ENV100Y5Y Quiz #3 SECTION L0101 FORM A
1. How many people in the world are chronically hungry today?
a. 1 million
b. 50 million
c. 200 million
d. 800 million
e. 2 billion
2. The Green Revolution was (is) a
a. cluster of changes in agricultural technology, which began to be implements
in the 1950s.
b. move to increase the amount of cultivated land devoted to organic farming.
c. farm-based movement to produce more vegetable crops, as they are more energy-
efficient than meat production as a source of food for people.
d. trend towards decreasing reliance on pesticide and fertilizer use in modern
agriculture.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
3. Extensification of agriculture refers to
a. producing more; that is, achieving higher agricultural yields per unit of land.
b. bringing a greater land area into agricultural production.
c. switching to modern agricultural technologies, such as monoculture.
d. the spread of agricultural technology to the farmers of the developing world.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
4. What is “monoculture”?
a. growing one or a very small number of crops in a plantation-style
agricultural setting
b. growing of crops that have been genetically modified
c. domestication of wild varieties of crops
d. cross-breeding of wild plant organisms with domesticated crops
e. All of the above answers are correct.
5. Most of the pesticides sold in Canada today are
a. fungicides.
b. herbicides.
c. insecticides.
d. rodenticides.
e. non-toxic.
This study source was downloaded by 100000900916670 from CourseHero.com on 09-07-2025 17:42:42 GMT -05:00
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11148633/Environment-Quiz-3-Answers/
ENV100Y5Y Quiz #3 SECTION L0101 FORM A
6. Plants or animals that have been modified by the implantation of a gene taken from
another species are called
a. monocultures.
b. agrichemicals.
c. transgenic.
d. domesticated.
e. pest-resistant.
7. Genetic engineering of crops can
a. reduce the need for harmful agrichemicals.
b. increase crop yields.
c. lead to the development of crops that are tolerant to extreme environmental
conditions, such as high salt or low moisture.
d. create crop plants that are of uniform height.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
8. Feedlot agriculture
a. delivers high-energy food to animals living in very high population densities.
b. has an extremely large ecological footprint because of its high demand for land
area per animal.
c. has one major environmental benefit – reduction of pollution from animal waste.
d. is the best way to avoid the transfer of diseases among farm animals.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
9. Which one of the following has the lowest energy inputs per unit of protein output?
a. vegetable farming
b. salmon ranching
c. rangeland beef farming
d. chicken farming
e. shrimp and lobster aquaculture
10. The most important category of aquaculture product, by overall value as well as by
quantity, is
a. aquatic plants.
b. shrimp and other crustaceans.
c. molluscs (clams, mussels, etc.).
d. fish.
e. ornamental fish for aquaria.
This study source was downloaded by 100000900916670 from CourseHero.com on 09-07-2025 17:42:42 GMT -05:00
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11148633/Environment-Quiz-3-Answers/
ENV100Y5Y Quiz #3 SECTION L0101 FORM A
11. Salmon aquaculture is relatively energy-efficient because salmon
a. don’t require as much food from wild sources as other species do.
b. spend a significant part of their lifecycle in the wild and therefore don’t
require feeding or tending during that period.
c. do not require genetic engineering to grow quickly to harvestable sizes.
d. are not susceptible to diseases that sometimes attack other species.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
12. In comparison to wild capture fisheries, aquaculture operations tend to have significantly
a. higher yields, in terms of kilograms of fish per square meter.
b. higher possibility of contamination of wild stocks.
c. larger ecological footprints.
d. more negative impacts on coastal ecosystems, such as mangrove forests.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
13. Species richness, a component of species diversity, tells us
a. how many different species are present in a given area.
b. how many individuals of each different species are present in a given area.
c. how diverse and varied the available species habitat is, in a given area.
d. the extent to which numbers of individuals of different species are equal or
skewed in a given area.
e. whether the species in an area are specialists or generalists.
14. α–diversity (“alpha” diversity) refers to the
a. number of species in a large geographic area of diverse habitat.
b. number of species in a local area of homogeneous habitat.
c. turnover in species from one local area to another, based on differences in habitat.
d. relative numbers of specialists and generalists in any given area.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
15. Tropical areas have high biodiversity because
a. of their long evolutionary history.
b. their climates are stable and aseasonal (i.e., without seasonal changes).
c. they have high primary productivity.
d. they offer many different, complex habitats.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
This study source was downloaded by 100000900916670 from CourseHero.com on 09-07-2025 17:42:42 GMT -05:00
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11148633/Environment-Quiz-3-Answers/
ENV100Y5Y Quiz #3 SECTION L0101 FORM A
16. In the diagram below, there are 9 different species represented by numbered dots, in three
different habitat areas (medium-grey, light-grey, and dark-grey). Which one of the
following statements is correct concerning this diagram?
a. β-diversity is low.
b. β-diversity is high.
c. β-diversity would be
different for each of the
habitat areas.
d. γ-diversity is high.
e. Nothing about diversity
can be determined on the
basis of this diagram.
