Cbse ugc net paper First solved from july 2016 to June 2013

CBSE UGC NET Paper I Solved July 2016 - Part 1
1. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major
rivers of India?
(A) Untreated sewage (B) Agriculture run-off
(C) Unregulated small scale industries (D) Religious practices
Answer: A
2. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
(A) 2022 (B) 2030
(C) 2040 (D) 2050
Answer: B
3. Indian government‘s target of producing power from biomass by the
year 2022, is
(A) 50 MW (B) 25 MW
(C) 15 MW (D) 10 MW
Answer: Marks given to all
4. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human
survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains
minerals.
Choose the correct code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: B
5. World Meteorological Organization‘s (WMO) objective has been to
reduce the number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over
the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 80%

Answer: B
6. .............. is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer‘s start-up
routine.
(A) RIM (Read Initial Memory) (B) RAM (Random Access
Memory)
(C) ROM (Read Only Memory) (D) Cache Memory
Answer: C
7. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal
computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control
keys that the computer user selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an
acronym for
(A) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
(C) American Standard Code for Information Integrity
(D) American Standard Code for Isolated Information
Answer: A
8. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also
respiratory tract of human beings.
(A) Particulate matter (B) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Surface ozone (D) Carbon monoxide
Answer: C
9. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system
is/are correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the
Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c) (D) (c) only
Answer: D
10. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?
(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.

(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her
child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
Codes:
(A) (a), (b) and (c) (B) (a), (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: A
11. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti
Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
(A) (a) and (d) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
12. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher
education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and
Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: B
13. The best way for providing value education is through
(A) discussions on scriptural texts (B) lecture/discourses on values
(C) seminars/symposia on values (D) mentoring/reflective sessions
on values
Answer: D

14. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been
declared unconstitutional by
(A) The Supreme Court of India
(B) The High Court
(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both
(D) The President of India
Answer: A
15. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in
designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the correct
alternative from the codes given below:
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner‘s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Student‘s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (D) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: B
16. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an
intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of
analysis and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set - I
consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set - II comprising
basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate
your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:
Set - I Set - II
(Levels of Cognitive (Basic requirements for promoting
Interchange) cognitive interchange)
a. Memory level i. Giving opportunity for
discriminating examples
and non-examples of a point.
b. Understanding level ii. Recording the important points
made
during the presentations.

c. Reflective level iii. Asking the students to discuss
various
items of information.
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be
made and discussed.
Codes:
a b c
(A) ii iv i
(B) iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv
(D) i ii iii
Answer: C
17. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of
evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Set - I Set - II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and co-
cognitive aspects
with regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their
interpretations based on a
group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive iii. Grading the final
learning outcomes
evaluation
d. Norm and criterion referenced iv. Quizzes and discussions
tests
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) i iii iv ii
Answer: A
18. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to
effectiveness of teaching:

List of factors:
(a) Teacher‘s knowledge of the subject.
(b) Teacher‘s socio-economic background.
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher‘s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher‘s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher‘s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom
transactions.
Codes:
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (c), (d) and (f)
(C) (b), (d) and (e) (D) (a), (c) and (f)
Answer: D
19. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of
(A) Attracting student‘s attention in the class room.
(B) Minimizing indiscipline problems in the classroom.
(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
Answer: C
20. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical
and creative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
Answer: B
21. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features
may be considered critical?
(A) Data collection with standardised research tools.
(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.

(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
Answer: C
22. From the following list of statements identify the set which has
negative implications for ‗research ethics‘ :
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research
evidences.
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences
from other researches.
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are
regulated in terms of preliminary studies.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv) and (vi) (D) (i), (iii) and (v)
Answer: C
23. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-
proneness of children in competing school projects, the hypothesis
formulated is that ‗child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness‘.
At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the
tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available,
the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What
decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?
(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.
(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be
rejected.
(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.
Answer: B
24. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the
organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research
method will be most appropriate for this study?
(A) Historical method (B) Descriptive survey method

(C) Experimental method (D) Ex-post-facto method
Answer: D
25. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for
pursuing research?
(A) Developing a research design
(B) Formulating a research question
(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure
(D) Formulating a research hypothesis
Answer: B
26. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
(A) preparation of a research paper/article
(B) writing of seminar presentation
(C) a research dissertation
(D) presenting a workshop/conference paper
Answer: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers
from 27 to 32:
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality
of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage
across numerous durable goods and consumer-electronics industries (eg.
Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based
advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other
nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basic of
labour, Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such
durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no
longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other
industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is
clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today a huge number of
IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to
India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-
cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational
levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India,
Singapore and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage

today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through
emergence of new competitors.
In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even
paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional
concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets
coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global
commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business
players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York,
London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated
there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other
capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to
combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT)
in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can
such an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.
In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view
organizational knowledge as resource with atleast the same level of
power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An
organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive
advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge.
Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software,
military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas
provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider
semiconductors (e. g. computer chips), which are made principally of
sand and common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics
devices are designed within common office buildings, using
commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many
industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive recourse in
the semiconductor industry.
Based on the passage answer the following questions:
27. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?
(A) Access to capital (B) Common office buildings
(C) Superior knowledge (D) Common metals

Answer: C
28. The passage also mentions about the trend of
(A) Global financial flow
(B) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
(C) Regionalisation of capitalists
(D) Organizational incompatibility
Answer: A
29. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?
(A) International commerce (B) Labour-Intensive industries
(C) Capital resource management (D) Knowledge-driven competitive
advantage
Answer: D
30. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry
for decades?
(A) South Korea (B) Japan
(C) Mexico (D) Malaysia
Answer: B
31. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore
cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?
(A) Due to diminishing levels of skill.
(B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.
(C) Because of new competitors.
(D) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing
industries.
Answer: C
32. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable
overtime?
(A) Through regional capital flows.
(B) Through regional interactions among business players.
(C) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.
(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.
Answer: D
33. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

(A) Proximity, utility, loneliness
(B) Utility, secrecy, dissonance
(C) Secrecy, dissonance, deception
(D) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance
Answer: A
34. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in
the classroom.
(A) Use of peer command (B) Making aggressive
statements
(C) Adoption of well-established posture (D) Being authoritarian
Answer: C
35. Every communicator has to experience
(A) Manipulated emotions (B) Anticipatory excitement
(C) The issue of homophiles (D) Status dislocation
Answer: B
36. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are
of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and
normally employed in such a context?
(A) Horizontal communication (B) Vertical communication
(C) Corporate communication (D) Cross communication
Answer: A
7. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of
while addressing students in a classroom.
(A) Avoidance of proximity (B) Voice modulation
(C) Repetitive pause (D) Fixed posture
Answer: B
38. What are the barriers to effective communication?
(A) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
(B) Dialogue, summary and self-review.
(C) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
(D) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.
Answer: A

39. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time
turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he
now from his starting point?
(A) 20 m (B) 15 m
(C) 10 m (D) 5 m
Answer: D
40. A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C.
E is mother of D. A is related to D as
(A) Grand daughter (B) Daughter
(C) Daughter-in-law (D) Sister
Answer: A
41. In the series
AB, EDC, FGHI, ......?......, OPQRST, the missing term is
(A) JKLMN (B) JMKNL
(C) NMLKJ (D) NMKLJ
Answer: C
42. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that
one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions? Select the
correct code:
Propositions:
(a) All women are equal to men
(b) Some women are equal to men
(c) Some women are not equal to men
(d) No women are equal to men
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b) (B) (a) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (a) and (c)
Answer: D
43. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of
AMERICANS will be
(A) YKCPGAYLQ (B) BNFSJDBMR
(C) QLYAGPCKY (D) YQKLCYPAG
Answer: A

44. In the series
3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ..........
The next term will be
(A) 63 (B) 73
(C) 83 (D) 93
Answer: C
45. Two railway tickets from city A and B and three tickets from city A to
C cost Rs.177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city
A to C city Rs.173. The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.
(A) 25 (B) 27
(C) 30 (D) 33
Answer: D
46. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive
argument with two premises:
(A) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false
conclusion may be valid.
(B) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be
valid.
(C) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true
conclusion may be valid.
(D) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be
valid.
Answer: B
47. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them
(taking singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusions
validly drawn.
Premises: (i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusions: (a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a) only
(B) (a) and (c) only (D) (b) and (c) only

Answer: C
48. If the proposition ‗All thieves are poor‘ is false, which of the following
propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(A) Some thieves are poor.
(B) Some thieves are not poor.
(C) No thief is poor.
(D) No poor person is a thief.
Answer: B
49. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the
nature of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite
space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one
grain will grow.
(A) Astronomical (B) Anthropological
(C) Deductive (D) Analogical
Answer: D
50. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(A) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(B) It can provide clear method of notation.
(C) It can be either valid or invalid.
(D) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Answer: C
The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two
companies A and B during the years 2011-15. Answer questions 51-
53 based on the data contained in the table:
Year
Percentage Profit
(%)
A B
2011 20 30
2012 35 40
2013 45 35
2014 40 50
2015 25 35

