country Y would make it more difficult for SSM to fill
job vacancies if fewer people were seeking work. Employers may have to pay higher wages to
attract more skilled workers. An increase in inflation would result in higher prices for the ingredients
to make soap powder which would push up the selling price of the product, thus possibly reducing
demand. Stronger responses identified more than one consequence of each economic change and
were able to make a link to the level of profit earned by the business. In the conclusion stronger
responses explained which economic change would have the most impact and justified why the
other would have less impact, making relevant use of the case study material to support their
decision.
© 2021
Grade thresholds – November 2021
The maximum total mark for this syllabus, after weighting has been applied, is 160.
The overall thresholds for the different grades were set as follows.
Combination of
Option 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Components
X 11, 21 97 83 70 59 48 37 30 23 16
Learn more! For more information please visit www.cambridgeinternational.org/igcse or contact Customer Services
on +44 (0)1223 553554 or email [email protected]
™
Cambridge IGCSE (9-1)
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*0988989105-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
11_0986_21_2021_1.3
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2
SSM is a public limited company that was set up 25 years ago. SSM manufacture soap powder in
country Y. The soap powder is used for washing clothes. SSM sells all its soap powder to large
retailers in country Y. SSM’s sales have been increasing for many years in country Y but sales in
the last year have remained the same. The directors of SSM are considering ways to increase
sales.
SSM has a total of 100 employees with 60 in the Operations Department. It uses flow production
in the factory and has 10 production lines with 5 workers and 1 supervisor for each line. The
Operations Manager is aware that production workers are unhappy and often complain about their
jobs being boring. These workers have always been paid by an hourly rate. The Human Resources
Manager has recommended changes to ensure fewer workers leave each year to work for other
businesses.
The directors of SSM have decided to expand the factory. They will need $15m to do this. The
directors have also considered taking over a competitor. SSM is likely to benefit from economies
of scale as it grows.
The Marketing Director thinks SSM should start selling soap powder in markets in other countries.
SSM will need to carry out either primary market research or secondary market research to forecast
the potential total sales in these new markets. There are many existing manufacturers in these
countries. SSM need to consider the problems when entering new markets in other countries such
as tariffs or quotas.
Appendix 1
All the different types of soap powder are manufactured on production lines using flow production.
SSM makes use of specialisation.
stage 1
raw materials
are mixed together
stage 2
soap powder released
onto conveyor belt
stage 3
Soap
soap powder put Powder
into packaging
stage 4
quality checks
carried out
stage 5
finished boxes transferred
to warehouse for storage
Appendix 2
SSM has a cash-flow problem which may get worse. Please see charts below.
Graph to show the number of days Graph to show the number of days
debtors take to pay SSM SSM takes to pay suppliers
60 60
50 50
40 40
Number Number
30 30
of days of days
20 20
10 10
0 0
2019 2020 2021 2019 2020 2021
Year Year
Appendix 3
Retailers have reported increased sales for most types of products such as sales of washing
machines which have increased by 15%. Economic growth in country Y is predicted to increase.
Many businesses have been recruiting additional employees and there are now shortages of some
skilled workers. The government in country Y has recorded an increase in inflation to 8% so far
this year, which is a worry.
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2021 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range
may be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
1(a) Identify two features of a sole trader. 2 Do not credit in private sector as this applies to
many forms of business organisation.
Award 1 mark per feature.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
OR The capital needed to finance the day to day running expenses (and
pay the short-term debts of the business) [2]
1(c) Outline two ways that break-even information can help Jerome’s 4 Note: To use words from the stem as
business. application, the reference must be appropriate
(i.e. make sense) in relation to the point being
Award 1 mark for each relevant way. made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Points might include: • (low sugar) drinks
• He knows the level of output needed to make a profit / cover costs • 200 units above break-even
[k] for his (low sugar) drink [app] • 10 000 / 9800 units sold
• Helps planning/forecasting/decision-making [k] such as how best to • Added value
increase added value [app] • Family and friends
• Help apply for finance [k] as so far only borrowed from friends and
family [app] Other appropriate examples in context can still
• Can see what will happen if costs/prices change [k] be credited.
• Helps identify the expected level of profit/loss at different levels of
output [k] Do not award points such as shows
• Help identify the margin of safety [k] based on the 10 000 units sold costs/sales/revenue/profit on own as this is too
[app] vague.
1(d) Explain how each of the following can help Jerome increase added 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
value: application, the reference must be appropriate
• Change the packaging (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point being
• Use cheaper materials made.
1(e) Do you think giving out free samples is the best method of sales 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
promotion for a business to use when promoting a new food for application.
product? Justify your answer.
Candidates can discuss other options, but
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. evaluation must focus on whether free samples
is the best method of sales promotion to use.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Award 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether free samples are the
best method of sales promotion for a business to use when promoting a
new (food) product.
2(a) Define ‘multinational company’. 2 Do not award ‘sells in other countries’ as this could
equally apply to an exporter.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
2(b) Identify two reasons why a government might support business 2 Only award the first two responses given.
activity.
2(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to NSN of using just- 4 Note: To use words from the stem as
in-time inventory control. application, the reference must be appropriate
(i.e. make sense) in relation to the point being
Award 1 mark for each relevant advantage/disadvantage. made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Points might include: • Car
• Factory
Advantages: • Multinational company
• Less warehouse space [k] needed to store parts for cars [app] • Technology changed production
• Less inventory held [k] in its factories [app]
• Lower storage costs [k] for the multinational company [App] Other appropriate examples in context can still
• Improve working capital [k] be credited.
• Improve cash flow [k]
• Lower risk of obsolete/damaged stock [k]
Disadvantages:
• Very reliant on suppliers to deliver stock when needed / if parts not
available / late it will have a major impact on production [k] as
technology has changed how production is carried out [app]
• May not be able to meet sudden/unexpected order [k]
• Little room for mistakes (as minimal stock available for rework) [k]
• Less (purchasing) economies of scale [k]
2(d) Explain two ways in which an increase in economic growth might 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
affect NSN’s decision to build a new factory in country Z. application, the reference must be appropriate
(i.e. make sense) in relation to the point being
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2). made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • Car
• $80m (grant)
Points might include:
• 7000 jobs
• Just-in-time inventory control
• Could lead to increased demand [k] for cars [app] increasing revenue
• Multinational company
[an]
• Shortage of skilled workers [k] may make it more difficult to recruit
Other appropriate examples in context can still
workers [an] for the 7000 jobs[app]
be credited.
• Employees may ask for higher wages [k] increasing costs [an]
• Increased rent costs / less choice of location [k] increasing fixed
costs [an] for the factory[app]
• Increased competition [k] so may gain few customers / low market
share [an]
2(e) Do you think the ways technology has changed production 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
methods benefits all employees? Justify your answer. for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Note: Answer must focus on the benefit or not to
the workers so do not accept points such as ‘more
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. efficient’ or ‘better quality/ less mistakes’ unless
clearly link issue to employees.
Award 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether the way technology
has changed production methods has benefited all employees. Do not award work is easier/less work as this is
too vague.
Points might include:
• Need for retraining / learn new skills [k] leading to opportunities for
promotion [an]
• Safer conditions [k] so less risk of injury [an]
• The job is more repetitive [k] so lower job satisfaction [an]
• Fewer workers needed / workers may lose their jobs / redundancy
[k] so lower standard of living [an]
• More job insecurity / fear of change [k] so could reduce motivation
[an]
• More skilled workers may be needed [k] leading to higher pay [an]
• Less job security [k] could reduce workers motivation [an]. However,
more skilled workers may be needed [k] leading to higher pay. [an]
No, it will not benefit all employees as it depends on the individual
worker. Those who lose their jobs will not see the benefit from
technology [eval] whereas those who keep their job can benefit from
learning new skills. [eval]
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
OR Anybody inside or outside the business who cares about its operations
[1]
3(c) Outline two reasons why profit might be important to SBG. 4 Note: To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be appropriate
Award 1 mark for each relevant reason. (i.e. make sense) in relation to the point being
made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business.
The following words are likely to be appropriate
Points might include: for this question:
• Source of finance [k] as its objective is to grow [app] • Paint
• To ensure survival of the business / avoid closure [K] protecting jobs • 6 factories
of its 700 employees [app] • 700 employees
• Measure/indicator of success of the business [k] in each of the 16 • 16 countries
countries [app] • Growth (is the objective)
• Measures the performance of managers [k] in the paint business • Employees are encouraged to be involved
[app] in decision-making.
• Reward for risk-taking [k]
• Decide whether to continue making or selling a product [k] Other appropriate examples in context can still
• Attract investors [k] be credited.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. Do not credit payment of day-to-day expenses.
3(d) Explain two ways SBG can involve its employees in decision- 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
making. application, the reference must be appropriate
(i.e. make sense) in relation to the point being
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2). made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • Paint
• 6 factories
Points might include: • 16 countries
• Delegation [k] as workers in the 6 factories [app] will make the • 700 employees
decisions themselves [an] • Developing new products
• Democratic leadership [k] encourages employees to offer ideas [an] • Channel of distribution
about developing new products [app]
• Encourage team working / kaizen [k] for its 700 employees [app] Other appropriate examples in context can still
• Meet with employees/surveys [k] be credited.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
3(e) Do you think using wholesalers is the best way for a large business 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
to distribute its products? Justify your answer. for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. To gain both evaluation marks, response must
clearly relate to a large business.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Candidates can discuss other options, but
Award 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether wholesalers are the evaluation must focus on whether wholesalers
best channel of distribution for a large business to use. are the best way for a large business to
distribute its products.
Points might include:
• Transport costs to the retailer is paid for by the wholesaler [k] so
reduces costs to manufacturer [an]
• Can help sell goods to a larger market [k] leading to higher revenue
[an]
• Wholesalers buy in large quantities [k] reducing distribution costs
[an]
• Wholesalers will advertise and promote products [k]
• Another middleman will take some of the profit [k]
• Producer loses some control over the marketing [k]
OR Cost of purchasing the goods used to make the products sold [2]
4(c) Identify four stages of the recruitment process. 4 Only award the first four responses given.
Award 1 mark per stage. Note: Answer must be from the business
viewpoint not the applicants e.g. CV or letter of
Four from: application.
4(d) Explain two reasons why effective communication might be 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
important to BGR. application, the reference must be appropriate
(i.e. make sense) in relation to the point being
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant reason (max 2). made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • Cinemas (or cinema related words such as
movies, suppliers of popcorn)
Points might include: • New location
• To ensure employees / suppliers carry out the instructions correctly / • $320 000 expenses
understand what to do [k] to make sure the right thing is done / there is • Recruit 10 more employees
no wastage [an]
• Speed up decision-making [k] at the new location [app] so able to Other appropriate examples in context can still
quickly react to changing customer tastes [an] be credited.
• To ensure customers are given correct information [k] which can help
improve customer loyalty [an]
• Find customer preferences [k] so can use the information to help
improve its services / make it more competitive [an]
• Motivates employees [k] increasing efficiency [an]
4(e) Do you think issuing new shares is a better way for a limited 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
company to finance expansion than using a bank loan? for application.
Justify your answer.
