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com/bQQ2EkH1bpb

PPSC Previous Year Paper

Accountant 23 Nov, 2024
https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb

PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

READ INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE FILLING ANY DETAILS OR ATTEMPTING TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS.
Total Questions: 120
Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Candidate’s Name ____________________________________________ Question
Booklet Set
Father’s Name ____________________________________________

A
Date of Birth
DD MM YYYY

OMR Response Sheet No. ______________________________________

Booklet Series
Roll No. __________

Candidate’s Signature (Please sign in the box)

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time told to do so by the Invigilation Staff. However, in the
meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and subsequently fill the appropriate columns given
above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may also fill the relevant boxes 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR)
response sheet, supplied separately.

2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in OMR sheet. Use of Ink
pen or any other pen is not allowed.

3. Other than filling credentials/information in specific space allotted above, do not write anything else on the Test
Booklet. Space for rough work is provided at the end. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the
information given above is wrong or illegible or incomplete.

4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for orthopedically/visually impaired
candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking correct responses on the OMR sheet.

5. The question paper booklet has 24 pages.

6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire booklet to confirm that
the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages are printed correctly and there are no blank or torn pages. In
case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact
to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.

7. The serial number of the new Question booklet, if issued for some reason, should be entered in the relevant column
of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their record regarding the change in the
serial no. of Question booklet.

8. The paper consists of total 480 Marks. Each question shall carry 4 marks. There are four options for each question
and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on the OMR response sheet.

9. There is negative marking (1 mark for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the candidate.

10. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers is
correct. There will be same penalty, as above, to that question.

11. If Question is left blank, i.e. question remains unattempted, there will be no penalty for that question.

12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

13. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before answering the questions and
check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact

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1 According to Ind AS 7 on Statement of Cash Flows, which of the following transactions

of a real estate company is considered as Cash Flow from Financing Activity?
a) Payment of Income Tax
b) Bonus shares issued
c) Purchase of debentures of other companies
d) Payment of Dividend
2 Capital structure of AB Ltd. is:
Equity share capital @ ₹ 10 each ₹ 20,00,000
10% preference shares @ ₹ 10 each ₹ 4,00,000
Profit (after tax @ 35%) ₹ 7,00,000
Depreciation ₹ 120,000
Equity dividend 20%
Market price of equity share ₹ 80
Price-earnings ratio of the company (rounded off) will be
a) 15 times
b) 18 times
c) 24 times
d) 30 times
3 Price earnings to growth ratio (PEG ratio) is used to identify
a) insolvent and high risk companies
b) overvalued and undervalued shares
c) high growth businesses
d) profitable companies
4 Following information relates to XY Ltd.
Stock turnover ratio 10 times
Closing stock ₹ 3,00,000
Sales ₹ 30,00,000
Gross profit margin 25%
The value of opening stock is
a) ₹ 100,000
b) ₹ 1,50,000
c) ₹ 2,00,000
d) ₹ 2,50,000
5 Match the following
List I List II
A. Leases 1. Ind AS-33
B. Impairment of assets 2. Ind AS-34
C. Interim financial reporting 3. Ind AS-36
D. Earnings Per share 4. Ind AS-116

Choose the correct option:

ABCD
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 4 2 1 3

DA/AG-I (2024) A-2

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6 Match the following (Models of Human Resource Accounting)

List I List II
A. The Present Value of Future Earnings model 1. Lev and Schwartz Model
B. The Expected Realizable Value model 2. Flamholtz Model
C. Unpurchased Goodwill Model 3. Roger Hermanson
D. Replacement Cost Method 4. Wayne Cascio

Choose the correct option:

ABCD
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 4 1 2 3
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 4 2 1 3
7 Exide batteries is currently maintaining a margin of safety 40% of sales and is making a
profit of ₹ 50,000. How much is the current fixed cost in his business?
a) ₹ 65,000
b) ₹ 70,000
c) ₹ 75,000
d) ₹ 85,000
8 A company produces and sells two products P and S in the proportion of 2:1. Each unit
of product P has a selling price ₹ 25 and variable cost ₹ 15. Each unit of product S has a
selling price ₹ 16 and variable cost ₹ 12. Total fixed costs are ₹ 1,80,000. What is the
total number of units that must be sold to make a profit of ₹ 90,000?
a) 30,000
b) 45,000
c) 15,000
d) 20,000
9 A consultancy firm has been asked to prepare a quote for a special contract. The
contract requires 100 hours of labour. However, the labourers, who are each paid at
₹ 15 per hour, are working at full capacity. There is a shortage of labour in the market.
The labour required for this contract would have to be diverted from another Job
which currently utilizes 500 labour hours and generates ₹ 5,000 worth of contribution.
Also this would delay the other Job and would invoke a penalty fee of ₹ 750. What is
the relevant cost of labour for special contract?
a) ₹ 2,000
b) ₹ 2,500
c) ₹ 2,250
d) ₹ 3,000
10 Sunshine Ltd. is presently manufacturing 10,000 units of a component. The cost per
unit is: Direct materials ₹ 6.00; Direct labour cost using one hour ₹ 3.00; Variable
overhead ₹ 1.00; Specific fixed cost ₹ 2.50; Other fixed costs ₹ 2.00.
Company is considering procuring this item from an outside supplier. In this case, the
direct labour can be used for manufacturing some other product which will contribute
₹ 20 per unit. This product uses two hours of labour. The component can be purchased
from outside at a maximum price of:
a) ₹ 17.50
b) ₹ 20.00
c) ₹ 22.50
d) ₹ 25.00

DA/AG-I (2024) A-3

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11 MEM manufactures two products. Product X has a contribution margin of ₹ 26 and

requires 4 hours of machine time. Product Y has a contribution margin of ₹ 14 and
requires 2 hours of machine time. Assuming that machine time is limited to 3,000
hours, how should it allocate the machine time to maximize its income?
a) Use 1,500 hours to produce X and 1,500 hours to produce Y
b) Use 2,250 hours to produce X and 750 hours to produce Y
c) Use 3,000 hours to produce only X
d) Use 3,000 hours to produce only Y
12 Tetra Company specializes in manufacturing motorcycle helmets due for launch in its
existing market. The relevant data : Forecast sales 10,000 units @ of ₹ 50 per unit;
mark-up of 20% on product cost; Life time costs of the product - design and
development cost ₹ 80,000; manufacturing cost ₹ 35 per unit. The company estimates
that if it spends an additional ₹ 25,000 on design, manufacturing cost per unit could be
reduced. Life cycle cost will be
a) ₹ 18.65
b) ₹ 32.00
c) ₹ 43.00
d) ₹ 54.00
13 If standard hours are 24,000; actual hours are 22,000 and budgeted hours are 22,800,
the efficiency ratio will be -
a) 91.66%
b) 103.63%
c) 105.26%
d) 109.09%
14 In a business enterprise, total cost is ₹ 16,400 when 800 units are produced. The total
cost goes up to ₹ 23,600 when output is increased to 1,200 units. It is found that fixed
cost goes up by 25% when this output is increased. What is the variable cost per unit?
a) ₹ 15.50
b) ₹ 16.50
c) ₹ 19.67
d) ₹ 20.00
15 The minimum transfer price determined by the supplying division to promote goal
congruence is equal to
a) Additional outlay cost per unit – Opportunity cost per unit
b) Lower of net marginal revenue and the external buy-in-price
c) Additional outlay cost per unit + Opportunity cost per unit
d) Higher of net marginal revenue and the external buy-in-price
16 Consider the following statements:
1. Kaizen costing emphasizes on continuous improvement and cost reduction.
2. DUPONT Analysis helps in understanding the drivers of company’s Return on Equity
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

