DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY

LATE SHRI LAKHIRAM AGRAWAL MEMORIAL,

GOVT. MEDICAL COLLEGE RAIGARH (C.G.)

Pre University Examination Pathology (Batch-2023) Date: 30.06. 2025

Note I. Altemyt all the questions in strict serial order
2 Druw labelled diagram wherever required
3 Follow the instructions of the individual questios and write in brief Total Mfarks = |00
Tim: 3 hours Paper-!

Question 1. MCQS (Ix20=20)

1. Following are true about TGF-B except:
a. Anti inflammatory b.Causes fibrosis c. Tumor suppressor general d. Anti- angiogenic.
of
2. Increase in number of goblet cells in the non respiratory terminal bronchiole is an example
a.Anaplasia b. Dysplasia. c. Metaplasia d. Hyperplasia
3. Which of the following is an antiapoptotic general
a. BAX b. BAD c. BCL-XL d. BIM
4. Wemer disease is associated with
Intestinal polyps b. Multiple cancer c. Lax joints d. Premature ageing
5. In downs syndrome there is
a. Translocation b. Mutation c. Paternal nondisjunction d. Maternal nondisjunction
6. Hemophilia is associated with
a. chromosome b. Y chromosome c. Chromosome 3. D. Chromosome 16
7. HLA is absent in
a. RBC. b. Monocytes c. Neutrophil d. Thrombocyte
8. Which is the example of type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
a Serum sickness b. PAN c. SLE d. Rh incompatibility
9. All are malignant tumors except
a Chloroma b. Fibromatosisc. Askins tumor d. Liposarcoma
10. Most common cause of extracranial solid tumor in children
a. Neuroblastoma b. Wilmna turmor c. Thymoma
11. Most common type of AML in Downs syndrome
a M2 b. M3. C. M6. d. M7
12. Most common extranodal site of Lymphoma in HIV is
a CNS b. GIT c. Retroperitoneum d. Mediastinum
13. Hodgkin Lymphoma type not associated with EBV
a. Nodular sclerosis b. Lymphocyte rich c. Lymphocytes depleted d. Mixed cellularity
14. Characteristics translocation in mantle cell lymphoma
at(11;14) c. t(9;22) d.(8;14)
b.t(15;17)
15. Most common cause of hereditary spherocytosis
a. Spectrin b. Glycophorin c. Ankyrin d. Band 4
16. Bart hemoglobin is a tetramer of
a. alpha chain b. Beta chain c. gamma chain d. Delta chain.
17. Al are decrease in IDA except
a. Ferritin b. TIBC c. Iron d. Transferring
18. Ringed sideroblasts seen in
a. IDA b.MDS c. Thalassemia d. Anemia of chronic disease
19. In hemophilia A true
a. Normal PT, Elevated APTT b. Elevated PT, Normal APTT
c. Elevated CT, Normal APTT d. Normal CT, Elevated APTT
20. The most sensitive test for DIC i
a. BT b. CT. c.PT. d. FDP lev
Question 2. ASyear-old boy presents to ER with complaints of epistaxis and petechiae over the limbs tor
the past 3 days. (10 marks)
a) What is the probable condition?
b) What are the relevant investigations to narrow down the cause?
c) Write in detail about pathogenesis of Immune mediated cases of the above condition.

Question 3. 26 years old multipara presented in Obstetric OPD with complaints of easy fatiguability and
breathlessness. On evaluation her Hemoglobin level - 6.2 gldl, serum iron level 40 mcg/dl.
(10 marks)

a) Mention the probable cause of her condition.

b) Write about the pathogenesis and other investigations needed to confirm the diagnosis.
Question 4. Reasoning Questions - (5x3)
a. A 10 year old male child presented with persistent cough, fever, night sweat and weight loss.
Which infectious disease should be strongly considered and why?
b. A patient is suspected of having CML. Besides a CBC & PS, what specialized molecular or
cytogenetic test are essential for diagnosis and why are they considered the "Gold standard"

e. Why there is delayed wound healing in Diabetic patient.

d. Explain the mechanism by which Multiple Myeloma can lead to bone, neurological and kidney
dysfunction.
e. Why Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is the classical presentation in PNH. What are the causes of
Dark urine in this condition.