Where, percent (%) Profit = (Income-Expenditure) × 100/Expenditure
51. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs.9 lakh in the year
2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio2:1, then what was
the income of the company A in that year?
(A) Rs.9.2 lakh (B) Rs.8.1 lakh
(C) Rs.7.2 lakh (D) Rs.6.0 lakh
Answer: B
52. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B?
(A) 35% (B) 42%
(C) 38% (D) 40%
Answer: C
53. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less
than that of company A?
(A) 2012 (B) 2013
(C) 2014 (D) 2015
Answer: B
The following table shows the number of people in different age
groups who responded to a survey about their favourite style of
music. Use this information to answer the questions that follow:
(Question 54-56) to the nearest whole percentage:

54. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21-
30?
(A) 31% (B) 23%
(C) 25% (D) 14%
Answer: C
55. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-
Hop is their favourite style of music?
(A) 6% (B) 8%
(C) 14% (D) 12%
Answer: D
56. What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a favourite style
other than classical music?
(A) 64% (B) 60%
(C) 75% (D) 50%
Answer: C
57. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipient at once is a
(A) Worm (B) Virus
(C) Threat (D) Spam
Answer: D
58. The statement ―the study, design, development, implementation,
support or management of computer-based information systems,
particularly software applications and computer Hardware‖ refers to
(A) Information Technology (IT)
(B) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)
(C) Information and Data Technology (IDT)
(D) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Answer: A
59. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the
binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by
(A) 110011 (B) 110010
(C) 110001 (D) 110100
Answer: A

60. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as
(A) Burning (B) Zipping
(C) Digitizing (D) Ripping
Answer: A
CBSE UGC NET Paper I Solved August 2016 (Re-test) - Part 1
1. In a Ph.D. thesis which one is the correct sequence for showing scheme
of Chapterisation ?
(A) Survey of related studies, Introduction, Design of the study, Data-
Analysis and interpretation, Conclusions and generalisations, suggested
further study, References, Appendix
(B) Introduction, Design of study, Data Analysis and Interpretation,
Generalizations, Conclusions and Survey of related studies and
suggestions for further research, References and Appendix
(C) Introduction, Survey of related studies, Design of study, Data-
presentation; analysis & Interpretation, Formulation of generalization &
Conclusions, Suggestions for further research, References & Appendix
(D) Survey of related studies, References, Introduction, Design of study,
Data analysis and interpretation, Conclusions and generalizations,
Suggestions for further research, Appendix
Answer: C
2. Which of the following is not the critical feature of qualitative research
?
(A) Actual settings are the direct source of data.
(B) Data take the forms of words or pictures.
(C) Seeking to establish relationships among measured social facts.
(D) Researcher becomes immersed in the situation, present or past
related to the phenomena.

Answer: C
3. A detailed description of methodology of research is required in
(A) Thesis/Dissertation (B) Symposium/Workshop
(C) Seminar paper/Articles (D) Conference and Seminar Papers
Answer: A
4. Research ethics has a direct connection more often with which stages of
research ?
(A) Defining and delimiting the scope of research.
(B) Problem formulation and reporting of research findings.
(C) Defining the population and deciding the sampling technique for
research.
(D) Deciding about statistical techniques and data analysis.
Answer: B
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to
10:
Many aspects of the motion-picture industry and its constituent
companies are dissimilar to those observable in advanced-technology
industries and firms. For instance, company longevity does not represent
a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts. In the
advanced-technology company for example, one new-product
innovation – which is expected to generate financial returns to the firm –
is insufficient for the company to be successful.
Rather, a stream of new product innovations is required. By
contrast with the independent production company of this case, each
new film – which is expected to generate financial returns to the
principals – is sufficient for the company to be successful. Any
subsequent new films involving the firm‘s participants will be produced
by a different independent company.
As another instance, people‘s learning is expected to have different
contributors and beneficiaries across the two organizational contexts. In
the advanced-technology company, for example, each new product
innovation provides an opportunity for participants on the project team
to learn and acquire experience, and this same company intends to retain
such participants, hence, benefit from their increased experience on the
next project. By contrast with the independent production company,

each new film provides an opportunity for participants on the project
team to learn and acquire this experience also, but this same company
has little or no expectation of retaining such participants, and hence,
benefitting from their increased experience in the next project.
Experience is paramount in the motion-picture industry. Generally,
on film projects, budgets are very tight, and schedules are very
demanding. People are hired largely based on their experience and are
expected to perform well immediately when called to do so. There is
negligible slack time or margin for learning through trial and error, but
experienced people learn exactly through trial and error. Because
experience is valued so highly and film-production houses have such
short time horizons, entry into the industry is very difficult for most
people. Further, the role played by schools and colleges is minimal in
this industry. Some skills and techniques can be learned and refined
through formal education (e.g., acting schools, theatre, film degrees), but
the majority come through direct experience. Mentoring plays an
important role. True, the film business focuses heavily on exploitation
over exploration. Yet success of the industry as a whole is critically
dependent upon learning and exploration overtime.
Answer the following questions:
5. What is not a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts
?
(A) Dissimilarity (B) Product package
(C) Financial return (D) Company longevity
Answer: D
6. What will be sufficient for an independent production company to be
successful ?
(A) New product innovations
(B) Financial returns from each new film
(C) Active role by firm‘s participants
(D) Organisational context
Answer: B
7. What does an advanced-technology company expect from the learning
experience of its participants ?
(A) Benefit for the next project

(B) Opportunity for more learning
(C) Little expectation of retaining them
(D) Help in marketing the previous product
Answer: A
8. What is not the expectation of an independent production company in
the case of its participants ?
(A) Absence from the next project.
(B) Retention for the next project.
(C) Participation in the current project.
(D) Use of opportunity to acquire experience.
Answer: B
9. Why do film production houses value experience highly ?
(A) Because of the importance of trial and error methods.
(B) Because of the margin for learning.
(C) Because of short time horizons.
(D) Because it allows easy entry to everyone into the film world.
Answer: C
10. According to the author, what has been the focus of film business ?
(A) Formal education (B) Mentoring
(C) Exploitation (D) Indirect experience
Answer: C
11. Internal and external factors that affect message reception by the
students in the classroom are referred to as
(A) feedback (B) fragmentation
(C) channelization (D) noise
Answer: D
12. A teacher in a classroom has immediate control over
(A) the self, selected methods of communication and the message.
(B) the audience, the noise and the reception.
(C) the feedback, the technology and the audience experience.
(D) the communication channel, other communicators, and external
factors.
Answer: A
13. What do communicated words carry in a classroom situation ?
(A) Inspiration, controversy and introspection

(B) Diversion, criticism and irrationality
(C) Insipidity, irrationality, and non-acceptance
(D) Power, structure and tradition
Answer: D
14. As a good classroom communicator, you are supposed to know your
(A) audience emotions (B) silent cues
(C) artful pauses (D) counter arguments
Answer: C
15. Figure out the components of non-verbal communication in a
classroom from the following :
(A) Facial expression, cultural space and seating arrangement
(B) Speed of utterance, feel good factor and acoustics
(C) High sound, physical ambience and teacher-learner distance
(D) Facial expression, kinesics and personal space
Answer: D
16. Which of the following are the basic factors of effective listening ?
(A) Opinionation, stare and glare and interruptions
(B) Aggressive questioning, continuous cues and frequent movement
(C) Me-too-ism, glancing sideways, and offering advice
(D) Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection, and asking open-
ended questions
Answer: D
17. In a particular code, HOSPITALS is coded as HSOLSAPTI. The code
of BIOLOGICALS will be
(A) BLICOALIOSG (B) BOLGICAILOS
(C) SBLAOILOBCG (D) BSILOALCOIG
Answer: D
18. In the series
1, 5, 13, 25, 41, …….
the next term is
(A) 59 (B) 63
(C) 61 (D) 68
Answer: C

19. At present, a mother is 3 times older than her son. After 5 years, the
sum of their ages will be 70 years. The age of the mother after 10 years
will be
(A) 40 (B) 55
(C) 45 (D) 60
Answer: B
20. In the series
AYD, BVF, DRH, GMJ, ? the next term is
(A) GLK (B) HLM
(C) LHM (D) KGL
Answer:
21. C and D are sisters. A and B are brothers. E is son of A and brother of
D. B is related to C as
(A) Brother (B) Son
(C) Uncle (D) Father-in-law
Answer: C
22. Anil played 8 cricket matches. The mean (average) of the runs was
found to be 80. After playing four more matches, the mean of the runs of
all the matches was found to be 70. The total runs made in the last four
matches is
(A) 400 (B) 300
(C) 200 (D) 100
Answer: C
23. If two propositions are connected in such a way that they cannot both
be false although they may both be true, then their relationship is called
(A) Contrary (B) Subcontrary
(C) Contradictory (D) Subalternation
Answer: B
24. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a deductive
type of argument ?
(A) The conclusion follows from the premise/premises necessarily.
(B) The argument admits degree of complexity.

(C) The argument provides us knowledge about matters of fact.
(D) The argument must be either valid or invalid.
Answer: C
25. Select the code which states the condition of an invalid deductive
argument :
(A) All the premises are true but the conclusion is false.
(B) Some of the premises are true but the conclusion is false.
(C) All the premises are false and the conclusion is also false.
(D) All the premises are true and the conclusion is also true.
Answer: A
26. Given below are two premises, with four conclusions drawn from them
(taking singly or together); which conclusions are validly drawn ? Select
the correct answer from the codes given below :
Premises : (i) All bats are mammals.
(ii) Birds are not bats.
Conclusions : (a) Birds are not mammals.
(b) Bats are not birds.
(c) All mammals are bats.
(d) Some mammals are bats.
Codes :
(A) (a), (b) and (d) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a) and (c) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
27. When a definition implies a proposal to use the definiendum to mean
what is meant by the definiens it is called
(A) Lexical definition (B) Stipulative definition
(C) Precising definition (D) Persuasive definition
Answer: B
28. Select the code which is not correct :
An analogical argument is strengthened by
(A) increasing the number of entities.
(B) increasing the number of similar respects.
(C) reducing the claim made earlier stronger.

