14/08/2024 Code-B_Phase-2

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Work, Energy & Power, System of Particles & Rotational Motion
Chemistry: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Botany: Biological Classification
Zoology: Breathing & Exchange of Gases-II: (Upto disorders), Body Fluids & Circulation
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10
questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. A ball is projected from ground with some speed at an 3. A particle is moving along a straight line from point P to
angle from the horizontal. The power of force of gravity for
point Q with position vector ˆ
(2 î + 3 ĵ + 5k)m and
the ball during journey is
(1) Positive ˆ ˆ ˆ
(3 i + 4 j + 5k) m respectively. If the force acting on the
(2) Negative →
particle is F
ˆ
, then the work done by
= (5 î + 6 ĵ + 7k) N
(3) Initially positive and finally negative
this force is
(4) Initially negative and finally positive
(1) 15 J
2. A particle is performing circular motion with decreasing
speed. If force on particle is F and velocity at instant is v, (2) 11 J
then
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(3) 25 J
(1) →
→ (4) Zero
F ⋅ v = 0

→ 4. A body of mass m is attached to a vertical spring having

(2) →
F ⋅ v > 0 spring constant k and is allowed to fall under the gravity.
The maximum expansion in the spring will be
→
(3) →
F ⋅ v < 0
(1) mg/k
→
(4) F
→
⋅ v ≥ 0
(2) 2mg/k
mg
(3) 2k

(4) Zero

1
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

5. Three rings each of mass m and radius r are so placed 9. Two particles of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors
that they touch each other as shown in the figure. The 2 i + 3 j + 4 k and
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
−2 i + 3 j − 4 k respectively. The
moment of inertia of the system about the axis OO′ is centre of mass has a position vector

(1) ˆ ˆ ˆ
i + 3 j − 2k

(2) ˆ
− î − 3 ĵ − 2k

(3) ˆ
− î + 3 ĵ + 2k

(4) ˆ
− î + 3 ĵ − 2k

10. Two blocks A and B of same mass are released from top
of two different smooth inclined planes as shown in
figure. If the height of both the inclined planes is same,
then the work done by gravity, by the time both blocks
reach the bottom of respective inclines, is
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(1) 5mr2

(2) 5

7
mr
2

(3) 7mr2

(4) 7

2
mr
2

6. A wheel with an initial angular speed ω0 rad/s attains the

(1) Same for both blocks
angular speed 5 ω0 rad/s uniformly after turning through
angle of 6 radian. The angular acceleration is (2) Greater for block A
2 (3) Greater for block B
(1) ω
0
rad/s
2
2
(4) Negative for both blocks
(2) 2 ω rad/s 2 2
11. The centre of mass of a body
0

(1) Always lies at its geometrical centre

(3) 4ω
2
rad/s
2
0
(2) Always lies inside the body
(4) Zero
(3) Always lies outside the body
7. Three point masses each of mass ‘m’ are placed at the
(4) May lie within or outside the body
corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. The moment of
inertia of this system, about one of the side of triangle is 12. If the angular momentum of a rotating body increases by
3%, keeping its angular velocity constant, then
(1) ma2
percentage change in its moment of inertia is
(2) 2

3
ma
2
(1) It decreases by 3%
(2) It increases by 3%
(3) 3

4
ma
2

(3) It decreases by 6%
(4) 1
ma
2

3 (4) It increases by 6%
8. A spring of spring constant K=100 N/m is stretched by an 13. For a particle moving with a constant velocity, the angular
amount of 10 cm. The restoring force developed in the momentum w.r.t a given point
spring is
(1) 10 N
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(1) Remains constant CC-674
(2) Increases with time
(2) 100 N
(3) Decreases with time
(3) 1000 N
(4) May increase or decrease with time
(4) 1 N
14. A small stone of mass 50 g is rotated in a vertical circle of
radius 40 cm. What is the minimum tension in the string at
the lowest point. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 6 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 3 N
(4) 1.5 N

2
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

15. A particle A of mass m is moving with velocity v0 collides 21. A couple acting on a body produces
elastically with an identical particle B at rest. After (1) Pure translational motion
collision velocity of particle B will be
(2) Pure rotational motion
(1) v0
(3) Both translational and rotational motion
v0
(2) 2 (4) No motion
(3) 2 v0 22. rd

Moment of inertia of a spinning object drops to (

1
) of
(4) Zero 3

its initial value. The ratio of new rotational kinetic energy

16. A constant torque of 1000 Nm starts turning a wheel of to initial rotational kinetic energy is (Assume net external
moment of inertia 200 kgm2 initially at rest about an fixed torque about the axis of rotation is zero)
axis through its centre. Its angular velocity after 2 s from (1) 1 : 3
start will become
(2) 3 : 1
(1) 1 rad/s
CC-674 CC-674 (3) 3CC-674
:2 CC-674
(2) 5 rad/s
(4) 2 : 3
(3) 10 rad/s
23. Two uniform rods of mass 'm' and length ‘l’ form a cross,
(4) 15 rad/s
moment of inertia of cross about an axis parallel to CD
17. The coefficient of restitution can be defined as and passing through A is

