Mark Scheme (Results)

Summer 2024

Pearson Edexcel International Advanced Level

in Psychology (WPS04) Paper 01
Clinical Psychology and Psychological Skills
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Summer 2024
Question Paper Log Number P75834A
Publications Code WPS04_01_2406_MS
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2024
General Marking Guidance

• All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners

must mark the first candidate in exactly the same way as they
mark the last.
• Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must
be rewarded for what they have shown they can do rather than
penalised for omissions.
• Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not
according to their perception of where the grade boundaries
may lie.
• There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark
scheme should be used appropriately.
• All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be awarded.
Examiners should always award full marks if deserved, i.e. if
the answer matches the mark scheme. Examiners should also
be prepared to award zero marks if the candidate’s response
is not worthy of credit according to the mark scheme.
• Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will
provide the principles by which marks will be awarded and
exemplification may be limited.
• When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of the
mark scheme to a candidate’s response, the team leader must
be consulted.
• Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate has
replaced it with an alternative response.
 CLINICAL PSYCHOLOGY

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO1 (1 mark)
1(a) (1)
Credit one mark for an accurate symptom given.

For example;

• One symptom of schizophrenia is thought insertion (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO1 (4 marks)
1(b) (4)
Credit up to four marks for an accurate description.

For example;

• High levels of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway has been

linked with the positive symptoms of schizophrenia (1). Negative
symptoms such as alogia has been associated with low dopamine
levels in the mesocortical pathway (1). Delusions have been
connected with increased subcortical release of dopamine linked to
D2 receptor sites (1). Decreased glutamate uptake at the NMDA
receptor leads to reduced activation is also implicated in positive,
negative, and cognitive symptoms (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO1 (3 marks), AO3 (3 marks)
1(c) (6)
Credit one mark for each accurate identification point (AO1).
Credit one mark for justification of each point of analysis (AO3).

Genetics

For example;

• There is an increased risk of developing schizophrenia if a family

member has the disorder through the inheritance of genes such as
the NRG-1 gene (1). Kendler et al. (1985) found that first line
family members were more likely to develop schizophrenia than
the general population (1). Identical twins share the same
genetics and have been shown to have a higher risk of developing
schizophrenia (1), with Gottesman and Shields (1972) finding a
58% concordance rate of schizophrenia in monozygotic (MZ) twins
who were reared apart (1). However, there are likely to be other
factors than genetics involved otherwise the concordance rate
would be 100% for MZ twins who are genetically identical (1),
because the NRG-1 gene has a role in the expression and
activation of glutamate and a role in neurodevelopment, meaning
genes may only be indicative of a predisposition to other causal
factors (1).

Brain structure

For example;

• Brain structural difference can explain schizophrenia, with parts of

the brain being reduced in size in schizophrenic patients, for
example the temporal lobe is found to be smaller (1). Evidence
from Wright et al. (2000) found that people with schizophrenia
had a smaller cerebral volume (98%) (1). Ventricular enlargement
has been observed in patients with schizophrenia with MRI scans
having shown ventricular cavities to be around 15% larger (1).
Degreef et al. (1992) found ventricular enlargement in the frontal
and temporal horns, with enlargement of the temporal horns
associated with the presence of positive symptoms (1). However,
there is an increased risk of schizophrenia if a family member has
the disorder, with identical twins having a higher risk as they
share the same genes (1). Kendler et al (1985) found that first
line family members were more likely to develop schizophrenia
than the general population, so there may be more than just brain
structure involved (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO1 (1 mark)
2(a) (1)
Credit one mark for an accurate statement.

For example;

• To investigate the nutritional status of Japanese inpatients with

schizophrenia (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO1 (2 marks)
2(b) (2)
Credit up to two marks for an accurate description.

For example;

• Nutritional status was measured using the total protein, total

cholesterol, triglyceride level, and fasting plasma glucose levels
(1) from a blood sample taken after a minimum 9 hours of fasting,
for example Hypoglycaemia was measured by a fasting plasma
glucose level of <70 mg/dL (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO1 (2 marks), AO3 (2 marks)
2(c) (4)
Credit one mark for accurate identification of each strength (AO1).
Credit one mark for justification/exemplification of each strength (AO3).

