1.In ECG, what does a narrow QRS complex indicate?

​
- Ventricular rhythm​
- * Supraventricular rhythm​
- Ventricular hypertrophy​
- Bundle branch block

2.The interval between two successive P waves is referred to as:​

- * PP interval​
- QQ interval​
- RR interval​
- TT interval

3.Which lead on an ECG is considered the "heart's view from the left shoulder"?​
- Lead I​
- Lead II​
- Lead III​
- * aVL

4.Extrasystolic beats are typically followed by:​

- * A compensatory pause​
- An accelerated heart rate​
- A decreased heart rate​
- Constant heart rate

5.The ECG criterion for diagnosing left ventricular hypertrophy is:​

- * R wave in V1 + S wave in V5 or V6 > 35 mm​
- P wave amplitude > 2.5 mm in lead II​
- QT interval prolongation​
- PR interval > 200 ms

6.Third-degree (complete) heart block is characterized by:​

- P waves with a regular rhythm​
- QRS complexes with a regular rhythm​
- No relation between P waves and QRS complexes​
- * B and C

7.Proper lead placement for a 12-lead ECG requires the V1 electrode to be positioned at the:​
- * Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border​
- Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line​
- Second intercostal space, right sternal border​
- Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border

8.Lead aVR looks at the heart from which perspective?:​

- * Rightward and upward​
- Leftward and downward​
- Posterior and inferior​
- Anterior and superior

9.How much time does one small square on an ECG paper represent at the standard speed of 25 mm/s?​
- 0.02 seconds​
- * 0.04 seconds​
- 0.1 seconds​
- 0.2 seconds

10.A normal QT interval should be less than:​

- 1/3 of the RR interval​
- * 1/2 of the RR interval​
- 2/3 of the RR interval​
- Equal to the RR interval

11.The calibration mark on an ECG represents a voltage of:​

- 0.5 mV​
- * 1 mV​
- 1.5 mV​
- 2 mV

12.Tachycardia is defined on an ECG as a heart rate:​

- Less than 60 bpm​
- Between 60 and 100 bpm​
- * More than 100 bpm​
- Exactly 100 bpm

13.Signs of left atrial enlargement on an ECG include:​

- P wave duration longer than 0.12 seconds in lead II​
- Peaked P waves in leads II, III, and aVF​
- An inverted P wave in lead V1​
- * A and C

14.Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach) block is identified by:​

- A progressive shortening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped​
- A constant PR interval with occasional dropped beats​
- * Progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped​
- Prolonged PR intervals without dropped beats

15.Sinus bradycardia on an ECG is characterized by:​

- A heart rate less than 60 bpm​
- A heart rate more than 100 bpm​
- Regular P-P intervals​
- * A and C

16.When assessing for left axis deviation, which lead combination is most indicative?​
- * Positive QRS in lead I and negative in II​
- Negative QRS in lead I and positive in aVF​
- Positive QRS in both leads I and aVF​
- Negative QRS in both leads I and aVF

17.A prolonged PR interval (more than 0.2sec) on an ECG indicates:​

- A faster than normal heart rate​
- Premature atrial contractions​
- * First-degree atrioventricular block​
- Ventricular tachycardia

18.The definitive diagnostic tool for identifying Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia (PSVT) is:​
- Echocardiogram​
- * Electrocardiogram (ECG)​
- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the heart​
- Holter monitor

19.Which of the following conditions can affect the accuracy of an ECG recording?​
- Movement of the volunteer​
- Incorrect lead placement​
- Electrical interference​
- * All of the above

20.The ECG characteristic of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) is:​

- A compensatory pause following the PVC​
- Premature, wide, and bizarre QRS complexes​
- A prolonged PR interval before the PVC​
- * A and B

21.Which ECG feature indicates left ventricular hypertrophy?​

- * S wave depth in V1 plus R wave height in V5 or V6 exceeding 35 mm​
- P wave amplitude in lead II exceeding 2.5 mm​
- QRS duration less than 0.12 seconds​
- PR interval more than 200 ms

22.Which of the following is a sign of complete heart block on an ECG?​

- * Regularly spaced P waves without corresponding QRS complexes​
- Prolonged PR interval for all beats​
- Alternating short and long PR intervals​
- QRS complexes with a consistent morphology

23.A "delta wave" on an ECG is indicative of:​

- Atrial flutter​
- * Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome​
- Ventricular tachycardia​
- First-degree AV block

24.An electrical axis lying between +90° and +180° indicates:​

- Normal axis​
- Left axis deviation​
- * Right axis deviation​
- Extreme right axis deviation

25.The R-R interval on an ECG is used to determine the:​

- * Heart rate​
- Strength of the heart's electrical signal​
- Duration of ventricular depolarization​
- Presence of atrial fibrillation

26.Which wave in a normal ECG represents ventricular repolarization?​

- P wave​
- * T wave​
- Q wave​
- S wave

27.The ground (neutral) electrode in ECG placement is typically attached to:​

- The right arm​
- The left arm​
- The right leg​
- * Any of the above, as it does not record electrical activity

28.Ventricular tachycardia on an ECG is characterized by:​

- A heart rate of 100-120 bpm​
- * Wide QRS complexes at a rate of >100 bpm​
- Regular rhythm with narrow QRS complexes​
- P waves that occur more frequently than QRS complexes

29.On an ECG, evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy includes:​

- Deep Q waves in leads I and aVL​
- * Tall R waves in V1 or V2 and deep S waves in V5 or V6​
- P wave inversion in lead II d. PR interval prolongation​
- PR interval prolongation

30.A characteristic ECG finding in second-degree AV block, Mobitz Type I, is:​

- Constant PR intervals before a dropped QRS complex​
- * Gradually lengthening PR intervals before a dropped QRS complex​
- Absence of P waves​
- Premature QRS complexes

31.ECG signs of a sinus tachycardia include:​

- * Heart rate greater than 100 bpm with regular rhythm​
- Heart rate less than 60 bpm with irregular rhythm​
- P waves preceding each QRS complex with a variable PR interval​
- QRS duration greater than 0.12 seconds