Velocity of approach
(1)
Velocity of separation

Velocity of separation
(2)
Velocity of approach

(3) Velocity of separation – Velocity of approach

(4) Velocity of separation + Velocity of approach 2

(1) 7ml

12
18. A body of mass 1 kg is moving with velocity
2

ˆ ˆ
(4 i + 3 j ) m/s which changes to ˆ ˆ
(−6 i + 2k) m/s, by a (2) ml

force. The work done by the force in changing the velocity

(3)
2
ml

is 12

(1) 6 J (4) ml
2

(2) 7.5 J
24. A ball is dropped from 100 m and it rebounds to a height
(3) 10 J of 70 m. The percentage loss of energy is
(4) 12.5 J (1) 30%
19. A ball (m = 1 kg) is dropped from height 20 m. If (2) 70%
coefficient of a restitution in 0.9, the impulse imparted to
the ground (by the ball) is (3) 60%

(1) 38 N s (4) 10%

(2) 40 N s 25. A particle is moving along a circle of radius 50 cm, with a

linear velocity of 4 m/s. The angular velocity of the particle
(3) 57 N s is
(4) 81 N s CC-674 CC-674 (1) 4CC-674
rad/s CC-674
20. The distance of COM of a system consisting of two (2) 5 rad/s
particles of masses 2 kg and 6 kg, separated by 5 m, from
2 kg mass is (3) 8 rad/s

(1) 6 m (4) 10 rad/s

(2) 15

4
m

(3) 15

2
m

(4) 5

4
m

3
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

26. A ball is moving on a smooth horizontal surface with 30. The velocity-position graph for a particle of mass 2 kg is
as shown in the figure. The power delivered to the
velocity ˆ ˆ
(2 i + 2 j ) , strikes a smooth wall in (y - z) plane.
particle at x = 2 m will be
The coefficient of restitution between ball and wall is
(
1

2
) . The velocity of ball, just after it hits the wall is

(1) î – ĵ

(2) ˆ ˆ
– i + 2j

(3) – î – 2 ĵ

(4) ˆ ˆ
2i– j

27. A light and a heavy body are moving with same kinetic
energy. Same retarding force is applied on the both
bodies. If SA and SB are their respective stopping (1) – 4W
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
distance, then (2) –14 W
(1) SA > SB (3) 10 W
(2) SA < SB (4) –8 W

(3) SA = SB 31. Initially the spring is relaxed. If the mass m is allowed to

displace slowly and then released, then the elongation
(4) Data insufficient produced in the spring is
28. A force ^ ^ ^
(5 i + 7 j − 3k)Nacts on a particle at position
^ ^ ^
( i + j − k)m . Find torque of this force on the particle about
origin.

(1) ^ ^ ^
(10 i − 8 j + 12k)N m

(2) ^ ^ ^
(4 i − 2 j + 2k)N m
mg
(1) 4k

(3) ^ ^ ^
(−4 i + 2 j − 2k)N m mg
(2) 2k

(4) ^ ^ ^
(4 i + 2 j + 2k)N m (3)
mg

29. In a system of two colliding bodies, there is no loss of (4) 2mg

k
kinetic energy of system in
32. Moment of inertia of uniform disc of mass M and radius R
(1) Inelastic collision
about an axis which is the diameter, would be
(2) Perfectly inelastic collision
(1) MR2
(3) Perfectly elastic collosion
(2)
2
2M R

(4) Both (1) and (2) 3

(3) MR

(4) MR

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

33. A force F = (2 + 2x) N acts on a particle in positive x-
direction. Increase in kinetic energy of block when it
moves from x = 0 to x = 1 m is {x is measured in meter}
(1) 1 J
(2) 3 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 6 J

4
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

34. Potential energy of a particle (in J) at position x is given

by U = x2 – 10x. Force on the particle at x = 0 is (x is in m
and F is in N)
(1) 10 N
(2) 0 N
(3) 2.5 N
(4) 7 N

35. Two balls, one of mass m and other of mass 2m are

moving towards each other with respective speeds of 10
m/s and 20 m/s on a smooth horizontal floor. If after
collision, they stick to each other and move as combined
mass (perfectly inelastic collision), then the speed of
combined mass will be
(1) 20 m/s CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 50 m/s

SECTION-B

36. The moment of inertia about hinge axis of a wheel of 40. → →

–
Magnitude of vector product of A and B is √3 times
radius 20 cm is 40 kg m2. If a tangential force of 100 N is
than their scalar product. Then angle between vectors is
applied on rim of the wheel. Then its angular acceleration
will be (1)
π

(1) 1 rad/s2 (2)

π

(2) 1

2
rad/s2 (3) π

(3) 2 rad/s2 (4)

π

(4) 4 rad/s2 41. The force versus displacement graph of a moving object
is given below. The total work done by the force on the
37. The coefficient of restitution depends upon object is
(1) The relative velocity of approach and separation
(2) The mass of colliding bodies
(3) The materials of colliding bodies
(4) All of these
38. Statement A: Work done by non conservative force is
path independent.
Statement B: Energy is scalar quantity but power is a
vector quantity.