For example;

• The use of 333 real patients aged between 16 and 80 years old
who had been admitted across psychiatric hospitals with a
diagnosis of schizophrenia can be considered representative of
Japanese inpatients (1). This increases the population validity of
the findings about nutrition as the inpatients are likely to reflect
the target population of schizophrenic inpatients in Japan (1).
• The nine psychiatric hospitals that were used were every day, real
life institutions where patients would normally be admitted for
disorders such as schizophrenia (1). This increases the ecological
validity of the findings about weight and nutrition as the context in
which the study took place is reflective of real-life experiences and
hospitalisation (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO2 (2 marks)
3(a) (2)
Credit up to two marks for an appropriate description in relation to the
scenario.

For example;

• Amy could go to the therapist’s office every day for a week to

meet patients who would happen to be there for their
appointments (1) and then ask the patients if they would be
willing to take part in her interview about their experiences of
cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) (1).

Generic answers score 0 marks.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO2 (4 marks)
3(b) (4)
Credit up to four marks for an appropriate description in relation to the
scenario.

For example;

• First Amy would need to gain fully informed consent from any of
the patients that agree to take part in her interview by explaining
the aim of her research (1). Amy would have an interview
schedule prepared that would include the questions about CBT she
was going to ask the patients (1). She would need to plan in
advance the structured closed-ended questions about CBT that
she needs to use to gather quantitative data from the patients (1)
and also the open ended questions to gather qualitative data, such
as ‘in what ways do you think CBT has helped you?’ (1).

Generic answers score 0 marks.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO2 (2 marks), AO3 (2 marks)
3(c) (4)
Credit one mark for an accurate identification of each strength in
relation to the scenario (AO2).
Credit one mark for justification/exemplification of each strength (AO3).

For example;

• Amy will be able to gather in-depth details from the patients

having cognitive behavioural therapy to find out more information
about how they feel and what they have experienced (1) which
gives Amy a more holistic perspective of the effectiveness of CBT
rather than oversimplified data like session attendance rates that
ignores individual experiences (1).
• The patients may feel able to be honest and relaxed when
discussing their CBT during an interview as it allows for open
conversations to take place where reassurance can be given to
patients (1) which will give strong validity as the findings will
reflect the real experiences and emotions of the patients own
truthful beliefs about the effectiveness of their CBT (1).

Generic answers score 0 marks.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO2 (2 marks)
4(a) (2)
Credit up to two mark for an accurate description in relation to the
scenario.

For example;

• Rahul demonstrates a failure to function as he is unable to cope

with the demands of his everyday life to take part in his usual
activities or leave his house causing him suffering (1) and is also
unable to cope with social events because he is fearful of meeting
new people (1)

Generic answers score 0 marks.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO2 (1 mark), AO3 (1 mark)
4(b) (2)
Credit one mark for accurate identification of one reason in relation to
the scenario (AO2).
Credit one mark for justification/exemplification of the reason (AO3).

For example;

• Rahul may believe his diagnosis is valid as he receives the same

independent diagnosis from his psychiatrist and their trainee for
his symptoms of fear and social isolation (1), as Brown et al.
(2001) found that two interviews using the DSM IV criteria gave
the same diagnosis of anxiety and mood disorders in 362
outpatients (1).

Generic answers score 0 marks.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Indicative Content Mark
Number
5 AO1 (6 marks), AO3 (10 marks) (16)
AO1
• A patient with schizophrenia will attend counselling or therapy sessions
with their family members and any designated caregivers.
• Family therapy addresses environmental, social, and emotional issues of
the patient with schizophrenia.
• The therapy is not a physically invasive treatment programme as it is
based on sharing information and feelings about schizophrenia.
• Family therapy can increase family members knowledge of
schizophrenia to help them understand the symptoms.
• Effective family therapy usually runs alongside a drug based therapy
and it is not a therapy that is usually used alone
• Drug therapy consists of anti-psychotic medication which supresses
hallucinations and delusions and can be used with family therapy.