Candidates can discuss other options, but
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. evaluation must focus on whether new shares is
better than a bank loan to finance expansion.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Issuing new shares give access to large amounts of capital [k] as there
is no restriction on the number of shares. [an] Bank loans require interest
payments [k] which will increase costs. [an] It can depend on the current
level of debt as a bank loan will increase financial risk[eval] so it may be
safer to issue shares as a limited company will not be required to repay
the funds. [eval]
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2021 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
• The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
• If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
• Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
• Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
For example: The production workers are trained in only one task (1)
therefore it takes less time to train new recruits to the factory. (1)
1(b) Consider the following three problems for SSM when entering markets 12
in other countries. Which problem is likely to have the most effect on
SSM? Justify your answer.
• Cultural differences
• Lack of knowledge
• Import restrictions
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
Import • It there are tariffs on imported soap powder then this will
restrictions cause the price of SSM soap powder to increase –
becomes less competitive than domestic brands of soap
powder – lower sales
• If there are quotas on imported soap powder, then this will
restrict the amount of soap powder SSM can export –
limits sales in this market – likely to lead to an increase in
prices if limited supply of foreign soap powder
Award a maximum of 3 additional marks for each explanation of the way SSM
can grow – one of which must be applied to this context.
For example: Internal growth (1) a business could decide to expand its own
factory (1) new machinery could be purchased to increase production (1).
SSM plans to spend $15 million to expand in this (app).
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages
3(a) Explain four ways SSM could increase the motivation of its production 8
workers.
Award one additional mark for each explanation of the way which must be
applied to this context.
• Introduce piece rate – as currently paid by the hour and now will be paid
by the number of products produced
• Increase wage rates – for all 60 operations workers
• Bonuses – if increase the output of soap powder
• Profit share – if SSM increase profit and pay a higher dividend
• Job rotation – move from mixing raw materials to packaging soap powder
to make their job more interesting
• Job enrichment – as the job is said to be boring then additional tasks can
be added
• Opportunities for promotion – as production workers can gain promotion
to supervisor of the production line
• Training – production workers could have additional training in the use of
machinery on the production line
• Teamworking / using quality circles / workers councils / involve them in
decision-making
• Job enlargement
• Fringe benefits
• Recognition of good work / Employee of the month
• Improving working conditions
For example: Introduce piece rate (1) which will encourage workers to
produce more soap powder as they will be paid more if they produce more
products (app).
3(b) Consider how SSM could benefit from the following three economies of 12
scale. Which economy of scale is likely to have the greatest effect on
SSM? Justify your answer.
• Purchasing
• Financial
• Managerial
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
Award three additional marks for explaining each way cash flow problems can
be overcome – one of which must be in context.
For example: Delay payment to suppliers (1) as this will reduce the cash
outflow (1) and will reduce the amount of working capital required by SSM (1).
The time taken to pay suppliers has been reducing 40 days to 20 days which
seems to have been an increasing problem for SSM (app).
• Increase in employment
• Increase in inflation
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
4(b)
Conclusion • It depends on the extent to which the increase in
employment leads to increased sales of SSM soap
powder. If there is a large increase in the number of
people employed, then disposable incomes will increase
significantly and may lead to consumers spending a
higher amount on luxury items such as washing
machines and therefore soap powder – higher profit for
SSM. An increase in inflation is likely to have less effect
on profit as an increase in costs may be matched by an
increase in prices.
• Whether SSM has an increase in its profit may depend
on whether the products in country Y are competitive
with products from other countries due to the different
inflation rates. If they are, then SSM revenue from the
sales of its products for washing clothes may
increase possibly leading to higher profit. This will
depend on whether SSM can remain competitive.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
11_0986_11_2021_1.1
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2
1 After identifying a gap in the soft drinks market, Jerome developed a low sugar drink. He borrowed
$5 000 from family and friends to start-up a business and to provide working capital. Jerome operates
as a sole trader. To promote his product, Jerome handed out free samples in the town centre. In
the first year, Jerome’s business sold 10 000 units. This is 200 units more than his break-even
output. Jerome is considering ways to increase added value.
Feature 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Feature 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two ways that break-even information can help Jerome’s business.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain how each of the following can help Jerome increase added value:
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think giving out free samples is the best method of sales promotion for a business to
use when promoting a new food product? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
2 NSN is a multinational company. It makes cars. Over the years, technology has changed production
methods. NSN uses just-in-time inventory control in all its factories. NSN plans to open a new
factory in country Z creating 7 000 jobs. Country Z’s Government has offered an $80m grant to
NSN. A spokesperson for NSN said: ‘Governments should support business activity. There were
also other factors that influenced our decision to build the new factory there including the possible
effects of economic growth.’
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two reasons why a government might support business activity.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline one advantage and one disadvantage to NSN of using just-in-time inventory control.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two ways in which an increase in economic growth might affect NSN’s decision to
build a new factory in country Z.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think the ways technology has changed production methods benefits all employees?
Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
3 SBG makes a range of products including specialist paints. It has 6 factories and 700 employees.
All SBG’s employees are encouraged to be involved in decision-making. SBG’s products are
exported to 16 countries using wholesalers as its main channel of distribution. The Managing
Director said: ‘Our objectives are to grow and make a profit.’ He also recognises that all business
activity creates externalities for SBG’s stakeholder groups.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two ways SBG can involve its employees in decision-making.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think using wholesalers is the best way for a large business to distribute its products?
Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
4 BGR is a private limited company. It operates 6 cinemas in different towns. Effective internal
communication is important for BGR. The Finance Director has been analysing BGR’s accounts
and an extract is shown in Table 4.1. BGR plans to open another cinema and will need to recruit
10 new employees. The new cinema will cost $8m. The Finance Director has to decide whether
BGR should issue new shares or use a bank loan to finance the expansion.
Table 4.1
Extract from BGR’s Income statement for year ending 2020 ($000’s)
Revenue X
Expenses Y
Profit 400
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
X: ......................................................................................................................................
Y: ...................................................................................................................................... [2]
Stage 1: ............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Stage 2: ............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Stage 3: ............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Stage 4: ............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two reasons why effective communication might be important to BGR.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think issuing new shares is a better way for a limited company to finance expansion
than using a bank loan? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [6]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
11_0986_21_2021_1.3
© UCLES 2021 [Turn over
2
1 (a) Explain two benefits and two drawbacks of specialisation within a manufacturing process.
Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
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Drawback 1: ......................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
Drawback 2: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following three problems for SSM when entering markets in other countries.
Which problem is likely to have the most effect on SSM? Justify your answer.
• Cultural differences
• Lack of knowledge
• Import restrictions
...........................................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the advantages of using primary and secondary market research to gather information
about the potential sales in the new market. Which is the best method for SSM to use? Justify
your answer.
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
3 (a) Explain four ways SSM could increase the motivation of its production workers.
Way 1 : ..............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Way 3 : ..............................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
Way 4: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider how SSM could benefit from the following three economies of scale. Which economy
of scale is likely to have the greatest effect on SSM? Justify your answer.
• Purchasing
• Financial
• Managerial
Purchasing: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Financial: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Managerial: .......................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the effects on SSM of the following changes in country Y. Which effect is likely to
have the greatest impact on SSM’s profit? Justify your answer.
• Increase in employment
• Increase in inflation
...........................................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every reasonable
effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the publisher will
be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge Assessment
International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/11
Short Answer/Data Response
Key messages
• Questions which require application, such as part (c) and (d) of each question, refer to the
business in the scenario by name. Candidates should be reminded to use information from
the stem to help answer such questions as this provides the basis for application.
• Part (e) of each question is no longer marked for application. These questions now have 2
knowledge, 2 analysis and 2 evaluation marks.
• Effective evaluation is an area which requires development. Candidates should be
reminded that evaluation must include a justified decision that follows on from the points
raised in the answer. A repetition of points already explained in the answer will not gain
evaluation marks. The mark scheme for each part (e) question includes one example of
how evaluation may be demonstrated in the answer.
General comments
Questions requiring definitions and knowledge, such as parts (a) and (b) of each question were generally
better attempted this session. Some candidates needed to be more precise when defining the requested
terms. This was a particular issue in Question 4(a).
Weak understanding of business terminology was also a factor in the low marks awarded for
Questions 1(d), 3(e) and 4(e).
There was some evidence that candidates were not reading the entire question. This was an issue within
Question 3(d) where candidates did not explain the effect of the change.
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates were able to provide at least a partial definition for this term, most
frequently training whilst working. Candidates lost marks by specifying that this was training for new
workers and therefore providing an explanation that could be related to induction. Such answers
gained no marks.
(b) The strongest candidates illustrated how they had achieved their correct answer by providing their
workings. Many candidates were unclear on this calculation frequently dividing output by variable
cost per unit.
(c) This part (c) question required no application to the business stated in the stem. The strongest
candidates recognised the importance of the factors noted in the mark scheme when making this
production decision. Weaker responses often simply stated the four factors of production, capital
enterprise land and labour with no attempt to relate these to the decision being made.
(d) The concept of quality control was not well understood by many candidates. Many incorrectly
stated that this method would ensure that no errors would appear in the product, showing lack of
awareness that only some products would be checked. Stronger candidates identified that the
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
method attempted to reduce errors but could not identify the stage at which the error occurred.
Candidates struggled to provide two different points of application for this question.
(e) The strongest answers recognised that adding new features may make a product more appealing
to customers increasing sales revenue. Only the strongest candidates were able to correctly
explain any problems with this strategy, most often this was that customers may dislike the
changes. A mistake made by many candidates was to explain the benefits of designing a totally
new product which did not answer the question set. No candidate provided an effective evaluation
for this question.
Question 2
(a) Well answered by many candidates. Candidates lost marks by stating that this was the product
chosen rather than given up.
(b) Many candidates struggled to answer this question. Answers frequently did not focus on labour but
stated other methods to measure size, such as profit or output. The strongest candidates
recognised the problems of part-time staff and capital-intensive production.
(c) This part (c) question was one of the most challenging for candidates. The strongest candidates
explained how personal assets would be protected in the case of business failure for this electricity
supplier. A common error was to state that the shareholders would not pay any debts. Such
answers showed a lack of understanding that money invested into the business would be used to
pay debts.
(d) Although candidates showed awareness of the concept of pressure groups, the focus of their
answers was frequently incorrect. Only the strongest responses were able to fully explain two
different actions that pressure groups could take. Weaker responses often stated that pressure
groups would force the business to change its way of working without identifying how they would
do this.
(e) Many candidates had a good understanding of methods of internal communication. Stronger
candidates explained why a meeting would be preferred as it allows workers to ask questions to
ensure that they fully understand. A mark of 2 was common as many candidates simply stated
methods of communication with no development to show application to the question set.
Question 3
(a) This term was generally understood with many candidates offering clear definitions. An error made
by some candidates was to state that these assets would not be owned by the business.
(b) Candidates were confident in their understanding of this topic, many gained both marks available.
(c) A variety of correct, appropriately applied points were provided for this question. A common error
was to state that wages would have to rise, or staff would be made redundant. These are not direct
consequences of a rise in taxation so could not be credited. Some candidates lost the application
marks available by not referring to the business in the question.
(d) Many candidates simply identified that both ratios would fall quoting appropriate figures to support
their answers. Such answers gained the knowledge and application marks available. Very few
candidates were able to answer the question set and explain the effect on CPK of these changes.
The mark scheme provides examples of the most appropriate impacts that were credited.
(e) Candidates found this to be one of the most challenging questions on the examination paper.