32.For determining the heart's electrical axis, which of the following is not true?​
- Normal axis is between -30° and +90°​
- Left axis deviation is less than -30°​
- Right axis deviation is more than +90°​
- * Extreme axis deviation is between 0° and -90°

33.188. In ECG, what does a narrow QRS complex indicate?​

- Ventricular rhythm​
- * Supraventricular rhythm​
- Ventricular hypertrophy​
- Bundle branch block

34.The normal range for heart rate as seen on an ECG is:​

- 50-70 bpm​
- * 60-80/100 bpm​
- 70-110 bpm​
- 80-120 bpm
35.When recording an ECG, the correct position for the chest lead V1 is:​
- * At the fourth intercostal space, right sternal border​
- At the second intercostal space, right sternal border​
- At the fourth intercostal space, left sternal border​
- At the second intercostal space, left sternal border

36.An additional (abnormal) AV conduction pathway connecting the right atrium with the common trunk of bundle of His is due
to the presence of:​
- the Kent bundle;​
- the Maheim bundle;​
- the James bundle;​
- * the bundle of Breshenmache;​
- the bundle Bachmann.

37.A sign of WPW syndrome is:​

- the presence of a delta wave of a permanent or transient nature as part of the QRS complex;​
- a history of recurrent paroxysmal tachycardia;​
- a history of atrioventricular blockages;​
- electric axis of type SI-SII-SIII;​
- * correct A, B.

38.In case of right bundle branch block, the QRS complex in the leads V1 and V2 have the form:​
- rS or rs;​
- rsR' or rSR';​
- rR';​
- qRs;​
- * correct B, C.

39.The magnitude and speed of the morning rise in blood pressure during daily monitoring is measured over the period:​
- from the moment of waking up to 10 a.m.;​
- from 6 o'clock to 10 o'clock in the morning;​
- * from 4 o'clock to 10 o'clock in the morning;​
- from 4 o'clock until the moment of awakening;​
- from 6 o'clock to 8 o'clock in the morning.

40.The V class of prognostic gradation of ventricular extrasystole according to B. Lown includes:​

- single monomorphic ventricular extrasystoles (less than 30 per hour);​
- frequent monomorphic ventricular extrasystoles (more than 30 per hour);​
- paroxysm of unstable ventricular tachycardia (3 or more consecutive ventricular ectopic complexes);​
- * early ventricular extrasystoles type of R on T;​
- paired and polymorphic ventricular extrasystoles.

41.The normal width of the QRS complex is:​

- 0.06-0.08 s;​
- 0.04-0.06 s;​
- * 0.06-0.10 s;​
- 0.08-0.12 s;​
- 0.12-0.14 s.

42.ECG - signs of blockade of the posterior facicular of left bundle branch:​

- left axis deviation (more than -30 degrees), the usual shape and duration of ventricular complexes;​
- left axis deviation, widened and deformed QRS complexes;​
- * right axis deviation ( more than +120 degrees), normal ventricular complexes;​
- right axis deviation. M-shaped widened ventricular complexes in leads VI,2;​
- widened deformed ventricular complexes: in lead V1.2, QS type of complex in V5.6,

43.The most common ratio of P wave in standard leads is as follows:​

- PI > PIII > PIII;​
- * PII>PI>PIII;​
- PIII>PII>RI;​
- PI>PII> RIII;​
- PI = PII = PIII

44.What are the signs of an ECG in case of pacemaker malfunction?​

- no discharges of the pacemaker;​
- absence of ventricular complexes after the artifact - "exitblock";​
- frequent drainage and pseudo-drainage ventricular complexes;​
- the appearance of pacemaker tachycardia​
- * all of the above is true

45.Frederick's syndrome is a combination of...​

- WPW syndrome and complete atrioventricular block;​
- * atrial fibrillation or flutter and III degree AV block;​
- AV blockage and blockage of the left bundle branch;​
- atrial fibrillation and intraventricular block;​
- CLC syndrome and atrial flutter.

46.The ability of heart cells to transmit excitation to neighboring cells is called:​

- batmotropy;​
- * dromotropy;​
- inotropy;​
- chronotropy.

47.The ability of the heart to produce electrical impulses in the absence of external stimuls is called:​
- * automatism;​
- excitability;​
- contractility;​
- Conductivity.

48.The rate of propagation of the excitation wave through the atrial myocardium is:​
- 0.2 m/sec;​
- 0.5 m/sec;​
- * 1 m/sec;​
- 4 m/sec.

49.The anterior facicular of left bundle branch supplies its fibers to the left ventricle:​
- posterior wall​
- lower parts of the lateral wall;​
- * anterior and lateral walls;​
- only lateral wall.

50.Normally, the duration of the P wave is:​

- 0.1 – 0.2 sec;​
- 0.2 – 0.25 sec;​
- more than 0.25 sec;​
- * up to 0.1 sec.

51.ECG signs of hyperkalemia are usually:​

- prolongation of the P-Q interval;​
- broadening of the QRS complex;​
- decreased atrial activity;​
- high pointed T;​
- * all answers are correct.

52.ECG signs of AV dissociation are:​

- PP interval > RR interval;​
- the ventricular rhythm does not depend on the atrial;​
- P wave of various shapes;​
- QRS complexes are sharply deformed;​
- * correct answers A, B.

53.The greatest importance for the diagnosis of combined hypertrophy of both atria is:​
- * ECG in lead V1: (P ±), an increase in the excitation vectors of the right and left atria at the same time;​
- the Macruz index is greater than 1.6;​
- the Macruz index is less than 1.1;​
- an increase in the duration of the P wave in all leads;​
- high, Gothic P wave in all leads.