DA/AG-I (2024) A-4

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17 Which of the following is a disadvantage of Zero-Based Budgeting?

a) It encourages a culture of overspending
b) It requires significant time and resources
c) It lacks accountability for results
d) It promotes inefficiency in spending
18 In the context of consolidation, what does "non-controlling interest" refer to?
a) The portion of equity ownership in a subsidiary not attributable to the parent
company
b) The portion of profits retained in the parent company
c) The total debt held by a subsidiary
d) The revenue earned from subsidiaries
19 Which of the following is not correct with reference to capital budgeting?
a) Existing investment in a project is not treated as sunk cost.
b) Cash flows be calculated in incremental terms
c) All costs and benefits are measured on cash basis
d) Timing of cash flows is relevant
20 If Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of a project is equal to opportunity cost of capital then
a) Project has no cash flows
b) Present value of cash inflows is equal to present value of cash outflows
c) Present value of cash inflows is greater than present value of cash outflows
d) Present value of cash inflows is less than present value of cash outflows

21 Following are the data on a capital project being evaluated by the management of X
Ltd.
Particulars Project M
Annual cost saving ₹ 1,20,000
Useful life 4 years
Internal rate of return 15%
Salvage value 0
PVAF (15%,4years) 2.855
Based upon the information, the payback of the project will be –
a) 2.55 years
b) 2.855 years
c) 3.55 years
d) 3.855 years
22 The share of ABC Ltd. is presently traded at ₹ 55 and the company is expected to pay
dividends of ₹4 per share with a growth rate expected at 8% per annum. It plans to
raise fresh equity share capital. The merchant banker has suggested that an
underpricing of ₹ 4 is necessary in pricing the new issue besides involving a cost of
Re. 1 per share on miscellaneous expenses. The cost of new equity shares (assuming
no change in dividend rate and growth rate) will be
a) 14.5%
b) 15%
c) 15.5%
d) 16%

DA/AG-I (2024) A-5

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23 The overall cost of capital under Net Income Approach is

a) EBIT ÷ Value of the firm
b) Net Income ÷ Cost of equity
c) Value of the firm ÷ EBIT
d) EBIT ÷ Overall cost of capital
24 A company is planning to set up a new project with the cost of ₹ 60,00,000. There are
two alternatives to finance the project:
Alternative I : 100% equity finance
Alternative II : debt and equity finance in the ratio of 2:1
Assuming an interest rate of 18% on debt and a corporate tax rate of 40%, the
indifference point between the two alternative methods of financing will be –
a) ₹ 10,80,000
b) ₹ 12,80,000
c) ₹ 16,80,000
d) ₹ 18,80,000
25
Earnings per share ₹ 24
Cost of equity 13.20%
Return on investment 14.40%
Assuming a retention ratio of 50%, market price of equity share as per Gordon’s model
will be:
a) ₹ 200
b) ₹ 250
c) ₹ 300
d) ₹ 350
26
Outstanding equity shares of ₹ 100 each 5,000
Capitalization rate 12%
Income before tax ₹ 2,00,000
Tax rate 30%
Dividend payout ratio 50%
What will be the market price per share at the end of the current year according to
Modiglani and Miller approach if dividend is paid?
a) ₹ 98
b) ₹ 99
c) ₹ 100
d) ₹ 101
27 Following information relates to a firm:
• Raw material storage period - 50 days
• WIP conversion period - 22 days
• Finished goods storage period - 28 days
• Debt collection period - 45 days
• Creditors’ payments period - 65 days
• Annual operating cost (including depreciation of ₹ 1,90,000) - ₹ 20,80,000
Then working capital on cash cost basis will be:
a) ₹ 3,60,000
b) ₹ 4,20,000
c) ₹ 4,80,000
d) ₹ 5,20,000

DA/AG-I (2024) A-6

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28 Manufacturing of a product requires 40 kgs of raw material per day. Cost of placing an
order is ₹ 40. Inventory carrying cost per unit amounts to ₹ 0.02 per day. The lead
period is 32 days. Assuming 365 days in a year, Economic Order Quantity will be:
a) 200 units
b) 300 units
c) 400 units
d) 500 units
29 Annual cash requirement of a firm is ₹ 10,00,000. Cost of conversion of marketable
securities per lot is ₹ 1,000. The firm can earn 5% annual yield on its securities.
According to Baumol’s model, optimal cash balance will be:
a) ₹ 1,00,000
b) ₹ 2,00,000
c) ₹ 3,00,000
d) ₹ 4,00,000
30 A Greenfield investment refers to:
a) Merging with an existing company in a foreign country
b) Buying shares in foreign companies
c) Building new facilities from scratch in a foreign country
d) Licensing technology to a foreign company
31 Which of the following is included in the weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?
a) Only equity capital
b) Debt, Equity, and Preference Share capital
c) Only retained earnings
d) Only debt
32 Financial leverage measures:
a) The ability to pay dividends
b) The degree to which a company uses debt financing
c) The efficiency of operations
d) The market share of a company
33 Which theory suggests that there is an optimal capital structure that minimizes the
cost of capital?
a) Modigliani-Miller Theorem
b) Pecking Order Theory
c) Trade-off Theory
d) Dividend Irrelevance Theory
34 Which of the following is not a form of dividend?
a) Cash dividends
b) Stock dividends
c) Bond dividends
d) Property dividends
35 In an acquisition, the “Purchase price allocation” involves:
a) Determining the price paid for the target company
b) Allocating the total purchase price among the acquired assets and liabilities
c) Estimating future cash flows of the target company
d) Assessing the market value of the acquirer

DA/AG-I (2024) A-7

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36 Which of the following statements is correct?

a) In a surplus-spending economic unit, consumption and planned investments exceed
income
b) The combined gross output of all the sectors of the country including foreign sector
is called Gross Domestic product (GDP)
c) New Issue Ratio is one of the flow of funds-based indicators of financial development
d) A financial system has no role to play in the economic transformation of a country