AO3
• Magliano et al. (2005) found improved social functioning in caregivers of
family members with schizophrenia, showing success in treating the
wider impact of schizophrenia on family life.
• Attending family therapy can be demanding to families, such as
transport, time, motivation, and energy, which may lead to high
dropout rates and reduce the effectiveness of the family therapy.
• Pharoah et al. (2010) found positive impacts on patient recovery, a
relapse reduction and improved social functioning from family therapy.
• While being less invasive than drugs or deep brain stimulation
treatments, family therapy may not address the cause of schizophrenia,
so only helps with the management of the patient and family life.
• Psychoeducation in family therapy can increase knowledge of the illness
to help families effectively support the patients’ medication needs.
• Kavanagh (2018) found that patients in families with high levels of
negative attitudes had a 48% chance of relapse, so families would need
to engage positively with therapy for it to be effective.
• Bird et al. (2010) showed that family therapy in the early stage of
psychosis significantly reduced relapse and readmission rates, so
effectiveness may be greater if family therapy begins early.
• Family therapy requires the person with schizophrenia to be able to
engage and explain how it affects them which may not be effective as
they may be living in a different reality where they do not trust their
family.
• Pilling et al. (2002) found a link between family therapy interventions
and adherence to medication, which could effectively reduce relapse.
• Drugs such as Chlorpromazine block dopamine receptors and patients
show positive signs of improvement and a reduction in schizophrenic
symptoms, so family therapy is not the only course of treatment that
should be considered.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Level Mark Descriptor
AO1 (6 marks), AO3 (10 marks)
Candidates must demonstrate a greater emphasis on evaluation/conclusion vs
knowledge and understanding in their answer.
Knowledge & understanding is capped at maximum 6 marks.
0 No rewardable material.

Level 1 1-4 Demonstrates isolated elements of knowledge and understanding. (AO1)

A conclusion may be presented, but will be generic and the supporting
Marks
evidence will be limited. Limited attempt to address the question. (AO3)

Level 2 5-8 Demonstrates mostly accurate knowledge and understanding. (AO1)

Candidates will produce statements with some development in the form of
Marks
mostly accurate and relevant factual material, leading to a superficial
conclusion being made. (AO3)

Level 3 9-12 Demonstrates accurate knowledge and understanding. (AO1)

Arguments developed using mostly coherent chains of reasoning leading
Marks
to a conclusion being presented. Candidates will demonstrate a grasp of
competing arguments but evaluation may be imbalanced. (AO3)

Level 4 13-16 Demonstrates accurate and thorough knowledge and understanding.

Marks (AO1)
Displays a well-developed and logical evaluation, containing logical chains
of reasoning throughout. Demonstrates an awareness of competing
arguments, presenting a balanced conclusion. (AO3)
 PSYCHOLOGICAL SKILLS
Question Answer Mark
Number
AO2 (1 mark)
6(a) (1)
Credit one mark for an accurate identification.

• Nominal data as she is tallying what snacks are eaten at break

(1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO2 (1 mark)
6(b) (1)
Credit one mark for an accurate identification.

• Cake (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO2 (1 mark)
6(c) (1)
Credit one mark for a correct calculation.

• 6:11 (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO2 (1 mark)
6(d) (1)
Credit one mark for a correct calculation.

• 27.27% (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO2 (4 marks)
7(a) (4)
PLEASE CLIP WITH 7(b and c)

Credit one mark for accurate completion of O-E column to two

decimal places.
Credit one mark for accurate completion of (O-E)2 column to
two decimal places.
Credit one mark for accurate completion of (O-E)2/E column
to two decimal places.
Credit one mark for correct chi-squared to two decimal
places= 1.02

Observed Expected O-E (O-E)2 (O-E)2/E

Males Ran to the
platform 41 38.03 2.97 8.82 0.23

Did not
run to the 21 23.97 -2.97 8.82 0.37
platform
Females Ran to the
platform 51 53.97 -2.97 8.82 0.16

Did not
run to the 37 34.03 2.97 8.82 0.26
platform

Chi squared = 1.02

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO2 (1 mark)
7(b) (1)
Credit one mark for an accurate statement.

PLEASE CLIP WITH 7(a and c)

For example;

• The result is not significant at P<0.025 for a two-tailed

test where df=1 as the calculated value of 1.02 is less
than the critical value of 5.02 (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO3 (1 mark)
7(c) (1)
Credit one mark for an accurate conclusion.
PLEASE CLIP WITH 7(a and b)

For example;

• Jamie could conclude that there is no difference in the

level of obedience shown by males and females when
given an instruction (1).

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO2 (2 marks)
8(a) (2)
Credit up to two marks for an accurate description in relation to the
scenario.

For example;

• Ling could read through each of the articles looking at the

information given by parents to pick out words and phrases that
relate to parenting style and attachment (1) and then identify any
similarities in the ideas that are commonly mentioned across all of
the articles to produce a summary of links between parenting and
attachment (1).