54.The duration of QT segment is normal:​

- 0.54-0.64 s;​
- 0.62-0.74 s;​
- * 0.36-0.45 s for men and 0.37-0.46 s for women;​
- 0.24-0.29 s;​
- 0.5-0.55 s.
55.Which of the following are signs of distal complete AV blocks?​
- independent rhythm of the atria and ventricles, heart rate of more than 40 beats / min. Ventricular complexes of the usual form;​
- * independent rhythm of the atria and ventricles, heart rate less than 40 beats / min. Ventricular complexes are enlarged,
deformed;​
- an independent rhythm of the atria and ventricles, the frequency of atrial contraction is less than the frequency of ventricular
contraction. Usual form QRS complexes;​
- the rhythm of the atria is associated with the rhythm of the ventricles, the heart rate is less than 30 beats / min. Usual form QRS
complexes ;​
- the rhythm of the atria is associated with the rhythm of the ventricles, the heart rate is less than 40 beats / min. QRS complexes
are broadened and deformed.

56.Sinus node arrest should be differentiated from:​

- blocked atrial extrasystole;​
- atrioventricular block;​
- sinus arrhythmia;​
- Frederick's syndrome;​
- * sinoauricular blockade.

57.What is the width of the QRS complex on the ECG in ventricular Paroxysmal tachycardia?​
- less than 0.12 s;​
- * 0.12-0.16 s;​
- 0.08 s;​
- 0.09-0.10 s;​
- up to 0.10 s.

58.What are the typical ECG signs of left atrial hypertrophy:​

- the duration of the p-wave is not more than 0.1 s;​
- the duration of the P wave is more than 0.1 s;​
- high-amplitude P wave in III lead ;​
- the P wave in leads I, aVL, V5 is "double-humped", in V1 there is a deep negative phase; e) correctly B, D.​
- * correctly B, D.

59.An episode of ventricular tachycardia on an ECG is characterized by:​

- * 3 or more ventricular ectopic complexes with a heart rate of 100 or more beats per minute are recorded consecutively;​
- 2 or more ventricular extrasystoles are registered consecutively nsecutively e) there is no correct answer​
- 6 or more ventricular ectopic complexes are recorded consecutively.​
- 10 or more ventricular ectopic complexes are registered consecutively​
- there is no correct answer

60.The duration of the Q-T interval depends on:​

- age;​
- heart rate;​
- gender;​
- growth;​
- * correct A, B, C.

61.Which of the listed ECG signs are characteristic of pacemaker lead migration:​
- stable interval P-Q(R);​
- * gradual, from cycle to cycle, change in the shape and polarity of the P wave;​
- pronounced fluctuations in the duration of the R-R(P-P) intervals;​
- all answers are correct;​
- all answers are false.

62.What is the width of the QRS complex on the ECG in atrial paroxysmal tachycardia?​
- 0.12 s or more;​
- 0.18-0.2 s;​
- * equal to or less than 0.1 s;​
- 0.12-0.14 s; e) 0.14-0.16 s.

63.For what purpose the transesophageal electrocardiostimulator is not used?​

- to assess the function of automatism of the sinus node;​
- to find the genesis of paroxysmal atrioventricular tachycardia;​
- for therapeutic purposes;​
- for the purpose of diagnosing coronary heart disease;​
- * for the purpose of preventing rhythm disturbances.
64.What shape of the P wave is characteristic of atrial paroxysmal tachycardia?​
- the P wave is positive;​
- the P wave is negative;​
- biphasic P wave;​
- * answers a, b, c;​
- the P wave is absent.

65.Which of the following are ECG signs of SA block II degree, type I?​
- gradual prolongation of the P-P interval without loss of the PQRST complex;​
- gradual shortening of the P–P interval without loss of the PQRST complex;​
- * gradual shortening of the PP interval with loss of the atrioventricular complex. The pause includes a distance less than 2 R–R;​
- gradual lengthening of the PP interval with loss of the atrioventricular complex;​
- equal P-P intervals with sudden loss of the atrioventricular complex.

66.The center of third-order automaticity produces electrical impulses with a frequency​

- 15 – 24 per minute;​
- * 25 – 39 per minute;​
- 40–59 per minute;​
- 60 – 90 per minute.

67.The ability of the heart to be excited under the effect of impulses is called:​
- automaticity;​
- excitability;​
- conductivity;​
- * contractility.

68.The rate of propagation of the excitation wave through the ventricular myocardium is:​
- 0.2 m/sec;​
- * 0.5 m/sec;​
- 1 m/sec;​
- 4 m/sec.

69.The highest QRS in standard lead III (RIII>RII>RI) corresponds to:​

- horizontal axis​
- normal axis;​
- left axis deviation;​
- * right axis deviation

70.Normal duration of the P-Q(R) interval is:​

- a) 0.08 – 0.12 sec;​
- b) 0.1 – 0.2 sec;​
- * c) 0.12 – 0.18 sec;​
- d) 0.15 – 0.22 sec.

71.The most accessible measurement of blood oxygen saturation in patients is:​

- * carrying out pulse oximetry;​
- fluorography of the chest organs;​
- blood sampling from the central vein for blood gases;​
- chest x-ray.

72.The goals of pulse oximetry are:​

- * assessment of the severity of hypoxemia;​
- detection of pneumonia;​
- identification of acute heart failure.​
- all answers are correct.

73.A functional sign of restrictive disorders is a decrease in:​

- * VC;​
- FEV1/VC;​
- FEV1;​
- FEV1/FVC;

74.A functional method for studying the respiratory system, which includes measuring volumetric and speed indicators of
respiration, is:​
- * spirometry;​
- veloergometry;​
- a study of the diffusion capacity of the lungs;​
- pulse oximetry;
75.Spirometry allows you to measure:​
- the diffusion capacity of the lungs;​
- * vital capacity of the lungs;​
- total lung capacity;​
- residual lung volume;

76.Spirometry is recommended:​
- at any time of the day;​
- * in the morning;​
- in the afternoon;​
- exclusively during the period of remission of the disease;

77.The reserve expiratory volume is:​

- the maximum volume that can be exhaled after the usual calm inhalation;​
- * the maximum volume that can be exhaled after a normal calm exhalation;​
- the maximum volume that can be exhaled after a full inhalation;​
- the volume of inhaled and exhaled air with calm breathing;

78.Inspiratory reserve volume is:​

- the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a deep exhalation;​
- * the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal calm breath;​
- the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal calm exhalation;​
- the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a normal calm inhalation;

79.Contraindication for spirometry:​

- a history of pneumothorax;​
- * acute myocardial infarction during the last 1 week;​
- pneumonia;​
- tracheostomy.

