Download to read offline
More Related Content
Sa7wa+booklet
- 1. 1 1) All ofthe following bacteria have cell wall EXCEPT a) Anthrax b) Mycoplasma c) Clostridium d) Streptococcus 2) In gram positive bacteria peptidoglycans form ……. of the wall while in gram negative bacteria it forms …….. a) 5-10% and 50-80% b) 30-50% and 60-80% c) 50-80% and 5-10% d) 50-80% and 10-50% 3) Teichoic acid in gram positive bacteria is the major surface antigen a) True b) False 4) ………..is responsible for high antibiotic resistance in the cell wall of gram negative bacteria a) Lipid A b) O-antigen c) Porins d) None of the above 5) ………… is the major surface antigen in gram negative bacteria a) Teichoic acid b) H-antigen c) F-Factor d) O-Antigen 6) Cytoplasmic membrane is responsible for active transport of nutrients as it contains a) Cytochromes b) Respiratory enzymes c) Hydrolytic enzymes d) Permeases 7) Which of the following is responsible for toxicity in gram negative bacteria a) Lipoproteins b) Lipid A c) Porins d) O- Antigen 8) ..… Appears to be the points of attack of certain antibiotics a) Cytoplasmic granules b) Plasmids c) Ribosomes d) None of the above
- 2. 2 9) The nucleoidmaterial of bacteria is devoid of nuclear membrane and nucleolus a) True b) False 10) Capsular substance is usually made of polysaccharides though in some species it’s made of protein as in a) Anthrax b) Mycoplasma c) Clostridium d) None of the above a) Protection against phagocytosis11- Common pili is responsible for b) The attachment of bacteria to host cell12- Flagella is responsible for c) Motility13- F-pili is responsible for d) Plays a role during conjugation14- Capsule is responsible for 15) Which of the following can stabilize the bacterial enzymes during sporulation a) Spore cortex b) Exosporium c) Calcium dipicolinate d) All of the above 16) Basic elements for bacteria include all of the following EXCEPT a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Carbon d) Sodium 17) The vast majority of parasitic bacteria grow best at pH (8.5 -9.0) a) True b) False 18) All of the following bacteria cannot grow in the presence of oxygen EXCEPT a) M.Tuberculosis b) Staphylococci c) Clostridia d) Helicobacter 19) In the absence of oxygen the facultative anaerobes grow less vigorously a) True b) False 20) ……. can survive during dryness for months a) Gonococci
- 3. 3 b) Small poxvirus c) Common cold virus d) Treponema pallidum a- The bacteria are more sensitive to the effect of antimicrobial agent 21- Lag phase b- the rate of death increases22- Stationary phase c- The rate of growth diminishes23- Log phase d- There is no multiplication of bacteria ofreven depletion 24- Death phase 25) Bacterial pathogens which have surface factors that impede phagocytosis a) Str.pneumonia b) Str.pyogenes c) Bordetella d) Both a and b are correct 26) Opportunistic microorganisms can cause disease under these conditions a) When the host is replaced by another one. b) When host defense virulence mechanism is lowered . c) When natural habitat of microorganism is changed. d) When alteration in the host tissue occurs 27) Microorganisms capable of infecting the tissue of normal healthy subjects are a) Commensal b) Opportunistic c) Pathogenic d) All of the above 28) Pathogens that inhibit chemotaxis to prevent phagocytosis a) Str.pneumonia b) Str.pyogenes c) Bordetella d) (a&b) 29) The capacity to initiate infection is related to all the following except a) Dose of the pathogene b) Transmissibility c) Growth phase
- 4. 4 d) Virulence 30) Thegrowth phase that is more infectious is a) Log phase b)Lag phase c) Stationary phase d)Decline phase 31) Virulence is the a) Capacity to initiate infection b)Degree of pathogenicity of organism c) Ability to transport to the host d)None of the above 32) Virulence depends on a) Ability to produce toxin b)Dose of pathogene c) Potency of the toxine d)(a&c) e) All of the above 33) Coryneabacterium diphtheria are a) Highly virulent b)Moderately virulent c) Avirulent d)None of the above 34) Adherence factors allow the bacteria to start the diease process. a) True b)False 35) Invasiveness is the ability to a) Invade the tissue b)Multiply c) Spread d)All of the above 36) All of the following are virulence actors except a) Adherence factors b)Invasiveness c) Transmissibility d)Extracellular enzymes 37) Transmissibility includes a) Portal of entry b)Portal of exit c) All of the above d)None of the above 38) Exotoxins are produced by a) Gram +ve bacteria b)Some Gram –ve bacteria c) All of the above d)None of the above 39) Endotoxins have specific receptors on host cells. a) True b)False 40) Exotoxins can be converted to antigenic, non- toxic toxoids.