Generic answers score 0 marks.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark

Number
AO2 (1 mark), AO3 (1 mark)
8(b) (2)
Credit one mark for an accurate improvement in relation to the scenario
(AO2)
Credit one mark for exemplification/justification of the improvement
(AO3)

For example;

• Ling could use more than nine articles as her sources, for example
gathering 20 articles that have been peer-reviewed and published
to increase her sample size (1) which would increase validity by
reducing the impact of any anomalies in the results from the
articles she uses about the impact of parenting style on infant
attachment (1).

Generic answers score 0 marks.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Answer Mark
Number
AO2 (3 marks), AO3 (3 marks)
9 (6)
Credit one mark for each accurate point identified in relation to the
scenario (AO2)
Credit one mark for exemplification/justification of each point (AO3)

For example;

• Poppy would need to control for demand characteristics so that

her participants did not guess that her aim was to test conformity
to a majority group and behave in an unrealistic way (1). This
would ensure there is construct validity in her experiment and that
her line test answers were a measure of conformity and not
skewed by participants changing their behaviour (1).
• Control of order effects would be important with 20 trials in each
experiment as participants may become bored and their answers
could reflect a lack of interest rather than the effect of a majority
group (1). Poppy could include distracter trials that differ from the
line test so that participants have a break from the monotony of
the same line task which would improve the accuracy of the
results about conformity (1).
• Poppy plans to replicate her experiment three times so will need
to control for any extraneous variables that could confound the
results gathered about conformity and group influence to ensure
each replication was the same (1). This would ensure that each of
the three replications of the line test is directly comparable so that
Poppy’s results have stronger test-retest reliability as they can be
checked across her replications (1).

Generic answers score 0 marks.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Question Indicative Content Mark
Number
10 AO1 (4 marks), AO2 (4 marks) (8)

AO1

• The amygdala can be activated in stressful situations, which initiates the

fight or flight responses such as fear and anger.
• The prefrontal cortex regulates social behaviour and aggressive
responses, and damage to the prefrontal cortex reduces the inhibition of
the amygdala resulting in higher levels of aggression
• The low-activity of the MAOA gene has been found to have a
relationship with aggression, becoming known as the warrior gene.
• Hormones such as high testosterone and low cortisol can be linked to
aggressive behaviour, particularly in males.

AO2

• Charles Whitman may not have acted on free will when he killed and
wounded people due to the brain tumour affecting his amygdala,
meaning legal systems should consider treatment for someone with an
inability to control their aggression.
• Biological theories like the pre-frontal cortex show that innate
aggression may not be a choice and treatments may be better for
helping violent offenders.
• Although Charles Whitman was found to have a tumour, he still killed 16
people and wounded 31 others, and despite any biological factors the
legal system should still punish offenders for aggressive actions such as
murder.
• Dabbs et al. (1995) found high levels of testosterone in violent
criminals, but environmental influences can trigger the release of
testosterone and people have free will and choice over whether to
expose themselves to such triggers.

Look for other reasonable marking points.

Level Mark Descriptor
AO1 (4 marks), AO2 (4 marks)
Candidates must demonstrate an equal emphasis between knowledge and
understanding vs application in their answer.
0 No rewardable material
Level 1 1–2 Demonstrates isolated elements of knowledge and understanding. (AO1)
Marks Provides little or no reference to relevant evidence from the context
(scientific ideas, processes, techniques and procedures). (AO2)
Level 2 3–4 Demonstrates mostly accurate knowledge and understanding. (AO1)
Marks Discussion is partially developed but is imbalanced or superficial occasionally
supported through the application of relevant evidence from the context
(scientific ideas, processes, techniques and procedures). (AO2)
Level 3 5–6 Demonstrates accurate knowledge and understanding. (AO1)
Marks Arguments developed using mostly coherent chains of reasoning. Candidates
will demonstrate a grasp of competing arguments, but discussion may be
imbalanced or contain superficial material supported by applying relevant
evidence from the context (scientific ideas, processes, techniques and
procedures (AO2)
Level 4 7–8 Demonstrates accurate and thorough knowledge and understanding. (AO1)
Marks Displays a well-developed and logical balanced discussion, containing logical
chains of reasoning. Demonstrates a thorough awareness of competing
arguments supported throughout by sustained application of relevant
evidence from the context (scientific ideas, processes, techniques or
procedures). (AO2)
Question Indicative Content Mark
Number
11 AO1 (8 marks), AO3 (12 marks)
AO1 (20)
• Research with people has to meet the BPS Code of Ethics and Conduct (2009) so
people are safe and protected from mistreatment.
• Human participants should not be caused distress or harm in research where there
could be an alternative, such as case studies or secondary data gathering methods.
• Human participants have the right to withdraw themselves or their data from
research that they are involved in and have their personal details kept confidential.
• HM would not have fully understood his role in research due to his memory failure so
did not give informed consent.
• Milgram (1963) caused distress to participants by prompting them to continue with
the electrocution task.
• The UNCRC Article 36 protects children from exploitation, which includes the
exploitation of children for medical research which would include psychology.
• Animal research is governed by the Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act 1986 so it
should be conducted with consideration for the animals welfare.
• Animal researchers now require licences to make sure that the animals are given
good conditions to live in, they do not suffer and are well looked after.