(D) making the conclusion stronger when premises remain
unchanged.
Answer: D
Consider the following two tables (I and II) that show the percentage of
students in each faculty at University and the number of foreign students
in the Science faculty. These percentages have been rounded to the
nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 students in the science
faculty. Study these tables I and II and answer the questions that follow
(Questions 29 – 31):
29. Approximately, what percentage of students in the Science faculty
is that of foreign students ?
(A) 14% (B) 9%
(C) 30% (D) 11%
Answer: D
30. Approximately, how many students belong to the Engineering faculty ?
(A) 420 (B) 410
(C) 390 (D) 400
Answer: B
31. In case, there are 34 European medical students, then approximately,
what is their percentage in the medicine faculty ?
(A) 13% (B) 18%
(C) 12% (D) 15%
Answer: D
A college has a total of 800 MCA students, 80% of whom are in class

MCA-III and remaining are equally divided between class MCA-I and
class MCA-II. The proportion of female students and the proportion of
vegetarian students in the college are indicated as under through the
table. Answer questions 32 to 34 based on this information.
For example, in the table above, 0.525 is the total proportion of female
students and 0.53 is the total proportion of vegetarian students in the
college.
32. What is the percentage of female students in class MCA-III ?
(A) 40 (B) 45
(C) 50 (D) 55
Answer: D
33. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in class MCA-I ?
(A) 40 (B) 45
(C) 50 (D) 55
Answer: A
34. How many total non-vegetarian students are there in class MCA-I and
class MCA-II ?
(A) 72 (B) 88
(C) 78 (D) 92
Answer: B
35. Which of the following statements regarding the features of
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is/are true ?
I. ICT are the main instruments for the creation of computer networks
and the applications based on them.

II. ICT support the spread of information and knowledge, separating the
content from the place where it belongs physically.
III. The digital and virtual nature of most of ICT products allow the
expenditure for them to be maximized.
Codes :
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only
(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III
Answer: A
36. If one GigaByte is equal to 230
Bytes of data storage, then 1024
TeraBytes is equal to .............. bits of data storage.
(A) 250
(B) 253
(C) 240
(D) 256
Answer: B
37. The software used to navigate through the web is known as
(A) Website (B) Web Browser
(C) Internet (D) World Wide Web
Answer: B
38. With regard to e-mail, what does Bcc : mean ?
(A) Blind Computer Communication : - The users specified in the Bcc :
field will get the e-mail and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.
(B) Blind Carbon Copy : - The users specified in the Bcc : field will get
the e-mail and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.
(C) Blind Computer Communication :- The users specified in the Bcc :
field will get the e-mail but it will be an audio file because this is how
blind people get e-mail.
(D) Blind Carbon Copy : The users specified in the Bcc : field will get
the e-mail but will not see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.
Answer: B
39. Random Access Memory (RAM), a form of computer storage, is a
............. memory.
(A) Non-volatile (B) Volatile
(C) Permanent (D) Secondary
Answer: B

40. In Computer Networking, HTTP is referred to as a stateless protocol as
servers do not maintain any information about past client requests.
HTTP is an acronym for
(A) Hyper Text Translation Protocol
(B) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(C) High TeraByte Transfer Protocol
(D) Hypervisor Test Translation Protocol
Answer: B
41. The arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and parts of India
is due to
(A) industrial waste (B) thermal power plants
(C) natural sources (D) agricultural practices
Answer: C
42. Among the following air pollutants which directly impacts human
health as well as climate ?
(A) Soot (B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Oxides of nitrogen (D) Chlorofluoro carbons
Answer: A
43. Assertion (A): The problems of environmental sustainability are
difficult to resolve.
Reason (R): Our understanding how environment works and how
different human choices affect environment is inadequate.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
Answer: A
44. The percentage share of electrical power from solar energy in the total
electric power generation from all renewable energy sources sought to
be achieved by Indian government by the year 2022, is
(A) ~ 57.1% (B) ~ 65.5%
(C) ~ 47.5% (D) ~ 75%

Answer: A
45. As part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions, Indian
government through additional forest and tree cover has resolved to
create an additional carbon sink (in terms of carbon dioxide equivalent)
by year 2030 to the extent of
(A) 3.5 to 4 billion tons (B) 2.5 to 3 billion tons
(C) 1.5 to 2 billion tons (D) 1 to 1.5 billion tons
Answer: B
46. Which of the following is a meteorological hazard ?
(A) Avalanche (B) Coastal erosion
(C) Landslide (D) Blizzard
Answer: D
47. Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the
India Rankings 2016 ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
(B) Central University, Hyderabad
(C) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
(D) Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai
Answer: C
48. Which of the following statements are correct about distance education
in India ?
(a) It supplements formal education.
(b) It reduces the cost of education.
(c) It replaces the formal education.
(d) It enhances access to education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
49. Which of the following are statutory bodies ?
(a) Election Commission of India
(b) University Grants Commission (UGC)

(c) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Codes :
(A) (a), (b) and (c) (B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c) (D) (b) and (d)
Answer: C
50. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya
Sabha ?
(a) It has same powers as those of Lok Sabha.
(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of
Ministers.
(c) It can amend a money bill.
(d) It can be dissolved during emergency.
Codes :
(A) (b) and (c) (B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: D
51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the
powers of the Governor of a State ?
(a) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
(b) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.
(c) He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.
(d) He has diplomatic powers.
Codes :
(A) (a) only (B) (a) and (b)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: A
52. In which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (Hear
the other party) must be followed ?
(a) Dismissal of an employee

(b) Supersession of a municipality
(c) Threat to national security
(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee
Codes :
(A) (a) and (b) (B) (a) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
53. Which of the following set of statements reflects the basic
characteristics of teaching ?
Select the correct alternative from the codes :
(i) Teaching is the same as training.
(ii) There is no difference between instruction and conditioning
when we teach.
(iii) Teaching is related to learning.
(iv) Teaching is a ‗task‘ word while learning is an ‗achievement‘
word.
(v) Teaching means giving information.
(vi) One may teach without learning taking place.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (v) (D) (i), (iv) and (vi)
Answer: B
54. Which of the following factors affect teaching ?
Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i) Teacher‘s internal locus of control.
(ii) Learner-motivation.
(iii) Teacher‘s biographical data.
(iv) Teacher‘s self efficacy.
(v) Learner‘s interest in co-curricular activities.
(vi) Teacher‘s skill in managing and monitoring.
(vii) Teacher‘s knowledge of the subject including general
knowledge.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) and (vii) (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(C) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and
(vi)
Answer: A
55. Which combination of methods of teaching is likely to optimise
learning ?
(A) Lecturing, discussions and seminar method
(B) Interactive discussions, planned lectures and PowerPoint based
presentations
(C) Interactive lecture sessions followed by buzz sessions,
brainstorming and projects
(D) Lecturing, demonstrations and PowerPoint based presentations
Answer: C
56. Assertion (A): Teaching aids have to be considered as effective
supplements to instruction.
Reason (R): They keep the students in good humour.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: B
57. The purpose of formative evaluation is to
(A) grade students‘ learning outcomes.
(B) accelerate students‘ learning performance.
(C) check students‘ performance graph.
(D) provide feedback to teacher effectiveness.
Answer: B
58. Which of the following learner characteristics are likely to influence
the effectiveness of teaching aids and evaluation systems to ensure
positive results?
(A) Learner‘s family background, age and habitation.

(B) Learner‘s parentage, socio-economic background and performance
in learning of the concerned subject.
(C) Learner‘s stage of development, social background and personal
interests.
(D) Learner‘s maturity level, academic performance level and
motivational dispositions.
Answer: D
59. For advancing knowledge, the latest strategy used by mankind is
(A) consulting an authority (B) deductive reasoning
(C) scientific thinking (D) inductive reasoning
Answer: C
60. There are two sets given below, Set-I consists of methods of research
and Set-II indicates their procedural characteristics. Match the two sets
and choose your answer from the codes given below :
Set – I Set – II
(Research method) (Procedural Characteristics)
a. Experimental method i. Interventions to ameliorate a given
situation
b. Expost facto method ii. Explaining patterns of behaviour in
terms of
meanings and their representations which
people share.
c. Descriptive method iii. Manipulating an
independent variable in
controlled conditions and measuring its
effect on dependent variable.
d. Symbolic interactionism iv. Depending on primary and
secondary
sources of data.
e. Action research v. Obtaining information concerning
the
current status of phenomena.
vi. Observing the effect on dependent variable
and making probes into factors/variables
which explain it.

vii. Exegetic analysis.
Codes :
a b c d e
(A) i iii iv v vii
(B) iii iv v vi vii
(C) i ii iii iv v
(D) iii vi v ii I Answer: D
CBSE UGC NET Paper I Solved Questions December 2015
1. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational
institutions, greater the demand on the:
(A) Family (B) Society
(C) Teacher (D) State
Answer: C
2. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive
Evaluation ?
(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.
(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: D
3. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?