Although many had a general understanding of the terms, they were unable to explain how these
motivation methods worked. The strongest candidates identified the benefit of workers feeling
valued and money as a major motivator, gaining 2 marks. A mistake made by some candidates
was to confuse job enrichment with job rotation.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 4
(a) This term was not well understood. Very few candidates provided clear and precise definitions.
Some candidates stated that this meant business failure or identified features of a recession such
as high unemployment.
(b) Many candidates provided two correct answers. Weaker responses often stated by price or
product, showing some confusion with the marketing mix.
(c) The strongest candidates identified the need to pay day to day expenses and for use in
emergencies providing appropriate examples of each situation. Many candidates provided two
examples of expenses which could be paid by a hairdresser. Such answers gained a maximum of
2 marks as they illustrated one reason. Some candidates incorrectly stated that working capital
would be used to purchase the franchise.
(d) There were some good answers to this question which made effective use of the information
provided in the question stem. The strongest answers explained the benefits of purchasing a well-
established brand name and the support offered by the franchisor. A significant number of
candidates did not apply their answers to the context of a hairdressing salon and lost the
application marks available. The weakest responses suggested that the franchisor would operate
the business with Beena acting as a manager. Such answers gained zero marks.
(e) A mark of 2 was common for this question as candidates demonstrated appropriate knowledge but
were unable to fully develop this to show analysis. Most commonly the knowledge shown was that
primary research would be up to date, but expensive, while secondary may be outdated. The
strongest candidates recognised that a start-up business would have limited finance and therefore
may be unable to afford effective primary research. Candidates struggled to provide effective
evaluation of the two methods. A small number of candidates confused primary and secondary
research.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/21
Case Study
Key messages
Candidates should be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is apart from one (a)
question that will usually be generic. Applying answers to the case will ensure responses are appropriate for
each given situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both parts (a) and (b) for
application. In this particular case study candidates were expected to refer to a small business that
organises safari tours. It is advisable for candidates to ask themselves about the size of the business, is
it a service or manufacturer and what is the type of business organisation? This may add to the quality
of their answers.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of positive and negative consequences of a business
decision when this is asked for. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple description;
listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the answer to
Level 2. Few well developed points will score higher marks than a long list of simple statements.
• Several questions on this paper ask candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without full
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case and make reference to why the alternative
option(s) was rejected.
General comments
Candidates had generally been well prepared for this examination and understood what was expected of
them. The context of SA, a small business organising safari tours, provided an accessible scenario for
candidates. Those who applied their answers to the context of SA boosted their marks much further. The
majority of candidates seemed to have time to complete the paper and attempted all questions.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, so
they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. Also the question
should be read carefully to ensure answers are appropriate and clearly address the question asked, such as
answering from the point of view of a business rather than its employees. Many candidates showed good
knowledge and understanding of the full range of the syllabus that was assessed, but in some cases it was
clear that certain topics were not as well understood. The weakest understanding was of ecommerce and the
impact of a rise in inflation.
Overall, the standard was good with very few weak scripts. Candidates often provided answers in context
which enabled access to application marks. However, candidates should make sure that different examples
of application are included in each section of (a) questions (not 2a on this particular paper) and the
conclusion/recommendation should also be applied to the case in (b) questions. A lack of analysis and
evaluation resulted in answers remaining in the lower-level mark band. Candidates should aim to consider
the consequences/implications/long term/short term/balance issues of the decisions to secure Level 2 or
Level 3 marks in the conclusion/recommendation.
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates could name and explain four business objectives and make an
appropriate link to the context of SA. The business had started just two years ago so one example
of a strong response was to identify the objective of survival so that Tokumbo could focus on
establishing his new safari business with a secure future. Many responses mentioned making
profit, providing good customer service and increasing market share as objectives and then offered
explanations in the context of SA to earn additional marks. Weaker responses discussed strategies
rather than objectives, sometimes copying points made in the case study.
(b) This question required candidates to consider the opportunities and threats of e-commerce for SA.
Many candidates discussed the benefit of customers being able to make a direct booking with SA
which would remove the need to use holiday companies as an intermediary. This would increase
profit margins for SA. Stronger responses supported their answer by referring to the flexibility of a
website being able to change prices and holiday details, easily linking with other aspects of tourist
services such as booking hotels and travel. Consideration of the threats of ecommerce often cited
the need for expertise to set up and maintain a dynamic website to attract customers. Mention was
frequently made about hacking or poor internet connection. Ecommerce does not bring face to face
contact between SA and its customers so the website would need to be more attractive and
informative than the many competitors also offering safaris. Only a few candidates went on to offer
a meaningful judgement as to whether or not the opportunities outweighed the threats. SA is only a
small, relatively new business so the threat of competition in ecommerce would be very hard to
overcome without a comprehensive website gaining many hits on search engines to give SA the
best chance of increased sales and profit.
Question 2
(a) Knowledge of why quality is important to a business was generally strong. Many candidates
identified brand image, customer loyalty and not having to replace faulty products as important
factors. There were no application marks in this question, so it was possible to earn maximum
marks by making four clear points with additional development or reasoning for each. Some
weaker responses offered repetition of points or focused on the importance to customers rather
than the business and consequently did not earn the highest level of reward.
(b) The majority of candidates showed sound knowledge of sources of business finance. There
appeared to be less confidence in discussing leasing as an option to finance new vehicles
compared to bank loans and retained profit. Stronger candidates explained that leasing allowed
payments to be spread out each month and included vehicle maintenance. However, at the end of
the lease there would not be an asset for SA to sell since they did not have ownership of the
vehicle. This might make it more expensive to replace the vehicles later on. The option of a bank
loan as a source of finance was related to the context by candidates who pointed out that although
interest rates had fallen to 2 per cent, a relatively new business, such as SA, might not be able to
secure a loan of sufficient size at this lower rate of interest. To earn Level 3 credit in the conclusion,
responses needed to make a justified judgement about which option would be the best choice.
Stronger answers avoided repeating points made earlier in the response and related to why one
choice was more suitable and the other two options less suitable for SA.
Question 3
(a) This was a well-answered question. Many candidates were able to outline independent decision
making, keeping all profit or being easy to set up as an advantage of being a sole trader. The
disadvantage of this type of business was identified as having unlimited liability, difficulty in raising
finance or having a very heavy workload. To gain the highest number of marks on this question
additional explanation was required which also referred to the context of Tokumbo’s business.
Some responses discussed two advantages or two disadvantages, but this did not gain access to
maximum marks because the question clearly asks for one advantage and one disadvantage.
(b) Strong numeracy skills were displayed by candidates answering this question. Many candidates
were able to make good use of the data in Appendix 3 to calculate levels of profit and average
costs for each of the three options for expansion. Correct calculations of this nature earned Level 2
credit with additional application marks for referring to the appropriate data in the case study. Such
© 2022
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2022
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
calculations provided evidence to support a justified decision by the candidate. The best answers
earned Level 3 credit by using the calculated data to explain which option would be a better option
for growth and why the other options would not be such a good choice. Weaker responses simply
copied data about forecast number of tourists and total costs which did not earn any credit.
Question 4
(a) This question required candidates to explain the effects of an increase in inflation on Tokumbo’s
business. Strong responses mentioned that SA would experience increased costs of fuel and
accommodation which would force SA to increase prices. The increase in the cost of living, caused
by inflation, might reduce demand for safari tours and lower sales revenue and profit. Good
application explained the likelihood that potential customers would not choose a safari holiday
when rising prices meant they would decide to spend their income on basic wants and needs
instead. Some responses offered brief outcomes of inflation without explaining the sequence of
economic principles and, more importantly, not linking their answer to SA itself.
(b) The topic of training employees was widely known. Most responses discussed the advantages and
disadvantages of on-the-job and off-the-job training. Candidates should be mindful that brief
definitions and mirror image statements do not earn credit when developed explanations of
advantages and disadvantages are required. On-the-job training would be a cheaper method of
training and would be specifically planned for SA’s own safaris. However, it might lead to bad
habits being passed on and if this resulted in a bad reputation amongst customers SA might
experience a fall in sales and profit. Off-the-job training would teach a wider range of skills and may
lead to expert qualifications, but the risk would be that tourist guides might take their expertise to a
rival safari business. Stronger recommendations weighed up the benefits against the drawbacks of
each possible method of training as part of the justification for the decision made. These
recommendations took into account the one that would have the most positive impact on the
reputation of the safari tours whilst not being too costly for a small business, like SA.
© 2022
Grade thresholds – November 2022
The overall thresholds for the different grades were set as follows.
Maximum
Combination of
Option mark after 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Components
weighting
X 160 11, 21 106 93 80 68 56 45 35 25 16
Learn more! For more information please visit www.cambridgeinternational.org/igcse or contact Customer Services
on +44 (0)1223 553554 or email [email protected]
™
Cambridge IGCSE (9-1)
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*2549910429-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
11_0986_21_2022_1.2
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
2
Tokumbo is a sole trader. He started SA 2 years ago in country X. Tokumbo had previously worked for
a company selling holidays. SA organises safari tours which take tourists to view wild animals on a game
reserve. Most of SA’s customers are tourists from other countries. Tokumbo did not have any objectives
when he started SA but knows they are important for his business.
SA uses its own vehicles for the 7 day safari tours and provides accommodation in small local hotels.
Tokumbo employs 4 safari guides, 1 for each of the 4 vehicles. The safari guides drive the tourists
around the game reserve. There is 1 additional employee who helps Tokumbo in the office with
administration. Tokumbo thinks SA needs a website so tourists can book directly with them rather than
booking through holiday companies that charge SA a fee.
Tokumbo is considering the following three options for the future growth of SA safari tours:
• Option 1 - increasing the number of safari guides and vehicles to increase the number of customers
from the existing target market
• Option 2 – targeting young people who want to camp and sleep in a tent on their safari
• Option 3 - targeting high-income tourists who prefer to stay in luxury hotels
Tokumbo plans to provide more training for his employees whichever option he chooses. He wants his
existing employees to have a wider knowledge of the wild animals on the game reserve and to be able
to provide high-quality customer service. Tokumbo has to decide which method of training to use.
Appendix 1
Country X is becoming a popular holiday destination for tourists from other countries.
There is an increased demand from high-income tourists who want to stay in luxury hotels whilst on
safari tours. These tourists are willing to pay high prices. There is also a new trend for younger people
who want cheaper holidays. They prefer to camp and sleep in tents on game reserves rather than stay
in hotels.
Are the many safari businesses in country X ready to target these new markets?
The use of e-commerce to find and book safari tours by tourists from other countries is offering both
opportunities and threats to businesses in country X.
The inflation rate in country X has increased to 4% which may affect some of our local safari businesses.
Appendix 2
To: Tokumbo
From: Accountant
New vehicles will be needed whichever option you choose for the future growth of your business.
I have considered several sources of finance you could use for the new vehicles. Interest rates on bank
loans have fallen to 2% whilst interest rates on savings are 3%. I think you should choose from one of
the following sources:
• Leasing
• Bank loan
• Retained profit
We can meet to discuss these sources if that would help you to decide.
Appendix 3
Forecast number of
16 32 10
tourists per week
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not answering the question asked.
question
K Knowledge Indicates knowledge and understanding of the concepts and issues relating to the question.
EVAL Evaluation Indicates where the answer has demonstrated evaluation (part (e) questions only).
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect figure that results from the mistake is used for
subsequent calculations.