AO3
• Asch (1951) could be considered unethical as deception was used to ensure
participants did not guess the aim of the study, however, at times this is necessary to
obtain reliable and valid evidence.
• Money’s (1965) case study highlights the serious implications of unethical research,
where the Reimer twins were used for the benefit of the psychologist’s research,
which was probably not in the interest of the two children.
• Bowlby (1944) studied maternal deprivation in juveniles without creating any artificial
conditions to cause the deprivation himself, so even sensitive research can ethically
take place without causing harm and our understanding can be developed.
• Watson and Rayner (1920) created a situation whereby Little Albert developed a fear
response to a rat, which was highly unethical as the outcome does not outweigh the
poor ethical considerations given there are alternative ways to test this theory.
• The case study of Clive Wearing is widely published and as a result his true identity is
known to broader society, so ethically fails to protect a vulnerable man with severe
memory loss from people not directly involved in the research knowing his personal
details.
• HM was studied over his entire lifetime without ever really providing fully informed
consent due to his short-term memory duration, however the outcomes have given
society a better understanding of the functions of human memory.
• Breaching guidance about harm was necessary by Milgram (1963) as without this he
would not have been able to explain obedience to authority, so the distress was
outweighed by the benefit to society.
• Ainsworth (1971) used the strange situation procedure to observe an infant with
caregivers and strangers, infants often showed distress when the mother left which
could be considered exploitative and unethical.
• Pavlov studied salivation in dogs to theorise that people and animals could be
conditioned to behave in certain ways, this study caused distress to the dogs, but can
be considered ethical as animals are a suitable alternative when humans cannot be
used.
• Harlow (1958) produced unnecessary long-term effects to the emotional development
of the monkeys which may have been seen as unethical due to the potential harm
caused for future generations.
• Rats have been used to study symptoms and treatments of schizophrenia by causing
brain lesioning or dopamine imbalances intentionally, this has led to successful drug
treatments, so the benefit to human society outweighed the cost to animals.
• Skinner studied pigeons and attempted to train them to guide missiles during WWII,
this is unethical as the animals would have been sent to their deaths, however during
the time of war it was considered acceptable to attempt to use animals in this way.
Look for other reasonable marking points.
Level Mark Descriptor
AO1 (8 marks), AO3 (12 marks)
Candidates must demonstrate a greater emphasis on assessment/conclusion vs
knowledge and understanding in their answer.
Knowledge & understanding is capped at maximum 8 marks.
0 No rewardable material.

Level 1 1–4 Demonstrates isolated elements of knowledge and understanding. (AO1)

Marks
Generic assertions may be presented. Limited attempt to address the
question. (AO3)

Level 2 5–8 Demonstrates mostly accurate knowledge and understanding. (AO1)

Marks
Candidates will produce statements with some development in the form of
mostly accurate and relevant factual material, leading to a generic or
superficial assessment being presented. (AO3)

Level 3 9–12 Demonstrates accurate knowledge and understanding. (AO1)

Marks
Arguments developed using mostly coherent chains of reasoning, leading to
an assessment being presented which considers a range of factors.
Candidates will demonstrate understanding of competing arguments/factors
but unlikely to grasp their significance. The assessment leads to a
judgement but this will be imbalanced. (AO3)

Level 4 13–16 Demonstrates accurate and thorough knowledge and understanding. (AO1)
Marks
Displays a logical assessment, containing logical chains of reasoning
throughout which consider a range of factors. Demonstrates an
understanding of competing arguments/factors but does not fully consider
the significance of each which in turn leads to an imbalanced judgement
being presented. (AO3)

Level 5 17–20 Demonstrates accurate and thorough knowledge and understanding. (AO1)
Marks Displays a well-developed and logical assessment, containing logical chains
of reasoning throughout. Demonstrates a full understanding and awareness
of the significance of competing arguments/factors leading to a balanced
judgement being presented. (AO3)
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