Question 5- Applied Questions (4x5)

a. Lab diagnosis of DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation.
b. Mechanism of autoimmunity.
c. Bone marrow findings in Megaloblastic anemia.
d.What are the investigations required in a case of bleeding disorder?
Question 6- Short answer questions. (5 x 5 =25)

a. Descibe tumor markers in brief.

b. Types of RS cells.
c. Type Il hypersensitivity reaction.
d. What is the role of empathy in care of patients?
e. Chemotaxis.
 DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY
LATE SHRI LAKHIRAM AGRAWAL MEMORIAL,
GOVT. MEDICAL COLLEGE RAIGARH (C.G.)

Pre University Examination Pathology (Batch-2023) Date :31 06.2025

Note: 1. Attempt all the questions in strict serial order,
2. Draw labelled diagram whereer required
3 Follow the instructions of the individual questions and wrlte in brief Total Mfarks l00
Time : 3 hours Paper-Il

Question L.MCQs (lx20 Marks)

1. Fibrinoid necrosis with neutrophilic infiltration is seen in
a. PAN b. Giant cell arteritis c. Takayasu arteritis d. WG
2. Non sterile vegetation is secn in
a. Libmann sack's endocarditis b. Marantic endocarditis
c Infective Endocarditis RHD
3. Hypertensive hemorrhage is most commonly seen in
a. Basal ganglia. B. Thalamus c. Brain stem. D., Cerebrum
4. Which is found more in MEN2B than MEN2A
a.Medullary carcinoma thyroid b.Hyperparathyroidism
d.Marfanoid features
c.pheochromocytoma accept
5. All of the following are true about Hashimoto's thyroiditis, metaplasia d.Orphan Annie eye nuclei
a.follicular destruction b.Increase in lymphocytes c.oncocytic
6. Modified Bloom Richardson score is used for cell carcinoma
a.Breast carcinoma, b. Cholangiocarcinoma c. Hepatic carcinoma d.Renal
7. Most common cause of cervical neoplasia is
a.HPV-6 b.HPV-11 c.HPV.16 d.HHV
8. Kimmelstiel -wilson lesion is characteristics of
a.HIV nephropathy b.Diabetic Nephropathy c.Amyloidosis d.Malignant hypertension
9. Pigment sioue is composed of
a. Ca bilirubinate b.Ca phosphate c. Ca carbonate d.Ca gluconate
10. Layer absent in esophagous
a.Mucosa b. Serosa c. Muscularis d.Lamina propria
11. Krukenberg tumor of ovary is due to carcinoma of
a. stomach b. Lung c. CNS d. Thyroid
smokers less than 10 packet cigarette per year
12. Most common lung malignancy in woman and with d.carcinoids
a.SCC b.Adenocarcinoma c.Mesothelioma
13. Precancerous condition of skin
a. Bowens disease b. seborhoeic keratosis c. Leprosy d. Psoriasis
Most malignant salivary
14. a.Mucoepidermoid gland tumor is
carcinoma b. Acinic Cell carcinoma
c Adenoid cystic carcinoma d.Pleomorphic adenoma
15. Most common soft tissue tumor is
a. Fibroma b. Lipoma c.Leiomyoma d.Rhabdomyoma
16. Which of the following brain tumor does not spread via CSF
a.Germ cell tumor b. medulloblastoma c. CNS lymphoma d. craniopharyngioma
17. Gleason's grading system is for
b. Carcinoma colony c.Carcinoma thyroid d.Carcinoma prostate
a.carcinoma testis
18. Commonest histological type of carcinoma testis is
aTeratoma b.yolk sac tumor c.Seminoma d. Chorio carcinoma
19. Heart failure cells are
a. Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells b.Pigmented alveolar macrophages
d Pigmented cells seen in liver
c. Pigmented pancreatic acinar cells
20. Terminal stageeof pneumonia
a Congestion oRed Hepatisation c. Gray Hepatisation d. Resolution
Question 2. s$/M presented with epigastric mass, vomiting and loss o wegh. On examination he was
anacmic and emaciated, He was adviscd endoscopic biopsy. (10 murks)
condition?
What is the etiology and pathogenesis of the abovecondition.
b. Discuss the gross and microscopic features of the
c. Discuss the clinical course.