80.With a moderate severity of obstructive pulmonary ventilation, FEV1 is:​

- 35-49%;​
- 50-59%;​
- * 60-69%;​
- less than 35%;

81.In severe obstructive ventilation disorders, FEV1 is:​

- * 35-49%;​
- 50-59%​
- more than70%;​
- less than 35%;

82.In case of moderate severity of obstructive ventilation disorders, FEV1 is:​

- 35-49%;​
- * 50-59%;​
- more than 70%;​
- less than 35%.

83.When preparing a patient for spirometry, it is recommended to refrain from performing vigorous physical exercises before
testing:​
- * within 1 hour;​
- within 2 hours;​
- within 30 minutes;​
- within 3 hours.

84.When preparing for spirometry, one should refrain from smoking and/or vaping and/ or using a hookah:​
- * within 1 hour before testing;​
- within 1.5 hours before testing;​
- within 12 hours before testing;​
- within 2 hours before testing;

85.With a mild severity of obstructive pulmonary ventilation disorders, FEV1 is:​

- 35-49%;​
- 50-59%;​
- * more than 70%;​
- less than 35%.
86.In extremely severe obstructive ventilation disorders, FEV1 is:​
- 35-49%;​
- 50-59%;​
- more than70%;​
- * less than 35%.

87.Indicators of spirometry may be less than the lower limit of the norm in the general population in:​
- 1.5% of healthy people;​
- 10% of healthy people;​
- 2.5% of healthy people;​
- * 5% of healthy people.

88.Indications for spirometry:​

- a history of syncope, sudden seizures associated with coughing or forced breathing;​
- the presence of pneumothorax at the time of planning the study;​
- * assessment of the effect of the disease on lung function;​
- all answers are correct.

89.The parameters of the respiratory system function depend on:​

- by weight;​
- * from age;​
- from waist size;​
- all answers are correct.

90.One of the main parameters in the interpretation of spirometry is:​

- the diffusion capacity of the lungs;​
- tidal volume;​
- * forced expiratory volume in the first second;​
- inspiratory reserve volume;

91.One of the quality criteria for spirometry measurements is forced expiratory time:​
- 10 seconds or more;​
- 12 seconds or more;​
- * more than 15 seconds;​
- less than 10 seconds;

92.Human lung capacity reaches its maximum values at age:​

- 15-19 years old;​
- * 20-25 years old;​
- 26-35 years old;​
- 36-40 years old;

93.Obstructive ventilation disorders according to spirometry date are typical for:​

- * bronchial asthma;​
- laryngospasm;​
- pneumonia;​
- tracheitis;

94.It is most preferable to present the results of spirometry in the form:​

- time-expiratory flow loops;​
- volume- time loops;​
- * flow-volume loops;​
- expiratory and inspiratory velocity loops.

95.The most reproducible indicator of spirometry is:​

- tidal volume;​
- vital capacity of the lungs;​
- * forced expiratory volume in the first second;​
- forced vital capacity of the lungs.

96.A maneuver is considered reproducible if the difference between FVC or FEV1 in the 2 best maneuvers does not exceed:​
- 120ml;​
- * 150ml;​
- 200ml;​
- 70ml;

97.The key point in the conclusion about the presence of obstructive pulmonary ventilation disorders is to reduce:​
- VC.​
- FEV1.​
- * FEV1/FVC.​
- FVC.

98.Relative contraindications associated with cardiovascular diseases include the following reasons for spirometry:​
- cerebral aneurysm;​
- * decompensated heart failure;​
- brain surgery within the previous 4 weeks;​
- complicated pregnancy or late pregnancy.

99.The conclusion about obstructive disorders according to spirometry data is made on the basis of changes in the following
indicators:​
- a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs and the volume of forced expiration in 1 sec;​
- a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs and the rate of forced expiration;​
- * a decrease in the Tiffno index with a normal value of the vital capacity of the lungs;​
- a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs with a normal value of the Tiffno index;

100.The conclusion about restrictive disorders according to spirometry data is made on the basis of changes in the following
indicators:​
- a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs and the Tiffno index (FEV/VC*100%);​
- * a decrease in the vital capacity of the lungs with a normal value of the Tiffeneau index;​
- a decrease in the Tiffeneau index with a normal value of the vital capacity of the lungs;​
- a decrease in the volume of forced expiration in 1 second at a normal value of the vital capacity of the lungs.

101.For a technically acceptable FVC maneuver in adult patients, the back-extrapolation volume should be less than:​
- 10%​
- 12%​
- 15%​
- * 5%

102.The range of normal values of spirometry indicators is determined:​

- 75% confidence interval.​
- 80% confidence interval​
- 85% confidence interval​
- * 90% confidence interval.

103.Much of the variability in spirometry results is related to:​

- with a young age of the patient;​
- putting the clip on the nose;​
- with a sharp exhalation;​
- * with premature cessation of exhalation.

104.The T wave can normally be negative in the leads:​

- I, II, avF;​
- I-III;​
- * III, avL, V1;​
- V3-V4.

105.Posterior diaphragmatic myocardial infarction is recorded in leads:​

- * I, II, avL, V1-V3;​
- II, III, avF;​
- V1-V6;​
- V5, V6;

106.Myocardial infarction without Q is characterized by changes:​

- T wave;​
- P wave;​
- the QRS complex;​
- * S-T segment;

107.Depression of the RS segment in tachycardia is considered a normal variant if it:​

- horizontal;​
- oblique ascending;​
- * oblique;​
- all answers are correct;

108.The amplitude of the Q wave is normal:​

- 1mm;​
- 1/2 R;​
- 5mm;​
- * no more than 1/4 R;

109.According to ultrasound criteria, a homogeneous plaque is:​

- * the plaque is homogeneous in structure;​
- a plaque with hemorrhage;​
- a plaque with ulceration.​
- all answers are correct

110.Turbulent flow develops in vessels with:​

- normal lumen​
- narrowing less than 60% of the lumen.​
- * narrowing of more than 60% of the lumen.​
- all answers are correct.