SEEN Noted but no Indicates that content has been recognised but not rewarded.
credit given
1(b) Calculate total variable cost per month. Show your working. 2 Award only 1 mark if $960 000 is written
as part of the answer but is not given as
Correct answer: $960 000 [2] the final answer.
Method e.g. Variable cost per unit times output [1] $ sign not required.
OR
$80 12 000 [1]
1(c) Identify four factors a business should consider when deciding which 4 Only award the first four responses
method of production to use. given.
Award 1 mark for each relevant factor. Award ‘size of business’ [BOD]
1(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to SSG of using quality 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
control. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage/disadvantage to the point being made.
(max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business (max 2). appropriate for this question:
• (Mobile/cell) phones
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • 130 employees
• On-the-job training
Points might include: • $80
• 12 000
Advantage: • $300 000
• Tries / may eliminate errors before customers receive the product [k] • Maturity / extension strategy
improving the reputation [an] of its phones [app] • Batch production
• All workers do not need to be trained for quality control [k] reducing
costs [an] of its 130 employees [app] Other appropriate examples in context
• Production is not slowed [k] can still be credited.
Disadvantage:
• Inspectors / someone needs to be employed to check the product [k]
increasing labour costs [an]
• Faulty products must be scrapped [k] therefore variable cost is higher
[an] than $80 per unit [app]
• Does not identify where / why the fault has occurred [k] so vulnerable to
repeating the errors
• There is less reason for employees to help ensure quality [k] leading to
more faults in products [an]
1(e) Do you think adding new features to a product is the best extension 6 This is a general question so there are
strategy for a manufacturing business to use? Justify your answer. no marks for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Some points could be awarded for
different options or as [k] / [an], but do
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. not award the same point twice.
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether adding new features is For evaluation to be awarded justification
the best extension strategy for a large manufacturer to use. will usually follow on from relevant
analysis of points.
Points might include:
• Product appears more appealing [k] attracting new / more customers or USP [k] attracting customers away from
sales [an] increasing revenue [an] competitors [an]
• High cost of development / market research [k] which the business may
not be able to afford [an]
• Customers may dislike changes [k] reducing sales [an]
• Adds value to product [k] therefore can charge a higher price [an]
Adding new features involves high development costs [k] which the
business may not be able to afford [an]. Finding new markets [k] could
increase sales revenue [an]. There is a risk that customers may not like the
new features [eval] so it’s safer and cheaper to try to find new markets.
[eval]
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
2(b) Identify two limitations of using the number of employees to measure 2 Only award the first two responses given.
the size of a business.
2(c) Outline how having limited liability might benefit DNG’s shareholders. 4 Note 1: Candidates can outline one
benefit in detail or outline two separate
Award up to 2 marks for relevant points (max 2). benefits.
Award up to 2 marks for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). Note 2: Answers must refer to the
owners / shareholders and not the
• Shareholders risk is limited to the amount invested [k] in this electricity business itself.
business [app]
• Protects personal assets [k] in case the business decision to contribute To use words from the stem as
to sustainable development does not work [app] application, the reference must be
• Encourages (potential/existing) shareholders to invest [k] appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
The following words are likely to be
Shareholders risk is limited (to the amount invested) [k] in the electricity appropriate for this question:
company [app] protecting their personal assets [k] in case the decision to • Electricity
stop using coal does not work [app] • (Stop using) coal
• 16 million (customers)
• 6500 (employees)
• Pressure groups
• Opportunity cost
2(d) Explain two ways a pressure group might influence DNG’s decisions. 6 Note: Can award responses which refer
to strikes as TU may use to influence pay
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2). or working conditions.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business (max 2). To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Points might include:
• Create (negative) publicity / publish information / write to newspaper [k] The following words are likely to be
about the impact of using coal [app] damaging its reputation [an] appropriate for this question:
• Organise customer boycotts [k] of its 16 million customers [app] leading • Electricity
to fewer sales / less revenue [an] • Coal
• Demonstrations / protests [k] about electricity production [app] which • 16 million (customers)
could reduce investment in the business [an] • 6500 (employees)
• Petition / send letters to government [k] against this limited company • Opportunity cost
[app] • Limited company / shareholders
• Lobbying [k]
• Take legal action [k] Other appropriate examples in context
can still be credited.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
2(e) Explain two methods of internal communication a large business could 6 This is a general question so there are
use to share important information with its employees. Justify which no marks for application.
method should be used.
Some points could be awarded for
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. different options, but do not award the
same point twice.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
For evaluation to be awarded justification
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to which of the two methods will usually follow on from relevant
discussed is the best method of communication for a large business to use analysis of points.
to convey important information to its employees.
Note: Do not award types of
Points might include: communication such as written, verbal,
• Meeting / briefing / video conference [k] workers receive the message at electronic.
the same time [an] but workers will not be working so output may fall
[an]
• Email [k] message can be sent to multiple people at the same time [an]
but people may not be able to access the internet [an]
• Phones [k] allows for immediate feedback [an]
• Text / SMS [k] contains only very limited information [an]
• Posters / noticeboards [k]
• Announcements [k]
• Internal newspapers [k]
• Social media such as Whatsapp [k]
• Letter [k]
3(a) Define ‘non-current assets’. 2 Do not award Assets owned for one year
as this is TV.
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition.
Do not award examples.
Resources owned by a business which will be used for a period longer than
one year [2]
OR
Items owned by a business for more than one year [2]
3(b) State two elements of the marketing mix. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
3(c) Outline two ways CPK might be affected by an increase in taxation. 4 Note: To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for each relevant way. appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business.
The following words are likely to be
Points might include: appropriate for this question:
• Less profit [k] to help improve the sports clubs [app] • Sports club or examples such as
• Decreased demand [k] at the 5 locations [app] activities / gym / yoga class
• May have to increase prices [k] affecting its marketing mix [app] • 5 (locations)
• Can increase expenses / cost of buying materials [k] • 60 (employees)
• Marketing mix
Other appropriate responses should also be credited. • 10% / 12%
3(d) Explain one possible effect on CPK of the change in each of the 6 Award decrease/fallen as [k] OR [app]
following ratios as shown in Table 3.1: but not both.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant effect (max 2). Do not award reasons for change as
knowledge or analysis as this does not
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference made to this business (max 2). answer the question.
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2) Note: To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Points might include: appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Current ratio:
Decreased / fallen / worsened / deteriorated [k] or [app] The following words are likely to be
appropriate for all responses on this
Analysis could be awarded for: question:
• May need to reduce creditors / trade payables [k] to avoid cashflow • 2% / 12% or 10%
problems [an] in the sports clubs [app] • 0.3 / 1.6 / 1.3
• May need to improve cash by selling more products or sell unwanted • Sports club or examples such as
non-current assets gym / yoga class
• May have problems paying its short-term liabilities / less liquidity / less • 5 (clubs)
cash available
• May make it harder to obtain finance Other appropriate examples in context
• Suppliers may be less willing to provide goods (on credit) can still be credited.
Profit margin:
Decreased / fallen / worsened / deteriorated [k] or [app]
3(e) Do you think job enrichment is a better way for a business to motivate 6
its employees than profit sharing? Justify your answer.
Profit sharing:
• Money is a major motivator for many employees [k]
• Can help build team spirit / sense of belonging / common goal [k]
• Not everyone is motivated by money [k]
• If business makes low/ no profit, then there is little/ nothing to share [k]
which could decrease motivation [an]
Job enrichment can help the business make the most use of employee’s
skills [k] increasing productivity [an]. A business making no profit, has
nothing to share [k] which could decrease rather than increase motivation
[an]. I think job enrichment is better as making the job more interesting is
more likely to motivate employees every day. [eval]. Profit-sharing is at the
end of the year, and therefore is likely to have less impact on daily effort.
[eval]
4(b) Identify two ways of segmenting a market. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
4(c) Outline two reasons why having enough working capital might be 4 Note: To use words from the stem as
important for Beena’s business. application, the reference must be
appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
Award 1 mark for each relevant reason. to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business. The following words are likely to be
appropriate for this question:
Points might include: • Hairdressing or related words such
• To pay for (day-to-day) expenses / short-term debts [k] of her as haircut or shampoo
hairdressing business [app] • Start-up / new business
• Evidence to support loan applications [k] if she decides to take the • Recession
franchise [app] • Franchise
• Use in an emergency / pay for unexpected expenses [k] in case she • $800
needs more than $800 [app] • Market research
• To ensure the business has a good credit reputation [k] especially as • (Market) segment
her business is a start-up [app]
• Ensures the business can take advantage of discount on bulk Other appropriate examples in context
purchases [k] can still be credited.
4(d) Explain two possible advantages to Beena of buying a franchise. 6 Note: To use words from the stem as
application, the reference must be
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant advantage (max 2). appropriate (i.e. make sense) in relation
to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2).
The following words are likely to be
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). appropriate for this question:
• Hairdressing or related words such
Points might include: as haircut or shampoo
• Established brand / well-known brand [k] therefore no need to spend on • Start-up / new business
advertising [an] • Recession
• Reduces risk of failure [k] especially after a recession [app] • $800
• Training / advice offered by franchisor [k] which saves costs [an] which • Market research
is important for a start-up business [app] • (Market) segment
• Attracts customers [k] helping to ensure / increase revenue [an] for her • Working capital
hairdressing business [app]
• Easier to obtain finance / bank more willing to lend [k] which may be Other appropriate examples in context
necessary with savings of $800 [app] can still be credited.
• Franchisor pays for advertising [k]
• Stock control and accounting systems often provided by franchisor [k] Note: [k] Points may sometimes be
which can help make business more efficient [an] and improve her awarded [an]
working capital [app]
• All supplies are obtained from a central source / the franchisor [k] which
can help ensure quality [an]
• Fewer decisions to be made (than an independent business) [k]
4(e) Do you think it is always better for a start-up business to use primary 6 This is a general question so there are
market research, rather than secondary market research, when making no marks for application.
decisions? Justify your answer.
Some points could be awarded for
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. different options, but do not award the
same point twice.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
For evaluation to be awarded justification
Award 2 marks for justified decision as to whether it is always better for a will usually follow on from relevant
start-up business to use primary market research rather than secondary analysis of points.
market research when making decisions.
Note: Do not accept mirror arguments
Points might include: such as primary research is up to date
and secondary research maybe
Primary market research:
outdated.
• Relevant / up to date data gathered [k] so should help you find out what
you want to know [an]
• High cost / time to collect information [k] which a new business might
not be able to afford [an]
• Only available to own business [k]
• May find it difficult to find people that represent target market /
population [k]
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
• The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
• If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
• Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
• Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to
reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too
vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not
question answering the question asked.
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect figure
that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
calculations.
SEEN Noted but no credit Indicates that content has been recognised but not rewarded.
given
1(a) Explain four business objectives Tokumbo could set for SA. 8
For example: Tokumbo will want to make a profit (1) as he has invested his
own money into the sole trader business (app).
1(b) Consider the opportunities and threats of e-commerce for SA. Which is 12
likely to have the greatest effect on SA? Justify your answer.
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No Creditable Response 0
1(b)
Conclusion Justification might include:
For example: To maintain a good reputation (1) because if quality is not good
then friends and family will tell others about the product which may lead to a
bad reputation and sales will be lower (1).
2(b) Consider the following three sources of finance Tokumbo could use for 12
the new vehicles. Which source should he choose? Justify your answer.