Question 3. 55 years female presented to the surgical OP with complaints of swelling in Right side
core biopsy was taken. (10 marks)
breast, on examination the swelling was hard and fixed, Needle
a. What is your diagnosis
b. Classification of the lesion?
C. Write about the morphology and prognostic factors of the lesion.
Question 4. Reasoning Questions - (5x 3=15)
a. Why there is development of edema in Nephrotic syndrome patient
b. Explain why there is high risk of development of Carcinoma Cervix in women with
persistent HPV infection.
c. Why there is raised TSH in Hashimoto Thyroiditis.

d. Cobweb appearance of CSF found in which condition and why? Explain in brief about the
condition.

e. Jet black sputum is found in which occupational lung disease and why? Describe the
spectrum of Occupational Lung Disease in brief.

Question S- Applied Questions (4x5=20)

a. Describe etiopathogenesis of glomerulonephritis.
b. Deseribe morphological changes of myocardial infaction.
c. Describe pathogenesis and morphology in benign prostatic hyperplasia.
d. Lab diagnosis of jaundice.

Question 6-Short answer questions. (S x S=25)

a. Basal cell carcinoma.

b. Glioblastoma multiforme.
c. Krukenberg tumor
d. The Doctor's role in breaking bad news.
e. Aschoff Nodule.
 Pre-Vniversity Exam
M.B.B.S. SECOND VEAR (Batclh-2023)
Date: 02.07.25 Sub: Pharmacology Time- 3irs Marks- 80

Paper-!
D l:ssay Answer Questions:
DClassily NSAIDs.
ndd a nole on the pharmacological uctions, uses und adverse eilects ofAspirin,
(4-2+2-2)
2)Classity Corticosteroids.
Add a nole on the uses and dverse elTects of Hydrocortisone. (4+3+3)

Give reason why .*. (3 murk cach)

lEnzyme inducers can cause contraccptive lailure.
2) Silodosin is used in benign hypertrophy of' prostate, o
3)Latanoprost is used in glaucoma. (
4)Tamoxilen is Used in breast cancer.
S) Addition of Carbidopato Levodopa delays the onset of on-otf phenomena.
|) Answer all of the following: (5 murks each)
1)A 50year male type-2 diabetes mellitus patient was maintained on tab.
Glibenclamide Smg twice daily. He developed toothache tor which he took lnb.
Aspirin 650:mg 6 hourly. Next day alte slarting aspirin. he experienced arxiety,
sweating. palpitatjon, weakness, alaxia, and was behaving abnormally. These
symptoms subsided when he was given a glass ofglucose solution.
(a) What could be the explanation for his symptoms?
(b) Whieh alternative analgesic should have been taken?
2) A man aged 45 years presented with gradual onset complaints of double vision.
drooping eyelids, difticulty in chewing food and weakness of limbs which is
accentuated by exercise. The symploms luctuate in intensity over time. A
provisional diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is made.
(a)Can a pharmacological test be performed to conlirn/relue the diaguosis?
(b) In case the diagnosis is confirmed, can this disease be cured by medication?
(c)Is there a surgical solution lor this illness