(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes
(A) (a), (b) and (d) (B) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
4. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of
multiple - choice type questions?
(A) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
(B) They are less objective than essay type questions.
(C) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.
(D) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.
Answer: A
5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques
Delors report to UNESCO was titled
(A) International Commission on Education Report
(B) Millennium Development Report
(C) Learning : The Treasure Within
(D) World Declaration on Education for All
Answer: C
6. What are required for good teaching?
(a) Diagnosis (b) Remedy
(c) Direction (d) Feedback
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a) and (b)
(C) (b), (c) and (d) (D) (c) and (d)
Answer: A

7. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of
participatory research ?
(A) It recognizes knowledge as power.
(B) It emphasises on people as experts.
(C) It is a collective process of enquiry.
(D) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.
Answer: D
8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of
a hypothesis?
(A) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.
(B) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
(C) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(D) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.
Answer: B
9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing
format?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
(b) Invert authors‘ names (last name first)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
(d) Alphabetically index reference list
(A) (a) and (b) (B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
10. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?
(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) and (c) (B) (b) and (d)
(C) (b), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: D

11. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular
political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?
(A) Rating scale (B) Interview
(C) Questionnaire (D) Schedule
Answer: C
12. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
(A) Thesis format (B) Copyright
(C) Patenting policy (D) Data sharing policies
Answer: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers
13 to 17.
I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which
is a horror unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card was
leaning over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the
headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or
a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I
decided to just write ―Good luck, best, Joel‖.
It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to
write. My entire existence is ―tap letters into computer‖. My shopping
lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember
something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when
I‘m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to
make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10
don‘t own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19
years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you
letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don‘t have
letter paper at home. And a quarter have never known the unique torture
of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an
exam paper.

Bic, have you heard of mobile phones ? Have you heard of e-mail,
facebook and
snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead.
Handwriting is a relic.
―Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and
should be given the same importance as other art forms such as
sketching, painting or photography.‖
13. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like ―a rabbit
in the headlight‖. What does this phrase mean ?
(A) A state of confusion (B) A state of pleasure
(C) A state of anxiety (D) A state of pain
Answer: A
14. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of
pursuit?
(A) Handwriting (B) Photography
(C) Sketching (D) Reading
Answer: D
15. The entire existence of the author revolves round
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewriter
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (b) only (B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (b) and (c) only
Answer: B
16. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(A) 800 (B) 560
(C) 500 (D) 100

Answer: D
17. What is the main concern of the author?
(A) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(B) That the teens use mobile phones.
(C) That the teens use computer.
(D) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.
Answer: D
18. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:
(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (a) and (b) only (B) (b), (c) and (d) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only (D) (a) only
Answer: B
19. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the
beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(A) Systemisation (B) Problem - orientation
(C) Idea protocol (D) Mind mapping
Answer: D
20. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
(A) Physical language (B) Personal language
(C) Para language (D) Delivery language
Answer: C
21. Every type of communication is affected by its:
(A) Reception (B) Transmission
(C) Non-regulation (D) Context
Answer: D
22. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom
communication are considered as:
(A) Verbal (B) Non-verbal
(C) Impersonal (D) Irrational
Answer: B
23. Most often, the teacher - student communication is:

(A) Spurious (B) Critical
(C) Utilitarian (D) Confrontational
Answer: C
24. In a classroom, a communicator‘s trust level is determined by:
(A) the use of hyperbole (B) the change of voice level
(C) the use of abstract concepts (D) eye contact
Answer: D
25. The next term in the series
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ? is:
(A) 50 (B) 57
(C) 62 (D) 72
Answer: A
26. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of of
students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found
to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:
(A) 80 (B) 76
(C) 74 (D) 72
Answer: D
27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he
has travelled in a wrong direction, lie turned and travelled 12 km
towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The
straight distance of the office from his house is:
(A) 20 km (B) 14 km
(C) 12 km (D) 10 km
Answer: D
28. The next term in the series:
B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ? is:
(A) J561 (B) 162Q
(C) Q62J (D) J58Q
Answer: D
29. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons,
their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were
present. The number of females present in the party is:
(A) 12 (B) 14
(C) 18 (D) 24

Answer: B
30. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q
is related to R as:
(A) Son (B) Brother
(C) Uncle (D) Father
Answer: C
31. Consider the argument given below:
‗Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors,
architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a
testing.‘
What type of argument it is?
(A) Deductive (B) Analogical
(C) Psychological (D) Biological
Answer: B
32. Among the following propositions two arc related in such a way that
they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are
those propositions? Select the correct code.
Propositions:
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b) (B) (c) and (d)
(C) (a) and (c) (D) (a) and (d)
Answer: D
33. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference
is called
(A) An inference (B) An argument
(C) An explanation (D) A valid argument
Answer: B
34. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the
correct code given below:

(A) : No man is perfect.
(R): Some men are not perfect.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient
reason for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for
(A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: A
35. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some
symbol is called:
(A) Lexical (B) Precising
(C) Stipulative (D) Persuasive
Answer: C
36. If the proposition ‗No men are honest‘ is taken to be false which of
the following proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be
true?
Propositions:
(A) All men are honest (B) Some men are honest
(C) Some men are not honest (D) No honest person is man
Answer: B
Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and
Electrical Power Production of a country.

Based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 37 to
42.
37. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?
(A) 1961-71 (B) 1971-81
(B) 1991-2001 (D) 2001-2011
Answer: A
38. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:
(A) ~12.21% (B) ~9.82%
(C) ~6.73% (D) ~5%
Answer: B
39. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population
in the year 2021?
(A) 40.34 million (B) 38.49 million
(C) 37.28 million (D) 36.62 million
Answer: B
40. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?
(A) 100 W (B) 200 W
(C) 400 W (D) 500 W
Answer: D
41. In which decade, the average power availability per person was
maximum?
(A) 1981-1991 (B) 1991-2001
(C) 2001-2011 (D) 1971-1981

Answer: C
42. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 o
2011?
(A) 100% (B) 300%
(C) 600% (D) 900%
Answer: D
43. NMEICT stands for:
(A) National Mission on Education through ICT
(B) National Mission on E-governance through ICT
(C) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(D) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
Answer: A
44. Which of the following is an instant messaging application ?
(a) WhatsApp
(b) Google Talk
(c) Viber
(A) (a) and (b) only (B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (a) only (D) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: D
45. In a Computer a byte generally consists of:
(A) 4 bits (B) 8 bits
(C) 16 bits (D) 10 bits
Answer: B
46. Which of the following is not an input device?
(A) Microphone (B) Keyboard
(C) Joystick (D) Monitor
Answer: D
47. Which of the following is an open source software?
(A) MS Word (B) Windows
(C) Mozilla Firefox (D) Acrobat Reader
Answer: C

48. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different
persons in MS Word?
(A) Mail join (B) Mail copy
(C) Mail insert (D) Mail merge
Answer: D
49. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution
may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves
(b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters
(A) (a) and (b) only (B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (b) only (D) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: D
50. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans ?
(A) Pesticides (B) Mercury
(C) Lead (D) Ozone
Answer: A
51. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily
help in checking environmental degradation.
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and
environmental degradation is rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following
(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: A
52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
(A) Wildfire (B) Lightning
(C) Landslide (D) Chemical contamination
Answer: D

53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is
planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year
2030 to
(A) 175 GW (B) 200 GW
(C) 250 GW (D) 350 GW
Answer: D
54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year),
identify the correct sequence.
(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India
Answer: C
55. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar
Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing
autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into
autonomous colleges.
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: B
56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational
institutions is constitutionally prohibited are
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B

57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined
by the Election Commission.
(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an
equality of votes.
(A) (a) and (c) (B) (a), b) and (c)
Answer: A
58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in
(A) the Union List (B) the State List
(C) the Concurrent List (D) the Residuary Powers
Answer: B
59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(D) not fixed
Answer: D
60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in
the Lok Sabha?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) West Bengal
Answer: A
CBSE UGC NET General Paper I Solved June 2015
1. Which of the following represents one billion characters?
(A) Terabyte (B) Kilobyte
(C) Megabyte (D) Gigabyte

Answer: D
Explanation:
One million=1,000,000
one billion=1,000,000,000=10003
1 byte may hold 1 character
1000 bytes=1 kilobyte
10002
bytes=1 megabyte
10003
bytes=1 gigabyte
2. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of
anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(A) Population, forest cover and land available per person
(B) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(C) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for
exploiting resources
(D) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
Answer: C
3. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the
decimal number 25?
(A) 11011 (B) 10101
(C) 01101 (D) 11001
Answer: D
4. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the
following aims?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing, autonomy to each and every higher educational
institution in India
(A) (a), (b) and (d) (B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
5. The session of the parliament is summoned by:
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha

(B) The President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: B
6. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is
about:
(A) ~15% (B) ~3%
(C) ~6% (D) ~10%
Answer: C
7. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?
(A) India (B) USA
(C) European Union (D) China
Answer: C
8. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is
known as:
(A) Decryption (B) Protection
(C) Detection (D) Encryption
Answer: D
9. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on:
(A) 7th July (B) 21st April
(C) 24th April (D) 21st June
Answer: B
10. The South Asia University is situated in the city of:
(A) Kathmandu (B) Colombo
(C) Dhaka (D) New Delhi
Answer: D
11. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting?
(A) Google Talk (B) AltaVista
(C) MAC (D) Microsoft Office
Answer: A

12. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education
in India at present (2015) is about:
(A) 23 percent (B) 8 percent
(C) 12 percent (D) 19 percent
Answer: D
13. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6
respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA
will be approximately:
(A) ~64 (B) ~8
(C) ~16 (D) ~32
Answer: D
14. Which of the following is not an output device?
(A) Keyboard (B) Printer
(C) Speaker (D) Monitor
Answer: A
15. Which of the following is not open source software?
(A) Apache HTTP server (B) Internet explorer
(C) Fedora Linux (D) Open office
Answer: B
16. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the
following pollutants is not included?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Fine particulate matter (D) Ozone
Answer: A
17. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was:
(A) 43 (B) 08
(C) 14 (D) 27
Answer: A
18. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural
resources?
(A) Oil, forests and tides
(B) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(C) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(D) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
Answer: D

19. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?
(A) Learning through experience
(B) Teacher's knowledge
(C) Class room activities that encourage learning
(D) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
Answer: D
20. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire?
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.
(b) Review of the current literature.
(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: A
21. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability?
(A) Evaluating (B) Knowing
(C) Understanding (D) Analysing
Answer: A
22. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of:
(A) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching
(B) Making selections for a specific job
(C) Selecting candidates for a course
(D) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
Answer: A
23. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be
generalized to other situations?
(A) Causal Comparative Research (B) Historical Research
(C) Descriptive Research (D) Experimental Research
Answer: B
24. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include:
(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture

(c) Group work
(d) Self study
(A) (a), (b) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: B
25. A good thesis writing should involve:
(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.
(b) careful checking of references.
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) a clear and well written abstract.
(A) (b), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer: B
26. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of
research are correct?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities
undertaken to find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein
verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of
principles can be done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
(C) (b), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (c) and (d)
Answer: A
27. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the
basis of his:
(A) Evaluation Research (B) Fundamental Research
(C) Applied Research (D) Action Research
Answer: B

28. "Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical
aptitude test." This statement indicates a:
(A) statistical hypothesis (B) research hypothesis
(C) null hypothesis (D) directional hypothesis
Answer: C
29. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
30. A good teacher is one who:
(A) inspires students to learn
(B) gives useful information
(C) explains concepts and principles
(D) gives Printed notes to students
Answer: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 31 to 36.
Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary
history. It is the essence of what makes us Human.
Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a
great variety of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ
greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are
dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history,
knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories
that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the
future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely,
on which stories we collectively choose to believe.

Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is
because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some
tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings:
"Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there are stories that
indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few
especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being led by those who
call themselves "rational optimists". They tend to claim that it is human
nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of
others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has
progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large
groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and
poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the
'Practical Possibles', who sit between those who say all is fine and
cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future,
and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed.
What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and
how we act on them.
31. Rational optimists:
(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (b) and (c) only (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a) only (D) (a) and (b) only
Answer: B
32. Humans become less selfish when:
(A) they work in solitude
(B) they work in large groups
(C) they listen to frightening stories
(D) they listen to cheerful stories
Answer: B
33. 'Practical Possibles' are the ones who:
(A) are cheerful and carefree (B) follow Midway Path
(C) are doom-mongers (D) are self-centred

Answer: B
34. Story telling is:
(A) the essence of what makes us human
(B) an art
(C) a science
(D) in our genes
Answer: A
35. Our knowledge is a collection of:
(A) some important stories
(B) all stories that we have heard during our life-time
(C) some stories that we remember
(D) a few stories that survive
Answer: D
36. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories?
(A) Designed to make prophecy
(B) We collectively choose to believe in
(C) Which are repeatedly narrated
(D) Designed to spread fear and tension
Answer: B
37. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older
than his wife. After 3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age
of the person's wife after 5 years will be:
(A) 50 (B) 42
(C) 48 (D) 45
Answer: A
38. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other.
Select the correct code that represents them:
Statements:
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes:
(A) (b) and (c) (B) (a) and (b)
(C) (a) and (d) (D) (a) and (c)

Answer: D
39. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the
number of students who have:
passed in all five subjects = 5583
passed in three subjects only = 1400
passed in two subjects only = 1200
passed in one subject only 735
failed in English only = 75
failed in Physics only = 145
failed in Chemistry only = 140
failed in Mathematics only = 200
failed in Bio-science only = 157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is:
(A) 7900 (B) 6300
(C) 6900 (D) 7300
Answer: B
40. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication?
(A) Strategic use of grapevine
(B) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(C) Participation of the audience
(D) One-way transfer of information
Answer: D
41. In communication, the language is:
(A) The non-verbal code (B) The verbal code
(C) Intrapersonal (D) The symbolic code
Answer: B
42. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate
ambiguity the definition is called:
(A) Persuasive (B) Stipulative
(C) Theoretical (D) Lexical
Answer: D
43. A deductive argument is invalid if:
(A) Its premises and conclusions are all true

(B) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(C) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(D) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
Answer: C
44. Which of the following are the characteristic features of
communication?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: A
45. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Select the code:
Statements:
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes:
(A) (a), (c) and (d) (B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (a), (b) and (d) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
46. The next term in the series is:
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(A) 80 (B) 73
(C) 75 (D) 78
Answer: C
47. Inductive reasoning is grounded on:

(A) Harmony of nature (B) Integrity of nature
(C) Unity of nature (D) Uniformity of nature
Answer: D
48. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must
rely on reason of the type:
(A) Physiological (B) Inductive
(C) Deductive (D) Demonstrative
Answer: B
49. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the
following?
(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: C
50. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned
right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left
and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his
home straight?
(A) 30 (B) 10
(C) 20 (D) 15
Answer: D
51. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of
her uncle. The boy is related to the girl as:
(A) Son (B) Brother
(C) Uncle (D) Nephew
Answer: B

52. In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of
HOTELS will be:
(A) ELIPQB (B) LEQIBP
(C) ELQBIP (D) LEBIQP
Answer: C
53. The term 'grapevine' is also known as:
(A) Horizontal communication (B) Downward communication
(C) Informal communication (D) Upward communication
Answer: C
54. Assertion (A): Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.
Reason (R): Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow
of information.
(A) (A) is false but, (R) is correct
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of
(A)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation
of (A)
(D) (A) is correct but, (R) is false
Answer: A
Question numbers 55 to 60 are based on the tabulated data given
below:
A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in
thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of them:

55. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group
40-50 years?
(A) 36.5 (B) 35
(C) 42.5 (D) 40.5
Answer: C
56. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average
salary of all the employees?
(A) 47% (B) 45%
(C) 50% (D) 55%
Answer: D
57. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30-35 years?
(A) 35% (B) 20%
(C) 25% (D) 30%
Answer: A
58. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary ≥ 40,000 per
month?
(A) 32% (B) 45%
(C) 50% (D) 35%
Answer: B
59. What is the average age of the employees?
(A) 45.3 years (B) 40.3 years
(C) 38.6 years (D) 47.2 years
Answer: B
60. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years.
Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary?
(A) 50-55 years (B) 35-40 years
(C) 40-45 years (D) 45-50 years
Answer: A

CBSE UGC NET General Paper I December 2014
1. CSS stands for
(A) Cascading Style Sheets
(B) Collecting Style Sheets
(C) Comparative Style Sheets
(D) Comprehensive Style Sheets
Answer: A
2. MOOC stands for
(A) Media Online Open Course
(B) Massachusetts Open Online Course
(C) Massive Open Online Course
(D) Myrind Open Online Course
Answer: C
3. Binary equivalent of decimal number 35 is
(A) 100011 (B) 110001
(C) 110101 (D) 101011
Answer: A
4. gif, jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for files which store
(A) Audio data (B) Image data
(C) Video data (D) Text data
Answer: B
5. Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following?
(A) Binary number system
(B) Decimal number system
(C) Hexadecimal number system
(D) Octal number system
Answer: C
6. Which one of the following is not a search engine?
(A) Google (B) Chrome
(C) Yahoo (D) Bing
Answer: B
7. In terms of total CO2 emissions from a country, identity the correct
sequence:

(A) U.S.A. > China > India > Russia
(B) China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
(C) China > U.S.A. > Russia > India
(D) U.S.A. > China > Russia > India
Answer: B
8. Match List – I and List – II and identify the correct code:
a. World Health Day i. 16th September
b. World Population Day ii. 1st December
c. World Ozone Day iii. 11th July
d. World AIDS Day iv. 7th April
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv ii i
Answer: B
9. Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than 2/3rd of
global water consumption?
(A) Agriculture (B) Hydropower generation
(C) Industry (D) Domestic and Municipal usage
Answer: A
10. One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air is
(A) Cement Industry (B) Fertiliser industry
(C) Foam industry (D) Pesticide industry
Answer: C
11. The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identified by
the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of
(A) Bihar (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Delhi
Answer: B
12. Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant
degrees under the UGC Act, 1956?
(A) A university established by an Act of Parliament.
(B) A university established by an Act of Legislature.
(C) A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.