• Leasing
• Bank loan
• Retained profit
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
2(b)
Advantages Disadvantages
For example: A disadvantage is that Tokumbo has unlimited liability (1) and he
put his own money into the business to start it 2 years ago (app). If SA fails,
he could lose all his personal possessions (1) and not just the capital he
invested in SA as would happen if it was a limited company (1).
3(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider the three options for 12
the future growth of SA. Which option should Tokumbo choose? Justify
your answer using appropriate calculations.
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
3(b)
Option 3 • New target market and tourists are willing to
pay a high price for a luxury safari holiday
• Highest revenue of the 3 options at $24 000
per week
• Highest price of $2400 per tourist can be
charged – leads to higher profit per tourist per
week
• Average cost per tourist is the highest of the 3
Options at $2000 per week
• Profit per tourist is $400
• Total profit per week is $4000
• However, costs are a lot higher than the other
two options – $20 000 per week, $8000 more
than Option 1 and $12 000 more than Option 2
• This is a new market for SA, and it may be
difficult to find suitable luxury hotels to meet
the needs of these consumers – need to
establish relationship with new hotels
• May need to buy more expensive vehicles
which will further increase costs to serve the
needs of these high-income consumers
3(b)
Recommendation Justification might include:
4(a) Explain two possible effects on SA of the increase in the rate of inflation 8
in country X.
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
Advantages Disadvantages
4(b)
Recommendation Justification might include:
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
11_0986_11_2022_1.3
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
2
1 SSG manufactures mobile (cell) phones using batch production. Quality control is important. SSG
has 130 employees who all receive on-the-job training. The Marketing Manager is analysing cost
and output data for product X. An extract is shown in Table 1.1. As product X is in the maturity
stage of the product life cycle SSG is considering possible extension strategies.
Table 1.1
Extract from SSG’s cost and output data for product X
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Calculate total variable cost per month. Show your working.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Identify four factors a business should consider when deciding which method of production
to use.
Factor 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 2: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 3: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 4: ...........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to SSG of using quality control.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think adding new features to a product is the best extension strategy for a manufacturing
business to use? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
2 DNG provides electricity to 16 million customers. It is a limited company which means DNG’s
shareholders benefit from limited liability. DNG is planning to stop using coal to produce its electricity.
Pressure groups had an influence on this decision. The Managing Director knows there will be an
opportunity cost to making this change. She is considering the best way to communicate this
important information to DNG’s 6500 employees.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Identify two limitations of using the number of employees to measure the size of a business.
Limitation 1: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Limitation 2: ......................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline how having limited liability might benefit DNG’s shareholders.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two ways a pressure group might influence DNG’s decisions.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Explain two methods of internal communication a large business could use to share important
information with its employees. Justify which method should be used.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
3 CPK operates 5 sports clubs. Each club offers a range of activities including gym and yoga classes.
CPK uses job enrichment to keep its 60 employees well-motivated. Having the right marketing mix
is important to CPK’s success. The Finance Director is analysing CPK’s financial statements. An
extract is shown in Table 3.1. He wants to know how an increase in taxation might affect CPK’s
business.
Table 3.1
Extract from CPK’s financial statements
2020 2021
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Element 1: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Element 2: ........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one possible effect on CPK of the change in each of the following ratios as shown in
Table 3.1:
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think job enrichment is a better way for a business to motivate its employees than profit
sharing? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
4 Following the end of a recession in country X, Beena wants to start up a hairdressing business.
One option is to purchase a franchise from an established hairdressing business. Beena has $800
in savings and knows having enough working capital will be important for her business. She plans
to use market research to help her decision-making. Beena knows there are many ways to segment
a market.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two reasons why having enough working capital might be important for Beena’s
business.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think it is always better for a start-up business to use primary market research, rather
than secondary market research, when making decisions? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
11_0986_21_2022_1.2
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
2
1 (a) Explain four business objectives Tokumbo could set for SA.
Objective 1: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Objective 2: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Objective 3: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Objective 4: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the opportunities and threats of e-commerce for SA. Which is likely to have the
greatest effect on SA? Justify your answer.
Opportunities: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Threats: ............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 3: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 4: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following three sources of finance Tokumbo could use for the new vehicles.
Which source should he choose? Justify your answer.
• Leasing
• Bank loan
• Retained profit
Leasing: ............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
3 (a) Explain one advantage and one disadvantage to Tokumbo of being a sole trader.
Advantage: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage: ...................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Using Appendix 3 and other information, consider the three options for the future growth of
SA. Which option should Tokumbo choose? Justify your answer using appropriate calculations.
Option 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Option 2: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
Option 3: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
4 (a) Explain two possible effects on SA of the increase in the rate of inflation in country X.
Effect 1: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Effect 2: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages of two methods of training Tokumbo could use
for his existing employees. Which method should he use? Justify your answer.
Method 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Method 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/11
Short Answer/Data Response 11
Key messages
• Questions which require application, such as parts (c) and (d) of each question, refer to the
business in the scenario by name. Candidates should be reminded to use information from the stem
to help answer such questions as this provides the basis for application.
• Analysis and effective evaluation are areas which require further development. Candidates should
be reminded that analysis should show the effect of the knowledge. Evaluation must include a
justified decision that follows on from the points raised in the answer. A repetition of points already
explained in the answer will not gain analysis or evaluation marks. The mark scheme for each part
(e) question includes one example of how evaluation may be demonstrated in the answer.
General comments
Candidates found this paper to be accessible and most were able to achieve marks on the majority of
questions. However, Questions 2(a), 3(e) and 4(c) did cause candidates some issues. A noticeable number
of candidates did not attempt Questions 2(a), 2(d) and 3(b).
Some candidates needed to be more precise when defining the requested terms. This was a particular issue
in Question 1(a). Weak understanding of business terminology was also a factor in the low marks awarded
for Questions 2(a), and 3(e).
There was some evidence this session that more candidates were reading the questions thoroughly before
starting to write. Although, within Question 1(d) and 2(b) some candidates did not carefully read the
instructions given.
Application continues to be an issue for a number of candidates. Many repeated the same point of
application in each section of an answer. Others simply stated ‘product’ rather than naming the product or
service that the business offered.
Evaluation continues to be a weak area for many candidates. A common error being to restate the points of
knowledge as a conclusion. Candidates should be reminded that points can only be credited once within an
answer, there is no benefit to be gained by repetition.
Question 1
(a) This term was not well understood by the majority of candidates. A mark of one was common as
many responses offered a feature of unincorporated businesses such as unlimited liability. Weaker
responses confused this with a sole trader enterprise and gained zero marks.
(b) This question was well answered by many candidates with a range of suitable objectives being
suggested. A small number of candidates confused objectives with barriers. Such candidates
thought that objectives prohibited success.
(c) This part (c) question required no application to the business stated in the stem. A wide variety of
different characteristics were correctly stated. Many responses achieved full marks. Responses
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
which did not gain full marks often stated that entrepreneurs must be charismatic or skilled. Such
answers were too vague to be credited.
(d) The potential reasons for failure were not well understood by the majority of candidates. Strong
responses often provided only one suitable reason. The most common correct answers being lack
of experience or failure to attract customers. Many candidates did not carefully read the instruction
within the question and discussed a lack of finance. Candidates struggled to provide two different
points of application for this question, often repeating gardening or related words.
(e) The strongest answers for this question recognised that owner`s savings may not be sufficient for a
successful start-up but has the advantage of no interest being paid. A mistake made by many
candidates was to state it saves time with no elaboration. Such answers were too vague to be
credited. Very few candidates attempted an effective evaluation for this question.
Question 2
(a) This concept was not well understood by many candidates. Better responses identified the points
listed in the mark scheme. Weaker responses described the information presented in the chart and
did not answer the question set.
(b) The strongest candidates illustrated how they had achieved their correct answer by providing their
workings. Some candidates did not carefully read the information in the question and calculated
profit at a different level of output. Such responses were able to gain one mark if a method of
calculation was outlined. A significant number of candidates were unclear on this calculation.
(c) For this question, better responses recognised the benefit of gaining new customers and retaining
loyalty for this cooking pot manufacturer. As with other questions, candidates often repeated the
same point of application in each benefit. The weakest responses stated that having a good brand
image means having a good reputation and gained zero marks.
(d) A noticeable number of candidates did not attempt this question The weakest candidates were
confused by this topic. Often these answers discussed lowering price, which would increase the
output required to achieve break even. As with part(c) even better responses were unable to
provide two separate points of application in this part of the question.
(e) Many candidates had a good general understanding of social media. Stronger responses explained
the benefits of reaching a large group of people and compared this to an alternative method of
advertising. Weaker responses gained two marks by stating points with no development. Very few
candidates attempted evaluative comments, those that did often simply repeated the points of
knowledge.
Question 3
(a) This topic was generally well understood with many candidates gaining both marks. An error made
by some candidates was to identify internal users such as managers or workers.
(b) A significant number of candidates did not attempt this part of the question. Some candidates
incorrectly stated liquidity ratios rather than the profitability ones required.
(c) Correct answers produced for this question focused on the potential for lower prices and higher
quality for this computer manufacturer. The same point of application, computers, was often
repeated in each reason. Weaker responses thought that the business was selling rather than
buying raw materials abroad.
(d) Many candidates understood the benefits of being ethical in attracting customers to the business.
Such answers often gained the knowledge and application marks available. Limitations were less
well understood. Very few candidates were able to develop their answers fully to show analysis.
The mark scheme provides examples of the most appropriate impacts that were credited. A
significant number of candidates confused being ethical with following laws.
(e) Candidates found this to be the most challenging question on the examination paper. Although
many had a general understanding of the terms, responses were unable to explain why these are
important in a business. The strongest answers explained that profit could potentially be reinvested
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
to increase growth while cash is vital for paying day to day costs. A mistake made by the weakest
answers was to state that profit was used to pay wages and raw materials.
Question 4
(a) Very few candidates provided clear and precise definitions of this term. A mark of one was
common as responses identified that this involved some sharing of tasks or authority. The weakest
responses stated that this meant delegating tasks which was considered too vague for credit.
(b) Many candidates provided two correct answers, most frequently such candidates identified controls
over dismissal and discrimination. Weaker responses lost marks by providing unclear general
answers related to paying wages rather than minimum wages.
(c) This part (c) question was one of the most challenging for candidates. The strongest responses
identified two of the four key functions of management which were then clearly applied to the
context. Many candidates provided descriptive answers which failed to clearly name these
functions. Such answers could not be credited.
(d) Strong answers to this question focused on profitability, sales, or costs. Such answers frequently
did not make effective use of the information provided in the question stem, gaining only one of the
application marks available. A mark of three was common as the answers were not fully developed
to show analysis.
(e) For this question candidates demonstrated appropriate knowledge but were unable to fully develop
this to show analysis and evaluation. Most commonly the knowledge shown was that the business
could reduce prices or improve the quality of the products. Weaker responses discussed the
production rather than selling of new items, for this retail business. Candidates struggled to provide
effective evaluation in this question.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 0986/21
Case Study 21
Key messages
Candidates should be reminded that throughout this paper they are expected to apply their business
knowledge and understanding to an unseen case study or business scenario. This is apart from one (a)
question that will usually be generic. Applying answers to the case will ensure responses are appropriate for
each given situation.