3) A60-ycar-old male patient of moderately severe chronic obstructive pulmonary

disease with IEV 45% ol predicted, who has quit soking tor the last 5 years,
and is maintained on lpratropium br. 20ug'puff metered dose inhaler. 2putts 3
limes aday. and Theophylline 400mg SR 1ab. (wice a day, developed sore th at
and fever. He was preseribed
Tab Erythromycin 250mg, one tab 4 times a day for 5 days
Tab Paracetamol 500 mg 3 times a day till tever persists.
Alier 3 days, he developecd tremor of tingers and hand, and had vomited twicc.
His fever had subsided and throat was better.
(a) What could be the reason for his recent illness?
(b) Could this illness he prevented, i>'so, how?
 4) A businessmun aged 35 years sullered loss und his employees leli. He
beca1ne
very depressed and stopped taking interest in thc business. Gradualy he
stoppcd
going out and withdrew socially. He felt guilty, worthless and tircd all the time,
stopped eating properly and had disturbed slcep. When he showed no sign of
recovery even atter 3 months, the lumily members consulied a doctor, wlho
diugnosed him to be a case of' major depression and prescribed
Tab Escitalopram l0 mg once daily in evening. and a multivitamin
The family members brought him back after one week and complained that tlhere
was no improvement. On questioning, the putient revealed that he felt more
restless, had nausca. pain in upper abdomen, headache nd no desire to cat.
(a) What could be the reason for no inprovement in the depressive
synptoms? Is
the choice of drug inappropriate? Does the medication nced to be chungcd,
dose increased or decreased? Should another drug be added at this stagc?
IV) Answer all of the following: (S markS cach)
)First-pass metabolism
2) Inhalational steroids
3) d-tubocurarine
4) Diazepam
S) Benefits offeflective com1nunieation in mediwai preetiee
 Pre-University Exam
M.B.B.S, SECOND YEAR (Batch-2023)
Date: 03.07.25 Sub: Pharmacology Time - 3hrs Marks- 80
Paper-1|
) I) Classify drugs used in the treatment of peptic ulcer, Explain the mechanism of
action of Omeprazole &add a note on Anti H-pylori Therapy. (4+3+3)

2) Classify Penicillins. (4+2+2+2)

Add a note on the mechanism of' action, uses und adverse eftects of Penicillin G.

ll) Give reason why (3imarks cach)

) Angiotensin receptor blockers are used in essential hypertension.
2) Tranaexemic acid is used in menorrhagia.
3) Thiazides are uscd in Diabetes insipidus.
4) Metronidazoleis used in pseudo membranous enterocolitis.
5) Primaquine is given as a single dose in falciparum malaria.
l) Answer all of the following: (5marks each)
1) The routine medical check up of a50-year-old male, asymptomatic, non-smoker
business executive with sedentary job and no past history o! coronary arlery
discase or stroke. as well as no family history of premature cardiac death, has
yielded the following tindings:
Body mass index-27, waist circumference-92 cm (38"), BP-130/86 1mm
Hg. fasting blood glucose-98 mg/dl, Total plasma cholesterol (CH)268 mg/d,
HDL-CH 38 mg/dl, serum triglyceride 160 mg/dl. Liver, Kidney and thyroid
function test values and ECG are within nornal limits. There are no remarkable
findings on physical examination.
(a) Apart from counselling on life-style modilication, does this
any medication?
person require
(b) In case he needs medication, which drug and dose
would be appropriate?
What should be the goal of' drug therapy?
2) A 35-year-old man has eome with complaint of
acute
are relatively small volume, liquid but not watery, onset diarrhoca. The stools
frothy and are preceded by
griping pain in abdomen. Foul smelling wind, delecation
mild fever are the other complaints. He has passed 4 urgency, eructation and
hours and there is no appetite. He admits to huve eatenloose motions in the past 8
at a road side stll. Physical examination spicy snacks last
evening
reveals body lemperature 101°F, no
signs of dehydration, but diffuse abdoninal tenderness.
Alentative diagnosis of enteroinvasive
(u) Does this patient require rehydration?diarrhoca is made.
(b) Should an antibiotie bc prescribed? If
so, which antibiotic would be
appropriale?
(c) Should an antimotility-antidiarhocal
nunber ol stools? drug be co-prescribed to reduce the
(d) Should any other symptomatic treatment be
given to him?
 A 75-year-old unconscious male patient of cercbral stroke is maintained on
3) the 4" day. he devcloped
ventilator in the intensive care unit of the hospital. On
along with signs of chest
fever, and the total leucocyte count rose to l4000/L,sent for bacteriological tests, and it is
infection. A sample of bronchial aspirate is
empirical treatment with Celotaxime and Gentumicin. His
decided to institute 50 ml/mi.
weight is 60 kg and creatinine clearance is estimated to be
body dosing regimen for Gentamicin and
should be the appropriate dose and
(a) What
Cefotaxime lor this patient?
with the following problem:
4) A dental surgeon consults you exposed to a 26-year-old female patient's
During a dental procedure, he got
saliva through a piercing injury on the finger. A ncedle had penetrated
blood and mm, but was withdrawn immediately
across his gloves and skin to a depth of 2-3 On enquiry, the palient revealed that
and the area washed under running water.
but was asymptomatic and not taking
one year back she had tested HIV positive,
any anti-HIV medication.
to take post-exposure prophylactic
(a) Should the dental surgeon be advisedis indicated under the circumstances?
medication lor HIV, or no medication
medication is advised, which drug/drugs, closes and duration of use would
(b) If
be appropriate?
(Smarks cach)
IV) Answer all of the following:
I) Amlodipine
2) Heparin- mechanism of action and uses
3) Furoscmide
4)Chelating agents
5) Topical steroid therapy
 College Raigarh, (Co)
Late Shri Lakhiram Agrawal Memorial Medical
DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY
M.B.B.S 2d Year Date 04-07-2025