111.The thickness of the walls of the left ventricle with a high degree of hypertrophy is:​
- 10-12 mm​
- 12-14 mm​
- 14-16 mm​
- * more than 20 mm

112.The thickness of the walls of the left ventricle in severe hypertrophy is:​
- 10-12 mm​
- 12-14 mm​
- 14-16 mm​
- * 16-20 mm

113.The wall thickness of the left ventricle with moderate hypertrophy is:​
- 10-12 mm​
- 12-14 mm​
- * 14-16 mm​
- 16-20 mm

114.The thickness of the walls of the left ventricle in small hypertrophy is:​
- 10-12 mm​
- * 12-14 mm​
- 14-16 mm​
- 16-20 mm

115.Elevation of the RS-T segment up to 2 mm is possible normally in the leads:​

- I-III;​
- * V1-V3;​
- V4-V6;​
- aVR, aVL, aVF.

116.ECG sign of transmural myocardial infarction:​

- Q is not present, ST is above the isoline, T (-);​
- Q pathological, ST above the isoline, (-) T;​
- T high coronary;​
- * pathological complex QS.

117.ECG sign of acute subepicardial myocardial infarction:​

- Q is not present, ST is above the isoline, T (-);​
- * Q pathological, R of small amplitude, ST above the isoline;​
- T coronary;​
- displacement of the ST segment.

118.ECG sign of acute intramural myocardial infarction:​

- Q is not present, ST is above the isoline, T (-);​
- Q pathological, ST above the isoline, (-)T;​
- * T deep coronary;​
- horizontal displacement of the ST segment downward.

119.Segment RS-T is normal in limb leads:​

- can be displaced upward no more than 2 mm;​
- can be shifted down no more than 2mm;​
- is located on the isoline;​
- * is shifted relative to the isoline (+-) 0.5 mm.

120.Segment RS-T is normal in leads V5-V6:​

- can be displaced upward no more than 2 mm;​
- can be shifted down no more than 2mm;​
- is located on the isoline;​
- * is shifted relative to the isoline (+-) 0.5 mm

121.Segment RS-T is normal in leads V1-V3:​

- * can be displaced upward no more than 2 mm;​
- can be displaced downward no more then 2mm;​
- is located on the isoline;​
- is displaced relative to the isoline (+-) 0.5mm.

122.Reciprocal depression of the RS-T segment in leads II, III, aVF is characteristic of heart attack:​
- side wall;​
- * high lateral;​
- back;​
- anterior septal.

123.Reciprocal horizontal depression of the RS-T segment in leads V1- V3 is characteristic of the heart attack:​
- lateral;​
- high lateral;​
- * posterior;​
- anterior septal.

124.Widespread posterior myocardial infarction is recorded in leads:​

- I, II, avL, avF, V1-V3;​
- I, avL;​
- I, avL, V1-V6;​
- * II, III, avF, V5, V6, V7-V9.

125.In transmural myocardial infarction, the necrosis zone is localized:​

- in the endocardium;​
- in the epicardium;​
- inside the myocardium;​
- * in all three layers.

126.With subepicardial myocardial infarction, the necrosis zone is localized in:​

- in the endocardium;​
- * in the epicardium;​
- inside the myocardium;​
- in all three layers.

127.With subepicardial ischemia, the T wave:​

- high;​
- * deep;​
- isoelectric;​
- corresponds to the norm.

128.With subendocardial ischemia, the T wave:​

- * high;​
- deep;​
- isoelectric;​
- low-amplitude;

129.With intramural myocardial infarction, the necrosis zone is localized in:​

- in the endocardium;​
- in the epicardium;​
- * inside the myocardium;​
- in all three layers.

130.Anterior septal myocardial infarction is recorded in the leads:​

- III, avF;​
- * V1-V3;​
- V5-V6;​
- V7-V8.
131.Anterolateral myocardial infarction is recorded in the leads:​
- * I, avL, V5, V6;​
- III, avR;​
- V3, V4;​
- V7, V8;

132.On the ECG, pathological Q, ST on the isoline, coronary deep T wave during the period:​
- the sharpest;​
- acute;​
- * subacute;​
- cicatricial.

133.On the ECG, the QS complex, ST segment elevation, negative T wave during the period:​
- the sharpest;​
- * acute;​
- subacute;​
- cicatricial.

134.The ECG shows a high coronary T wave, ST elevation during:​

- * sharpest;​
- acute;​
- subacute;​
- cicatricial.

135.On the ECG, ST is recorded on the isoline, T (+), Q pathological during the period:​
- the most acute stage;​
- acute stage;​
- subacute stage;​
- * cicatricial stage.

136.Any Q wave is considered abnormal in lead:​

- III;​
- * V2;​
- aVL;​
- aVR;

137.Criteria for myocardial infarction:​

- diffuse T wave inversion;​
- T waves are wide, asymmetrical and deep;​
- * pathological Q wave and ST segment elevation;​
- all answers are correct.

138.QS complex is recorded in case of myocardial infarction:​

- intramural;​
- subendocardial;​
- subepicardial;​
- * transmural

139.Myocardial infarction without Q includes:​

- * intramural;​
- subepicardial;​
- transmural;​
- all answers are correct.

140.Myocardial ischemia on the ECG is characterized by changes:​

- * T wave;​
- PQ interval;​
- the QRS complex;​
- ST segment.

141.Ischemic damage on the ECG is characterized by changes:​

- * T wave;​
- PQ interval;​
- the QRS complex;​
- P wave.

142.The T wave is always positive in the leads:​

- * I, II, avF, V2-V6;​
- II, avL;​
- avR;​
- in all;

143.The T wave is always negative in the lead:​

- III;​
- V1;​
- aVL;​
- * aVF;

144.The T wave can normally be negative in the leads:​

- I, II, avF;​
- I, III;​
- * III, avL, V1;​
- V3-V6.