- 5. 5 a) True b)False 41) Geneswhich are essential for bacterial growth are carried on a) Chromosome b)Plasmid c) Transposable elements d)All of the above 42) DNA in bacteria are present in a) Chromosome b)Plasmid c) Transposable elements d)(a&b) e) All of the above 43) Chromosome in bacteria consists of single supercoiled ,elongated double stranded helix of DNA. a) True b)False 44) Plasmid can code for the following except a) Antibiotic resistance b)Toxin production c) Growth factors d)Bacteriocines 45) The transposable elements never contain genetic information for their own replication. a) True b)False 46) Genetic transfer within the cell depends on a) Insertion sequence elements b)Transduction c) Transposons d)All of the above e) None of the above 47) Insertion mutation may destroy the activity of the gene. a) True b)False 48) The release of DNA into environment and uptake of that DNA by recipient cells is a) Transformation b)Transduction c) Conjugation d)Mutation e) None of the above 49) All the following are conditions of competence except a) Late log phase b)Pores in the wall of competent cell c) The cells are the same size
- 6. 6 d)None of theabove 50) In generalized transduction bacteriophage can transfer a) Chromosomal gene b)Plasmid c) Both of them d)None of the above 51) The genome of bacteriophage is always inserted in afew specific sites of bacterial genome in a) Ttransforation b)Restricted transduction c) Generalized transduction d)(b&c) e) None of the above 52) In restricted transduction the bacteriophage can transfer only chromosomal DNA. a) True b)False 53) Recombination which follows any successful gene transfer involves a) Integration of transferred genes into the recipient cell DNA b)Maintaining its existence c) DNA remains without replication d)(A&B) e) None of the above 54) Viruses are small biologically active obligate intracellular parasites that carry either DNA or RNA or both of them a) True b)False 55) Viruses can affect all of the following EXCEPT a) Animal b)Human c) Plants d)Fungi 56) The size of viruses ranges from a) 50-100 nm b)20-400 Mm c) 20-400 nm d)100-200 Mm 57) The virion is incomplete infectious viral particle a) True b)False 58) The capsid is asymmetrical protein shell that enclose N.A. genome a) True b)False 59) Functions of the capsid include
- 7. 7 a) Protection ofthe viral nucleic acid against nucleases b)Carry VAP in naked viruses c) Package enzymes essential for early steps of the replication process d)All of the above e) Both a and b 60) An example for cubic / icosahedral symmetry capsomeres a) Herpes viruses b)Pox viruses c) Myxo viruses d)Rabdo viruses 61) An example for complex symmetry capsomeres a) Adenoviruses b)Herpes viruses c) Myxo viruses d)None of the above 62) The shape of the virus may be a) Spherical b)Filamentous c) Brick shapes d)All of the above 63) Concerning virus envelope a) It’s a protein containing lipid b)Peplomeres are exposed on its surface c) Sensitive to lipid solvents d)All of the above e) None of the above 64) Naked Viruses are sensitive to all of the following EXCEPT a) UVR b)Chlorine c) Iodine d)Ether 65) Viruses are stable at low temperature , most can be stored at -40c or perfectly at 70c a) True b)False 66) Naked Icosahedral RNA viruses includes all of the following EXCEPT a) Picornaviridae b)Caliciviridae c) Reoviridae d)Togaviridae 67) Virus specific non structural proteins include a) Polymerases b)Regulatory proteins c) Proteins to effect release from the cells d)Caspids 68) Non enveloped viruses enter the cell by
- 8. 8 a) Receptor mediatedendocytosis b)Viropexis c) Fusion with the cell membrane d)Both a and b e) None of the above 69) Uncoating is the 4th phase of virus growth cycle a) True b)False 70) The phase of transcription and translation of the viral genome a) Assembly b)Eclipse c) Uncoating d)None of the above 71) Early transcription and translation results in formation of a) Polymerases b)Regulatory proteins c) Virus specific antigen d)All of the above 72) Replication of the viral nucleic acid occurs in the late stage of eclipse a) True b)False 73) The process of enclosing the viral genome in a protein capsid is called a) Syncitia b)Eclipse c) Assembly d)None of the above 74) Phages can be found in soil and eater a) True b)False 75) The stable , heritable , non infectious intracellular form a) Mature phage b)Vegetative phage c) Prophage d)Lysogenic 76) The temperate phage is a vegetative phage that may result in either lytic or lysogenic a) True b)False 77) The DNA of the phage is chemically and physically different from that of bacteria a) True b)False 78) Bacterial cell wall is weakened by the action of a phage muramidase present on a) Helical sheath b)Head c) The base plate
- 9. 9 d)None of theabove 79) In normal situations the only prophage gene that is expressed is the one coding for the repressor protein a) True b)False 80) All transducing phages contain single stranded DNA a) True b)False 81) Which one of the following is false about aflatoxin a) Powerful toxin b)Produced by Aspergillus flavus c) Incriminated in liver malignancy d)Contain five or more alkaloids 82) ………… can be used to control bleeding and treating migraine a) Aflatoxin b)Ergot c) Streptomyces d)None of the above 83) Histoplasmosis is an example of a) Filamentous fungi b)Yeasts c) Yeast like fungi d)Dimorphic fungi 84) The only pathogenic yeast in medical mycology is a) Candida b)Aspergillus flavus c) Creptococcus neoformans d)Histoplasmosis 85) All of the following are true about molds EXCEPT a) They have long branching filaments or hyphae b)Not all mycelium penetrates deeply into the solid medium when it’s grown c) The filamentous fungi produce a variety of sexual spores d)Pigmentation is present a) Binds to ergosterol and cause the fungal membrane to become leaky 86 - Flu cytosine b) Inhibit formation of mitotic spindles87 - Amphotericin c) Prevent synthesis of fungal ergosterol88 - Griseofulvin
- 10. 10 d) Disrupt proteinsynthesis89 - Azole 90) Which of the following is not effective against dermatophytes a) Nystatin b)Amphotericin c) Nizoral d)Allylamine antifungal agents e) Both a and b are correct 91) All of the following statements are true about Intraconazole EXCEPT a) Have less effect on metabolism of concomitantly administered drug b)It have high liability to inhibit human p450 enzyme c) It penetrates poorly into CSF d)It the most potent of azoles 92) ……….. can be used to treat candiduria and fungal arthritis a) Amphotericin B topical preparations b)Nystatin c) Clotrimazole d)Griseoflavin 93) Soil- removing of microorganisms is done by……….. a) Cleaning b)Disinfection c) Sterilization d)None of the above 94) Cleaning can be considered as…………. of disinfection a) Low level b)Intermediate level c) High level d)None of the above 95) All the following are destroyed by cleaning EXCEPT a) Vegetative bacteria b)Bacterial spores c) Enveloped viruses d)Non- enveloped viruses 96) QAC detergents are bactericidal to………. But support the growth of…….. bacteria a) Gram +ve , Gram -ve b)Gram –ve , Gram +ve c) Bactericidal to both d)Support to both 97) Detergents have no bactericidal effect a) True