Pre University Examination (Batch -2023)

Paper - I Max. Marks: 20
Time: 30 Minutes
Note:
1. Answer the questions as directed.
(20 X 1=20 Marks)
1. MCQ used to disinfect endoscope is -
1) Percentage ofgluraraldehyde commonly
1) 2% 2) 5%
3) 10% 4) 20%
2) Presumptive coliform count for bacteriological water testing use
Strength MacConkey broth
1) Double Strength MacConkey broth 2)4) Single
None of above
3) A&B
3) Westen blots are primarily used to detect
1) Protein 2) DNA
3) Carbohydrate 4) RNA
4) The characteristic feature of pus of amoebic liver abscess is
1) Anchovy sauce pus 2) Green colored pus
3) Trinblue pus 4) None of above
all except
5) Advantage of saline mount are
1) Useful in the detection of trophozoites and cyst.
appreciated.
2) Bile staining property can be
3) Motility of trophozoites can be seen.
helminth egg and larva are better
visualized.
4)) Nuclear detail of cyst and
except
6) Following are examples of adjuvants
2) Liquid paraffin
1) Aluminum hydroxide
4) Lipopolysaccharide
3) Tetanus toxoid
due to preformed
antibodies occurs in
7) Graft1)rejection
Hyperacute rejection 2) Acute rejection
4) Chronic rejection
3) Sub acute rejection a liver luke
8) Which of the following is not 2) Opisthorchis viverrini
1) Clonorchis sinesis
3) Fasciola hepatica 4) Fasciola buski
paragonimiasis is
9) Definitive host in 2) Snail
1) Man
2) Cray ish 4) Crab
10) Chiclero ulcer is caused by 2) L. braziliensis
I) L. mexicana
4) L. chagasi
3) L. peruviana known
minutes on their successive days is
U) Steam sterilization at 100°C or 20
2) Inspissation
)1 4) Vaccination
3)
PTO
12) Paul Bunnell test is based on sharing of antigen between
1) Sheep erythrocytes and Epstein Barr virus
2) Mycoplasma and human erythrocytes
3) Rickettsial antigens and proteus antigen.
4) None of above.
13) Class II MHC antigen are present on
1) Macrophage 2) Monocyte
3) Activated T Lymphocytes 4) Allof above
14 Naegleria fowleri causes
1) Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis 2) Liver abscess
3) Amoebic dysentery 4) Allof above
15)Di George's syndrome is an Immunodeficiency disease due to
1)I cell detect 2) B cell detect
3) Both of the above 4) None of above
16) What is the acceptable limit of bacterial count in air in operation theater
I) 50 per cubic feet 2) 10 per cubic feet
3) 4 per cubic feet 4) lper cubic feet
17) Which of the following test can be used for diagnosis of brucellosis in animal
1) Milk ring test 2) Whey agglutination test
3) Both of above 4) None of above
18) Trichinella spiralis infection in humans is caused by
1) Raw or adequately cooked pork 2) Auto infection
3) Egg present in food 4) None of above
19) In which of' the following trematodes the mode of infection is penetration
through skin
I) Fasciola spp 2) Clonorchis spp
3) heterophyes spp 4) Schistosoma spp
20) The most common method used to demonstrate the oocyst of cryptosporidium
parvum is stool specimen is
1) Modified zichl-neelsen stain 2) Gram Stain
3) Hematoxylin and eosin stain 4) None of above