37 Which of the following is an example of a quantitative tool used by the RBI to control
credit?
a) Open market operations
b) Moral suasion
c) Margin requirements
d) Credit rationing
38 Which of the following is not a function of the Money Market in India?
a) Encourage broader ownership of productive assets
b) Provide a balancing mechanism to even out the demand for and supply of short
term funds
c) Provide a focal point for central bank intervention for influencing liquidity and
general level of interest rates in the economy
d) Deals with the short term financial instruments with maturity period of less than
one year
39 Equity instruments issued abroad by authorised overseas corporate bodies against the
shares/bonds of Indian companies held with nominated domestic custodian banks are
called
a) Global Depository Receipts
b) American Depository Receipts
c) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds
d) External Commercial Borrowings
40 Which of the following statements is correct about Certificate of Deposits (CDs)?
a) CDs are secured and non-negotiable instruments
b) CDs are issued by commercial banks and financial institutions
c) CDs are long term instruments in the bearer form
d) CDs are issued during periods of high liquidity and at relatively lower interest rates
41 Which of the following is not a responsibility of a merchant banker under SEBI
regulations?
a) Directing and coordinating the activities with underwriters, registrars and bankers
b) Offering guarantees on stock price performance
c) Ensuring that all disclosures made to the public are accurate and complete
d) Ensuring compliance with all SEBI regulations and guidelines
42 The Securities Exchange Board of India (Mutual Fund) Regulations, 1996 does not allow
mutual funds to raise resources through sale of units to the public for
a) Investing in Initial Public Offer (IPOs)
b) Investing in shares in the secondary market
c) Money market instruments
d) Currencies

DA/AG-I (2024) A-8

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43 The term underwriting refers to

a) Selling securities to the public
b) Guaranteeing the purchase of securities in a public offering
c) Regulating the stock market
d) Offering loans to businesses
44 The formula for calculating the Operating Cash Flow Ratio is:
a) Operating Cash Flow / Current Liabilities
b) Operating Income / Current Liabilities
c) Net Cash Flow / Current Liabilities
d) Total Cash Flow / Current Liabilities
45 Consider the following statements:
1. The Altman Z-score is used to predict Bankruptcy risk
2. As per Altman’s Z-score model, a healthy firm should have a Z score of less than 2.99
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
46 Which of the following formulas is generally used to calculate the Debt Service
Coverage Ratio (DSCR)?
a) Net Income / Total Debt
b) EBITDA / Total Debt
c) Operating Income / Total Debt
d) Net Operating Income / Total Debt Service
47 Scope of audit of financial statements does not include
a) Coverage of all aspects of entity relevant to financial statements being audited
b) Reliability and sufficiency of financial information
c) Expression of an opinion on financial statements
d) Expertise in authentication of documents
48 Which of the following is correctly matched?
a) SA 700 – Forming an opinion and reporting on the financial statements
b) SA 706 – Key audit matters in the independent auditor’s report
c) SA 705 – comparative information – corresponding figures and comparative financial
statements
d) SA 701 – Emphasis of matter paragraphs and other matter paragraphs in the
independent auditor’s report
49 Match the following
List I List II
A. Maximum term of individual as auditor 1. Section 142 of Companies Act, 2013
B. Remuneration of a company auditor 2. 1 term of five years
C. Resolution for removal of auditor before 3. Section 145 of Companies Act, 2013
expiry of term 4. Special Resolution
D. Signing of audit report
Choose the correct option:
ABCD
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 2 3 1 4
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 2 4 1 3

DA/AG-I (2024) A-9

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50 Match the following:

List I List II
A. Responsibility of joint auditor 1. Unqualified Opinion
B. Unable to form an overall conclusion 2. SA 230
on financial statements 3. SA 299
C. Audit report with reservations 4. Disclaimer of opinion
D. Audit documentation

Choose the correct option:

ABCD
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 2 3 1 4
c) 1 4 3 2
d) 3 4 1 2

51 Consider the following statements in context of section 139 of Companies Act, 2013:
1. In case of a Government company, the Central government shall appoint an auditor.
2. A company shall not appoint or reappoint an audit firm as an auditor of the
company for more than two terms of five years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
52 Match the following:
List I List II
A. Secretarial audit 1. Cost audit
B. Intimation for appointment of cost auditor 2. CRA - 4
central government 3. Listed Companies
C. Form of filing cost audit report with central 4. CRA - 2
government
D. Section 148 of Companies Act, 2013

Choose the correct option:

ABCD
a) 1 2 4 3
b) 3 4 2 1
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 1 4 2 3
53 Which of the following statements is not true?
a) Internal audit is conducted by the staff of the entity or by an independent
professional appointed for that purpose
b) Internal Auditor can be removed by the Board
c) There is no difference between Statutory and external audit
d) An audit engagement is the initial stage of an audit during which the auditor notifies
the client that he has accepted the audit work

DA/AG-I (2024) A-10

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54 Which of the following statements is not correct about cost audit as per section 148 of
the Companies Act, 2013?
a) The cost audit shall be conducted by a Cost Accountant in practice
b) No person appointed under section 139 of the Companies Act, 2013 as an auditor of
the company shall be appointed for conducting the audit of cost records
c) The auditor conducting the cost audit shall comply with the cost auditing standards.
d) A company where cost audit is conducted is exempted from audit conducted under
section 143 of the Companies Act, 2013.
55 In case of audit of a bank, which of the following statements is correct?
a) The auditor can assume that system generated information is correct and relied upon
b) Registered mortgage is effected by a mere delivery of title deeds or other
documents of title with intent to create security thereof
c) Banks recognize income on Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) on accrual basis
d) Central government guaranteed advances, where the guarantee is not invoked
would be classified as Standard Assets

56 Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) An audit report is addressed to the authority appointing the auditor.
b) The auditor gives a clean report when he doesn’t have any significant reservation in
respect of matters contained in the financial statements.
c) A disclaimer of opinion is issued by the auditor when he cannot form an overall
opinion about the matters contained in the financial statements.
d) Casual vacancy in the office of cost auditor is filled by board of directors
57 What distinguishes an internal audit from an external audit?
a) Internal audits are mandatory
b) Internal audits focus on operational efficiency, while external audits verify financial
statements
c) External audits are conducted by employees of the organization
d) Internal audits require fewer regulations
58 The principle of "materiality" in auditing means that:
a) All misstatements are considered material.
b) Only significant misstatements need to be addressed.
c) Auditors should only focus on quantitative data.
d) Materiality is defined by the auditor’s preference.
59 Consider the following statements in context of the Companies Act, 2013?
1. Having a business relationship with the company does not amount to disqualification
under Companies Act 2013.
2. The removal of a company auditor before the expiry of his/her term requires
approval from the board of directors only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

DA/AG-I (2024) A-11

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60 Which of the following is not an exception to the rule- ‘No Consideration, No Contract’?
a) Agreement to pay a time barred debt
b) Completed gift
c) Agency
d) Compensation for past services at the request of the party
61 Which one of the following is the right not available to the surety?
a) Right to subrogation against the principal debtor
b) Right to claim indemnity against the principal debtor
c) Right to claim set off against the creditor
d) Right to claim contribution from co-sureties over and above the guarantee amount
62 When the agent acts beyond his authority and the principal accepts the acts, it is called
a) Revocation
b) Ratification
c) Breach of contract
d) Novation
63 “Every outsider dealing with a company is presumed to know the contents of the
company’s Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association.”
In the above context, identify the correct doctrine.
a) Doctrine of Ultra vires
b) Doctrine of Indoor Management
c) Doctrine of Constructive Notice
d) Doctrine of Estoppel
64 Alteration in registered office clause of the Memorandum of Association happens only
if there is a
a) change in registered office from one state to another state
b) change of registered office from one town city or village to another town, city or
village in the same state
c) change from one Registrar of Companies (ROC) to another Registrar of Companies
(ROC) within the same state
d) change in registered office from one country to another country
65 What is the consequence of a director borrowing in violation of its Articles of
Association but within its Memorandum of Association?
a) The borrowing is voidable at the lender's discretion
b) The borrowing is always valid against the company
c) The borrowing is ultra vires Memorandum of Association
d) The borrowings shall be valid if ratified by the shareholders
66 If a company defaults in paying a financial debt of minimum ₹ 1 crore, which of the
following can apply for corporate insolvency resolution process to National Company
Law Tribunal (NCLT)?
a) Only financial creditors of the company
b) Only operational creditors of the company
c) Only the company itself
d) All of the above