• To do well in this paper, candidates must make clear reference, or application, to the accompanying
case study. Specific marks are allocated throughout the mark scheme in both parts (a) and (b) for
application. In this particular case study candidates were expected to refer to a large, public limited
company that produces a range of protective hats for construction and mining workers. It is advisable
for candidates to ask themselves about the size of the business, is it a service or manufacturer and
what is the type of business organisation? This may add to the quality of their answers.
• Candidates should try to give a full explanation of positive and negative consequences of a business
decision when this is asked for. Responses require developed reasoning rather than simple description;
listed points generally only gain Level 1 whereas an explanation of a point could move the answer to
Level 2. Few well developed points will score higher marks than a long list of simple statements.
• Several questions on this paper ask candidates to make a justified recommendation or conclusion.
Candidates should be reminded that it is important to offer a decision based on balanced argument
earlier in the answer. A recommendation or conclusion should justify the option chosen, without full
repetition of the previous analysis, be applied to the case and make reference to why the alternative
option(s) was rejected.
General comments
Candidates had generally been well prepared for this examination and understood what was expected of
them. The context of PH, a large business manufacturing high-quality protective hats, provided an accessible
scenario for candidates. Those who applied their answers to the context of PH boosted their marks much
further. Most of the candidates seemed to have time to complete the paper and attempted all questions.
Candidates must be reminded to take careful note of how many marks are awarded for each question, so
they are clear about the extent of developed explanation that is required for each answer. Also, the question
should be read carefully to ensure answers are appropriate and clearly address the question asked, such as
answering from the point of view of a business rather than its employees. Many candidates showed good
knowledge and understanding of the full range of the syllabus that was assessed, but it was clear that certain
topics were not as well understood. The weakest understanding was of the analysis of company accounts
and the concepts of quality control and quality assurance.
Overall, the standard was good with very few weaker scripts. Candidates often provided answers in context
which enabled access to application marks. However, candidates should make sure that different examples
of application are included in each section of (a) questions (not 2(a) on this paper) and the
conclusion/recommendation should also be applied to the case in (b) questions. A lack of analysis and
evaluation resulted in answers remaining in the lower level mark band. Candidates should aim to consider
the consequences/implications/long term/short term/balance issues of the decisions to secure Level 2 or
Level 3 marks in the conclusion/recommendation.
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) Most candidates could identify two advantages and two disadvantages of PH being a public limited
company. Many responses mentioned the advantages of raising a large amount of capital by
selling shares to the public and providing continuity of the business as shareholders die and pass
on their shares to others. However, there was a tendency to overlook the need to apply these
points to the context of PH. For example, raising large amounts of capital would specifically help
PH with their plan to expand and open factories in other countries. Similarly, the disadvantages of
PH having to publish their accounts and being at risk of a takeover should have been explained in
the context of PH being a manufacturer of protective hats and currently being the market leader.
Some responses demonstrated good knowledge but scored only half of the available marks without
relevant application.
(b) This question required candidates to consider quality control and quality assurance as ways to
ensure quality production at PH. Some candidates seemed confused about the difference in these
approaches and mixed up the explanations. In the discussion about quality control, strong
responses outlined the benefit of checking the protective hats at the end of the production line so
that any faults could be eliminated, and customer satisfaction would be achieved. This would
maintain the reputation that PH has for producing high-quality hats. However, it would mean
recruiting quality control inspectors which would raise costs of training and wages for PH. This kind
of developed explanation earned Level 2 reward. Simple statements which mentioned that the hats
would be checked carefully at the last stage of production to ensure there were no errors earned
only Level 1 reward. Consideration of the quality assurance option focused on the benefit of
reducing waste because checking at each stage of production would mean that errors could be
sorted out quickly and productivity would be high. In the recommendation at the end of the
response candidates need to balance the two options and justify which would be the most
appropriate way to ensure the highest quality of production to earn level 3 reward. Candidates may
have reasoned that quality assurance would be preferable because the 100 production workers
would feel more trusted and motivated by having responsibility for the highest quality standard in
their own particular work. Quality control would take that responsibility away from the production
workers and would only emphasise the low level of job satisfaction that has been identified at PH
recently.
Question 2
(a) This question required candidates to consider the limitations and benefits of a business developing
new products. It was a generic question and the available marks were rewarded for making a
relevant point with additional explanation. This was the only response which did not need to
reference PH. Some good answers pointed out the limitation of undertaking extensive market
research which would be time consuming and expensive. Others identified the risk that a business
may damage its reputation if a new product is not properly tested and trialled before it is put into
production. The benefit of developing a product which would attract a different market segment and
boost sales to new customers was explained by many candidates. Some responses did not focus
on product development and consequently did not earn credit. Production and sales take place
after the product has been developed not during the process.
(b) Many candidates demonstrated sound subject knowledge in their response to this question. Three
methods of market research were discussed, and a recommendation made about which method
would ensure accurate data would be collected. The option of using a focus group of existing
customers would allow in-depth questioning of customers who already had first-hand experience of
using the protective hats. Useful and specific feedback could be recorded in a discussion group
that would encourage interaction and honest opinions. However, this would not be a way of
gathering information about competitors and may not result in many new ideas. The online survey
would be a quicker and cheaper way of gathering data which could be collated and analysed
effectively. However, response levels from this type of research are quite poor and no extra
explanation of the questions would be possible without an interviewer present. Merely asking five
questions would produce too small a range of data. Most responses mentioned that secondary
research would be out of date and more general, thus having limited use and accuracy. To earn
Level 3 credit in the conclusion, responses needed to make a justified judgement about which
option would be the ideal choice. The best answers avoided repeating points made earlier in the
© 2023
Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education (9–1)
0986 Business Studies November 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
response and related to why one method of research would result in more accurate data and the
other two less accurate data for PH.
Question 3
(a) This was a well-answered question. Many candidates were able to outline two reasons why training
is important to PH. The benefit of employees learning new skills to improve their efficiency was
often discussed by candidates. This would lead to more protective hats being made than before.
Other strong responses explained that understanding how to correctly use the machinery was an
important point of safety which would also reduce accidents on the flow production line. To gain the
highest number of marks on this question it was necessary to make a clear point, offer additional
explanation and reasoning, and ensuring that this was in the context of factory production at PH.
Some responses briefly mentioned several reasons for training instead of developing the
explanation of just two points, whilst others repeated themselves.
(b) Some candidates found this question quite challenging. Not all responses showed good knowledge
of how different stakeholder groups might use financial information. The wording of the question
directed candidates to use the data in Appendix 3 to support their answer. Comparison of data from
2021 and 2022 allowed a judgement to be made of how it might impact on PH employees,
shareholders and competitors. The possibility of employees seeking a wage rise, as a result of OH
maintaining a healthy level of $20 m profit, could have been discussed. Employees might feel
empowered to argue for a rate of pay above their current minimum wage with strong financial data
to support them. Shareholders may note that a fall of 4 per cent in PH’s profit margin is an
indication of poor financial management and may question this at the next AGM. The competitors
of PH will be able to use the financial data to compare their own performance in the protective hat
market and may see that the 25 per cent increase in revenue indicates the strengthening position
of PH as market leader is too significant for them to consider a takeover. Responses that made
clear points and developed reasoning, making relevant use of the data, were likely to access Level
2 reward. A supported justification of which stakeholder group would find the data most useful
would have possibly earned Level 3 credit.
Question 4
(a) This question required candidates to explain two benefits of becoming members of a trade union.
Strong responses made clear points, developed the explanation and made good use of the context.
PH are paying their employees just the minimum wage and there have been complaints about
working conditions. If employees join a trade union, they could speak with one voice and negotiate
a pay rise with PH management. There is more likelihood they will be listened to, since there are
100 workers, and more chance they will get higher wages. Some responses quite rightly mentioned
the benefit of trade unions offering advice and support if members feel they have been unfairly
treated by PH. For example, if they had an accident on the production line the union could help the
member get proper medical attention and compensation. Some responses demonstrated
knowledge and understanding of trade unions but did not always focus on the benefits in the
context of PH.
(b) The discussion about three possible benefits for PH of becoming a multinational company resulted
in some varied responses. It was often mentioned that expanding into new markets would allow PH
to substantially increase sales revenue and profit, especially where mining and construction
industries were strong. Currently PH sell their hats around the world but production in other
countries might bring a benefit of reduced transport costs, increasing profit margins and boosting
profit overall. Many candidates pointed out the benefit of choosing a location where labour costs
would be lower, also increasing profit margins. In the last year, the data shows that the profit
margin at PH has fallen by 4 per cent so a decision to produce more cheaply in another country
would be a wise decision. Some governments in other countries might offer grants to PH if they set
up in an area of high unemployment. A grant might lower start-up costs for the new factories and
reduce the amount that PH would need to borrow. Lower interest payments on smaller loans would
reduce expenses. The responses that offered good recommendations did more than offer repeated
earlier points – they weighed up the benefits, large or small, which might result from PH becoming
a multinational company. The best answers justified their decision with reasoned argument about
which would benefit VP the most.
© 2023
Grade thresholds – November 2023
The overall thresholds for the different grades were set as follows.
Maximum
Combination of
Option mark after 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
components
weighting
X 160 11, 21 112 99 86 73 60 47 36 26 16
Learn more! For more information please visit www.cambridgeinternational.org/igcse or contact Customer Services
on +44 (0)1223 553554 or email [email protected]
INFORMATION
• This insert contains the case study.
*5112696359-I*
• You may annotate this insert and use the blank spaces for planning. Do not write your answers on the
insert.
11_0986_21_2023_1.2
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2
PH is a large public limited company based in country Z. It has been operating successfully for 50 years.
PH produces a range of protective hats for employees working on construction sites, in factories or
mines. It has a reputation for producing high-quality products and sells its hats around the world.
PH is currently the market leader in country Z. To remain competitive PH regularly carries out market
research to find out if new products are needed. PH needs to ensure its market research data is accurate,
so that it can develop the best new protective hats.
PH’s only factory is in country Z. It has 100 production employees. They work on a flow production line
and carry out the same tasks every day. PH pays these employees the minimum wage and there have
been complaints about working conditions. Some of the employees are considering becoming members
of a trade union.
PH’s directors plan to expand the company by opening factories in other countries to produce protective
hats. They think there are many benefits for PH of becoming a multinational company. They are aware
that there is growing demand for protective hats in many developing countries where construction and
manufacturing industries are expected to continue to have strong growth in the next 10 years.
Appendix 1
We supply many of the leading construction, manufacturing and mining companies across the world.
Appendix 2
Re: Training
After reviewing our current training, I think we need to increase the training we provide to new employees.
Existing employees would also benefit from additional training as there have been issues with motivation.
I know there are plans to introduce new equipment into the flow production line. When is this likely to
happen?
Appendix 3
2021 2022
BLANK PAGE
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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not answering the question asked.
question
K Knowledge Indicates knowledge and understanding of the concepts and issues relating to the question.
EVAL Evaluation Indicates where the answer has demonstrated evaluation (part (e) questions only).
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect figure that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
calculations.
SEEN Noted but no Indicates that content has been recognised but not rewarded.
credit given
1(b) Identify two objectives a new business might have. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
1(c) Identify four characteristics of a successful entrepreneur. 4 Only award the first four responses given.