CC-674
(1) A and B are correct CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(2) A and B are incorrect
(1) 50 J
(3) A is correct and B is incorrect
(2) 25 J
(4) A is incorrect and B is correct
(3) –50 J
39. Work done by conservative forces acting on body is (4) –25 J
always equal to
(1) Negative of change in potential energy
(2) Magnitude of change in potential energy
(3) Change in kinetic energy
(4) Change in mechanical energy

5
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

42. In the given system, the work done by gravity on mass of 45. A disc rotates about an axis through its centre O and
12 kg just before hitting the ground will be [g = 10 m/s2] perpendicular to plane with angular speed ω. The ratio of
angular speeds of particles A, B and C, respectively as
shown in figure below is

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

(1) 240 J
(2) 120 J
(1) 1 : 4 : 3
(3) 20 J
(2) 3 : 1 : 4
(4) 80 J
(3) 1 : 1 : 1
43. The radius of gyration of a uniform solid sphere of radius r
about a tangential axis is (4) 1 : 3 : 4
46. The net work done by a force acting along x-axis, when
(1) 2
r
3 displacement is along y-axis is
−
−
(2) √
2
r
(1) Positive
5

(2) Negative
−
−
(3) √
5

3
r (3) Zero
−
− (4) Can’t be determined
(4) √
7

5
r
47. The average work done by a human heart while it beats
44. A ball of mass 100 g is thrown in vertically upward once is 0.6 joule. The power used by the heart if it beats
direction with velocity 20 m/s. The increase in potential 72 times in a minute is
energy of the ball when it reaches at the maximum height (1) 0.72 W
is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(2) 0.6 W
(1) 1 J
(3) 0.5 W
(2) 20 J
(4) 0.4 W
(3) 10 J
48. If the equation for the angular displacement of a particle
(4) 100 J moving on a circular path is given by θ = (2t + 0.5) rad.
3

Find the particle's angular velocity at t = 2 sec.

(1) 8 rad/sec
(2) 12 rad/sec
(3) 24 rad/sec
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(4) 36 rad/sec CC-674

6
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

49. Power delivered to a particle varies with the time as P =

(2t + 3)W, where t is time in second. The change in kinetic
energy between time t = 0 s to t = 2 s will be
(1) 20 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 15 J

50. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a smooth horizontal

surface. Two forces F1 = 20 N and F2 = 10 N start acting
on the block in opposite direction as shown in the figure.
If block get displaced by 10 m in the direction of net force,
then work done by F1 will be

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

(1) – 50 J
(2) – 150 J
(3) + 200 J
(4) + 75 J

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. Correct covalent bond length order in C – C, O – H, C – 53. Match molecules in List-I with hybridisation of central
O & C – H is atom in List-II, and choose the correct match.
(1) C – C > C – O > C – H > O - H List-I List-II
a. BCl3 (i) sp2
(2) C – C > C – H > O – H > C – O
b. SiCl4 (ii) sp3d
(3) C – O > C – C > O – H > C – H
(4) C – H > O - H > C – C > C – O c. SF4 (iii) sp3d2
d. BrF5 (iv) sp3
52. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are
coplanar?
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(1)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(2) 54. Correct order of bond length in O2 , O

+
,
−
O is
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
2 2

(1) O
+
2
< O2 < O
−
2

(2) O
−
2
< O2 < O
+
2
(3)
(3) O
−

2
< O
+

2
< O2

(4) O2 < O
+ −
< O
(4) 2 2

7
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

55. Number of σ bonds and π bonds respectively, in 62. 4 3 1

2
Naphthalene are In the hydrocarbon, CH − CH = C = CH , the state of
3 2

(1) 18, 5 hybridisation of carbon atoms 1, 2 and 4 respectively are

(2) 19, 5 (1) sp2, sp, sp3

(3) 19, 6 (2) sp2, sp2, sp3
(4) 18, 6
(3) sp, sp, sp3
56. Species which does not exist is
(4) sp2, sp, sp2
(1) H2
63. The formal charge on the central oxygen atom in O3
(2) He2 molecule is
(3) (1) +1
(2) –1
(4) CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(3) 0
57. The molecule having largest bond length is (4) +2
(1) H2 64. Intramolecular hydrogen bond is present in

(2) I2

(3) F2

(4) N2
(1)
58. In CCl4, the maximum number of atoms in a plane is

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2
(2)
59. According to valence bond theory, bond angle in CH4 is

(1) 107 °
(2) 109 ° 28'
(3) 180 °
(3)
(4) 120 °

60. In the formation of O from the O –, the last electron is

2 2
removed from which one of the following orbitals?
(1) σ*
(2) π*
(3) σ (4)

(4) π

CC-674
61. The most covalent halide is CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(1) AlF3
65. Expanded octet is observed in
(2) AlBr3
(1) CH4
(3) AlI3
(2) AlCl3
(4) AlCl3
(3) SF6