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67 According to section 271 of the Companies Act, 2013, in which of the following
circumstances National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) may not order for winding up of
a company?
a) if the company has, by special resolution, resolved that the company be wound up by
the Tribunal
b) if the company has acted against the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India
c) if the company has made a default in filing with the registrar its financial statements
or annual returns for immediately preceding three consecutive financial years
d) if the tribunal is of the opinion that it is just and equitable that the company should
be wound up
68 Consider the following statements about negotiable instruments:
1. A negotiable instrument which can be treated either as promissory note or bill of
exchange is known as Ambiguous instrument.
2. Letter of credit is not a type of negotiable instrument.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
69 In determining dominance under Section 4 of the Competition Act, 2002, which of the
following factors is not considered by the Competition Commission of India?
a) Size and resources of the enterprise
b) Size and importance of the competitors
c) Dependence of consumers on the enterprise
d) The profitability of the company
70 Predatory pricing under the Competition Act, 2002 is defined as:
a) Selling goods at a high price to increase profit margins
b) Selling goods at a price below cost to reduce competition or eliminate the
competitors
c) Setting prices that vary from market to market
d) Adjusting prices seasonally
71 Consider the following statements:
1. Bailment is defined as the delivery of goods for a specific purpose.
2. A pledge is a type of bailment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
72 Consider the following statements:
1. The Competition Act, 2002 is applicable to only private companies.
2. The Competition Commission of India has the power to levy fines, approve mergers
and acquisition but not to conduct investigations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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73 During the assessment year 2024-25, Mr. X (a non-resident) earns an income of

₹ 5,00,000 from business (this income is earned as well as received outside India,
however, the business is controlled from India). He also earns a rent of ₹ 4,00,000 from
a property in India and ₹ 2,80,000 from a property outside India during the same year.
The rental incomes are received outside India. How much is his gross total income for
the assessment year 2024-25 as per the Income-tax Act, 1961?
a) ₹ 2,80,000
b) ₹ 4,00,000
c) ₹ 5,00,000
d) ₹ 9,00,000
74 Mr. X received ₹ 2,00,000 as arrears of rent in the assessment year 2024-25. How
much will be taxable in his hands for the assessment year 2024-25 under the head
House Property as per the Income-tax Act, 1961?
a) Nil
b) ₹ 60,000
c) ₹ 1,40,000
d) ₹ 2,00,000
75 Which of the following condition is not applicable for the purpose of allowing any
expenditure under section 37(1) in computing income under the head Profits and
Gains of Business or Profession for the assessment year 2024-25?
a) The expenditure should not be the personal expense of the assessee
b) The expenditure should have been incurred in the previous year
c) The expenditure should be capital expenditure
d) The expenditure should have been expended wholly for the purpose of the business
76 For the assessment year 2024-25, Mr. X (55 years and a resident assessee) earned a
short-term capital gain of ₹ 2,00,000 which is taxable under section 111A of the
Income-tax Act, 1961. His income from other sources is ₹ 2,50,000. How much will be
his tax on such short-term capital gain (ignoring rebate under section 87A, new tax
regime under section 115BAC as well as cess @ 4%)?
a) Nil
b) ₹ 12,500
c) ₹ 20,000
d) ₹ 30,000.
77 Mr. X received a cash gift of ₹ 60,000 on his marriage anniversary from his friend,
without any consideration, on 3 December 2023. How much will be taxable in his
hands under the head Income from Other Sources for the assessment year 2024-25 as
per the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
a) Nil
b) ₹ 10,000
c) ₹ 50,000
d) ₹ 60,000

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78 In whose hands the income of a minor child is taxable under section 64(1A) for the
assessment year 2024-25 under the Income-tax Act, 1961? (It is to be assumed that the
marriage of parents persists.)
a) Father
b) Mother
c) Partly father and partly mother
d) Father or mother whose total income (excluding income under section 64(1A)) is
higher
79 How much is the surcharge for a domestic company having total income of ₹ 9 crore in
the assessment year 2024-25 under the Income-tax Act, 1961?
a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 7%
d) 12%
80 How much should be the minimum income from lotteries to make the provisions of tax
deducted at source under section 194B applicable for the assessment year 2024-25
under the Income-tax Act, 1961?
a) ₹ 5,000
b) ₹10,000
c) ₹ 15,000
d) ₹ 20,000
81 A resident shareholder earns ₹ 3,000 as dividend from an Indian company on 8
February 2024. This amount will be transferred in the shareholder’s bank account
directly. How much will be the rate of tax deducted at source in this case for the
assessment year 2024-25 under the Income-tax Act, 1961?
a) Nil
b) 2%
c) 5%
d) 15%
82 For meaning of “amalgamation” under the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the assessment
year 2024-25, shareholders holding not less than a particular percentage in the value
of the shares in the amalgamating company (other than the shares already held
therein immediately before the amalgamation by the amalgamated company) become
shareholders of the amalgamated company. How much is this particular percentage?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
83 Which of the following shall be deemed to be the income under the head Profits and
Gains of Business or Profession in case of an assessee, being a foreign company
engaged in the business of civil construction in the assessment year 2024-25?
a) 2.5% of the amount payable to the said assessee on account of such construction
b) 5% of the amount payable to the said assessee on account of such construction
c) 7.5% of the amount payable to the said assessee on account of such construction
d) 10% of the amount payable to the said assessee on account of such construction

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84 Which is the rate of tax deducted at source in the assessment year 2024-25 when
payment in made to a non-resident sportsman who is not a citizen of India on the
income earned by him on account of advertisement?
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 30%
85 Which of the following is not an example of tax evasion?
a) Failing to report income earned from freelance work.
b) Claiming false deductions on a tax return.
c) Utilizing tax credits and deductions provided by law.
d) Concealing assets in offshore accounts to avoid taxation.
86 An individual is considered a resident in India if they are present in India for how many
days or more during the previous year?
a) 60 days
b) 182 days
c) 120 days
d) 90 days
87 In the case of a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), which member is assessed for income
tax?
a) Only the Karta
b) All adult members
c) The eldest male member only
d) None of the above
88 Consider the following statements in the context of Income Tax:
1. “Personal expenses” is not a permissible deduction from Gross Total Income.
2. Agricultural income is not included in “Income from Other sources”.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
89 For how many years, short-term capital loss of assessment year 2024-25 can be carried
forward and set off under the Income-tax Act, 1961?
a) 4 years
b) 8 years
c) Unlimited number of years
d) Cannot be carried forward
90 Who is required to pay Advance Tax?
a) Only salaried individuals
b) Only businesses
c) Any taxpayer with a tax liability of ₹10,000 or more
d) Only non-residents