17. The theory of island biogeography is relevant to present-day environmental management
because
a. islands are in greater danger of species extinctions than most other habitats.
b. it can be applied to problems associated with habitat fragmentation.
c. islands have been so environmentally degraded that there is little hope of stopping
the extinction of island-based species.
d. local extinctions exceed background extinctions in island habitats.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
18. According to the equilibrium theory of island
biogeography, as shown on this diagram, the island
with the smallest number of species should be
a. small, and far from the mainland.
b. large, and far from the mainland.
c. small, and near the mainland.
d. large, and near the mainland.
19. Of the species that have existed over the past 4 billion years of Earth history, what
proportion is now extinct?
a. 2%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 50%
e. 99%
This study source was downloaded by 100000900916670 from CourseHero.com on 09-07-2025 17:42:42 GMT -05:00
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11148633/Environment-Quiz-3-Answers/
ENV100Y5Y Quiz #3 SECTION L0101 FORM A
20. Background extinction refers to
a. a “genetic bottleneck.”
b. the loss of much biota over a relatively short period of time.
c. normal extinctions that happen as a result of competition and environmental
disturbances.
d. the impact of early humans on fauna as a result of over-exploitation.
e. the level of extinctions throughout Earth history.
21. What is the difference between a proximate cause and an ultimate cause of extinction?
a. Proximate causes are “immediate,” ultimate causes are “root” or underlying.
b. Linkages between poverty and environmental degradation are the ultimate drivers
of the proximate causes of extinction, such as deforestation.
c. Ultimate causes include socioeconomic, political, and demographic drivers of
activities that are the proximate causes of environmental change.
d. Proximate causes like over-exploitation are driven by ultimate causes like poverty.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
22. What do the moa, dodo, passenger pigeon, and Steller’s sea cow have in common?
a. All are threatened species.
b. All were hunted, which may have contributed to pushing them towards
extinction.
c. All are endemic (native) to Australia.
d. All are specialists that evolved into a very specific ecologic niche.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
23. Which one of the following is an example of in situ conservation of species?
a. purposeful introduction of cane toads to Australia for the control of the cane beetle
b. captive breeding program for black-footed ferret
c. preservation of bamboo forest to serve as panda habitat
d. accidental introduction of zebra mussels into the Great Lakes
e. the Norwegian “doomsday vault” seed bank
24. Biomes
a. of similar type tend to occur at similar latitudes or altitudes.
b. are major regional ecosystem types.
c. of a particular type display similar characteristics, even if they occur in a variety
of geographical locations.
d. on land are mainly defined by plant communities and structures, as determined by
climatic and geographic factors.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
This study source was downloaded by 100000900916670 from CourseHero.com on 09-07-2025 17:42:42 GMT -05:00
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11148633/Environment-Quiz-3-Answers/
ENV100Y5Y Quiz #3 SECTION L0101 FORM A
25. Which forest type is most widespread in Canada?
a. temperate deciduous forest
b. boreal forest
c. temperate moist (coastal) forest
d. montane forest
e. tundra
26. This type of forest has little seasonal variation, high precipitation, a multi-layered canopy
and understory, and highly diverse flora and fauna. Which forest type is it?
a. temperate deciduous forest
b. boreal forest
c. tropical rainforest
d. temperate grassland
e. savanna
27. The most characteristic climatic feature of temperate forests is the
a. extremely abundant rainfall.
b. seasonal variation.
c. cold.
d. high level of light penetration.
e. dryness.
28. What is selective cutting?
a. cutting only trees that are not considered to be “old-growth”
b. cutting only the tops of the trees, leaving the bottom part to regrow
c. removing certain trees or small areas of trees, leaving the rest of the forest
uncut
d. harvesting trees from forest plantations rather than from natural forests
e. harvesting trees that have been interplanted with crops
29. Forest fires can be damaging, but suppressing them can cause problems, because
a. some species need fire in order to regenerate.
b. it can make subsequent fires more severe.
c. it can lead to a buildup of dead trees that act as kindling.
d. many forest species are adapted to fire disturbances.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
This study source was downloaded by 100000900916670 from CourseHero.com on 09-07-2025 17:42:42 GMT -05:00
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11148633/Environment-Quiz-3-Answers/
ENV100Y5Y Quiz #3 SECTION L0101 FORM A
30. Tree plantations are
a. a type of managed or domesticated ecosystem.
b. a form of intensification of human impact, because they concentrate resource
production.
c. not as biologically diverse as natural forests.
d. characterized by even-aged tree stands.
e. All of the above answers are correct.
Please STOP right now and check to see that your FORM
and STUDENT NUMBER are bubbled in correctly.
Extra Credit
31. In question #16, what is the β-diversity? (Calculate it.)
a. –1
b. 0
c. 1
d. 3
e. 9
f. β-diversity cannot be calculated from this diagram.
32. In the management of renewable resources like fisheries and forests, it is important to
harvest no more than can be replaced by harvestable growth each year. This is called
a. multiple-use approach.
b. maximum sustainable yield.
c. variable cultivation.
d. preservation.
e. resource extraction.
This study source was downloaded by 100000900916670 from CourseHero.com on 09-07-2025 17:42:42 GMT -05:00
https://www.coursehero.com/file/11148633/Environment-Quiz-3-Answers/
Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)