145.Posterior diaphragmatic myocardial infarction is recorded in the leads:​

- * I, II, avL, avF, V1-V3;​
- II, III, avF;​
- V1- V6;​
- V5-V6.

146.Myocardial infarction without Q is characterized by changes:​

- P wave;​
- * T wave;​
- QRS complex;​
- all answers are correct.

147.Depression of the RS-T segment with tachycardia is considered a normal variant if it:​
- horizontal;​
- * oblique ascending;​
- oblique descending;​
- all answers are correct.

148.Amplitude of the Q wave is normal:​

- 1mm​
- 1/2 R;​
- 5mm;​
- * no more than 1/4 R.

149.Echocardiographic signs of dilated cardiomyopathy are:​

- dilatation of all chambers of the heart.​
- diffuse violation of contractility.​
- an increase in the distance from the peak of the E-point of the maximum diastolic opening to interventricular septum.​
- * everything is true

150.Wall thickness of the left ventricular myocardium in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy:​
- increased​
- increased or normal​
- reduced​
- * decreased or normal

151.The ejection fraction index in dilated cardiomyopathy is:​

- 70%​
- 50%​
- 30%​
- * less than 50%

152.When transversely scanning the area of the hilum of the kidney from the abdomen at the top of the scan rendered:​
- renal artery;​
- the ureter;​
- * renal vein;​
- renal pelvis;

153.In the parenchymal section of the kidney, one can visualize:​

- cups of the first order;​
- * pyramids;​
- cups of the second order;​
- segmental arteries;

154.With an increase in the echogenicity of the renal sinus, talk about the compaction of the calyceral structures:​
- it is possible​
- * it is impossible;​
- it is possible if there is a history of chronic pyelonephritis;​
- if there is a history of chronic glomerulonephritis;

155.Echogenicity of the renal cortex is normal:​

- below the echogenicity of the medulla;​
- comparable to the echogenicity of the medulla;​
- * higher echogenicity of the medulla;​
- comparable to the echogenicity of sinus tissue;

156.At the top of the scan during longitudinal transabdominal scanning, it is visualized:​
- the upper pole of the kidney;​
- * the lower pole of the kidney;​
- the gate of the kidney;​
- anterior lip of the kidney;

157.The shadow of the twelfth rib crosses the right kidney at the level:​
- the gate of the kidney;​
- * the border of the upper and middle third of the kidney;​
- the border of the middle and lower third of the kidney;​
- at the upper pole;

158.The kidneys are located:​

- in the upper floor of the abdominal cavity;​
- in the middle floor of the abdominal cavity;​
- * retroperitoneally;​
- in the lateral canals of the abdominal cavity;

159.The speed of propagation of ultrasound in solids is higher than in liquids, because they have great:​
- Density;​
- * Elasticity;​
- Viscosity;​
- Acoustic resistance;

160.The speed of propagation of ultrasound increases if:​

- The density of the medium increases;​
- The density of the medium decreases;​
- The elasticity increases;​
- * Density decreases, elasticity increases.

161.The acoustic variable is:​

- * Frequency;​
- Pressure;​
- Speed;​
- Period;

162.Ultrasound is a sound whose frequency is not lower:​

- 15 kHz;​
- * 20,000 Hz;​
- 1 MHz;​
- 30 Hz;

163.The patient has pathological Q in II, III and aVF leads, ST elevation by 3 mm, negative T. One can assume the presence of
myocardial infarction, which is most likely is old:​
- Day​
- * 2-3 days​
- 2 weeks.​
- More than 2 weeks.

164.A reliable sign of ischemic heart disease on resting ECG is:​

- 1 mm ST depression in multiple leads.​
- The presence of a negative T wave in several leads.​
- Frequent polytopic ventricular premature beats.​
- * The presence of an abnormal Q wave.

165.Criteria for a positive bicycle ergometric test in the diagnosis of coronary heart disease most reliable is:​
- Occurrence of paroxysm of ventricular tachycardia.​
- * Horizontal depression of the ST segment in one or more leads of 1 mm or more.​
- Development of syncope.​
- The appearance of shortness of breath.

166.The most characteristic sign of blockade of the posterior branch of the left bundle branch is:​
- Deviation of the electrical axis to the right.​
- * Sharp deviation of the electric axis to the right.​
- Expansion of the QRS complex> 0.10 ".​
- Deformation of the QRS complex.

167.The most characteristic sign of blockade of the anterior branch of the left bundle branch is:​
- * Sharp deviation of the electric axis to the left.​
- Deviation of the electrical axis to the right.​
- Deformation of the QRS complex.​
- Expansion of the QRS complex> 0.10 ".

168.For AV block II of the Mobitz type II, it is characteristic:​

- * The constancy of the PQ interval and the presence of a pause in the excitation of the ventricles, the duration of which is equal
to 2 normal PP distances or a multiple of them.​
- Prolongation of the PQ interval with subsequent prolapse of the ventricular complex and the presence of a pause in the
excitation of the ventricles, the duration of which is equal to 2 normal PP distances​
- Shortening of the PQ interval, followed by the prolapse of the ventricular complex and the presence of a pause in the excitation
of the ventricles, the duration of which is equal to 2 normal PP distances or a multiple of them.​
- all answers are correct.

169.Sinoatrial block 2: 1 on the ECG looks like:​

- * Sinus bradycardia.​
- Sinus arrhythmia.​
- Extrasystole from the upper part of the atrium by the type of bigeminy.​
- Each of the listed options is possible.

170.With sinoatrial blockade 3: 2:​

- 3 impulses arise in the sinus node, 2 of them are blocked in the sinoatrial zone.​
- * 3 impulses occur in the sinus node, of which 2 are conducted to the atrium.​
- 3 impulses arise in the sinus node, 3 are conducted on the ventricle (conducted sinus and slip pulses).​
- all answers are correct.