(D) An institution which is a deemed to be university.
Answer:
13. Which of the following are the tools of good governance?
1. Social Audit
2. Separation of Powers
3. Citizen‘s Charter
4. Right to Information
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D
14. The cyclone ―Hudhud‖ hit the coast of which State?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala (D) Gujarat
Answer: A
15. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?
(A) Clean air (B) Fresh water
(C) Fertile soil (D) Salt
Answer: D
16. Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in
(A) Right to Freedom
(B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(C) Right to Equality
(D) Right against Exploitation
Answer: B
17. Which of the following organizations deals with ―capacity building
programe‖ on Educational Planning?
(A) NCERT (B) UGC
(C) NAAC (D) NUEPA
Answer: D
18. Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok
Sabha?
1. Summoning
2 Adjournment- sine die
3. Prorogation

4. Dissolution
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
19. The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed
(A) 3 months (B) 6 months
(C) 4 months (D) 100 days
Answer: B
20. Maximum participation of students during teaching is possible through
(A) Lecture method (B) Demonstration method
(C) Inductive method (D) Textbook method
Answer: C
21. Diagnostic evaluation ascertains
(A) Students performance at the beginning of instructions.
(B) Learning progress and failures during instructions.
(C) Degree of achievements of instructions at the end.
(D) Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during
instructions.
Answer: D
22. Instructional aides are used by the teacher to
(A) Glorify the class (B) Attract the students
(C) Clarify the concepts (D) Ensure discipline
Answer: C
23. Attitude of the teacher that affects teaching pertains to
(A) Affective domain (B) Cognitive domain
(C) Connative domain (D) Psychomotor domain
Answer: A
24. ―Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man‖ was stated
by
(A) M. K. Gandhi (B) R. N. Tagore
(C) Swami Vivekanand (D) Sri Aurobindo
Answer: C
25. Which of the following is not a prescribed level of teaching?
(A) Memory (B) Understanding

(C) Reflective (D) Differentiation
Answer: D
26. The core elements of dissertation are
(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and
Recommendations
(B) Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered;
Conclusions; Bibliography
(C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results;
Discussion and Conclusion
Answer:
27. What is a Research Design?
(A) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
(C) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a
graph.
(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of
data.
Answer: D
28. ―Sampling Cases‖ means
(A) Sampling using a sampling frame
(B) Identifying people who are suitable for research
(C) Literally the researcher‘s brief case
(D) Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.
Answer: D
29. The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in
shape similar to a normal distribution but center peak is much higher, is
(A) Skewed (B) Mesokurtic
(C) Leptokurtic (D) Platykurtic
Answer: C
30. When planning to do a social research, it is better to
(A) Approach the topic with an open mind
(B) Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
(C) Be familiar with literature on the topic
(D) Forget about theory because this is a very practical

Answer: A
31. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentations to an
audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is
called
(A) Training Program (B) Seminar
(C) Workshop (D) Symposium
Answer: B
32. Media is known as
(A) First Estate (B) Second Estate
(C) Third Estate (D) Fourth Estate
Answer: D
33. The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting
information to a large number of receivers simultaneously, is called
(A) Group Communication
(B) Mass Communication
(C) Intrapersonal Communication
(D) Interpersonal Communication
Answer: B
34. A smart classroom is a teaching space which has
(i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.
(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.
(iii) Document camera and specialized software
(iv) Projector and screen
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: B
35. The term ―Yellow Journalism‖ refers to
(A) Sensational news about terrorism and violence
(B) Sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers.
(C) Sensational news about arts and culture.
(D) Sensational news prints in yellow paper.
Answer: B

36. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or
images. The students are really
(A) Encoders (B) Decoders
(C) Agitators (D) Propagators
Answer: B
37. The next term in the series: AB, ED, IH, NM, — is
(A) TS (B) ST
(C) TU (D) SU
Answer: A
38. If STREAMERS is coded as UVTGALDQR, then KNOWLEDGE will
be coded as
(A) MQPYLCDFD (B) MPQYLDCFD
(C) PMYQLDFCD (D) YMQPLDDFC
Answer: B
39. A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the
father of A. D is related to E as
(A) Daughter (B) Daughter-in-law
(C) Sister-in-law (D) Sister
Answer: B
40. Two numbers are in the ration 3:5. If 9 is subtracted from the numbers,
the ratio becomes 12:23. The numbers are
(A) 30, 50 (B) 36, 60
(C) 33, 55 (D) 42, 70
Answer: C
41. The mean of the ages of father and his son is 27 years. After 18 years,
father will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages are
(A) 42, 12 (B) 40, 14
(C) 30, 24 (D) 36, 18
Answer: A
42. Digital Empowerment means
(i) Universal digit literacy
(ii) Universal access to all digital resources
(iii) Collaborative digital platform for participative governance.
(iv) Probability of all entitlements for individuals through cloud.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: D
43. The next term in the series: 2, 7, 28, 63, 126, — is
(A) 215 (B) 245
(C) 276 (D) 296
Answer: A
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 44 to 48:
The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so
much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of
literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in
literature, i.e., on the very politics of such representation. A political
novel often turns out to be not merely a novel about politics but a novel
with a politics of its own, for it seeks not merely to show us how things
are but has fairly definite ideas about how things should be, and
precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in
that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to
a particular cause or ideology; it often is (in an only too familiar phrase)
not literature but propaganda. This is said to violate the very spirit of
literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and the
range of our sympathies rather than to narrow them down through
partisan commitment. As John Keats said, ‗We hate poetry that has a
palpable design upon us‘.
Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind
of literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its
very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. If political situations
do not lend themselves to happy literary treatment, political ideas
present perhaps an even greater problem in this regard. Literature, it is
argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual
abstractions; it deals in what is called the ‗felt reality‘ of human flesh
and blood, and in sap and savour. (rasa) rather than in and and lifeless
ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the

Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ‗ideas are
still today felt to be unsightly in the novel‘ though that was not so in
‗former days‘, i.e., in the 18th and 19th centuries. Her formulation of the
precise nature of the incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and
the novel on the other betrays perhaps a divided conscience in the matter
and a sense of dilemma shared by many writers and readers : ‗An idea
cannot have loose ends, but a novel, I almost think, needs them.
Nevertheless, there is enough in common for the novelists to feel… the
attraction of ideas while taking up arms against them — most often with
weapons of mockery.‘
44. The constructs of politics by its nature is
(A) Prevalent political situation
(B) Ideas and Ideologies
(C) Political propaganda
(D) Understanding of human nature
Answer: C
45. Literature deals with
(A) Human experiences in politics
(B) Intellectual abstractions
(C) Dry and empty ideas
(D) Felt reality of human life
Answer: D
46. The observation of the novelist, May McCarthy reveals
(A) Unseen felt ideas of today in the novel
(B) Dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels
(C) Compatibility between idea and novel
(D) Endless idea and novels
Answer: B
47. According to the passage, a political novel often turns out to be a
(A) Literary distaste for politics
(B) Literary representation of politics
(C) Novels with its own politics
(D) Depiction of murky practice of politics
Answer: C

48. A political novel reveals
(A) Reality of the tings
(B) Writer‘s perception
(C) Particular ideology of the readers
(D) The spirit of literature
Answer: B
49. Warrior is related to sword, carpenter is related to saw, farmer is related
to plough. In the same way, the author is related to
(A) Book (B) Fame
(C) Reader (D) Pen
Answer: D
50. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B and C over-lapping each
other? The circle A represents the class of honest people, the circle B
represent the class of sincere people and circle C represents the class of
politicians. p, q, r, s, U, X, Y represent different regions. Select the code
that represents the region indicating the class of honest politicians who
are not sincere.
(A) X (B) q
(C) p (D) s
Answer: D
51. ―A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if
he owes his advantage to a better education, than he ought to boast of his
courage for beating a man when his hands were tied.‖ The above
passage is an instance of
(A) Deductive argument (B) Hypothetical argument
(C) Analogical argument (D) Factual argument
Answer: C
52. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ―wise men are
hardly afraid of death‖ is contradicted?
(A) Some wise men are afraid of death.
(B) All wise men are afraid of death.
(C) No wise men is afraid of death.
(D) Some wise men are not afraid of death.

Answer: B
53. When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow
from the others, that group of propositions is called
(A) An argument (B) A valid argument
(C) An explanation (D) An invalid argument
Answer: A
54. Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and karabi are
obedient and irregular. Babita andNamita are irregular but brilliant.
Samita and Kabita are regular and obedient. Who among them is/are
brilliant, obedient, regular and studious?
(A) Samita alone (B) Namita and Samita
(C) Kabita alone (D) Anita alone
Answer: A
For a county CO2 emissions (million metric tons) from various sectors
are given in the following table. Answer the questions (55 to 60) base on
the data given
55. By what percentage (%), the total emissions of CO2 have increased
from 2005 to 2009?
(A) ~89.32% (B) ~57.62%
(C) ~40.32% (D) ~113.12%
Answer: A
56. What is the average annual growth rate of CO2 emission in power
sector?
(A) ~12.57% (B) ~16.87%
(C) ~30.81% (D) ~50.25%
Answer: A
57. What is the percentage contribution of power sector to total CO2
emission in the year 2008?
(A) ~30.82% (B) ~41.18%
(C) ~51.38% (D) ~60.25%
Answer: B

58. In which year, the contribution (%) of industry to total sectoral CO2
emission was minimum?
(A) 2005 (B) 2006
(C) 2007 (D) 2008
Answer: A
59. What is the percentage (%) growth of CO2 emission from power sector
during 2005 to 2009?
(A) 60 (B) 50
(C) 40 (D) 80
Answer: A
60. Which sector has recorded maximum growth in CO2 emission during
2005 to 2009?
(A) Power (B) Industry
(C) Commercial (D) Agriculture
Answer: D
UGC NET General Paper I Solved June 2014
1. "lf a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as
an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength."
The argument put above may be called as
(A) Analogical (B) Deductive
(C) Statistical (D) Casual
Answer: A
2. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the
code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in
character.