1(d) Explain two reasons (other than lack of finance) why Desmond’s 6 To use words from the stem as application, the
new business might be at greater risk of failure than an established reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense)
business. in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant reason (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). • Gardening or examples such as cutting
grass/planting flowers
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • Service
• Entrepreneur
Points might include: • $750
• Inadequate/no market research [k] about gardening [app] so may not • Office job
offer what customers want [an] • Unincorporated business
• Providing wrong/poor quality [k] service [app] • Business objectives
• Lack of experience/poor decision-making/skills [k] as only worked in
an office [app] so more likely to make mistakes [an] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
• Difficult to compete with competitors/lack of customers/insufficient
sales [k] for this unincorporated business [app] leading to less revenue Some answers could be awarded as either [k] or
[an] [an] but do not award the same point twice.
• Poor planning/no business plan [k] despite setting objectives [app]
so does not have time/opportunity to resolve problems [an]
• No reputation/brand image/poor marketing [k] therefore potential
customers do not trust him [an].
1(e) Do you think owner’s savings are the most suitable source of 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
finance for a start-up business? Justify your answer. for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. For evaluation to be awarded justification will
usually follow on from relevant analysis of
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. points.
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether owner's Advantages of one source can be presented as
savings are the most suitable source of finance for a start-up business to disadvantages of another but do not award the
use. same point twice as mirror answers are not
accepted.
Points might include:
Do not award 'issue shares' or 'profit' as these are
Owner's savings: not appropriate for a start-up business.
• No need to repay/no debt [k] helping to reduce/keep cash outflows
low/less risk [an]
• No interest payable [k] therefore not increasing cost [an]
• May not have enough/any savings [k] delaying/stop their plans [an]
• Immediately available [k]
Crowdfunding [k]
• No initial fees payable (to the crowdfunding platform) [an]
• Allows public‘s reaction to the new business venture to be tested [an]
• Crowdfunding platform might reject the entrepreneur’s proposal [an]
• Publicising could allow competitors to copy the idea [an] leading to
fewer sales [an]
Microfinance [k]
Overdraft [k]
2(a) Identify two limitations of break-even analysis. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
2(b) Calculate LCT’s profit if it sells 800 units. Show your working. 2 $ sign is not required.
Correct method but incorrect answer e.g. Profit = total revenue – total cost
[1]
OR
8000 – 6000 [1]
Award only 1 mark if 2000 is written as part of the answer but is not given
as the final answer.
2(c) Outline two possible benefits to LCT of having a good brand image. 4 To use words from the stem as application, the
reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense)
Award 1 mark for each relevant benefit (max 2). in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Points might include: • (Cooking) pots
• Encourage/maintain (customer) loyalty [k] for this small business • Manufactures/production
[app] • 16 (employees)
• Can help increase sales/customers/market share [k] of cooking pots • Small business
[app] • Social media (for advertising)
• Aids recognition/awareness/advertising [k] on social media [app] • (Lower) break-even output
• May be able to charge high price (than for unbranded products) [k] • 400 units (break-even output)
which can help lower its break-even output [app] • $10 (price per unit)
• Helps differentiate product from competitors [k] so may be able to sell • 800 units
more than 800 units [app] • Total revenue $10 000
• Helps launch new products in the market (as customers already know • Total costs $7000
and trust the brand) [k]
• May attract investors [k] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
• Helps with employee recruitment [k]
2(d) Explain two ways LCT might lower its break-even level of output. 6 To use words from the stem as application, the
reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense)
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant way (max 2). in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • (Cooking) pots
• Manufactures/production
Points might include: • 16 (employees)
• Increase price [k] higher than $10 [app] which would increase • Small business
revenue [an] • Good brand image
• Lower rent or other example [k] below $2000 [app] so lowering fixed • $2000 (fixed costs)
costs/expenses [an] OR lower fixed costs [k] lead to lower total costs • $10 (price)
(TC) [an] • $5 (variable costs per pot)
• Buy cheaper raw materials or other example [k] for its cooking pots • 400 (break-even output)
[app] reducing variable cost [an] OR lower variable costs [k] lead to • Social media
lower total costs (TC) [an] • $10 000
• $7000
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
Other appropriate examples can be credited.
2(e) Do you think social media is the best method of advertising for a 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
small business to use? Justify your answer. for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. For evaluation to be awarded justification will
usually follow on from relevant analysis of points.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Candidates do not need to discuss other methods
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether social media is to gain full marks.
the best method of advertising for a small business to use.
Do not award examples of sales promotion as
Points might include: these are excluded by the question.
2(e) • Posters/billboards [k] can be seen by anyone when passing [an] but
cannot include detailed information [an]
• Website [k] more information can be added [an]
• Pop-up adverts [k] can be expensive [an]
• Television [k] can be high cost [an]
• Radio [k]
3(a) Identify two external users of accounts. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
Award 1 mark per external user of accounts identified (max 2). Do not award examples of internal users of
accounts e.g. employees.
Points might include:
• Banks/lenders Do not award 'stakeholder' as this does not
• Suppliers answer the question.
• Government
• Competitors Accept creditors alone as an alternative to
• Other businesses e.g. insurance companies lenders/bank/suppliers if no specific example is
• Pressure groups given of a creditor.
• Investors/shareholders
• Customers
3(b) Identify two profitability ratios. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
Award 1 mark per profitability ratio (max 2). Allow correct formula e.g. Gross profit:sales
revenue
Two from:
• Gross profit margin/ratio/percentage
• Profit margin/ratio/percentage
• Return on capital employed/ROCE
3(c) Outline two possible reasons why ACP imports its raw materials. 4 To use words from the stem as application, the
reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense)
Award 1 mark for each relevant reason (max 2). in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Points might include: • 65%
• Lower prices/cost of materials [k] which could help the business • Cash flow
manage its cash flow [app] • Production/manufacture
• Access to a wider range of materials [k] to make its computers [app] • (Manufacture) computers
• Limited resources available from own country [k] especially as trying • (Act in an) ethical way
to act in an ethical way [app] • 3000 (workers)
• Better quality (than available in own country) [k] which may be why • Factory
the business already import 65% [app] • Profit is important
• Purchasing from ethical supplier [k][app]
Other appropriate examples can be credited.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
3(d) Explain one benefit and one limitation to ACP of being ethical. 6 To use words from the stem as application, the
reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense)
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant benefit/limitation (max 2). in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • 65%/import
• Cash flow
Points might include: • Raw materials
• Computers
Benefits: • 3000 employees
• Good image/good reputation/customer loyalty [k] so customers more • Factory
willing to pay high prices [an] for its computers [app] • Production/manufacture
• High/higher demand/sales [k] which can help increase revenue [an] • Profit is important/profitability ratios
• Can help recruit/motivate/retain workers [k] reducing recruitment costs
[an] as the business has 3000 employees [app] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
• Better supplier relations (as pay a fair price) [k] which can help ensure
the necessary supply to maintain production [an] Some points can be awarded as [k] or [an] but do
• Investors more likely to invest [k] not award the same point twice.
• Less opposition from pressure groups [k]
Limitations:
• Limited/fewer sources of materials [k] which may lead to less output
[an] as already imports 65% of its raw materials [app]
• May have to pay more to suppliers [k] leading to higher variable
costs/cost of goods sold [an]
• Workers may have to be paid more [k] at the factory [app] increasing
labour costs [an]
• Higher costs [k] could lead to higher prices [an]
3(e) Do you think making a profit is more important for a business than 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
managing its cash flow? Justify your answer. for application.
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. Allow attracts investors/investment as a [k] or
[an] once
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points.
Do not allow ‘important for growth’ without the
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to whether making a profit idea that it is a source of finance/or for
is more important for a business than managing its cash flow. reinvestment.
Profit:
• It is a source of finance [k] may increase opportunity for growth [an]
• Reward for risk-taking/allows dividend for owners [k] without it,
owners will have less incentive to invest [an]
• Reward for enterprise [k]
• Indicator/measure of success [k]
• Important for long-term survival [k]
Cash flow:
• Need cash to pay day-to-day costs/ensures liquidity/help avoid cash
flow problems/pay debt [k] otherwise might have insufficient
funds/working capital to continue production [an]
• Sales may be on credit [k] therefore money received later [an]
• Reduced need for overdraft [k] which would add to interest costs [an]
4(a) Define ‘delegation’. 2 For two marks needs the idea of who is
giving/receiving authority/responsibility and for
Award 2 marks for a full definition. Award 1 mark for a partial definition. what.
Giving a subordinate the authority to perform particular tasks [2] Do not award answers which identify reasons for
OR using delegation e.g. motivates, create time for
When a manager gives authority to another employee to complete a managers to do other jobs [0].
task, although the manager retains the ultimate responsibility for the
completion of the task [2]
OR
Passing responsibility to perform tasks to employees (lower down the
organisation) [2]
4(b) Identify two legal controls over employment. 2 Only award the first two responses given.
4(c) Outline two functions of MRN’s shop managers. 4 To use words from the stem as application, the
reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense)
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant function (max 2). in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). The following words are likely to be appropriate
for this question:
Two from: • Food
• Planning [k] so have the necessary resources for this food retailer • 490/410 shops
[app] • 80
• Organising [k] to ensure everyone is working effectively in each of • 70 000 employees
the 490 stores [app] • (Increased) competition
• Commanding [k] to help guide the 70 000 employees [app] • 20% (management) jobs
• Co-ordinating [k] so better placed to respond to increased competition • Delegation
[app] • Legal controls over employment
• Controlling [k]
Other appropriate examples can be credited.
4(d) Explain two factors MRN should consider when deciding which 6 To use words from the stem as application, the
shops to close. reference must be appropriate (i.e. make sense)
in relation to the point being made.
Award 1 mark for identification of each relevant factor (max 2).
The following words are likely to be appropriate
Award 1 mark for each relevant reference to this business (max 2). for this question:
• Food
Award 1 mark for each relevant explanation (max 2). • 490/410 shops
• 70 000 employees
Points might include: • 80
• Level of demand/where its customers are/number of sales [k] of food • Increased competition
[app] as some might have lower revenue [an] • 20% management jobs
• Level of competition/number/type of shops in area [k] which could • Delegation
reduce sales/demand [an] • Legal controls over employment
• Rent/rates [k] for each of the 80 locations [app] as this could make
some sites too expensive to run [an] Other appropriate examples can be credited.
• Distance from suppliers [k] increased transport costs [an]
• Space [k] as in some locations there may not be (enough) room to Some points can be awarded as [k] or [an] but
display everything [an] do not award the same point twice.
• Shops which are too close together [k]
• Economic state of area/area in decline [k] Award the word costs [k] only once if no specific
• Local wage rates/labour availability [k] leading to higher costs [an] costs identified.
• Number of workers employed [k] to reduce redundancy payments [an]
• Profitability of each shop [k] Increased competition can be [k] or [an] but only
award once.
Other appropriate responses should also be credited.
4(e) Explain two ways a retail business could respond to increased 6 This is a general question so there are no marks
competition. Which would be the best way to use? Justify your for application.
answer.
For evaluation to be awarded justification will
Award up to 2 marks for identification of relevant points. usually follow on from relevant analysis of points.
Award up to 2 marks for relevant development of points. Some points could apply to more than one way
but do not award the same point twice as mirror
Award up to 2 marks for a justified decision as to which is the best way a answers are not accepted.
retail business could respond to increased competition.
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers.