--00-
 Late Shri Lakhiram Agrawal Memorial Medical College Raigari, (C)
DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY
M.B.B.S 2nd Year
Pre University Examination (Batch -2023) Date 04-07-2025S

Paper -I
Time: 02:30 Hrs. Max. Marks: 80
Note:
1. Answer the questions as directed.
2. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
Long Questions:
1) Define Hypersensitivity reaction and classify them. Discuss type
hypersensitivity reaction in detail, write special note on its clinical application.
(2+3+5 Marks)
2) Write about antimicrobial resistance- type, mechanism, various methods of
antimicrobial susceptibility testing.
(2+3+5 Marks)
2. Reasoning Questions: (5X 3=15 Marks)
1) Treponema pallidum is an exception to Koch's postulates. Why?
2) Presence of lgM in foetus or in newbom indicate intrauterine infection why?
3) In occult filariasis, microfilaria are not detected in peripheral blood. Justify.
4) Heat sensitive material are sterilized by plasma sterilization why?
S) Waste in Red color bag is sent for recycling afRer treatment. Justify.
3. Applied Question. (4X 5=20 Marks)
1) A S6 year old female presented with fever, chills, and rigor for a duration of
four days. The patient developed convulsions prior to admission. He was
started on ceftriaxone by a private. On physical examination, muscle tone and
tendon reflexes were reduced. Anemia and splenomegaly were present. The
blood sample was collected for peripheral blood smear examination with
shared accole forms, multiple ring form and crescent shaped gametocytes in
side RBC. (1+1+3 Marks)
a) What is the etiology agent based on history?
b) Write briefly about life cycle of the etiology agent?
c) Write in brief about clinical manifestation and lab diagnosis?
2) 17 year old boy presented with bloody diarrhea with mucus and pus cell
colicky abdominal pain, fever and prostration. The well mount examination of
stool samples performed which showed trophozoites actively mobile with finger
like pseudopodia. (1+1+3 Marks)
a) What are etiological diagnosis?
b) Write clinical manifestationof above condition?
c) Write in brief' about lab diagnosis?