171.With sinoatrial blockade of the II degree according to the Mobitz I type, the most characteristic is:​
- Extension of the PP interval before the loss of the PQRST complex.​
- The PP interval does not change, the PQRST complex suddenly drops out.​
- all answers are correct.​
- * Shortening of the PP interval before the loss of the PQRST complex.

172.Signs of the WPW phenomenon are:​

- * Shorter PQ interval and delta wave presence.​
- Normal PQ interval and delta wave presence.​
- long PQ interval and delta wave presence.​
- all answers are correct.

173.F-waves in atrial fibrillation are more commonly seen in:​

- II, III and aVF leads.​
- * V1-2 leads.​
- V4-6 leads.​
- I, aVL leads.

174.Atrial flutter is most difficult to differentiate from:​

- Ventricular flutter.​
- Paroxysmal antidromic tachycardia in WPW syndrome.​
- Nodular paroxysmal tachycardia.​
- * Atrial tachycardia with grade II AV block.

175.The hemodynamic significance of the extrasystole is determined using:​

- electrocardiography.​
- * echocardiography.​
- holter monitoring.​
- angiography

176.For extrasystoles from the AVN connection, it is characteristic​

- The presence of a full compensatory pause.​
- Usually widened QRS complex.​
- * Absence of the P wave in front of the QRS complex.​
- The presence of a full compensatory pause.

177.The most common sign of ectopic rhythm from the lower right atrium is:​
- * The presence of an inverted P wave in front of the QRS complex in II, III, aVF leads.​
- Widening of the R.​
- Increase in the amplitude of the P wave.​
- Increase the PP interval.

178.With sinus arrhythmia, the R-R ECG intervals have a spread of at least:​
- 50ms​
- 100ms​
- * 160ms​
- 200ms

179.For an ECG with right atrial hypertrophy, it is not typical:​

- Negative P wave in aVL.​
- * Increase in the negative phase of the P wave in lead V1.​
- Increase in the positive phase of the P wave in lead V1.​
- Increase in the amplitude of the P wave by more than 2.5 mm in leads II, III and aVF.​
- Smoothed P wave in lead I.

180.High pointed ("spiky") T waves are characteristic of:​

- * Hyperkalemia.​
- Hypokalemia.​
- Hypercalcemia.​
- Hypocalcemia.

181.For the ectopic rhythm from the left atrium, registration of negative teeth P:​
- * In lead II, III, aVF.​
- In lead aVR.​
- In lead V1-3.​
- In lead V1.

182.For the syndrome of early repolarization of the ventricles, registration on ECG:​

- ST segment depression.​
- * Elevation of the ST segment.​
- High-amplitude R waves.​
- Deep pointed S.

183.In patients with blockade of the left leg of the Hisa, the appearance of S waves in leads V5-6 is a sign of myocardial
infarction:​
- Anterior septal localization.​
- lower localization.​
- * lateral localization.​
- Back wall.

184.In patients with blockade of the left leg of the Hisa, the appearance of Q waves in leads V5-6 is a sign of myocardial
infarction:​
- * Anterior septal localization.​
- lower localization.​
- lateral localization.​
- Back wall.

185.The appearance of QS complexes is most typical for myocardial infarction:​

- * Anterior septal localization.​
- lower localization.​
- lateral localization.​
- Back wall.
186.In anterior-lateral myocardial infarction, characteristic ECG changes are noted in the leads:​
- II, III, aVF.​
- V1-V4.​
- * I, aVL, V5-V6.​
- V1-2.

187.With myocardial infarction of lower localization, characteristic ECG changes are noted in the leads:​
- I and II.​
- * II, III, aVF.​
- V1-V2.​
- V-5-V6.

188.For the acute stage of large-focal myocardial infarction, the most specific is ECG registration:​
- T wave inversion and ST segment elevation.​
- * Combinations of abnormal Q wave, ST segment elevation and negative T wave.​
- An increase in the amplitude of the T wave and no changes in the QRS complex.​
- T wave inversion.

189.With orthodromic paroxysmal tachycardia, the ECG registers:​

- Wide QRS complexes, clear rhythm with a frequency of 180-250 beats. in min.​
- * Narrow QRS complexes, clear rhythm with a frequency of 180-250 beats. in min.​
- Narrow QRS complexes, arrhythmia with a frequency of 100-120 beats. in min.​
- Narrow QRS complexes, arrhythmia with a frequency of 100-140 beats. in min.

190.The main ECG sign of macrofocal myocardial infarction is the appearance of:​
- T wave inversion.​
- elevation of the ST segment.​
- ST segment depression.​
- * pathological Q wave.

191.The variant of right ventricular hypertrophy of the RSR type is most typical for patients with:​
- mitral stenosis.​
- mitral insufficiency.​
- * atrial septal defect.​
- defect of the interventricular septum.

192.Discordant ST segment and T wave displacement in left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by:​
- Heart failure due to hypertrophy.​
- Focal changes in the myocardium.​
- * Secondary changes in repolarization due to hypertrophy.​
- Disorders of contractile function.

193.Voltage criterion of left ventricular hypertrophy (Sokolov-Lyon index) an increase in the total amplitude of the R waves (in
lead V5 or V6) and S (in lead V1 or V2) is considered more than:​
- 20mm​
- 25mm​
- 30mm​
- * 35mm

194.ST segment depression in lead V5-6 is characteristic of hypertrophy::​

- Left atrium​
- Right atrium.​
- * Left ventricle.​
- Right ventricle.

195.With atrioventricular block of the 3rd degree, the escape rhythm with wide QRS complexes suggests the development of the
blockade:​
- At the level of the AV node.​
- At the level of the bundle of His.​
- At the level of the branches of the bundle of His.​
- * At any level.

196.Patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome most often have:​

- Atrial fibrillation.​
- * Paroxysmal atrioventricular tachycardia.​
- Ventricular tachycardia.​
- Atrioventricular block.
197.Transition zone (amplitude R=S) usually corresponds to:​
- Leads V1-V2.​
- * Leads V3-V4.​
- Lead V5.​
- Lead V6.