- 11. 11 b)False 98) Hypochlorites areused to provide………. a) Cleaning b)Disinfection c) Sterilization d)Both a and b are correct e) All of the above 99) Washing process is used to disinfect eating utensils by rinsing them at …….. for few minutes a) 70 Degrees b)90 Degrees c) 100 Degrees d)110 Degrees 100) Pasteurization by flash process requires keeping milk in……… degrees temperature for……… a) 63 , 30 min b)63 , 20 min c) 72, 20 sec d)72, 30 sec 101) All the following are killed by boiling EXCEPT a) TB b)Collestridia tetani spores c) Hepatitis C virus d)Cryptococcus 102) The best method to kill spores is by………. a) Washing b)Pasteurization c) Boiling d)Tyndallization 103) All the following are antigenic EXCEPT a) Polypeptides b)Polysaccharides c) Lipids d)Liposaccharides 104) penicillin is considered as…….. a) Hapten b)Iso-antigen c) Heterophile d)Superantigen 105) Blood groups are…….. a) Hapten b)Iso-Antigen c) Heterophile antigen d)Super antigen 106) EBV is…….. a) Hapten b)Iso-Antigen c) Heterophile antigen d)Super antigen
- 12. 12 107) Staphylococcal enterotoxin is……….. a)Hapten b)Iso-Antigen c) Heterophile antigen d)Super antigen 108) Systemic toxicity is a main adverse effect of………. a) Hapten b)Iso-Antigen c) Heterophile antigen d)Super antigen 109) The main Ig in secondary response is………… a) IgG b)IgM c) IgD d)IgE 110) Agglutination is made mainly by ……. a) IgG b)IgM c) IgD d)IgA e) IgE 111) Secretions contain…………… a) IgG b)IgM c) IgD d)IgA e) IgE 112) Hypersensitivity I reaction is caused by……….. a) IgG b)IgM c) IgD d)IgA e) IgE 113) Complement compenents are synthesized in all of the following cells except a) Hepatic cells b)Macrophages c) Renal cells d)Monocytes 114) Both pathways of activation of complement system lead to formation of a) Protein c3 b)C3 convertase c) All of the above d) None of the above 115) The compenent that cause cell lysis is a) Protein c3
- 13. 13 b)C3 convertase c) Membraneattack complex d)(a&b) e) All of the above 116) Classical pathway is initiated in the presence of a) Ab –Ag complexes b)Aggregated IgA c) Endotoxins of Gram –ve d)All of the above 117) Alternative pathway helps in first line of defence against organisms because it : a) Occurs in the presence of aggregared IgA b)Occurs in the presence of endotoxins of Gram –ve bacteria c) Leads to formation of c3 convertase d)Occurs in the absence of Ab e) All of the above 118) Presence of c3b bound on cell’s surface make it liable to phagocytosis because of a) It is inserted to cell membrane and cause lysis b)Its receptors are present in surface of many phagocytes c) It attracts phagocytic cells d)All of the above 119) Tissue antigens that cause graft rejection are called a) HLA b)MHC c) Transplantation antigens d)All of the above 120) ClassI MHC antigens include a) HLA-A &HLA-B &HLA-D b)HLA-A &HLA-B &HLA-C c) HLA-p &HLA-Q &HLA-R d)None of the above 121) MHC class II are found on a) APCs b)All nucleated cells c) T-lymphocytes d)(a&c) 122) MHC class I complexes with Ag on target cell to stimulate Th cells a) True b)False 123) HLA determined by cellular tests is a) Class I b)Class II c) All of the above d)None of the above 124) Th cells recognize foreign Ag on the surface of APCs only if they
- 14. 14 are associated withclass II MHC.This is called a) Graft rejection b)MHC restriction c) Disease association d)Paternity 125) HLA that can be typed by PCR a) Class I MHC b)Class II MHC c) All of the above d)None of the above 126) Acquired immunity is genetically controlled a) True b)False 127) The type of immunity that can respond to second exposure to the same antigens a) Active immunity b)Natural immunity c) Both (a&b) d)None of the above 128) Which of the following is mechanism of immunity a) Sebaceous secretions b)Mucous secretions c) Intact skin d)All of the above 129) Bactericidal substances are mechanism of innate immunity . a) True b)False 130) Lysosome splits the sugar from mucopeptide layer of the cell wall of a) Gram +ve bacteria b)Gram-ve bacteria c) Non enveloped viruses d) None of the above 131) HCL of stomach kills many bacteria including a) Salivary streptococci b)Diphtheria bacilli c) Lacto bacilli d)Vibrio cholera 132) Phagocyted cells are present in a) Lymphoid tissue b)Spleen c) Lung d)(a&b) e) All of the above 133) The complement system attracts phagocytotic cells,enhance phagocytosis and increase their activity. a) True b)False
- 15. 15 134) NK cellsrecognize the tumour cell and virally infected cells by a) Opsonization b)Chemotaxis c) Non-specifically d)All of the above 135) TLRs are ……………….in nature a) Glycoprotein b)Liposaccharides c) Peptidoglycans d)None of the above 136) Synthesis of interferon results from binding of a) TLRs to PAMPs b)TLRs to viral compenents c) NK cells to tumour cells d)All of the above 137) In acquired active immunity the host a) Transplacentaly receives Abs b)Is administrated performed Abs c) Produces the Abs d)All of the above 138) The immunity that gives immediate protection is a) Active natural immunity b)Active artificial immunity c) Passive natural immunity d)Passive artificial immunity e) (c&d) 139) In passive artificial immunity Abs can be obtained from a) Gamma globulin preparations b)Convalescent serum c) All of the above d)None of the above 140) All of the following participate in humoral immunity except a) TH1 cells b)TH2 cells c) B-lymphocytes d)None of the above 141) All of the following are antigen presenting cells except a) Dendritic cells b)B-lymphocytes c) Macrophages d)T-lymphpcytes 142) The cell which prevent unnecessary activation of lymphocytes is a) Cytotoxic cells b)Regulatory cells c) Plasma cells d)All of the above
- 16. 16 143) All ofthe following inhibit transpeptidation reaction except: a) cephalosporins b) penicillin c) monobactam d) aminoglycosides 144) Which of the following can act on non-growing bacteria: a) polymixins b) bacitracin c) vancomycin d) all of the above 145) ………………… is a bactericidal antibiotic act on 30s subunit. a) aminoglycoside a) aminoglycoside c) penicillin d) chloramphenicol 146) Rifampin inhibits bacterial growth by inhibiting …….. : a) DNA gyrase b) dihydrofolate reductase c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase d) RNa dependent DNA polymerase 147) The ratio between sulphonamide and trimethoprim in co-trimoxazole which is bacteriostatic is 5 to 1: a) true b) false 148) Which of the following inhibit dihydrofolate reductase: a) rifampin b) sulphonamide c) quinolones d) trimethoprin 149) ……….. inhibit early steps in synthesis of peptidoglycan. a) penicillin b) tetracyclin c) bacitracin d) macrolides 150) All of the following are true about inherit resistance except:
- 17. 17 a) it isnatural b) predictable c) has genetic origin d) innate property of bacteria 151) Pseudomonas is naturally resistant to many drugs due to: a) absence of target structure b) permeability barrier in cell envelop c) spontaneous mutation d) they are metobilically inactive 152) Developing of resistance during the course of treatment is considered acquired resistance. a) true b) false 153) R factor is responsible for genetic chromosomal resistance. a) true b) false 154) Bacteria resistant to chloramphincol produce cchloramphenicol: a) acetylase b) adenylase c) acetyl transferase d) phosphatase 155) Organisms resistance to certain antimicrobial drug must be resistant to all drugs having the same mechanism of action. a) true b) false 156) Bacteria resistant to ………alter specific structural protein on 30s ribosomal subunit. a) macrolide b) sulphonamide c) penicillin d) aminoglycoside 157) Which of the following statement is false about interferons: a) they are species specific b) they are stimulus specific c) they inhibit viral replication
- 18. 18 d) they arethe first line of defense against viral infection 158) The three types of interferons are different in size and antigenicity. a) true b) false 159) IFNs are not induced by: a) mitogens b) bacterial endoroxins c) single stranded RNA d) none of the above 160) The activity of INF gamma in in inhibition cell growth is greater than alpha and beta. a) true b) false 161) IFNs inhibit viral reproduction byinhibit synthesis of: a) viralDNA b) viral RNA c) viral proteins d) all of the above 162) ……………. achieve 3-5 times plasma concentration than acyclovoir. a) ganacyclovoir b) valacyclovoir c) ganvalacyclovoir d) zidoviodine 163) Zidoviodine is an antiretroviral drug inhibit: a) DNA gyrase b) dihydrofolate reductase c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase d) RNa dependent DNA polymerase 164) Which of the following inhibit viral penetration and uncoating: a) IFN b) fuzon c) amantadine d) protease inhibitor
- 19. 19 165) Ribavirin isadded to IFN to enhance its activity and decrease SVR. a) true b) false 166) ……….. is an example of attenuated viral vaccine. a) sabin b) salk c) human rabies d) all of the above 167) Viral stabilizers used for polio vaccines is…………: a) chloroform b) K permengnate c) magnisium chloride d) potassium hydroxide 168) Strong formaline is used for viral inactivation to maintain minimal damage to viral proteins. a) true b) false 169) which of the following is not disadvantage of inactivated virus vaccine: a) brief immunity b) limited protection c) cannot be given to immunocomprmised people d) cell mediated immunity is poor 170) Interference by co- infection with naturally occurring viruses increase the effectiveness of vaccine. a) true b) false 171) The technique that use plasmid carring genes for viral proteins of interest as a vaccine is called………… : a) genetic manipulation b) a virulent viral vaccine c) cloned genes d) naked DNA viruses
- 20. 20 Microbiology Answers 1- B 2-C 3- A 4- C 5- D 6- D 7- B 8- C 9- A 10- A 11- B 12- C 13- D 14- A 15- C 16- D 17- B 18- C 19- A 20- B 21- D 22- C 23- A 24- B 25- D 26- A 27- C 28- C 29- B 30- A 31- B 32- D 33- A 34- A 35- D 36- C 37- B 38- C 39- B 40- A 41- A 42- E 43- B 44- C 45- A 46- C 47- C 48- A 49- C 50- C 51- B 52- A 53- D 54- B 55- D 56- C 57- B 58- B 59- D 60- A 61- D 62- D 63- D 64- B 65- B 66- D 67- D 68- D 69- B 70- B 71- D 72- A 73- C 74- A 75- C 76- B 77- A 78- C 79- A 80- B 81- D 82- B 83- D 84- C 85- C 86- D 87- A 88- B 89- C 90- E 91- B
- 21. 21 92- A 93- A 94-A 95- B 96- A 97- B 98- D 99- A 100-C 101-B 102-D 103-C 104-A 105-B 106-C 107-D 108-D 109-A 110-B 111-D 112-C 113-C 114-B 115-C 116-A 117-D 118-B 119-D 120-B 121-D 122-B 123-B 124-B 125-C 126-B 127-A 128-D 129-A 130-A 131-D 132-E 133-A 134-C 135-A 136-B 137-C 138-E 139-C 140-A 141-D 142-B 143-D 144- A 145-A 146-C 147-B 148-D 149-C 150-C 151-B 152-A 153-B 154-C 155-B 156-D 157-B 158-D 159-C 160-A 161-C 162-B 163-D 164-C 165-B 166-A 167-C 168-B 169-C 170-B 171-D
- 22. 22 1) ……… parasiteswhich are highly pathogenic in patients of poor immunity a) Obligatory b)Facultative c) Opportunistic d)Accidental 2) Endoparasites invade internal organs of the host causing infestation a) True b)False 3) Nosocomial infection is acquired by a) Syringes b)Food c) Hospitalization d)Contaminated soil 4) Transmission of the infection to the baby by mother’s milk can occur a) True b)False 5) … Obstruction of the internal organs by parasites achieved by … mechanism a) Allergic b)Toxic c) Traumatic d)Mechanical a) Both the host and the parasite get benefit 6- Parasitism b) The parasite harms the host7- Prepatent period c) Time between entry of the parasite and the appearance of diagnostic stage 8- Mutulism d) The parasite does not cause injury to the host 9- Commensalism 10) The parasites never cause injury to man as they get their food and gain protection only a) True b)False 11) Parasites which can not exist without a host a) Obligatory
- 23. 23 b)Facultative c) Accidental d)None ofthe above 12) Concerning opportunistic parasites a) Can lead free living life in soil b)Enter man accidentally c) They are low in pathogenicity with well functioned immune system d)All of the above e) None of the above 13) All parasites can exist independently of a host a) True b)False 14) …. Can live in hosts different from their normal ones a) Opportunistic parasites b)Obligatory parasites c) Facultative parasites d)None of the above 15) The …. Host , in which the adult stage of the parasite lives in a) Definitive b)Paratenic c) Intermediate host d)Both a and b e) All of the above 16) The definitive host for a parasite , the parasite is characterized by a) Being in the larval stage b)Leads asexual reproduction c) Being forced to terminate its life cycle d)All of the above e) None of the above 17) The parasite multiply asexually in a) Definitive host b)Intermediate host c) Paratenic host d)None of the above 18) Paratenic host is the host in which the … stage of the parasite can exist a) Larval b)Adult c) Diagnostic d)None of the above 19) Vectors are usually helminthes a) True b)False 20) The close association between two organisms is known as a) Symbiosis b)Mutulism c) Commensalism d)None of the above 21) If the parasite associated with an organism , derives benefit from it without causing injury , A kind of association known as a) Mutulism b)Parasitism
- 24. 24 c) Symbiosis d)Commensalism 22) Inparasitism a) The parasite derives benefit from the host b)The parasite does not get any benefit c) The parasite cause injury to the host d)Both a and c e) Both b and d 23) Super-infection is reinfection with different species of the parasites infected the host a) True b)False 24) Concerning indirect life cycle a) Require only one species of host to complete b)Require more than one species of host to be completed c) Require the presence of one or two intermediate hosts d)Both b and c are correct e) None of the above 25) The prepatent period is the time taken from the entry of the parasite to the appearance of the symptoms a) True b)False 26) Generalized manifestation to the man as a host can be caused by the toxic by-products of the parasite a) True b)False 27) Platyhelminthes have an intact alimentary canal a- True b- False 28) Platyhelminthes are divided into two classes, Trematoda and Cestoidea a- True b- False 29) Trematodes possess at least ……………. a- Two suckers b- four suckers c- bothria d-rostellum 30) The excretory bladder of Trematodes discharge waste products through pores in………… a- anterior end b- posterior end c- lateral side b- Infront of the neck region 31) All Trematodes are hermaphrodite except………..