PTO
 3) A25-year -old maried woman presented to bospital with complaints of itchy
vaginal discharge for last one week. She had no fever, abdominal pain or
dysuria. She was on orallcontraceptive pills, hence, did not regularly use
condoms during intercourse. Her husband was asymptomatic. On cxaminaion,
no significant abnormality was found. On per speculum examination, a thin
yellow-green vaginal discharge was seen. Her cervix was erythematous but
without discharge. She had no cervical or uterine abnormality. Vaginal
discharge was collected and sent to the laboratory for direct microscopy. A wet
mount of vaginal discharge was prepated for direct microscopy. It showed
numerous motile, flagellated, pear-shaped organisms. (1+1+2+1 Marks)
a) What is the most likely causative agent of her vaginal
b) Name the causative agents of vaginal discharge. discharge?
c) Which laboratory test can be done to further identify the causative
d) Drug of chojce for
fo treatment of this organism?
infection?
4) A laboratory technician performed venipuncture on patient to
blood in a glass collect 10 ml of
container for performing investigations. He accidentally dropped
the glass container having blood specimen on the floor, while
laboratory. The container broke and blood spillage occurred overtransporting
the floor.
to the
a) How will you manage this blood spillage?
(5 Marks)
4. Short Notes
(S X S=25 Marks)
a) NACO guideline for post exposure prophylaxis for
b) Electron microscope HIV.
c) Free living amoeba.
d) Immunoglobulins
e) Write a note on how to instruct patients on sample
collection.

--00
Late Shri Lakhiram Agrawal Memorial Medical College Raigarn(C)
DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY
M.B.B.S 24d Year Pre University Examination (Batch -2023)Date 05-07-2025
Paper-11 Max. Marks: 20
Time: 30 Minutes
Note:
1. Answer the questions as directed.
(20 X 1=20 Marks)
1. MCQ
1) Chromoblastomycosis is caused by
1) Epidermophyton 2) Histoplasma
3) Fonsecaca 4) Penicillium
2) Zika virus is transmitted by?
I) Sandfly 2) Aedes mosquito
3) Culex mosquito 4) All of above
3) Which of the following virus called orphan virus
1) Polio virus 2) Coxsackie virus
3) Echo virus 4) Entero virus
4)Brush bordered appearance seen in which fungus
1) Penicillium species 2) Aspergillus species
3)Candida 4) Mucor rhizopus
5) What is causative agent of lymphogranuloma venereum
1)Chlamydia trachomatis serotype A to C
2) Chlamydia trachomatis serotype D to K
3) Chlamydia trachomatis serotype LË to Ls
4) Chlamydophila pneumonia
6) Which of the following slow virus disease occurs in human
1) Creutzfeldt-jakob disease 2) Kuru
3) gerstmann-straussler-scheinker syndrome 4) All of above
7) Example of dimorphic fungus all acce_t
1) Rhizopus 2) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
3) Penicillium marneffei 4) Tinea versicolor
8) Which of the following species of clostridium shows swarming on blood agar
2) Clostridium novyi
1)Clostridium perfringens
3) Clostridium tetant 4) Clostridium difficile
9) Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa is a characteristic feature of-.
1) Mumps 2) Measles
3) Rubella 4) RSV
10) Tube coagulase test detect
1) Free coagulase 2) Bound coagulase
3) Both of above 4) None of above
11) Trench fever is caused by
1) Bartonella bacilliformis 2) Bartonella quintana
3) Bartonella henselae 4) All of above
12) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is caused by
1)Chittoor virus 2) Nairobi sheep disease
3) Sin nombre virus 4) West nile virus
PTO
13) Medusa head appearance of colonies is a characterstic feature of -
1) Clostridium perfringens 2) Bacillus anthracis
3) Mycoplasma hominis 4) Ureaplasma urealyticum
14) Microconidia are absent in which of the following
dermatophytes
1) Trichophyton rubrum 2) Microsporum canis
3) Epidermophyton floccosum 4) None of above
15) Which of the following bacteria shows fried egg colony
1) Mycoplasma 2) Helicobacter
3) Burkholderia 4) Bordetella
16) The causative agent of Shanghai fever is
1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 2) Pseudomonas putida
3) Burkholderia mallei
4) Burkholderia pseudomallei
17) Who discovered prions
1) Carleton Gajdusek 2) StanleyB Prusiner
3) Sigurdsson 4) Kary mullis
18) Which of the following fungus is capsulated
1)Candida albican 2) Cryptococcus neoformans
3) Aspergillus fumigatus 4) None of above.
19) Serotyping of streptococcus pyogenes is based on which of the following
protein
1) Mprotein 2) T Protein
3) R protein 4) Carbohydrates antigen
20) The correct sequence of manifestation seen in
1) Fever-koplik spots-rash 2) Koplik spots-fever- rash
3) Rash-fever-koplik spots 4) Rash- koplik spots-fever

--00-
 Late Shri Lakhiram Agrawal Memorial Medical College Raigarn (C
DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY
M.B.B.S 2*d Year Pre University Examipation (Batch -2023)
Date 05-07-2025

Time: 02:30 Hrs.