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91 The sky would have appeared ________ in colour if earth doesn’t have atmosphere.
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Black
d) White
92 A vaccine can be
a) An antigenic protein
b) Weakened pathogen
c) Live attenuated pathogen
d) All of these
93 Between whom was the battle of Buxar fought?
a) Between the English and the Confederacy of Mir Qasim
b) Between Dupleix and the Confederacy of Mir Qasim
c) Between Lord Cornwallis and the Confederacy of Mir Qasim
d) Between Warren Hastings and Mir Jafar
94 With reference to Bhagat Singh which of the following statements is/are correct?
1) Bhagat Singh made a quick transition of his political ideology and from Gandhian
nationalism to revolutionary terrorism.
2) By 1927-28 he moved from revolutionary terrorism to Marxism
3) He never took up socialism as the final object of his political programme
Select the correct answer from the statements mentioned above
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
95 Assertion (A): The Treaty of Amritsar was signed between Ranjit Singh and East India
Company on April 1809.
Reason (R): Ranjit Singh wanted to expand his empire with the help of the Company.
a) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) correctly explains (A).
b) (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
96 Consider the following statements about NISAR Mission:
1. It is a joint mission between European Space Agency (ESA) and ISRO
2. It will use an Earth observation Satellite to monitor Earth's surface changes, natural
hazards, climate patterns, etc.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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97 Which of the following factor/s lead to the sea level rise?

1. Retreating glaciers lead to reduced albedo
2. Melting of polar ice
3. Thermal expansion
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
a) 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
98 ‘The World Commission on Environment and Development’ (Brundtland Commission)
in its 1987 report had called for “a development that meets the needs of the present
without compromising the ability of the future generations to meet their own needs.”
Such a development is known as:
a) Complete Development
b) Future Development
c) Sustainable Development
d) Strategic Development
99 In regard to the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, which of the following statements
is not correct?
a) Every Panchayat shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first
meeting and no longer
b) Election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed before the expiry of its five
year duration or within six months of its dissolution
c) Election to the Panchayat should be conducted by the Election commission of India
d) The 73rd constitutional amendment was passed in 1992
100 In the context of government budgeting, which among the following constitute non-tax
revenue receipts?
1. RTI application fees
2. Spectrum charges
3. Dividends from the RBI
Select the correct answer using the codes:
a) 1 & 3 Only
b) 2 & 3 Only
c) 1 & 2 Only
d) 1, 2 & 3

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101

Find ?
a) 380
b) 424
c) 410
d) 394
102 Statement: No women teacher can play. Some women teachers are athletes.
Conclusion:
I. Male athletes can play
II. Some athletes can play
a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Both I and II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
103 PALINDROME is to 6578903214 as AEROPLANE is to
a) 456732185
b) 543124573
c) 542876514
d) 543267594
104 What is mirror Image of ILLINMNNMNMNNILIILLIIL?

a) ⅃II⅃⅃II⅃IИИMИMИИMИI⅃⅃I

b) ⅃II⅃⅃II⅃IИИИMMИИMИI⅃⅃I

c) ⅃II⅃⅃II⅃IИИMMИИИMИI⅃⅃I

d) ⅃II⅃⅃I⅃IIИИMMИИИMИI⅃⅃I

105 A man has some cow and hens in his farm. If number of heads is 45 and number of legs
is 130, then how many cows are there?
a) 30
b) 22
c) 25
d) None of these

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106 Statements: Some apples are mangoes. All the mangoes are vegetables.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are vegetables.
II. No mango is apple.
a) Only (I) conclusion follows
b) Only (II) conclusion follows
c) Either (I) or (II) follows
d) Neither (I) nor (II) follows

107 Statements: All animals are herbivorous. Some plants are herbivorous.
Conclusions:
I. Some plants are animals.
II. All animals are plants.
a) Only (I) conclusion follows
b) Only (II) conclusion follows
c) Either (I) or (II) follows
d) Neither (I) nor (II) follows

108 In the following series which element comes fifth to the left of number 12.
A, 26, B, 25, C, 24, D, 23, ……….
a) J
b) K
c) L
d) M

109 If Naina says, "Vineeta's father Naman is the only son of my father-in-law Tejpal", then
how is Nimmi, who is the sister of Vineeta, related to Tejpal?
a) Daughter
b) Wife
c) Daughter in law
d) None of this

110 One morning Prakash and Vimal were taking a walk, when they stood face to face for
discussion at a crossing. If Vimal's shadow was exactly to the left of Prakash, which
direction was Prakash facing?
a) East
b) West
c) North
d) South

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111 ‘ਜਦ ਷ਾਰਯਆਂ ਦੀ ਇੱ ਕ ਯਾ਋ ਸ੅ਵ’੃ ਤੋਂ ਬਾਵ ਸ੄:

a) ਷ਾਂਝੀਵਾਰਤਾ
b) ਷ਯਫ-਷ੰ ਭਤੀ
c) ਸੁਕਭ
d) ਤਾਨਾਸ਼ਾਸੀ
112 ਷ਭਾਨਾਯਥਕ ਸ਼ਫਦਾਂ ਦੀ ਷ੂਚੀ ਰਭਰਾਓ :

ਸੂਚੀ । ਸੂਚੀ ।।
(A) ਅਨਜਾਣ I. ਰਘੂ
(B) ਷ੰ ਝ II. ਉਭੰ ਗ
(C) ਤਾਂਘ III. ਅੰ ਞਾਣਾ
(D) ਅਰ਩ IV. ਆਥਣ
ਉ਩ਯ੅ਕਤ ਦਾ ਷ਸੀ ਰਭਰਾਨ ਕਯ੅ :
a) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II
b) (A)- III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
c) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
d) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
113 ਸ੃ਠ ਰਰਰਖਆਂ ਰਵਚੋਂ ਸ਼ੁੱ ਧ ਸ਼ਫਦ ਚੁਣੋਂ:

a) ਤੀਭੀਂ
b) ਤੀਵੀ
c) ਤੀਵੀਂ
d) ਤੀਫੀਂ
114 ਖਾਰੀ ਷ਥਾਨ ‘ਤ੃ ਷ਸੀ ਸ਼ਫਦ ਰਰਖ੅ :
ਅ਷ੀਂ ਕੱ ਰ ........... ਤ੃ ਰਦੱ ਰੀ ਜਾਵਾਂਗ੃।
a) ਜਾਸਾਜ਼
b) ਜ਼ਾਸਾਜ
c) ਜਸਾਜ਼
d) ਜਾਸਜ਼
115 ਉਸ ਸ਼ਫਦ ਚੁਣ੅ ਰਜ਷ ਰਵੱ ਚ ‘ਸਭ’ ਅਗ੃ਤਯ ਦੀ ਵਯਤੋਂ ਨਸੀਂ ਸ੅ਈ ।

a) ਸਭਯਾਜ਼
b) ਸਭਵਤਨ
c) ਸਭਦਯਦੀ
d) ਸਭ੃ਸ਼ਾ

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ਸ੃ਠ ਰਰਖ੃ ਩ਰਸਯ੃ ਰਵੱ ਚੋਂ 116 ਤੋਂ 120 ਤੱ ਕ ਩ਰਸ਼ਨ ਸੱ ਰ ਕਯ੅:

ਰ਷ਆਣ੃ ਕਰਸੰ ਦ੃ ਸਨ ‘ਵੱ ਷ੀ਋ ਸ਼ਰਸਯ ਬਾਵੇਂ ਸ੅ਵ੃ ਕਰਸਯ’ ਇਸ ਅਖਾਣ ਅੱ ਜ ਤੋਂ ਕੁੱ ਝ ਷ਾਰ ਩ਰਸਰਾਂ ਜਦੋਂ

ਆਵਾਜਾਈ ਤ੃ ਷ੰ ਚਾਯ ਷ਾਧਨਾਂ ਦਾ ਰਵਕਾ਷ ਨਸੀਂ ਷ੀ ਸ੅ਇਆ, ਰ਩ੰ ਡਾਂ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਰਫਜਰੀ ਨਸੀਂ ਷ੀ ਗਈ ਤ੃ ਸਯੀ

ਕਰਾਂਤੀ ਨੇ ਰ਩ੰ ਡਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਖੁਸ਼ਸਾਰ ਨਸੀਂ ਷ੀ ਫਣਾਇਆ, ਬਾਵੇਂ ਠੀਕ ਸ੅ਵ,੃ ਩ਯ ਅੱ ਜ ਫਸੁਤੀ ਠੀਕ ਨਸੀਂ। ਅੱ ਜ ਤੋਂ

ਕੁਝ ਷ਭਾਂ ਩ਰਸਰਾਂ ਰ਩ੰ ਡਾਂ ਦੀ ਸਾਰਤ ਅੱ ਜ ਵਯਗੀ ਨਸੀਂ ਷ੀ। ਰਕ਷੃ ਰ਩ੰ ਡ ਤੋਂ ਸ਼ਰਸਯ ਤੀਕ ਜਾਣ ਰਈ ਩ੱ ਕੀ

਷ੜਕ ਨਸੀਂ ਷ੀ ਤ੃ ਨਾ ਸੀ ਰ਩ੰ ਡਾਂ ਦੀਆਂ ਗਰੀਆਂ ਩ੱ ਕੀਆਂ ਷ਨ। ਭਾੜਾ ਰਜਸਾ ਭੀਂਸ ਩੄ਣ ਨਾਰ ਗਰੀਆਂ ਤ੃

ਯ਷ਤ੃ ਰਚੱ ਕੜ ਦ੃ ਖ੅ਬ੃ ਨਾਰ ਬਯ ਜਾਂਦ੃ ਷ਨ। ਖ੃ਤੀ-ਫਾੜੀ ਦਾ ਭਸ਼ੀਨੀਕਯਨ ਸ੅ ਚੁੱ ਕਾ ਸ੄ । ਰਕ਷ਾਨਾਂ ਦਾ

ਜੀਵਨ ਩ਰਸਰਾਂ ਰਜੰ ਨਾ ਔਖਾ ਤ੃ ਷ਖ਼ਤ ਰਭਸਨਤ ਬਯ਩ੂਯ ਨਸੀਂ ਰਯਸਾ। ਅੱ ਜ ਉ਷ ਨੂੰ ਯਾਤ-ਰਦਨ ਸਰ ਦ੃

ਭਗਯ ਰਪਯਨ, ਪੁੱ ਰਸ੃ ਸੱ ਕਣ ਤ੃ ਖੂਸ ਦੀਆਂ ਩੄ੜਾਂ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਘੁਭੰਣ ਦੀ ਜ਼ਯੂਯਤ ਨਸੀਂ, ਷ਗੋਂ ਉਸ ਟਰ੄ਕਟਯ,

ਟਯਾਰੀਆਂ, ਰਫਜਾਈ ਦੀਆਂ ਭਸ਼ੀਨਾਂ, ਕੰ ਫਾਈਨਾਂ ਤ੃ ਰਟਊਫਵ੄ੈੱਰਾਂ ਨਾਰ ਷ਾਯ੃ ਕੰ ਭ ਪਟਾਪਟ ਭੁਕਾ ਰੈਂ ਦ੃ ਸਨ।

ਇ਷ ਩ਰਕਾਯ ਩ੇਂਡੂ ਜੀਵਨ ਅਤ੃ ਸ਼ਰਸਯੀ ਜੀਵਨ ਦਾ ੝ਯਕ ਫਸੁਤ ਘੱ ਟ ਰਗਆ ਸ੄ । ਰ਩ੰ ਡਾਂ ਦ੃ ਰ੅ ਕ ਵੀ

ਸ਼ਰਸਯੀਆਂ ਵਾਂਗ ਨ੆ਕਯੀਆਂ ਕਯਦ੃ ਷੝ਯ ਰਈ ਷ਾਈਕਰ, ਕਾਯਾਂ, ਜੀ਩ਾਂ, ਷ਕੂਟਯਾਂ ਤ੃ ਭ੅ਟਯ ਷ਾਈਕਰਾਂ ਦੀ

ਵਯਤੋਂ ਕਯਦ੃ ਸਨ । ਯ੃ਡੀਓ ਤ੃ ਟ੄ੈੱਰੀਰਵਜ਼ਨ ਦਾ ਩਷ਾਯ ਸ਼ਰਸਯਾਂ ਦ੃ ਨਾਰ ਰ਩ੰ ਡਾਂ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਵੀ ਸ੅ ਰਗਆ ਸ੄ ।

ਇ਷ ਤਯਹਾਂ ਩ੇਂਡੂ ਜੀਵਨ ਕਾ੝ੀ ਸੱ ਦ ਤਕ ਸ਼ਰਸਯੀ ਜੀਵਨ ਦੀਆਂ ਷ਸੂਰਤਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਭਾਣਨ ਰੱਗ ਰ਩ਆ ਸ੄ । ਵਾਧਾ

ਇਸ ਸ੄ ਰਕ ਩ੇਂਡੂ ਜੀਵਨ ਦੀ ਷ਾ੝ ਸਵਾ, ਷ਾ੝ ਤ੃ ਩੆ਸ਼ਰਟਕ ਤ੃ ਰਭਰਾਵਟ ਤੋਂ ਰਫਨਾਂ ਖੁਯਾਕ ਤ੃ ਕੁਦਯਤੀ

ਵਾਤਾਵਯਣ ਸ਼ਰਸਯੀ ਜੀਵਨ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਨਸੀਂ ਰਭਰ ਷ਕਦਾ । ਩ਯੰ ਤੂ ਨਾਰ ਸੀ ਩ੇਂਡੂ ਜੀਵਨ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਕੁਝ ਔਰਖਆਈ