(4) NH3

8
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

66. Isostructural pair among the following is 73. Which among the following is bent shape molecule?

(1) ClF3 and PCl3 (1) H2O

(2) SF4 and

⊕ (2) NH3
N H4

(3) BF3
(3) SO3 and BCl3
(4) BeCl2
(4) PCl3F2 and BrF5
74. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
67. In which of the following species the highest occupied Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
molecular orbital is σ*? Assertion (A): NaNO3 is an ionic compound.
(1) N2 Reason (R): There is no covalent bond in NaNO3.
In the light of above statements choose the most
(2) C2 appropriate answer from options given below
(3) −
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
O
2
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) He
+
2
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
68. Which of the following molecules has trigonal pyramidal not the correct explanation of the assertion
shape? (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1) SO3 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(2) PCl5 75. The species which contains co-ordinate bond is
(3) NH3 (1) NH
+

(4) XeOF4 (2) O2

69. Incorrect statement is (3) H2O
H2O2 molecule contains both polar and non-polar (4) CH4
(1)
bonds
76. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
XeO4 contains equal number of σ bonds and π bonds
(2) Assertion (A) other is labelled as Reason (R)
and all the 'π' bonds are pπ – dπ bonds Assertion (A) : B—F bond in BF3 is polar.
(3) Number of 109°28′ angles in CH4 are six Reason (R) : Dipole moment of BF3 is zero.
In the light of above statements choose the correct
(4) In PCl5 molecules all ‘P-Cl’ bond length are equal answer
70. Shape of XeO2F2 is Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) Tetrahedral
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2) Square pyramidal (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) See-saw (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) T-shaped (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
71. If X-axis is taken as internuclear axis then π-bond is not 77. Select the correct order of polarising power of cation.
formed during the overlapping of
(1) +4
Si
+3
< Al < Mg
+2
< Na
+

(1) px and px orbitals

(2) Na
+
< Mg
+2
< Al
+3 +4
< Si
(2) py and py orbitals
CC-674 CC-674 (3) CC-674
Na
+
< Mg
+2 +4
< Si
+3
< Al CC-674
(3) pz and pzorbitals
(4) +3 +4 +2 +

(4) pyand dxy orbitals

Al < Si < Mg < Na

78. Percentage s character in sp3d hybridization is

72. Out of N2O, SO2, H2O, C2H2 and I
+
, the linear species
3

are (1) 16%

(1) N2O, I3+ (2) 20%

(3) 25%
(2) H2O, C2H2
(4) 33%
(3) SO2, N2O, I3+

(4) N2O, C2H2

9
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

79. Carbon–Carbon bond order in benzene is 83. Which of the following molecules has an odd electron?
(1) 2.0 (1) H2O
(2) 1.5 (2) CH4
(3) 1.0
(3) NH3
(4) 2.5
(4) NO
80. Which among the following is a paramagnetic species?
84. Correct order of stability is
(1) O
2−
2
(1) N
+

2
> N
−

2
> N2

(2) C2
(2) N2 > N
−
2
> N
+
2

(3) O2

(3) N2 > N
+
> N
−

(4) N2
2 2

(4) − +

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

N > N2 > N
81. Select the species which has maximum number of lone 2 2

pair on its central atom.

85. Correct order of dipole moment is
(1) XeF6 (1) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
(2) SO3 (2) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
(3) ICI
−
4 (3) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O
(4) PO
3−

4 (4) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4

82. According to MOT, C2 molecule has

(1) One σ and one π bond

(2) Only two π bonds
(3) Only two σ bonds
(4) One σ and two π bonds

SECTION-B

86. The correct shape and hybridisation for XeO3 are 88. Which one is most viscous?

(1) Trigonal planar, sp3

(1)
(2) Trigonal pyramidal, sp3

(3) Square planar, dsp2

(2)
(4) Trigonal planar, sp2

87. Species which does not contain σ bond is

(1) N2
(3)
(2) F2

(3) B2 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

(4) CH3–OH
(4) Li2 89. The bond order of ‘Cl – O’ bond in −
C lO is
4

(1) 1.5
(2) 2
(3) 1.75
(4) 1.25

10
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

90. Correct order of bond length of C–O bond in CO2, 97. Which of the following diagram represents negative
overlapping?
CO and CO is
2−

(1) CO > CO2 > CO

2−
3 (1)

(2) CO2 > CO > CO

2−
3

(3) CO
2−
3
> CO2 > CO

(4) 2−
> CO > CO2 (2)
CO
3

91. Number of anti-bonding electrons in a F2 molecule is

(1) 8
(2) 6 (3)
(3) 2 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(4) 4

92. All the given species have at least one bond angle of
180°, except

(1) PCl5 (4)

(2) SF6

(3) XeF2

(4) CCl4
98. Maximum polarizability is shown by
93. Which of the following compounds does not contain
(1) N3–
electrovalent bond?
(1) NaF (2) O2–

(2) CaF2 (3) C4–

(3) NF3 (4) F–
(4) MgF2 99. 90° bond angle(s) present in the molecule BrF3 is
94. How many bond angles of 90° are present in trigonal (1) 1
bipyramidal shape of PCl5?
(2) 3
(1) 9
(3) Zero
(2) 6
(4) 5
(3) 4
100.Bond length of H-X is 0.94 Å and observed dipole
(4) 3 moment of H-X is 1.8 D, then % of ionic character of H-X
is
95. CN– and N are isoelectronic but in contrast to CN– ion,
2
(1) 21.2%
N2 is chemically inert, because of
(2) 62.3 %
(1) Low bond energy
(3) 39.9 %
(2) Absence of bond polarity
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(4) 78.4% CC-674
(3) Unsymmertical electron distribution
Presence of fourteen electrons in bonding molecular
(4)
orbitals