(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment
Answer: C
3. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can
both be true but cannot both be false, the relation between those two
propositions is called
(A) contradictory (B) contrary
(C) subcontrary (D) subaltern
Answer: C
4. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How
many numbers have been written?
(A) 32 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 38
Answer: A
5. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with
each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B
represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of
politicians. p, q, r, s... represent different regions. Select the code
containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are
not politicians.

Codes:
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only
Answer: B
6. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from
the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
(i) No cats are mammals
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No Dogs are cats
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: C
Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer
questions from 7 to 11:
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)

7. Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the maximum
improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-
03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government Canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube Wells and other wells
(D) Other Sources
Answer: D
8. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06
Answer: D
9. Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the maximum
incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the
years given in the table.
(B) Private Canals
(C) Tube Wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
Answer: A
10. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells
in the total net irrigated area was the highest?

(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05
Answer: C
11. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and
2005-06 ?
(B) Private Canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other Sources
Answer: C
12. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?
(A) PNG (B) GIF
(C) BMP (D) GUI
Answer: D
13. The first Web Browser is
(A) Internet Explorer (B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web (D) Firefox
Answer: C
14. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM (D) TCP
Answer: B
15. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three?
(A) MAC address (B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address (D) IP address
Answer: D
16. Identify the IP address from the following:
(A) 300 .215.317 3
(B) 302.215@417.5
(C) 202.50.20.148
(D) 202-50-20-148
Answer: C

17. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer Protocol
(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
Answer: A
18. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in
recent times?
(A) Paris (B) London
(C) Los Angeles (D) Beijing
Answer: D
19. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents
Answer: C
20. 'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption of large amount of material
(B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves
(D) strong winds and water waves
Answer: A
21. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average
consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules.
If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon
emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06
kgs, the total carbon emissions per
year from India will be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons

(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons
Answer: B
22. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the
Union Ministry of
(A) Environment (B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs (D) Defence
Answer: C
23. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List – I List - II
a. Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced by the passage of
vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through which molted substances
come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of
water
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Answer: A
24. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: C

25. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is
general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in
average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial
times by
(A) 1.5 o
C to 2 o
C
(B) 2.0 o
C to 3.5 o
C
(C) 0.5 o
C to 1.0 o
C
(D) 0.25 o
C to 0.5 o
C
Answer: A
26. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the Planning
Commission?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
Answer: B
27. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
Answer: C
28. Which of the following are Central Universities?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: A
29. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from
the code given below:
i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil
Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii (D) i and iv
Answer: D
30. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university
concept?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University
Answer: B
31. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central
University?
1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the
Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the
Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C
32. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).
Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in
bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick
decisions.
Codes:
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: A
33. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?
(A) Lecture (B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration (D) Narration
Answer: C
34. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
Answer: C
35. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned
by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer: B

36. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective (B) cognitive
(C) affective (D) selective
Answer: C
37. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes
Answer: A
38. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself
Answer: D
39. A thesis statement is
(A) an observation (B) a fact
(C) an assertion (D) a discussion
Answer: C
40. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people
create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm
Answer: D
41. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling?

(A) Simple Random (B) Purposive
(C) Systematic (D) Stratified
Answer: B
42. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative (D) Summative
Answer: C
43. The research stream of immediate application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research
Answer: B
44. Who among the following propounded the concept of paradigm?
(A) Peter Haggett (B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn (D) John K. Wright
Answer: C
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 45 to 49:
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the
individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration
of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we
call the 'State'. The Indian 'State's' special feature is the peaceful, or
perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various
historical provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical,
economic and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in
social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian
law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of
the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban
is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional
group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their

ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the
word 'State' above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a
conflict between the individual and the State, at least before foreign
governments became established, just as there was no concept of state
'sovereignty' or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modem Indian 'secularism' has an admittedly peculiar feature: It
requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention and support
amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India's famed tolerance
(Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions
prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to
the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression
made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the
basic constitution of Thomas More's Utopia. There is little about modern
India that strikes one at once as Utopian: but the insistence upon the
inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized
exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different
features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the
essence of all Utopians.
45. The author uses the word 'State' to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual
throughout the period of history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a
point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty
(D) Dependence of religion
Answer: D
46. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian 'Secularism'?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
Answer: A
47. The basic construction of Thomas More's Utopia was inspired by

(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State
Answer: A
48. What is the striking feature of modern India?
(A) A replica of Utopian State
(B) Uniform Laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values
(D) Absence of Bigotry
Answer: D
49. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian state?
(A) peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of
leadership
(B) peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical
provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economical and
political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups
Answer: B
50. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the
area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory
Answer: D
51. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar
Answer: D

52. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish (B) secure
(C) decode (D) change
Answer: C
53. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also
referred to as
(A) sparks (B) green Dots
(C) snow (D) rain Drops
Answer: C
54. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there
is
(A) noise (B) audience
(C) criticality (D) feedback
Answer: D
55. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A) Short Circuit (B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness (D) Entropy
Answer: D
56. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word
RESPONSE?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
Answer: C
57. lf the series 4,5,8,13,14,17,22,........ is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a term of this series?
(A) 31 (B) 32
(C) 33 (D) 35

Answer: C
58. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP,.......... by choosing one of the
following option given :
(A) TS (B) ST
(C) RS (D) SR
Answer: A
59. A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6
km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km after. Then he walked further
3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk
for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(C) 5 km (D) 6 km
Answer: C
60. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs 7, Rs 8,
Rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps
is
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 23 (D) 29
Answer: A
UGC NET General Paper I Solved December 2013

1. Which is the main objective of research ?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known
facts
Answer: D
2. Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis
Answer: B
3. The principles of fundamental research are used in
(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research
Answer: B
4. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience (B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience (D) Negative audience
Answer: B
5. Classroom communication can be described as
(A) Exploration (B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration (D) Discourse
Answer: D
6. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions (B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions (D) Creations
Answer: B
7. In communication, myths have power, but are
(A) uncultural (B) insignificant

(C) imprecise (D) unpreferred
Answer: C
8. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
(A) Samachar (B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar (D) Samachar Bharati
Answer: C
9. Organisational communication can also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication.
(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication.
(D) mass communication.
Answer: C
10. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are
such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is
called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation
Answer: A
11. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write
and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in
Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in
Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A) Archana (B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya (D) Krishna
Answer: C
12. A stipulative definition may be said to be
(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D) Neither true nor false
Answer: D
13. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its
premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called

(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument
Answer: C
14. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the
Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are
inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is.
What type of argument is contained in the above passage ?
(A) Deductive (B) Astrological
(C) Analogical (D) Mathematical
Answer: C
15. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those
two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion
validly drawn.
Premises :
(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest.
Answer: C
Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals
(FTAs) in India from different regions of the world in different years.
Study the table carefully and answer questions from 16 to 19 based on
this table.

16. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total
foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia
Answer: B
17. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative
growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia
Answer: D
18. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of
share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia
Answer: A

19. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist
arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia
Answer: C
20. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society
Answer: A
21. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns
Answer: B
22. Internal communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN (B) WAN
(C) EBB (D) MMS
Answer: A
23. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films
Answer: C
24. The first virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: D

25. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they
appeared. Use the code given below :
(i) Limits to Growth
(ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: C
26. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of
desertification ?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America
Answer: A
27. ―Women are closer to nature than men.‖ What kind of perspective is
this ?
(A) Realist (B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology
Answer: B
28. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the
removal of tropical forests ?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion
of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the
earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture
content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

Answer: A
29. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-
environment interaction is one of the following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
Answer: D
30. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in
urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
Answer: B
31. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the
combustion of
(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG (D) CNG
Answer: B
32. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Answer: A
33. Which of the following statements are correct about the National
Assessment and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting
institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.