- 25. 25 a- Fasciola hepatica b-Heterophyesheterophyes c-Fasciola gigantic d-Schistosoma 32) Trematodes are ………….. a- Facultative anaerobes b- Obligate aerobes c- Obligate anaerobes d- Micro-aerophilics 33) The second generation of sporocysts in Trematodes are called……….. a- Radial stage b- Cercaria c-Miracidium d- Cystic larval stage 34) Heterophyes heterophyes is a fluke living in the host's……… a- Liver b- Intestine c- Bile duct d- Blood vessels 35) Cestoida have ………. Shape a- Leaf-like b- pear c- ribbon d- cylindrical 36) The chain of proglottids is called………. a- Scolex b- Stroblia c-bothria d- rostellum 37) The region of growth in tapeworms is……… a- head b- neck c- immature segments d- mature segments 38) Tapeworms get nutrition through…….. a- mouth opening b- rostellum c- cuticle d- none of the above 39) The nervous system is present in………. a- scolex b- neck c- immature segments d- mature segments 40) Cestoidea adults live in host's……….. a- Liver b-Intestine c- Blood vessels d- Bile ducts
- 26. 26 41) Cestodes needone or two intermediate host with exception of……….. a-Taenia saginata b-Echinococcus granulosum c-Hymenolepis nana d-Diphylliobothrium latum 42) Pseudophyllidea and Cyclophyllidea are orders of ………… a- Trematoda b- Cestodes c- nematodes d- Platyhelminthes 43) Which of the following has operculated eggs a- Schistosoma mansoni b- Spirometra mansoni c- Taenia solium d- Ascaris 44) The infective stage of cestodes Pseudophyllidea is…….……… a- procercoid larvae b- coracidium c- operculated eggs d- plerocercoid larvae 45) The infective stage of trematodes is…… a- miracidium b-sporocyst c- cercaria d- radial stage 46) The infective stage of Cyclophyllidea is……… a- hexacanth embryo b- oncospheres c- cystic larval stage d- adult worms 47) Most nematodes are ……….. a- endoparasites b-ectoparasites c- free living d- a and b 48) The shape of the……. Can be used to identify a nematode a- Oesophagus b- intestine c- genital system c- nervous system 49) Nematodes can be classified according to …………. a- presence of chemoreceptors b- shape of oesophagus c- structure of the cuticle d- the method of reproduction in female worms 50) Protozoa are parasitic unicellular microorganisms
- 27. 27 a- True b- False 51)All the following protozoa are motile except a- Sarcodina b- Mastigophora c- ciliate d- Coccidia 52) Ectoplasm is responsible for all the following except……. a- Excretion b- Ingestion c- digestion d- respiration 53) Endoplasm is …….. viscid and ………. Granular than ectoplasm a- less, less b- more, more c- more, less d- less, more 54) Contractile vacuoles is a apecial structure in…….. a- sarcodina b- ciliate c- flagellates d- apicomplexa 55) Peristome is used for ingestion in………. a- sarcodina b- ciliate c- flagellates d- apicomplexa 56) Metabolic wastes are stored as pigment granules in………. a- sarcodina b- flagellates c- ciliate d- apicomplexa 57) Malaria plasmodium respire aerobically a- True b- False 58) All protozoa reproduce asexually a- True b- False 59) Diffusion through ectoplasm is method of excretion in…………… a- Flagellates b- Sarcodina c- ciliata d- plasmodium 60) Free living amoeba is similar to ciliata in the way they both have…… a- pseudopodia b- cilia c- contractile vacuoles
- 28. 28 d- peristomes 61) Arthropodsare a) Unicellular microorganisms b)Multicellular , bilaterally asymmetrical organisms c) Possess jointed appendages in the form of legs d)All of the above e) None of the above 62) Arthropods possess antennae a) True b)False 63) The haemocele of arthropods is filled with a) Clear colored fluid b)Haemolymph c) Coxal fluid d)None of the above 64) Copepods are an example of a) Crustacean b)Arachnida c) Insects d)Heminthes 65) Copepods are more commonly found in running water than in still water a) True b)False 66) Copepods are non-aquatic organisms a) True b)False 67) Concerning Ticks a) Are small in size b)Have thin cuticle and membranous c) Hair is present on the body d)Have strong well developed mouth parts 68) Adults of Arachnida possess four pairs of legs and have antennae a) True b)False 69) In Acarina , all body segments are fused together a) True b)False 70) Concerning mites a) They are small in size b)The hypostome unarmed , hidden and small c) Body hair is absent d)The cuticle is membranous e) Both b and c are correct 71) Scutum is present in soft ticks a) True b)False 72) Hard ticks are permanent ectoparasites
- 29. 29 a) True b)False 73) Thehouse fly play a role in transmission of a) Cysts of protozoa b)Eggs of helminthes c) Enteric pathogens d)All of the above e) None of the above 74) The type of transmission in which the organism multiply in the arthropods without any cyclical development a) Propagative b)Cyclo-developmental c) Cyclopropagative d)None of the above 75) An example for cyclodevelopmental transmission a) Leishmania in sand fly b)Plasmodia in the female anopheles mosquitoes c) Trypanosomes in glossian fly d)All of the above e) None of the above 76) Scorpions and female mosquitoes can produce either systemic or local reactions by toxins a) True b)False 77) House dust mites can cause rhinitis or asthma a) True b)False 78) Scorpionida is a subclass of crustacea a) True b) False 79) Venom injected by scorpion stinger contains a) Mucolartoxins b)Intestinal toxins c) Neurotoxin d)None of the above 80) What’s occurs immediately after injection of the sting of scorpion a) Intense acing pain b)Generalized numbness c) Mental disturbance d)Death 81) Death after injection of scorpion stinger a) Glossopharyngeal n involvement b)Generalized numbness c) Difficulty of swallowing d)Respiratory failure 82) Local treatment of scorpion sting is by ligation the limb with a tourniquet distal to the site of the sting a) True
- 30. 30 b)False 83) Antivenin shouldbe given intravenously after scorpion sting a) True b)False 84) Soft and hard ticks transmits rickettsial disease a) True b)False 85) The mode of transmission of ricketsial disease by hard ticks is through a) Bite b)Faeces c) Crushing the tick d)All of the above 86) Hard ticks transmits all of the following EXCEPT a) Undulant fever b)Babesiosis c) Lyme disease d)Relapsing fever 87) The mode of transmission of undulant fever by hard ticks is through a) Faeces b)Crushing the tick c) The bite of the tick d)All of the above e) Both b and c are correct 88) Babesiosis is transmitted by a) Soft ticks b)Mites c) Sarcoptes scabiei d)Hard ticks 89) Covering the wound of scorpion sting by a disinfectant such as a) Chlorohexidine b)Alchol c) Iodine compounds d)Potassium permanganate 90) Hard ticks as a causative agents of diseases cause a) Anaemia b)Dermatitis c) Tick paralysis d)All of the above e) None of the above 91) Otoacariasis can be caused by a) Scorpion b)Glossia c) Hard ticks d)Mites 92) Rarely soft ticks can cause toxic paralysis and skin lesions in man a) True b)False