ਅਜ੃ ਵੀ ਭ੆ਜੂਦ ਸ੄, ਜ੅ ਸ਼ਰਸਯੀ ਜੀਵਨ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਨਸੀਂ । ਸ਼ਰਸਯ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਕਾਯਖਾਨੇ ਤ੃ ਕੰ ਭ ਦ੃ ਸ੅ਯ ਷ਥਾਨ ਨੇੜ੃-

ਨੇੜ੃ ਸੁੰ ਦ੃ ਸਨ । ਕਾਭ੃ ਤ੃ ਨ੆ਕਯ ਕੰ ਭ ਕਯਕ੃ ਛ੃ਤੀ ਘਯ ਩ਯਤ ਆਉਂਦ੃ ਸਨ ਩ਯ ਩ੇਂਡੂ ਜੀਵਨ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਕਾਰਭਆਂ

ਤ੃ ਨ੆ਕਯਾਂ ਨੂੰ ਰੰਭਾ ਷੝ਯ ਕਯਨਾ ਩੄ਦਾ ਸ੄ । ਕਈ ਵਾਯੀ ਩ੇਂਡੂ ਜੀਵਨ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਮ੅ਗ ਡਾਕਟਯੀ ਷ਸਾਇਤਾ ਨਸੀਂ

ਰਭਰਦੀ । ਩ਯ ਇ਷ ਦਾ ਭਤਰਫ ਇਸ ਨਸੀਂ ਰਕ ਸ਼ਰਸਯੀ ਜੀਵਨ ਩ੇਂਡੂ ਜੀਵਨ ਨਾਰੋਂ ਫਸੁਤ ਚੰ ਗਾ ਸ੄।

਩ਰਦੂਸ਼ਣ, ਬੀੜ-ਬੜੱ ਕਾ ਤ੃ ਯ੆ਰਾ-ਯੱ ਩ਾ ਸ਼ਰਸਯੀ ਜੀਵਨ ਦ੃ ਫਸੁਤ ਵੱ ਡ੃ ਦ੅ਸ਼ ਸਨ । ਰਪਯ ਸ਼ਰਸਯਾਂ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਵੀ

੝ਯਕ ਸ੄ । ਜਰੰਧਯ, ਰੁਰਧਆਣ੃ ਤ੃ ਩ਰਟਆਰ੃ ਨਾਰੋਂ ਚੰ ਡੀਗੜਹ ਫਸੁਤ ਵਧੀਆ ਸ਼ਰਸਯ ਸ੄। ਉੱਥ੃ ਷ੜਕਾਂ

ਖੁੱ ਰੀਆਂ ਸਨ ਤ੃ ਸ੅ਯ ਅਨੇਕਾਂ ਷ੁੱ ਖ ਷ਸੂਰਤਾਂ ਩ਰਾ਩ਤ ਸਨ । ਩ਯ ਉੱਥੋਂ ਦ੃ ਜੀਵਨ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਬਾਈਚਾਯਕ ਭ੃ਰ-

ਰਭਰਾ਩ ਦੀ ਕਭੀ ਸ੄ ਤ੃ ਯੁੱ ਖਾ਩ਨ ਵਧ੃ਯ੃ ਸ੄ । ਰ੅ ਕਾਂ ਦੀ ਰਜ਼ੰ ਦਗੀ ਭਕਾਨਕੀ ਸੀ ਸ੄ । ਇ਷ ਕਯਕ੃ ਇਸ ਕਰਸਣਾ

ਚਾਸੀਦਾ ਸ੄ ਰਕ ਬਾਵੇਂ ਕ੅ਈ ਰ਩ੰ ਡ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਯਰਸੰ ਦਾ ਸ੅ਵ੃ ਜਾਂ ਸ਼ਰਸਯ ਰਵੱ ਚ ਕਰਸਯ ਵਾਰੀ ਕ੅ਈ ਗੱ ਰ ਨਸੀਂ, ਷ਬ

ਠੀਕ ਸੀ ਸ੄ । ਷ਯਕਾਯ ਨੂੰ ਰ਩ੰ ਡਾਂ ਤ੃ ਸ਼ਰਸਯਾਂ ਦ੃ ਷ੁਧਾਯ ਵੱ ਰ ਸ੅ਯ ਰਧਆਨ ਦ੃ਣਾ ਚਾਸੀਦਾ ਸ੄।

DA/AG-I (2024) A-22

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116 ਉ਩ਯ੅ਕਤ ਩ਰਸਯ੃ ਦਾ ਰ਷ਯਰ੃ ਖ ਕੀ ਸ੄?

a) ਭਸ਼ੀਨੀਕਯਨ ਦਾ ਵੱ ਧਦਾ ਩ਰਬਾਵ।

b) ਰ਩ੰ ਡਾਂ ਦਾ ਸ਼ਰਸਯੀਕਯਣ।

c) ਰ਷ਆਰਣਆਂ ਦੀ ਕੂਟਾਂ ਦੀ ਰਵਆਰਖਆਂ।

d) ਸ਼ਰਸਯਾਂ ਰਵਚਰਾ ਷ੁਧਾਯ।

117 ਸ਼ਰਸਯੀ ਰ੅ ਕਾਂ ਦਾ ਜੀਵਨ ਷ੁਬਾਅ ਰਕਸ੅ ਰਜਸਾ ਸੁੰ ਦਾ ਸ੄?

a) ਯ਷ਭੀ

b) ਗ੄ਯ-ਯ਷ਭੀ

c) ਰਵਕਰ਷ਤ

d) ਚਕਾ-ਚੌਂਧ ਯਰਸਤ

118 ਸ਼ਰਸਯਾਂ ਦ੃ ਭੁਕਾਫਰ੃ ਰ਩ੰ ਡਾਂ ਦਾ ਜੀਵਨ ਰਕਸ੅ ਰਜਸਾ ਨਸੀਂ ਷ੀ?

a) ਔਰਖਆਈ ਵਾਰਾ।

b) ਤਕਰੀਪ ਬਰਯਆ।

c) ਅਰਤ-਷ੁੱ ਖ ਷ਸੂਰਤਾਂ ਵਾਰਾ।

d) ਵਧ੃ਯ੃ ਰਵਕਰ਷ਤ।

119 ਰ਩ੰ ਡ ਦਾ ਜੀਵਨ ਸ਼ਰਸਯ ਨਾਰੋਂ ਰਕਉਂ ਚੰ ਗਾ ਸ੄ ?

a) ਩ਰਦੂਸ਼ਣ ਯਰਸਤ ਅਤ੃ ਸ਼ਾਂਤ ਸ੅ਣ ਕਯਕ੃

b) ਸਯੀ ਕਰਾਂਤੀ ਦ੃ ਩ਰਬਾਵ ਕਾਯਣ।

c) ਭਕਾਨਕੀ ਸ੅ਣ ਕਯਕ੃।

d) ਭਸ਼ੀਨੀਕਯਨ ਸ੅ਣ ਕਯਕ੃।

120 ਰ੃ ਖਕ ਅਨੁ਷ਾਯ ਚੰ ਡੀਗੜਹ ਦ੃ ਰ੅ ਕਾਂ ਦੀ ਜੀਵਨ ਜਾਚ ਦ੃ ਕੀ ਔਗੁਣ ਸਨ?