96. The triple bond in ethyne is made up of

(1) 3σ bonds
(2) 3π bonds
(3) 1σ and 2π bonds
(4) 2σ and 1π bond

11
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101.Amoeboid protozoans differ from all other protozoans in 108.Match the following columns and select the correct
option.
(1) Using cilia for locomotion
Column I Column II
(2) Having two types of nuclei a. Ustilago (i) Zygospores
(3) Using pseudopodia for capturing prey b. Claviceps (ii) Basidiospores
(4) Having flagella for movement c. Mucor (iii) Conidia
CC-674 CC-674 d. CC-674
Trichoderma (iv) CC-674
Ascospores
102.All _____ are obligate parasites
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Fungi
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Animals
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Viruses
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(4) Protists
109.The phycobiont partner of lichens
103.Which one is rust fungi?
(1) Provides shelter
(1) Ustilago
(2) Is autotrophic
(2) Puccinia
(3) Absorbs mineral nutrients from the soil
(3) Alternaria
(4) Provides protection
(4) Saccharomyces
110.Which of the following belongs to the group of the most
104.The fungus called bread mould is
ancient organism having oxygenic photosynthesis?
(1) Mucor
(1) Chlorobium
(2) Rhizopus
(2) Anabaena
(3) Penicillium
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Yeast
(4) Halophiles
105.Which among the following is not a member of
111. Cyanobacteria are neither
Deuteromycetes?
(1) Saprotrophic nor parasitic
(1) Alternaria
(2) Colonial nor filamentous
(2) Colletotrichum
(3) Aquatic nor terrestrial
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Freshwater forms nor marine forms
(4) Claviceps
112.Viruses that infect bacteria usually have
106.Viroids
(1) Single stranded RNA
(1) Are infectious proteins
(2) Double stranded RNA
CC-674
(2) Have capsid as outer covering CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(3) Double stranded DNA
(3) Were discovered by T.O. Diener
(4) Single stranded DNA
(4) Are viruses with ssDNA
113.Select the incorrect statement about dinoflagellates.
107.Archaebacteria can survive in extreme conditions due to
(1) They are eukaryotes
(1) Distinct mode of nutrition
(2) The cell wall has stiff cellulosic plates
(2) Distinct cell type
(3) Gonyaulax is a red dinoflagellate
(3) Difference in cell wall composition
(4) Most of them have single flagellum
(4) Distinct mode of reproduction

12
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

114.In Agaricus, karyogamy and meiosis take place in 122.Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding
Chrysophytes?
(1) Ascus
(1) They include both diatoms and desmids
(2) Basidium
They are microscopic and float passively in water
(3) Zygospore (2)
current
(4) Basidiospore (3) They belong to kingdom Protista
115.The causative agent of potato spindle tuber disease is (4) Most of them are heterotrophs
(1) Virus 123.Loose tissue body organisation is characteristic feature of
(2) Prion
(3) Viroid (1) Monera
(4) Lichen (2) Protista

116.According to R.H. Whittaker, which character is absent in (3) Fungi

CC-674
kingdom Animalia CC-674
but present in kingdom Plantae? CC-674 CC-674
(4) Plantae
(1) Eukaryotic cell types 124.The scientist who called the extract of infected tobacco
(2) Cell wall plant as Contagium vivum fluidum was

(3) Nuclear membrane (1) D.J. Ivanowsky

(4) Tissue body organisation (2) Pasteur

117.Most notorious protozoan causing malaria is (3) W.M. Stanley

(1) Trypanosoma (4) M.W. Beijerinek

(2) Paramoecium 125.Nostoc lacks

(3) Amoeba (1) Heterocysts

(4) Plasmodium (2) Gelatinous sheath

118.Mark the wrong one about methanogens. (3) Photosynthetic pigments

(1) Found in marshy habitats (4) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition

(2) Capable of converting CH4 into CO2 126.Aristotle classified the animals on the basis of

(3) Present in the guts of ruminant animals (1) Morphological characters

(4) Belong to Archaebacteria (2) Phylogenetic relationships

(3) Natural affinities among them
119.On the basis of five kingdom system of classification,
Chlorella and Amoeba belong to kingdom (4) Absence or presence of red blood
(1) Monera 127.Morels and truffles
(2) Plantae and Animalia respectively (1) Are the members of Ascomycetes
(3) Protista (2) Are non-edible
(4) Plantae and Protista respectively (3) Only reproduce by asexual reproduction
120.Read the following statements and select the correct (4) Reproduce by basidiospores
option.
Statement A: All protozoans are heterotrophs. 128.Red tide of the sea is caused due to excessive growth of
Statement B: Protozoans are believed to be primitive (1) Blue green algae
CC-674
relatives of animals. CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(2) Gonyaulax
(1) Only statement A is correct
(3) Red algae
(2) Only statement B is correct
(4) Volvox
(3) Both statements are incorrect
129.All of the following are true about Mycoplasma, except
(4) Both statements are correct
(1) Has simple structure
121.Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between
(2) Smallest organism
(1) Roots of higher plants and algae
(3) Completely lack a cell wall
(2) Roots of higher plants and fungi
(4) Cannot survive without oxygen
(3) Algae and fungi
(4) Cyanobacteria and fungi