- 31. 31 93) Concerning sarcoptesscabiei , all of the following is true EXCEPT a) A specific skin parasite b)Cause scabies among the over crowded poor population c) Have ovoid counter d)Can be seen by naked eye 94) The fertilized female of sarcoptes scabiei usually develops …. Eggs at a time within her body a) 4-5 b)6-8 c) 1-2 d)None of the above 95) Within … days , the eggs of sarcoptes scabiei hatch and six legged larvae emerge a) 10-14 b)1-2 c) 3-5 d)None of the above 96) The nymphal stage of sarcoptes scabiei reaches the adulthood 2 weeks after being hatched a) True b)False 97) The usual sites of scabies include a) Inter digital spaces b)Breast c) Axillae d)Groin e) All of the above 98) Increased body warmth at night activates the mites to produce an alkaline secretion which intensifies the irritation a) True b)False 99) Itching of sarcoptes scabiei is mainly at night due to a) Warmth b)The mite produce acidic secretion c) Increasing its activity d)All of the above e) Both b an c are correct 100) Epidemic Relapsing fever is transmitted by a) Hard ticks b)Soft ticks c) Mites d)None of the above 101) Concerning vagabons disease a) Caused by lice b)Skin develops a peculiar form characterized by bronzed formation c) There is pustular formation d)All of the above
- 32. 32 102) Lice asvectors of human diseases transmit a) Louse borne typhus b)Epidemic relapsing fever c) Tungisis d)All of the above e) Both a and b are correct 103) Faecec of infected lice containing rickettsia prwazeki contaminate a) Skin abrasions b)Conjunctive c) Mucous membranes d)All of the above e) Both a and c are correct 104) The mode of infection of epidemic relapsing fever by lice is through a) Inhalation od dried faecec carrying the organism b)Crushing the louse on the skin c) Faecec contaminate skin abrasions d)All of the above 105) Body lice produce distinctive skin lesions due to chronic irritatios of skin by temporary exposure to salivary secretion following frequent biting a) True b)False 106) In untrated cases of head lice , the hair becomes matted together from the exudate and Bacterial growth a) True b)False 107) Concerning plica polonica a) A case produced due to infestation with lice b)Disease produced by bugs c) A condition caused by fleas d)None of the above 108) Crab louse are present in a) Eye brows b)Eye lashes c) Pubic hair d)Axilla e) All of the above 109) Treatment of Phthirus pubis include a) Shaving the hair b)Licid ( A synthetic pyrethroid ) c) Malathion d)Gammaxane powder e) Both a and d are correct 110) Recent findings in west and south Africa indicate that winged bugs may be naturally infected with hepatitis B virus a) True b)False 111) Bed bugs can transmit a) Plague b)Rickettsia
- 33. 33 c) Chagas’s disease d)HepatitisB virus 112) Plague is the disease essentially of a) Human b)Cats c) Dogs d)Rodents 113) Plague can be transmitted by a) Hemiptera b)Phthirus pubis c) Siphonaptera d)All of the above e) None of the above 114) Xenopsylla cheopis is an efficient plague vector because a) Its proventiculus is easily blocked b)Feeds on both infected rodents and humans c) Abundant near human habitations d)All of the above 115) Some types of fleas can be intermediate hosts for cestode worms a) True b)False 116) The female of tunga penetrans usually attacks all of the following EXCEPT a) The toe nails b)Interdigital spaces c) Soles of the feet d)Dorsum of the feet 117) Possible complications after the gravid female of tunga penetrans burrows skin and become in the size of pea a) Gangrene b)Abscess formation c) Ulceration d)All of the following e) Both b and c are correct 118) Infected female Anopheles mosquitoes transmit malaria by injecting a) Merozoites b)Sporozoites c) Gametocytes d)None of the above 119) Efficient malaria vector must fulfill all of the following requirements EXCEPT a) They must feed frequently on human body b)Their life span must exceed the developmental period c) They must be severly susceptible to infection by gametocytes of plasmodium d)Plasmodia parasites must be produced in adequate numbers
- 34. 34 120) Anopheles mosquitoesas vectors of human diseases can transmit all of the following EXCEPT a) Malaria b)Arboviruses c) Filariasis d)Dengu fever 121) The introduction of the salivary secretion via mosquito bite usually produces sever generalized allergic reaction a) True b)False 122) Affrican trpanosomiasis is transmitted by a) Musca domestica flies b)Mosquitoes c) Hard ticks d)Glossina flies 123) Myiasis can be defined as the invasion or infestation of tissues of live humans with larvae of a) Lesser diptera b) Higher diptera c) Hemi diptera d) Fleas 124) Intestinal myiasis is facilitated by higher gastric acidity a) True b) False 125) When larvae are ingested with food they find their way to intestine and may cause a) Diarrhea b) Vomiting c) Nausea d) All of the above 126) In intestinal myiasis , living or dead larvae can be found in stools or vomits such as a) Muscadomestica b) Lucilia c) Calliphora d) All of the above 127) The larvae of latrine fly may find their way uncommonly to stomach a) True b) False 128) Urogenital myiasis may be caused by the larvae of all of the following EXCEPT a) Fannia b) Muscadomestica c) Calliphora d) Eristalis fly
- 35. 35 129) The maggotspassed in urine are not used for diagnosis of the species of the invading fly a) True b) False 130) Larvae which invade neglected sores or wounds reach maturity after a) 3 days b) One week c) 2 weeks d) One month 131) The following fly can cause traumatic cutaneous myiasis a) Lucilia b) Cochliomyia c) Chrysomyia d) All of the above 132) Larvae of oestrus are usually deposited in a) Inner canthus of the eye of sheep b) Inner canthus of the eye of man c) Nostrils of sheep d) All of the above e) Both a and c are correct 133) …. May deposit their larvae in the eyes of man a) Wihlfahrita b) Sarcophagi c) Calliphora d) All of the above 134) Purulent exudates discharged from running ears attract several species of flies to lay eggs or larvae a) True b) False 135) Larvae of chrysomia can invade the middle ear , inner ear or even brain a) True b) False 136) Cordylobiaanthropophaga females lay their eggs on a) Dry soil or sand b) Places contaminated by human excreta c) Clothes d) Abdomen of mosquitoes e) All are true except d 137) Oestrus larvae infest the eyes and may cause a) Conjunctivitis b) Corneal ulcers c) Panophthalmitis d) All of the above 138) Wohlfahrita can attack unbroken skin if it’s soft and fine as in children a) True b) False 139) Examples for facultative myiasis producing flies include