a) ਬੀੜ ਬੜੱ ਕਾ।

b) ਰ਷ਸਤ ਰ਷ੱ ਰਖਆ ਷ਸੂਰਤਾਂ ਦੀ ਅਣਸੋਂਦ।

c) ਬਾਈਚਾਯਕ ਷ਾਂਝ ਦੀ ਅਣਸੋਂਦ।

d) ਰ਩ੰ ਡ ਅਤ੃ ਸ਼ਰਸਯ ਦ੃ ਇੱ ਕ੅ ਰਜਸ੃ ਩ਰਫੰਧ।

******
DA/AG-I (2024) A-23

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

DA/AG-I (2024) A-24

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 PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
ANSWER KEY FOR THE JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM OF ACCOUNTANT GRADE-I AND DIVISIONAL
ACCOUNTANT IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS OF GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB ( ADVT. NO. 202224,202225
AND 202228)
https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb

COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 23-11-2024 ANSWER KEY SET - [A]

Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer

1 D 25 A 49 A 73 A 97 D

2 C 26 A 50 D 74 C 98 C

3 B 27 B 51 B 75 C 99 C

4 B 28 C 52 B 76 D 100 D

5 B 29 B 53 C 77 D 101 C

6 C 30 C 54 D 78 D 102 D

7 C 31 B 55 D 79 C 103 D

8 B 32 B 56 C 80 B 104 A

9 C 33 C 57 B 81 A 105 D

10 C 34 C 58 B 82 C 106 A

11 D 35 B 59 D 83 D 107 D

12 C 36 C 60 D 84 C 108 D

13 D 37 A 61 D 85 C 109 D

14 A 38 A 62 B 86 B 110 C

15 C 39 A 63 C 87 B 111 B

16 C 40 B 64 A 88 C 112 D

17 B 41 B 65 D 89 B 113 C

18 A 42 A 66 D 90 C 114 C

19 A 43 B 67 C 91 C 115 D

20 B 44 A 68 C 92 D 116 B

21 B 45 A 69 D 93 A 117 A

22 D 46 D 70 B 94 B 118 C

23 A 47 D 71 C 95 C 119 A

24 A 48 A 72 D 96 B 120 C
Page- 1

Sd/-
DATE : 23-Nov-2024
SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
 PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
ANSWER KEY FOR THE JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM OF ACCOUNTANT GRADE-I AND DIVISIONAL
ACCOUNTANT IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS OF GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB ( ADVT. NO. 202224,202225
AND 202228)
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COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 23-11-2024 ANSWER KEY SET - [B]

Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer

1 B 25 C 49 A 73 C 97 B

2 D 26 C 50 B 74 A 98 C

3 C 27 B 51 B 75 D 99 B

4 C 28 A 52 A 76 D 100 C

5 D 29 A 53 B 77 C 101 C

6 B 30 B 54 A 78 C 102 D

7 A 31 B 55 A 79 D 103 A

8 C 32 D 56 D 80 B 104 B

9 A 33 A 57 D 81 C 105 C

10 C 34 A 58 A 82 D 106 B

11 D 35 A 59 A 83 A 107 D

12 C 36 A 60 D 84 C 108 C

13 B 37 B 61 B 85 C 109 C

14 B 38 C 62 B 86 D 110 D

15 B 39 B 63 C 87 D 111 C

16 C 40 C 64 D 88 D 112 D

17 C 41 B 65 D 89 C 113 D

18 B 42 B 66 C 90 B 114 A

19 C 43 C 67 B 91 A 115 D

20 C 44 C 68 B 92 C 116 A

21 D 45 B 69 D 93 D 117 D

22 C 46 C 70 D 94 C 118 D

23 D 47 A 71 D 95 C 119 D

24 A 48 A 72 B 96 B 120 C
Page- 1

Sd/-
DATE : 23-Nov-2024
SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
 PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
ANSWER KEY FOR THE JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM OF ACCOUNTANT GRADE-I AND DIVISIONAL
ACCOUNTANT IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS OF GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB ( ADVT. NO. 202224,202225
AND 202228)
https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb https://link.testbook.com/bQQ2EkH1bpb

COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 23-11-2024 ANSWER KEY SET - [C]

Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer

1 C 25 B 49 B 73 C 97 D

2 D 26 C 50 C 74 D 98 D

3 D 27 C 51 B 75 D 99 C

4 A 28 B 52 B 76 C 100 B

5 D 29 C 53 C 77 B 101 A

6 A 30 C 54 C 78 B 102 C

7 D 31 D 55 B 79 D 103 D

8 D 32 C 56 C 80 D 104 C

9 D 33 D 57 A 81 D 105 C

10 C 34 A 58 A 82 B 106 B

11 B 35 C 59 A 83 C 107 B

12 D 36 C 60 B 84 A 108 C

13 C 37 B 61 B 85 D 109 B

14 C 38 A 62 A 86 D 110 C

15 D 39 A 63 B 87 C 111 C

16 B 40 B 64 A 88 C 112 D

17 A 41 B 65 A 89 D 113 A

18 C 42 D 66 D 90 B 114 B

19 A 43 A 67 D 91 C 115 C

20 C 44 A 68 A 92 D 116 B

21 D 45 A 69 A 93 A 117 D

22 C 46 A 70 D 94 C 118 C

23 B 47 B 71 B 95 C 119 C

24 B 48 C 72 B 96 D 120 D
Page- 1

Sd/-
DATE : 23-Nov-2024
SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
 PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
ANSWER KEY FOR THE JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM OF ACCOUNTANT GRADE-I AND DIVISIONAL
ACCOUNTANT IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS OF GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB ( ADVT. NO. 202224,202225
AND 202228)
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COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 23-11-2024 ANSWER KEY SET - [D]

Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer

1 C 25 D 49 A 73 B 97 C

2 D 26 B 50 B 74 A 98 C

3 A 27 A 51 B 75 A 99 D

4 B 28 C 52 D 76 D 100 B

5 C 29 A 53 A 77 D 101 C

6 B 30 C 54 A 78 A 102 D

7 D 31 D 55 A 79 A 103 A

8 C 32 C 56 A 80 D 104 C

9 C 33 B 57 B 81 B 105 C

10 D 34 B 58 C 82 B 106 D

11 C 35 B 59 B 83 C 107 D

12 D 36 C 60 C 84 D 108 D

13 D 37 C 61 B 85 D 109 C

14 A 38 B 62 B 86 C 110 B

15 D 39 C 63 C 87 B 111 A

16 A 40 C 64 C 88 B 112 C

17 D 41 D 65 B 89 D 113 D

18 D 42 C 66 C 90 D 114 C

19 D 43 D 67 A 91 D 115 C

20 C 44 A 68 A 92 B 116 B

21 B 45 C 69 A 93 C 117 B

22 D 46 C 70 B 94 A 118 C

23 C 47 B 71 B 95 D 119 B

24 C 48 A 72 A 96 D 120 C
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Sd/-
DATE : 23-Nov-2024
SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]