They should be applied alongside the specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors
for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit
is given for valid answers which go beyond the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme,
referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these
features are specifically assessed by the question as indicated by the mark scheme. The
meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed
instructions or in the application of generic level descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question
(however; the use of the full mark range may be limited according to the quality of the candidate
responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should
not be awarded with grade thresholds or grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly
convey the same meaning (unless the mark scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they
are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one
prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended writing is required rather than list-type
answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required.
(Check for evidence it is understood and not used wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all
possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already
credited unless the language itself is being tested. This applies equally to ‘mirror
statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of
syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms
with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
3 Calculation questions:
• The mark scheme will show the steps in the most likely correct method(s), the mark for
each step, the correct answer(s) and the mark for each answer
• If working/explanation is considered essential for full credit, this will be indicated in the
question paper and in the mark scheme. In all other instances, the correct answer to a
calculation should be given full credit, even if no supporting working is shown.
• Where the candidate uses a valid method which is not covered by the mark scheme,
award equivalent marks for reaching equivalent stages.
• Where an answer makes use of a candidate’s own incorrect figure from previous working,
the ‘own figure rule’ applies: full marks will be given if a correct and complete method is
used. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where necessary and any
exceptions to this general principle will be noted.
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used
to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks
have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the
meaning will be understood by all examiners who marked that paper.
BOD Benefit of doubt Used when the benefit of the doubt is given in order to
reward a response.
TV Too vague Used when parts of the answer are considered to be too
vague.
NAQ Not answered Used when the answer or parts of the answer are not
question answering the question asked.
OFR Own figure rule If a mistake is made in a calculation, and the incorrect
figure that results from the mistake is used for subsequent
calculations.
SEEN Noted but no credit Indicates that content has been recognised but not
given rewarded.
Advantages:
• Can sell shares to the public – which may be attractive to prospective
shareholders as this business has a long history of producing high quality
products
• Limited liability – giving protection to the assets of shareholders when the
business is expanding in other countries
• Continuity – if shareholders die their shares will be passed on to others
which has allowed the company to exist for over 50 years
• As it has a higher status it may find it easier to borrow from banks
• Rapid expansion may be possible/can raise large amounts of capital
• Incorporated identity/separate legal identity
Disadvantages:
• Legal formalities – for this business that manufactures protective hats
• Accounts have to be published – which may be viewed by competitors that
want to become the market leader instead of PH
• Divorce between ownership and control/potential conflict between
managers and shareholders
• The company may be at risk of a takeover/no control over who buys shares
• Directors' decision making may be influenced by major investors when
seeking to satisfy their own objectives
For example: A public limited company can sell shares to the public (1), and
this makes it easier to raise capital for investment in new factories to produce
its protective hats (app).
1(b) Consider the following two ways PH could ensure quality production. 12
Which way should PH choose? Justify your answer.
• Quality control
• Quality assurance
Well-justified recommendation.
0 No creditable response. 0
1(b)
Quality Method Advantages Disadvantages
1(b)
Quality Method Advantages Disadvantages
2(a) Explain two limitations and two benefits to a business of developing new 8
products.
Limitations:
• Would need to carry out market research to see if there is a market for the
new product – which is expensive/may not be accurate
• Analysing the results to develop a new product that meets customer
needs takes time – could have been used for alternative tasks
• Trailing new products is expensive – as a free sample of the new product
to try out still costs the business to produce
• Demand may be so low that revenue does not cover costs/may not be a
market for the new product – the new product may have to be withdrawn
• Image of the business could be damaged – if the new product does not
meet customer needs
Benefits:
• It could have a USP – which could make the products more popular with
consumers than those of other businesses/business remains competitive
• It could attract a different market segment/new customers/expand into a
new market – leading to higher sales and revenue
• It could encourage existing customers to buy the new product/return more
often – increasing market share
• It spreads risk/diversifies as the choices for customers may now be wider
– reducing the likelihood of revenue falling if one product does not sell
• Developing new products first before competitors – may be able to charge
a higher price and achieve higher sales/revenue
For example: Trialling new products is expensive (1) as a free sample of the
new product to try out still costs the business to produce (1).
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
2(b)
Market Advantages Disadvantages
research
method
2(b)
Market Advantages Disadvantages
research
method
Award a maximum of 3 additional marks for each explanation of the reason why
training is important to PH – one of which must be applied to this context.
For example: To decrease the chances of faulty products being produced (1)
because PH has a reputation for producing high quality products (app) and PH
does not want to get a bad reputation (1) as sales would decrease (1).
3(b) Consider how the following three groups might use the financial data 12
shown in Appendix 3. Which group will find this data most useful? Justify
your answer.
• PH’s employees
• PH’s shareholders
• Competitor considering taking over PH
Well-justified conclusion.
3(b)
Level Description Marks
0 No creditable response. 0
3(b)
Justification might include:
• PH's employees will find the financial information in
Appendix 3 most useful as it will show if PH can
afford to increase the wages of the 100 production
employees higher than the minimum wage.
Profit has remained at $20m and so PH should be
able to afford higher wages. Without knowledge of the
revenue increasing and profit it would be harder for
employees to argue for an increase in their pay.
Shareholders may find this information less
important as they would want to know the dividends
that were going to be paid out of the profit rather
than just the profit figure. Competitors would also
want to see the share price if they were considering
taking over PH as well as the profit made so this
Conclusion information is less useful to them.
• PH's shareholders would find the financial
information most useful as they want to know if
profit has increased to indicate whether they are
likely to receive a dividend. The profit margin of
16% would indicate that PH is still relatively
successful, and their shares may remain at the
same value.
• PH's competitors would find the financial
information most useful as they want to know if PH is
worth taking over. If the profit margin has fallen to
16%, then there may be room to increase the profit
margin if the business is better managed after a
takeover. This would allow a comparison with their
own profit margin to see if it is higher than theirs and
hence worth taking over.
For example: Provides advice to members (1) if they feel they have been
dismissed unfairly by the business (1) then the 100 employees (app) will know
if they have a case against the business to take action (1).
Well-justified conclusion.
0 No creditable response. 0
4(b)
• Reduces investment required to set up the
factory to produce protective hats – less
borrowing required – lower interest
payments/lower expenses
Receive
• The government may require the business to
government
undertake certain activities such as locating in
grants
an area of high unemployment – may not
always be the best location for the hat factory
as other areas may have more factors to attract
the business - may not lead to lower costs
4(b)
Justification might include:
• Reduced production costs are likely to be the
most important as unit costs can be reduced
which will make the hats cheaper to produce
and can be sold at a lower price. They will be
more competitive, and it will be easier to
increase sales in many countries. It may be that
competitors are also locating in low-cost
countries and so if PH doesn’t do this then it
may not be able to compete. As PH is a
multinational it will produce and sell in many
countries around the world and so locating near
to just one market will not have significant
savings in transport costs. Government grants
are a one-off payment when setting up in a
country and are not likely to have much impact
Conclusion on the business in future years.
• Producing protective hats nearer to the market
is likely to be most important as not only will
transport costs be reduced, helping to increase
profit, but improved knowledge of the market will
help to increase sales and hence revenue will
increase. Increased revenue and lower
transport costs together could lead to a higher
profit.
• Government grants could be substantial which
means a much smaller bank loan is required.
This will lower borrowing costs by reducing
interest payments and therefore costs may be
reduced significantly and profit from the
manufacture of hats to protect employees’
heads whilst working will increase for many
years whilst the smaller loan is being paid off.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
11_0986_11_2023_1.1
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2
1 Desmond wants to be a successful entrepreneur. He has decided to leave his office job to start up
a gardening business cutting grass and planting flowers. It will be an unincorporated business.
Desmond is aware that a new business is at greater risk of failure than an established business.
He has identified his business objectives for the first year. Desmond has calculated he will need
$750 for his start-up capital.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Objective 1: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Objective 2: .......................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Characteristic 1: ................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Characteristic 2: ................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Characteristic 3: ................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Characteristic 4: ................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two reasons (other than lack of finance) why Desmond’s new business might be at
greater risk of failure than an established business.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think owner’s savings are the most suitable source of finance for a start-up business?
Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
2 LCT manufactures cooking pots. It has 16 employees. As a small business LCT uses social media
as its method of advertising. The owner, Carole, knows having a good brand image is important.
She is analysing LCT’s break-even chart. This is shown in Fig. 2.1. Carole is considering possible
ways to lower LCT’s break-even level of output.
12 000
10 000 total revenue
8000
costs / revenue total costs
6000
($)
4000
2000 fixed costs
0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000
units
Fig. 2.1
Limitation 1: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Limitation 2: ......................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Calculate LCT’s profit if it sells 800 units. Show your working.
Working: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
(c) Outline two possible benefits to LCT of having a good brand image.
Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two ways LCT might lower its break-even level of output.
Way 1: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Way 2: ...............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think social media is the best method of advertising for a small business to use? Justify
your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
3 ACP manufactures computers. Being ethical is important to ACP. The business employs 3000
workers in its factory. ACP imports 65% of its raw materials. As internal users of accounts, the
directors plan to analyse ACP’s financial performance using profitability ratios. The Finance Director
thinks making a profit is more important for a business than managing its cash flow.
User 1: ..............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
User 2: ..............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Ratio 1: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Ratio 2: .............................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline two possible reasons why ACP imports its raw materials.
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain one benefit and one limitation to ACP of being ethical.
Benefit: .............................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Limitation: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Do you think making a profit is more important for a business than managing its cash flow?
Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
4 MRN is a food retailer. It has 490 shops and 70 000 employees. MRN has announced plans to
close 80 of its shops. The Human Resources Director said: ‘20% of management jobs will be
removed. We want to encourage delegation. MRN will continue to follow legal controls over
employment.’ MRN’s directors know it is important that businesses respond to increased competition.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [2]
Function 1: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Function 2: ........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [4]
(d) Explain two factors MRN should consider when deciding which shops to close.
Factor 1: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Factor 2: ...........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
(e) Explain two ways a retail business could respond to increased competition. Which would be
the best way to use? Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [6]
BLANK PAGE
BLANK PAGE
Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.
To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.
INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer all questions.
• Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
• Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.
INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 80.
• The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].
• The insert contains the case study.
11_0986_21_2023_1.2
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2
1 (a) Explain two advantages and two disadvantages of PH being a public limited company.
Advantage 1: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Advantage 2: ....................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage 1: ................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Disadvantage 2: ................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the following two ways PH could ensure quality production. Which way should PH
choose? Justify your answer.
• Quality control
• Quality assurance
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Recommendation: ............................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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........................................................................................................................................... [12]
2 (a) Explain two limitations and two benefits to a business of developing new products.
Limitation 1: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Limitation 2: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [8]
(b) Consider the advantages and disadvantages of the following three methods PH uses to collect
market research data. Which method is most likely to ensure that accurate data is collected?
Justify your answer.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................... [12]
Reason 1: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Reason 2: .........................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider how the following three groups might use the financial data shown in Appendix 3.
Which group will find this data most useful? Justify your answer.
• PH’s employees
• PH’s shareholders
• Competitor considering taking over PH
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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4 (a) Explain two benefits of PH's employees becoming members of a trade union.
Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
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Explanation: ......................................................................................................................
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(b) Consider three possible benefits for PH of becoming a multinational company. Which benefit
is likely to be the most important? Justify your answer.
Benefit 1: ..........................................................................................................................
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Benefit 2: ..........................................................................................................................
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Benefit 3: ..........................................................................................................................
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Conclusion: .......................................................................................................................
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