- 36. 36 a) Sarcophagi b) Calliphora c)Lucilia d) All of the above 140) The presence of larvae of lucillia in wounds prevents healing and induce sepsis in affected sites a) True b) False 141) Examples for accidental myiasis a) Drosophila in fruits b) Piophila in cheese c) Fannia d) All of the above 142) Diagnosis of myiasis can be made only upon finding the larvae a) True b) False 143) Larvae in furuncles can be stimulated to leave by occlusion of the opening with Vaseline a) True b) False 144) Larvae in wounds or body openings can be removed by a) Surgical removal b) Occlusion of the opening by petroleum jelly c) Applying a gauze pad soaked in chloroform d) All of the above 145) Larvae of sracophaga are known to be voracious feeders of necrotic tissues a) True b) False 146) Obligatory myiasis include all of the following EXCEPT a) Wohlfahrita b) Chrysomyia c) Calliphora d) Cordylobia 147) The presence of larvae in dead bodies can be a proof of time of death a) True b) False Parasitology Answers 1- C 2- B 3- C 4- A 5- D 6- B 7- C 8- D 9- A 10- B 11- A 12- C 13- B 14- D 15- A
- 37. 37 16- E 17- A 18-A 19- B 20- A 21- A 22- D 23- B 24- D 25- B 26- A 27- B 28- B 29- A 30- B 31- D 32- C 33- A 34- B 35- C 36- D 37- B 38- C 39- A 40- B 41- C 42- B 43- B 44- D 45- C 46- C 47- C 48- A 49- A 50- B 51- D 52- C 53- D 54- B 55- B 56- D 57- A 58- B 59- A 60- C 61- C 62- A 63- B 64- A 65- B 66- B 67- D 68- B 69- A 70- E 71- B 72- A 73- D 74- A 75- E 76- B 77- A 78- B 79- C 80- A 81- D 82- B 83- B 84- A 85- D 86- D 87- E 88- D 89- D 90- D 91- C 92- A 93- D 94- C 95- C 96- B 97- E 98- B 99- D 100- D 101- D 102- E 103- D 104- B 105- B 106- B 107- D 108- E
- 38. 38 109- E 110- B 111-D 112- D 113- C 114- D 115- A 116- D 117- D 118- B 119- C 120- D 121- B 122- D 123- B 124- B 125- D 126- D 127- B 128- D 129- B 130- B 131- D 132- D 133- D 134- A 135- A 136- E 137- D 138- A 139- D 140- A 141- D 142- A 143- A 144- C 145- B 146- C 147- A
- 39. 39 1) The efferentarm of the immune response consist of a) The antigen gains access to the body b) The antigen Picked up by APC c) The antigen become recognized to TH cells d) The antigen become destroyed 2) Re-secretion of the processed antigen on the surface of APC occurs in conjugation with appropriate a) MHC class I b) MHC class 2 c) CD8 d) CD4 3) The body is capable of responding to subsequent challenges by the same antigen is a shorter period is done by a) TH cells b) B cells c) Plasma cells d) Long lived memory T cells 4) Cytokines stimulate B cells to convert into plasma cells and produce antibodies a) True b) False 5) We can say that the immune system is primed when a) TH cells recognize the Ag in its processed form b) Blast transformation occurs c) Cytokines are produced d) All of the above e) Both a and b are correct 6) The efferent arm of the immune response aims to destroy the Ag a) True b) False 7) In the immune response , the difference between physiologic and pathologic is qualitative not quantitative a) True b) False 8) The magnitude of the response is exaggerated so that it causes excessive tissue destruction a) Immune deficiency state b) Auto-immune disease c) Hypersensitivity reactions d) None of the above 9) Humoral hypersensitivity reaction includes a) Anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions b) Antibody mediated hypersensitivity reaction
- 40. 40 c) Immune complexmediated hypersensitivity reaction d) Cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction e) All are true except d 10) Type I anaphylactic response occurs on the first exposure of an individual to a particular antigen a) True b) False 11) Atopic individual has an inborn hereditary tendency to produce large amounts of … antibody on exposure to a particular antigen instead of IgM a) IgA b) IgD c) IgE d) IgG 12) Cells which are involved in appropriate response include a) Basophils b) Mast cells c) Kupffer cells d) Both a and b are correct e) None of the above 13) The Initial phase of type I hypersensitivity reaction characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a) Vasodilatation b) Edema c) Spasm of smooth muscle d) Tissue damage 14) Concerning second late phase in type I hypersensitivity reaction , it’s characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a) Occurs in minority of atopic individuals b) Synthesis of new chemotactic substances c) Tissue damage by recruitment of inflammatory cells d) It’s reversible phase 15) An example for systemic type I hypersensitivity reaction a) Penicillin rejection b) Hay fever in upper respiratory allergens c) Bee sting d) Both a and c are correct e) All of the above 16) Diarrhea and abdominal cramps in response to ingested allergens is an example of localized type I hypersensitivity reaction a) True b) False 17) There is three subtypes in type II hypersensitivity reaction are recognized according to the involvement of these variables a) Complement fixation b) Phagocytosis c) Tissue destruction
- 41. 41 d) All ofthe above 18) Transfusion reaction is an example for a) Complement mediated reaction b) Antibody mediated cellular dysfunction c) ADCC d) None of the above 19) Complement fixation is necessary for release of inflammatory cytokines and initiation of inflammation a) True b) False 20) All the three variables (complement fixation, phagocytosis, tissue destruction) are present in subtype B of type II hypersensitivity reaction a) True b) False 21) The sole determinant factor for determination of which subtype is going to occur a) The type of the antigen b) The type of antibody c) The type of cells involved d) All of the above e) None of the above 22) There is no fixation of the complement, and no phagocytosis in ADCC a) True b) False 23) Antibody mediated cellular dysfunction is characterized by a) No complement fixation b) No phagocytosis c) No tissue destruction d) All of the above 24) There is no fixation of the complement in a) Subtype A b) Subtype B c) Subtype C d) Both b and c 25) Normally Ag-Ab complexes are regularly removed from the circulation by a) Kupffer cells b) Littoral cells c) Monocytes d) All of the above 26) Type II hypersensitivity reaction is due to dysfunction of RES a) True b) False 27) Sites favored for deposition by immune complexes include a) Heart b) Joints c) Walls of Blood vessels
- 42. 42 d) All ofthe above 28) SLE is an example for the result of localized deposition of immune complexes a) True b) False 29) The effector cells of delayed type hypersensitivity include a) CD8 cytotoxic T cells b) Memory T cells c) CD4 helper T cells d) Monocytes 30) Granulomas are the pathologic lesions of T cell mediated cytotoxicity reaction a) True b) False 31) CD4 helper T cells are the actual effector cells of DTH ( delayed type hypersensitivity) a) True b) False 32) Potent macrophage activator and cause them to transform to epitheloid cells a) Interleukin 2 b) TNF c) IFN d) All of the above 33) CD8 cells bind to the processed antigen in conjunction with MHC classI a) True b) False 34) CD8 cells kill the target cell by a) MAC b) Perforin c) Induction of apoptosis d) Both b and c are correct e) All of the above 35) Granulomatous inflammation is mediated by … hyper sensitivity reaction a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV 36) Granulomatous inflammation is initiated by a variety of infectious and non-infectious agents a) True b) False 37) Recognition of granulomatous pattern is important because of the limited number of conditions that cause it a) True b) False 38) Granuloma is characterized by