13
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

130.Select the correct statement which represents ‘A’ and ‘B’ 132.Two kingdom system of classification proposed by
w.r.t the given diagram. Linnaeus distinguishes between
(1) Eukaroytes and prokaryotes
(2) Unicellular and multicellular organisms
(3) Plants and animals
(4) Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms

133.A common feature between members of kingdom Fungi

and Plantae is
(1) Being autotrophic
(2) Presence of cell wall
(3) Composition of cell wall
(1) ‘A’ has PS II activities
CC-674
(2) ‘A’ is specialised CC-674
cell in which nitrogen fixation occurs CC-674
(4) Absence of nuclear membrane CC-674
(3) ‘B’ is heterocyst 134.Mark the correct statement for Albugo.

(4) ‘B’ generates ATP (1) Causes white rust in members of Brassicaceae
(2) Commonly called sac fungi
131.Who for the first time scientifically classified organisms
into groups? (3) Shows dikaryophase.
(1) Linnaeus (4) Mycelium is coenocytic and septate
(2) Aristotle 135.Dikaryophase is seen during the sexual reproduction of
(3) Haeckel (1) Mushroom
(4) Whittaker (2) Alternaria
(3) Albugo
(4) Mucor

SECTION-B

136.Heterotrophic bacteria are involved in all of the below 139.Feature common between diatoms and dinoflagellates is
given processes, except that both
(1) Nitrification of ammonia to nitrate (1) Float passively on water current
(2) Production of antibiotics (2) Have cell wall embedded with silica
(3) Making of curd from milk (3) Have heterokont flagella
(4) Nitrogen fixation in legume roots (4) Are aquatic and photosynthetic organisms.

137.Slime moulds 140.Which of the following is not an asexual spore?

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(1) Are multicellular organisms (1) Zoospore
(2) Form plasmodium under unfavourable conditions (2) Sporangiospore
(3) Are saprophytic fungi (3) Zygospore
(4) Produce spores which possess true walls (4) Conidium

138.Regarding the shapes, bacilli and vibrio bacteria are 141.Capsomeres

respectively
(1) Are subunits of nucleic acid
(1) Rod-shaped and comma-shaped
(2) Surrounds the protein coat
(2) Spherical and rod-shaped
(3) Are never arranged in helical form
(3) Spherical and comma-shaped
(4) Protects the nucleic acid
(4) Spiral and rod-shaped

14
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

142.Fungi growing on cow dung are called 146.Which fungus is used extensively in biochemical and
genetic work?
(1) Xylophilous
(1) Agaricus
(2) Corticolous
(2) Neurospora
(3) Coprophilous
(3) Morels
(4) Epixylic
(4) Trichoderma
143.Mark True (T) or False (F) for the statements given below.
I. Only the sexual phases of imperfect fungi are known. 147.Read the following statements and select the correct
II. The mycelium is septate and branched in option.
Deuteromycetes. Statement A : Bacteria as a group show most extensive
III. Members of Deuteromycetes help in mineral cycling. metabolic diversity.
I II III Statement B : Bacteria have simple behaviour but very
complex structure.
(1) T T F
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) F T T
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(2) Only statement B is correct
CC-674
(3) F F T
(4) T F F (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(1) (1)
148.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cyanobacteria.
(2) (2)
(1) They often form blooms in non-polluted water bodies
(3) (3)
They are characterised by the presence of a rigid cell
(4) (4) (2)
wall
144.Which of the following groups of protozoans has silica (3) Have chlorophyll a similar to green plants
shells in some of their forms?
Colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous
(1) Sporozoan (4)
sheath
(2) Amoeboid 149.The group of fungi which lack sex organs but perform
(3) Ciliated sexual reproduction belong to class

(4) Flagellated (1) Phycomycetes

145.Basidiospores are (2) Ascomycetes

(1) Endogenous meiospores (3) Basidiomycetes

(2) Endogenous mitospores (4) Deuteromycetes

(3) Exogenous mitospores 150.The protozoan which causes sleeping sickness is a/an

(4) Exogenous meiospores (1) Sporozoan

(2) Ciliated protozoan
(3) Flagellated protozoan
(4) Amoeboid protozoan

ZOOLOGY

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

SECTION-A

151.In response to foreign antigens, the body’s defense 152.The circulatory system in which blood pumped by heart is
mechanism produces antibodies which are always circulated through a closed network of blood
vessels is called
(1) Modified polysaccharides
(1) Open circulatory system
(2) Globulins in blood plasma
(2) Closed circulatory system
(3) Phospholipids in blood plasma
(3) Canal system
(4) Globulins contained in RBCs
(4) Water vascular system