4. It has regional offices.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
34. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between
two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction
Answer: C
35. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
36. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central
Information Commission?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information
Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs
25,000/-

4. It can punish an errant officer.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C
37. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013
Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
Answer: A
38. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of
CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these
Answer: B
39. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is
Rs 7/- whereas that of a mango is Rs 5/-. If the person has Rs 38, the
number of apples he can buy is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
Answer: D
40. A man pointing to a lady said, ―The son of her only brother is the
brother of my wife‖. The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mother‘s sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law

Answer: D
41. In this series
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many
pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
Answer: C
42. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean
marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the
remaining students is
(A) 85 (B) 60
(C) 70 (D) 65
Answer: A
43. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times
as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years (B) 8 years
(C) 12 years (D) 16 years
Answer: C
44. Which of the following is a social network ?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
Answer: D
45. The population information is called parameter while the
corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design

(D) Statistics
Answer: D
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 46 to 51 :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the
International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of
Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO‘s
assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126
member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000
professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical
expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in
global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be
meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent
investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination
are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have
demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision
pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of
cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to
the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable
heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the
service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150
trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe
shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training
institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be
made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been
done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy
part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address
local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-
historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters
perhaps overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also
serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the
heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate
conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of
people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many
traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices

offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the
Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for
conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength
for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green
building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and
conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building
practices campaign in future.
46. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of
the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO‘s assistance to the educational
institutions.
(D) after ASI‘s measures to protect the monuments.
Answer: A
47. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical
expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.
Answer: B
48. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the
conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and
dissemination of awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India‘s meaningful assistance.
Answer: C
49. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small
number of protected monuments. As per given the total number of

monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage
comes to
(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent
(C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent
Answer: B
50. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our
cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and
engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer: B
51. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural
heritage. The full form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
Answer: D
52. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a
teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish those causing disturbance.
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class.
Answer: C

53. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher‘s satisfaction.
(B) Teacher‘s honesty and commitment.
(C) Teacher‘s making students learn and understand.
(D) Teacher‘s liking for professional excellence.
Answer: C
54. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
Answer: B
55. Arrange the following teaching process in order :
(i) Relate the present knowledge with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
Answer: D
56. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.
Answer: C
57. Teacher‘s role at higher education level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.

(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
Answer: B
58. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts
Answer: A
59. The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation,
Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of
Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations,
Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation,
Co-variation.
Answer: A
60. In sampling, the lottery method is used for
(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation
Answer: D

UGC NET General Paper I June 2013
1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was
3.5%. Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many
years, the population of the world would have increased by a factor 16 ?
(A) ~ 80 years (B) ~ 40 years
(C) ~ 160 years (D) ~ 320 years
Answer: A
2. Telephone is an example of
(A) linear communication
(B) non-linear communication
(C) circular
(D) mechanised
Answer: A
3. Means of grapevine communication are
(A) formal (B) informal
(C) critical (D) corporate
Answer: B
4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by
(A) ILO (B) ITU
(C) UNDP (D) UNESCO
Answer: D
5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with
(A) reality (B) falsity
(C) negativity (D) passivity
Answer: A
6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as
(A) non-pervasive treasure
(B) limited judgement
(C) autonomous virtue
(D) cultural capital
Answer: D
7. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective (B) affective

(C) cognitive (D) non-selective
Answer: C
8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times
digit 3 will be written is
(A) 18 (B) 19
(C) 20 (D) 21
Answer: C
9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then
turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks
10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to
the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is
(A) 38 (B) 42
(C) 52 (D) 24
Answer: D
10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E
and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats
of E. The person opposite to B is
(A) C (B) D
(C) A (D) F
Answer: D
11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is
(A) 238 (B) 432
(C) 542 (D) 320
Answer: A
12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the
charge of the distance travelled. A person paid Rs.156 for a journey of
16 km and another person paid Rs.204 for the journey of 24 km. The
amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is
(A) 236 (B) 240
(C) 248 (D) 256
Answer: B
13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of
NORTH will be
(A) QRUWK (B) RQWUK

(C) RWQUK (D) RWUKQ
Answer: A
14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play
tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play
golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton.
Who does play only cricket ?
(A) Yadav (B) Arjun
(C) Rajesh (D) Kamal
Answer: B
15. A deductive argument can not be valid :
(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.
(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.
(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.
(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.
Answer: B
16. An analogical argument is strengthened by
(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.
(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.
(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is
found to exhibit greater frailty.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: B
17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is
the relation between the two propositions ?
(A) Contrary (B) Sub-contrary
(C) Sub-alternation (D) Contradictory
Answer: B
18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of
wider scope. Select the correct code.
(A) Garments, cloth and shirts
(B) Cloth, garments and shirts
(C) Shirts, garments and cloth
(D) Garments, shirts and cloth
Answer: B
19. What is equivalent of the statement ‗All atheists are pessimists‘ ?

(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.
(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.
(C) All pessimists are atheists.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: A
In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary
sources are given. Study the table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 :
(Production in peta Joules)
20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total
production of energy ?
(A) 2007–08 (B) 2008–09
(C) 2009–10 (D) 2010–11
Answer: C
21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in
production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity
(D) Total production of energy
Answer: A

22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the
highest growth in production in 2008–09 ?
(A) Coal & lignite (B) Crude petroleum
(C) Natural gas (D) Hydro & nuclear electricity
Answer: A
23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost
double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together
?
(A) 2006–07 (B) 2007–08
(C) 2008–09 (D) 2009–10
Answer: C
24. The Internet ethical protocol is called
(A) net protocol (B) netiquette
(C) net ethics (D) net morality
Answer: B
25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as
(A) Net ads (B) Internet commercials
(C) Webmercials (D) Viral advertisements
Answer: C
26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term
(A) Internet society (B) Electronic society
(C) Network society (D) Telematic society
Answer: C
27. GIF stands for
(A) Global Information Format
(B) Graphics Information Format
(C) Graphics Interchange File
(D) Graphics Interchange Format
Answer: D
28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
(A) IBM AIX (B) Linux
(C) Sun Solaris (D) Firefox
Answer: D
29. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala

2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only (D) 4 only
Answer: D
30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National
Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of
India.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
Answer: D
31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the
intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on
Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
Answer: D

32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is
in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State
Assembly ?
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B) Assam and Nagaland
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: A
33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: D
34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service
Commission are correct ?
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation
of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of
Tribunals and Commissions.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
Answer: D
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35
to 40 :
I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women‘s
International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee

and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from
different political parties and women‘s organizations were on the
committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over
her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her
political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won
her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her
integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an
adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the
mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the
worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.
In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf
Ali‘s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she
could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women‘s
advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media,
reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements
were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common
people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She
passed away in July 1996.
35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(A) Women‘s International Year‘s Committee
(B) Steering Committee of Women‘s International Year
(C) A Committee of Publicity
(D) Women‘s Organizations
Answer: B
36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?
Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i) Representatives from different political parties.
(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii) Representatives from the women‘s organizations.
(iv) None of the above.
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii) (B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (iv)
Answer: A
37. Aruna earned respect because of

(A) she identified with the leftists
(B) she did not associate with any political party
(C) chairing a Steering Committee
(D) she identified with women‘s organizations
Answer: B
38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?
(A) Women Organizations (B) Leftists
(C) Steering Committee (D) Some Political Parties
Answer: B
39. Aruna‘s health began to deteriorate from
(A) 1985 – 2002 (B) 1998 – 2000
(C) 1981 – 2000 (D) 1989 – 2001
Answer: C
40. Aruna‘s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were
(A) Role of media
(B) Economic justice
(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs
(D) All the above
Answer: D
41. A good teacher must be
(A) resourceful and autocratic
(B) resourceful and participative
(C) resourceful and authoritative
(D) resourceful and dominant
Answer: B
42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture method
(B) Discussion method
(C) Demonstration method
(D) Question-Answer method
Answer: C
43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is
(A) Circular (B) Reciprocal
(C) Directional (D) Influential

Answer: B
44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning
progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students
during instruction ?
(A) Placement evaluation
(B) Formative evaluation
(C) Diagnostic evaluation
(D) Summative
Answer: B
45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ?
(A) Macro teaching (B) Team teaching
(C) Cooperative teaching (D) Micro teaching
Answer: D
46. CLASS stands for
(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools
Answer: C
47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?
(A) Single group experiment
(B) Residual group experiment
(C) Parallel group experiment
(D) Rational group experiment
Answer: B
48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?
(A) t-test (B) Sign test
(C) Chi-square test (D) Run test
Answer: A
49. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to
reach international standards.
Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative
research in academic institutions.

Find the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: C
50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :
(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection,
interpretation of findings
(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection,
(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature,
(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings,
data collection
Answer: A
51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in
(A) Basic Science (B) Applied Science
(C) Social Science D) Literature
Answer: D
52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated
?
(A) Univariate analysis (B) Factor analysis
(C) Case studies (D) SWOT analysis
Answer: B
53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent
variable and a dependent variable is known as
(A) antecedent variable (B) precedent variable
(C) predictor variable (D) control variable
Answer: D
54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method ?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
Answer: D
55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of
India aims at installing
(A) 20,000 MW of wind power
(B) 25,000 MW of wind power
(C) 20,000 MW of solar power
(D) 10,000 MW of solar power
Answer: C
56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO
recognition ?
(A) Manas (B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Seshachalam Hills (D) Greater Nicobar
Answer: D
57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other
throughout world ?
(A) Agriculture (B) Hydroelectric power generation
(C) Industry D) Urbanisation
Answer: A
58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List – I (Biosphere Reserve) List – II (Area of Location)
a. Nilgiri i. Deccan Peninsula
b. Manas ii. Chhattisgarh
c. Similipal iii. Eastern Himalaya
d. Achankmar-Amarkantak iv. Western Ghat

Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: D
59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which
one of the following does not form part of G5 ?
(A) Mexico (B) Brazil
(C) China (D) Korea
Answer: D
60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions
of carbon di-oxide?
(A) China (B) Japan
(C) USA (D) India
Answer: C

Cbse ugc net paper First solved from july 2016 to June 2013

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