Paper-II Max. Marks: 80
Note:
1. Answer the questions as directed.
2. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
1. Long Question
1. Enumerate Hepatitis Virus. Describe morphology clinical feature and
laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B Vius. (1+2+1+6 Marks)
2. Write etiology, clinical feature, laboratory diagnosis and post exposure
prophylaxis of Rabies. (1+2+3+4 Marks)
2. Reasoning Question:
1. Weil Felix reaction is an example of heterophile agglutination test justity.
2. Reverse CAMP test used or identification of clostridium perfringens.
3. UTI is more common in females why?
4. HIV test negative during window period why?
S. Cutaneous anthrax is also known as hide porters disease why?
3. Applied Question
1. A 2-year old boy presented to the emergency with an acute onset of high grade
fever, neck stiffness and altered sensorium for past 2 days. Microscopy
examination of the CSF showed gram positive lanceolate shaped diplococcie
surrounded by a halo white culture on blood agar showed alpha-haemolytic
small dome shaped colonies sensitive to optochin disk and negative catalase
test. (1+2+1+1 Marks)

1. Identify the clinical diagnosis and likely causative organism.

2. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of the organism.
3. Describe the antibiotic treatment for this organism.
4. Name the vaccine used for prevention of this clinical infection.
2 A 33-year old male taking immunosuppressant steroids for last two month for
treatment of dermatomyositis has developed multiple adherent patches on right
tonsil and posterior pharynx. These patches were causing mild burning
sensation which is accentuated while cating. Scrapping from these patches
revealed gram positive budding yeast cell with pseudohyphae on gram staining
and culture on SDA showed creamy white smooth colonies which showed
positive germ tube test. (1+1+3 Marks)
1. Write the clinical diagnosis and the causative agent.
2. Discuss the various other clinical manifestation caused by this
pathogen.
3. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of the pathogen.
 3
A 9- week old baby named Swecty was brought to the emergency room win
weakness in her right leg. On examination, her right leg appeared laccid and
no deep lendon reflex or Babinski reflex can be elicited, although sensation
was intact. The tone, movement, sensation, and reflexes of her other limbS
were normal. Her immunization records were up-to-date according to the
National Immunization Schedule of India, CSF demonstrates elevated protein
with normal glucose levels. Fecal sample was collected and then sent to the
referral center where the poliovirus is identified as a vaccine strain (not the
"wild-type" stain) of poliovirus type-l was isolated. (1+3+1 Marks)

1. What is the probable diagnosis of this clinical condition?

2. Add a note on the laboratory diagnosis.
3. Mention the types of vaccines available against this etiological agent.
4. A 25-year old male presented to STD clinic with a single, painless genital
ulcer of 12 days duration. He had a history of sexual exposure with a
commercial sex worker. On examination, the penile ulcer was hard and
indurated. The inguinal lymph nodes were enlarged, painless, firm and non
suppurative. On laboratory test VDRL test is positive and condyloma lata
is present on examination. (1+3+1 Marks)

I. What is presumptive clinical diagnosis?

2. Add a note on the laboratory diagnosis.
3. Name the organisms causing genital ulcers.
4. Short Note (5 X 5-25 Marks)
1. Non- Gonococcal urethritis.
2. Mucormycosis.
3. Viral replication for DNA and RNA viruses.
4. Bioterrorism
5. Describe briefly Beneficence pillar of bioethics

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