15
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

153.The semilunar valves associates with the right and left 160.The artery differs from vein in
ventricles, respectively guard the openings of
(1) Presence of valves
(1) Aorta and pulmonary artery
(2) Narrow lumen
(2) Aorta and pulmonary vein
(3) Thin tunica media
(3) Pulmonary vein and aorta
(4) Less blood pressure
(4) Pulmonary artery and aorta
161.Incomplete double circulation is present in
154.If the cardiac output of a person is about 6.3 litres/minute
(1) Crocodile
and his stroke volume is 70 mL, then heart rate of the
person will be (2) Parrot
(1) 100/minute (3) Horse
(2) 90/minute (4) Snake
(3) 80/minute 162.Human heart is
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(4) 70/minute (1) Neurogenic
155.Which among the following set of WBCs, is phagocytic in (2) Myogenic
nature?
(3) Three-chambered
(1) Monocytes and Basophils
(4) Completely venous
(2) Neutrophils and Monocytes
163.Assertion (A): In humans, left ventricle has the thickest
(3) Lymphocytes and Eosinophils wall in comparison with any other chamber of the heart.
(4) Basophils and Eosinophils Reason (R): It pumps oxygenated blood to the whole
body via aorta.
156.The second heart sound is caused by In the light of above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
(1) Closure of the semilunar valve
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) Ventricular filling (1)
explanation of (A)
(3) Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Vibrations in ventricular wall during systole Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(3)
157.Which part of the brain moderates cardiac functions explanation of (A)
through autonomic nervous system? (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) Cerebrum 164.A drop of each of the following fluids is placed on different
(2) Cerebellum slides, which of them will not coagulate?
(3) Medulla oblongata (1) Plasma

(4) Pons (2) Serum

158.Match the following and select the correct option. (3) Lymph
Column-I Column-II (% in (4) Blood
(Leucocytes) total WBC count)
a. Neutrophils (i) 2 - 3% 165.Maximum ventricular filling occurs when
b. Basophils (ii) 60 - 65% (1) Ventricles relax and atria contract
c. Monocytes (iii) 0.5 - 1%
(2) Ventricles contract and atria relax
d. Eosinophils (iv) 6 - 8%
(3) Both ventricles and atria contract
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(4) Both ventricles and atria relax CC-674
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
166.Nodal musculature responsible for initiating and
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) maintaining the normal rhythmic contractile activity of
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) human heart is

159.Megakaryocytes of bone marrow are associated with the (1) Bundle of His
formation of (2) AV bundle
(1) B-lymphocytes (3) Sino-atrial node
(2) Thrombocytes (4) Atrio-ventricular node
(3) T-lymphocytes
(4) Erythrocytes

16
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

167.All of the following are components of blood, except 174.Oxygen dissociation curve is plotted with A on Y-axis
(1) Erythrocytes and B on X-axis to obtain a sigmoid curve. A and B
(2) Leucocytes respectively are

(3) Thrombocytes (1) % saturation of Hb with O2 and pO2

(4) Fibroblasts (2) % saturation of Hb with CO2 and pO2

168. A % of plasma in blood is water and proteins (3) pO2 and % saturation of Hb with O2
contribute B % of it.
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and B (4) pCO2 and % saturation of Hb with O2
given above.
175.How much volume of CO2 is delivered to the alveoli by
(1) 55 and 45 every 300 mL of deoxygenated blood in an adult human
(2) 45 and 55 under normal physiological conditions?

(3) 6-8 and 90-92 (1) 40 mL

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(2) 12 mL
CC-674
(4) 90-92 and 6-8

169.Thrombokinase is responsible for conversion of (3) 48 mL

(1) Fibrinogen into fibrin (4) 24 mL

(2) Prothrombin into thrombin 176.Complete the analogy w.r.t. percentage of gases
transported by RBCs and select the correct option.
(3) Fibrins into coagulum O2 : 97% : : CO2 : _____
(4) Thromboplastin into thrombin
(1) 3%
170.Partial pressure of O2 in blood of systemic artery is (2) 70%
(1) 95 mm of Hg (3) 20-25%
(2) 104 mm of Hg (4) 7%
(3) 45 mm of Hg 177.Exchange of gases between lungs and pulmonary
(4) 40 mm of Hg capillaries takes place by/with
(1) Simple diffusion
171.Diffusion membrane consists of
(2) Facilitated diffusion
Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, the endothelium
(1) of alveolar capillaries and basement substance in (3) Active process
between them
(4) The help of proteins
Thin squamous epithelium and basement membrane
(2) 178.Prolonged exposure to CO may be lethal because it
of only alveoli
Thin cuboidal epithelium of alveoli, the endothelium of (1) Increases CO2 transport
(3) alveolar capillaries and basement substance in
between them (2) Reduces CO2 transport

Endothelium of alveolar capillaries, basement (3) Reduces O2 transport

(4)
membrane and thin columnar epithelium of alveoli
(4) Denatures haemoglobin
172.The partial pressure of O2 in systemic veins carrying
179.CO2 is transported in human blood maximally
deoxygenated blood is equal to
(1) Dissolved in plasma
(1) pCO2 in alveolus
(2) As bicarbonate ions
CC-674
(2) pCO2 in tissues CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(3) As carbamino haemoglobin
(3) pO2 in alveolus
(4) Dissolved in serum
(4) pCO2 in systemic veins