198.35 monopolar chest ECG leads should be used:​

- To clarify the nature of the violation of intraventricular conduction.​
- If you suspect a right ventricular infarction.​
- * To determine the extent of the lesion in anterior myocardial infarction.​
- To determine the extent of the lesion in inferior diaphragmatic myocardial

199.In the six-axis system of leads (Bailey), the axis of the II lead is located:​
- At an angle of -30 degrees.​
- At an angle of +30 degrees.​
- * At an angle of +60 degrees.​
- At an angle of -60 degrees.

200.In a six-axis system of leads (Bailey), the axis of lead aVL is located:​
- Horizontally.​
- Vertically.​
- * At an angle of +30 degrees.​
- At an angle of -30 degrees.​
- At an angle of +60 degrees.

201.In a six-axix system of leads (Bailey), the I-axis is located:​

- * Horizontal.​
- Vertically.​
- At an angle of +30 degrees.​
- At an angle of +60 degrees.

202.An IHD patient has an ECG in the from of a small-and large -wave lines. Name a possible rhythm disturbance.​
- Atrial fibrillation.​
- * Flicker of the ventricles.​
- Atrial flutter.​
- Ventricular flutter.​
- Artificial pacemaker.

203.In what case is there no differentiation of all teeth on the ECG?​

- Atrial fibrillation.​
- Atrial flutter.​
- Ventricular flutter.​
- * Ventricular fibrillation.​
- Artificial pacemaker.

204.At what rhythm is the isoelectric P wave absent or recorded on the ECG?​
- Sinus arrhythmia.​
- Migration of the pacemaker.​
- Idioventricular rhythm.​
- Atrial premature beats.​
- * Upper nodal rhythm.

205.On the ECG, a negative P wave is recorded. What is your ECG conclusion?​
- Sinus rhythm.​
- * Atrial rhythm.​
- Idioventricular rhythm.​
- Nodal rhythm.​
- Artificial pacemaker.

206.The main ECG sign of ventricular flutter:​

- Tachycardia-bradicardia syndrome.​
- Alternation of differentshapes, amplitudes and polarities of the P wave.​
- Absence of a natural connection between the P wave and the QRS complex.​
- Disappearance of the P wave.​
- * The ECG looks like a sinusoid.

207.The main ECG sign of sick sinus syndrome:​

- * Tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome.​
- Alternation of differentshapes, amplitudes and polarities of the P wave.​
- Absence of a natural connection between the P wave and the QRS complex.​
- Disappearance of the P wave.​
- The ECG looks like a sinusoid.

208.The main ECG sign of pacemaker migration:​

- Different amplitude of QRS complexes.​
- * Alternation of differentshapes, amplitudes and polarities of the P wave.​
- Absence of a natural connection between the P wave and the QRS complex.​
- Tachycardia- bradycardia syndrome.​
- Changing the polarity of the P wave.

209.The main ECG sign of atrial fibrillation (atrial fibrillation):​

- * the disappearance of the P wave.​
- The appearance of "sawtooth" f-waves with a frequency of 250-400 per minute.​
- maintaining the correct sinus rhythm.​
- Sudden start and end.​
- Lack of differentiation of all teeth.

210.The main ECG sign of bigeminia:​

- * The appearance of every second extrasystole.​
- The appearance of two monotopic extrasystoles.​
- The appearance of two paired extrasystoles.​
- Alternation of different extrasystoles.​
- The regularity of the appearance of extrasystole.

211.The main ECG sign of ventricular extrasystole:​

- Absence of a regular connection between the P wave and the QRS complex.​
- Premature excitement (QRS complex)​
- * Deformation and expansion of the QRS complex (> 0.12 s).​
- Shortening the interval P-P.​
- There is no compensatory pause or incomplete.

212.The main ECG sign of allorhythmia:​

- Maintaining the correct sinus rhythm.​
- Maintaining sinus rhythm.​
- Absence of a natural connection between the P wave and the QRS complex.​
- Tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome.​
- * The regularity of the appearance of extrasystole.

213.ECG sign of paroxysmal tachycardia:​

- Disappearance of the P wave.​
- Appearance of "sawtooth" f-waves with a frequency of 250-400 per minute.​
- Maintaining the correct sinus rhythm.​
- * Sudden beginning and end.​
- Lack of differentiation of all teeth.

214.ECG sign of the nodal rhythm:​

- * Keeping the rhythm right.​
- Maintaining sinus rhythm.​
- Absent regular connection of the P wave and the QRS complex.​
- Tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome.​
- Change in positivity and polarity of the P wave.

215.Name the ECG sign of sinus tachycardia:​

- * Heart rate =90-160 (180) per minute.​
- Heart rate <60 (59–40) per minute.​
- "sawtooth" f-waves with a frequency of 250-400 per minute.​
- Heart rate =140-220 per minute.​
- Heart rate =200-300 per minute.

216.What ECG sign characterizes sinus arrhythmia?​

- Increase in heart rate during physical activity.​
- Reduction of heart rate at rest.​
- Dependence of heart rate on the state of the myocardium.​
- Increase in heart rate during exhalation.​
- * Change in heart rate depending on the phases of breathing.
217.ECG sign of sinus rhythm:​
- Heart rate =90-100 per minute.​
- * Heart rate =60-80 per minute.​
- Heart rate =80=100 per minute.​
- Heart rate =60-90 per minute.​
- Heart rate =40-60 per minute.

218.What type of arrhythmia indicates a violation of automatism?​

- Extrasystole.​
- Atrial fibrillation.​
- Paroxysmal tachycardia.​
- * Pacemaker migration.​
- Bigeminia.

219.What ECG interval is used to determine the heart rate activities?​

- P-Q.​
- QRS.​
- QRST.​
- * R-R.​
- P-P.

220.In what part of the myocardial conduction system does an excitation pulse normally occur?​
- * Sinus node.​
- AB connections.​
- Left pedicle of the bundle of His.​
- Right pedicle of the bundle of His.​
- Purkinje fibers.