173.The binding of O2 with haemoglobin is primarily related

to

(1) pO2

(2) pCO2
(3) Temperature
(4) pH

17
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

180.Assertion (A): Fats are absorbed through lymph in the 183.In adult humans, RBCs, WBCs and platelets are formed
lacteals present in the intestinal villi. in
Reason (R): Lymph is not a carrier for nutrients and
(1) Cartilage
hormones.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct (2) Plasma
option.
(3) Bone marrow
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
(1) (4) Brain
the correct explanation of the Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not 184.Enzyme that facilitates the formation of carbonic acid at
(2) tissue level and is present in high concentration within
the correct explanation of the Assertion
RBCs, is
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1) Carbonic anhydrase
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(2) Carboxypeptidase
181.The formed element of blood which is not a true cell is
(3) Peroxidase
CC-674
(1) Erythrocyte CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(4) Catalase
(2) Lymphocyte
185.A person tries to hold his breath for one minute. Which of
(3) Thrombocyte the following changes in blood would first lead to an urge
(4) Monocyte to breathe?

182.Long exposure of dust to workers involved in grinding or (1) Fall in O2 concentration

stone breaking industries results in
(2) Rise in CO2 concentration
Inflammation of lungs leading to regeneration of
(1) (3) Rise in pH
muscles of lungs
(4) Fall in osmolarity
(2) Inflammation of lungs leading to fibrosis
Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles leading to
(3)
thinning of membrane
(4) No effect on lungs

SECTION-B

186.The gaseous product of cellular respiration is carried by 189.Neural signals through the sympathetic nerve fibres can
haemoglobin as increase all of the following, except
(1) Carbamino-haemoglobin (1) Heart rate
(2) Oxyhaemoglobin (2) Duration of cardiac cycle
(3) Methaemoglobin (3) Cardiac output
(4) Carboxyhaemoglobin (4) Speed of conduction of action potential

187.How many factors given in the box below favour the 190.If the sino-atrial node is damaged or diseased, which of
formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the alveoli? the following is most likely to happen?
High pO2, Low pCO2, High H+ concentration, High (1) The heart stops beating
temperature (2) The heart beats at a faster pace
Choose the correct option.
(3) Heart beats at a slower rate
(1) One CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
Heart initially beats faster and later the heart beat
(4)
(2) Two decreases
(3) Three 191.Which of the following events does not occur during the
joint diastole?
(4) Four
(1) Mitral valves are open
188.Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery
can recognise changes in (2) Blood flows from atria to ventricles

(1) pO2 and pCO2 levels of CSF (3) Aortic valves are open

(2) pCO2 and pH levels of blood (4) Blood enters into right atrium through vena cava

(3) pH and pO2 of CSF

(4) pO2 and pCO2 levels of blood significantly

18
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P2)-Test-03B

192.ECG is a graphical representation of electrical activity of 197.Assertion (A) : The cardiac output of an athlete during
the heart during a cardiac cycle. Each peak in the ECG is exercise will be much higher than that of an ordinary
identified with letter from P to T that corresponds to a man.
specific electrical activity of the heart. Mark the incorrect Reason (R) : Cardiac output is based on the body’s
one w.r.t a standard ECG. ability to alter the heart rate but not stroke volume.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
(1) P wave – Depolarisation of atria option.
QRS complex – Depolarisation of ventricles, which
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
initiates the ventricular contraction (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
T wave – Return of ventricles from excited to normal
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not
state i.e. repolarisation (2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) Beginning of T wave – End of ventricular systole (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
193.Antibodies against blood group antigens do not occur (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
naturally in blood groups of
198.A chemosensitive area which is situated adjacent to the
CC-674
(1) A group individuals CC-674 CC-674
respiratory CC-674
rhythm centre is highly sensitive to
(2) B group individuals
(1) CO2 and H+
(3) AB group individuals
(2) CO2 and O2
(4) O group individuals

194.Read the following statements. (3) O2 and OH–

Statement A : A portal vein does not carry blood directly
to the heart but forms a network of capillaries in another (4) OH– and CO2
or intermediate organ before reaching the heart.
Statement B : Hepatic portal system is absent in humans. 199.In humans, the systemic circulation includes all of the
Select the correct option. following, except
(1) Both statements A and B are correct. (1) Dorsal aorta
(2) Only statement A is correct. (2) Vena cava
(3) Only statement B is correct. (3) Right atrium
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect. (4) Left atrium

195.Left atrium receives the oxygenated blood from both 200.Nucleus is absent in mammalian
lungs and skin while a single ventricle receives both
(1) RBCs and WBCs
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in
(2) RBCs and monocytes
(1) Amphibians
(3) Platelets and erythrocytes
(2) Crocodiles
(4) Thrombocytes and granulocytes
(3) Aves
(4) Mammals

196.The layer of blood vessels that contains mainly smooth

muscle and elastic fibres is
(1) Tunica intima
(2) Tunica externa
(3) Tunica media
(4) Tunica adventitia
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

19