- 43. 43 a) Formed mainlyby aggregates of activated macrophages b) It’s diffused , nodular , small mass c) It’s surrounded by a collar of neutrophils d) It’s size is about 0.5-2 cm in diameter 39) The pathgnomic cells of granuloma are a) PNLs b) Macrophages c) Eosinophils d) Epithelial cells 40) The nuclei are randomly scattered in the cytoplasm in langhans giant cell a) True b) False 41) Central liquifactive necrosis may be present in granulomas a) True b) False 42) Foreign body granuloma which is non- immune granuloma is caused by a) Infectious agent b) Noninfectious agent c) Inert indigestible material d) None of the above 43) Sarcoidosis is an example for a) Caseatingtuberculoid reaction b) Non-caseatingtyberculoid reaction c) Suppurating tuberculoid reaction d) Diffuse granulomatous reaction 44) Tuberculoid granulomatous reactions may be all of the following EXCEPT a) Tuberculosis b) Sarcoidosis c) Cat scratch disease d) Lepromatous leprosy 45) The etiologic agent of sarcoidosis is unknown a) True b) False 46) Concerning autoimmune diseases , they are characterized by a) They are chronic and reversible b) Having remitting course c) Clinically they are frequent in males d) None of the above 47) All of the following are examples for single organ autoimmune disease EXCEPT a) Myasthenia graves b) Insulin dependent DM c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia 48) All of the following are examples for systemic autoimmune diseases EXCEPT
- 44. 44 a) SLE b) Rheumatoidarthritis c) Polyarteritisnodosa d) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis 49) Central tolerance occurs in the central lymphoid tissue (thymus and bone marrow) a) True b) False 50) Mechanisms of peripheral tolerance include all of the following EXCEPT a) Clonal anergy b) Suppression by regular T8 cells c) Clonal deletion d) Antigen sequestration 51) Suppressor T cells inhibit the function of T lymphocytes by secreting inhibitory cytokines which are a) IL-2 b) IL-10 c) IFN d) TNF 52) Ags are not exposed to lymphocytes of the blood include a) Liver cells b) Seminiferous tubules c) Lens protein d) Both b and c are correct 53) In rheumatoid fever , the antibody against the streptococcal M protein cross reacts with liver proteins a) True b) False 54) When a sequestrated antigen come into-contact with immune cells, they recognize them as foreign antigens a) True b) False 55) Over 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis have HLA-C 27 antigen a) True b) False 56) Familial clusters of human autoimmune diseases include a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia b) SLE c) Autoimmune thyroiditis d) All of the above Pathology Answers 1- D 2- B 3- D 4- A 5- D 6- A 7- B 8- C 9- E 10- B 11- C 12- D
- 45. 45 13- D 14- D 15-D 16- A 17- D 18- A 19- A 20- B 21- B 22- A 23- D 24- D 25- D 26- B 27- D 28- B 29- C 30- B 31- B 32- C 33- A 34- D 35- D 36- A 37- A 38- A 39- B 40- B 41- B 42- C 43- B 44- D 45- A 46- D 47- C 48- D 49- A 50- C 51- B 52- D 53- B 54- A 55- B 56- D 1) Infection a- A clinically manifest disease of man or animal resulting from infection 2) Communicable disease b- It’s an infectious disease which cannot be transmitted from the reservoir to a susceptible host 3) Contamination c- Occurrence of the disease more than expected 4) Infectious disease d- Disease can be transmitted directly or indirectly or through vector 5) Epidemic e- The presence of living infectious agent in the water or food 6) Non communicable disease f- It’s the entry, development and multiplication of an infectous agent in the body 7) Epidemic a- More or less localized epidemic affecting certain large number of a group 8) Pandemic b- A disease that has established itself permanently in a certain locality 9) Sporadic c- Infections acquired during delivery of health care
- 46. 46 10) Outbreak d-Occurrence of the disease more than expected 11) Endemic e- The appearance of a disease in an epidemic form affecting countries sequentially 12) Nosocomial infection f- Cases are few and separated widely in space and time showing no connection 13) All of the following are True about erythrogenic exotoxin of scarlet fever EXCEPT a) Can be destroyed rapidly by heat b)Highly immunogenic and cannot be converted to toxoid c) Can be converted to antigen d)Released by living organism 14) Pathogenicity and virulence can be measured by a) Specific attack rate b)Specific attack frequency c) Ratio of clinical to subclinical cases d)Case fatality rate e) Both c and d are correct 15) Period and ease of communicability is one of the factors affecting disease production and measured by specific attack frequency a) True b)False 16) ……..is the inherit capacity of the organism to invade certain tissues a) Tropism b)Spore formation c) Viability of the organism d)Host specificity 17) The ……..carrier excrete Infectious organisms more than 3 months a) Transient b)Temporary c) Chronic d)Permanent 18) Contact carriers are of .. type , usually the period of contact ends when the patient is cured a) Transient b)Temporary c) Chronic d)Permanent 19) Animals can act as reservoir as dogs in transmitting a) Brucellosis b)Salmonella c) Rabies d)Plague
- 47. 47 20) Urinary tractcan be the portal of exit of organisms that affect the urinary tract only a) True b)False 21) Which of the following can be transmitted from the mother to the fetus a) German Measles b)Syphilis c) AIDS d)All of the above 22) There is an association between the infected man or animal and the new host without a third object. a) Indirect contact b)Common vehicle transmission c) Direct contact d)None of the above 23) Kissing and touch are examples of ………… a) Indirect transmission b)Droplet transmission c) Direct transmission d)Placental transmission 24) The distance in droplet transmission is …… a) More than one meter b)One meter c) Less than one meter d)Both b and c are correct 25) Infected blood and plasma which is important in case of inoculation of plasma and blood is an example for ……….. a) Direct transmission b)Transplacental transmission c) Common vehicle transmission d)Droplet transmission 26) In biological transmission, the insect is able to transmit infection to the new host ……… a) During the extrinsic incubation period b)Before the extrinsic incubation period c) After the extrinsic incubation period d)None of the above 27) In cyclo-propagative transmission: a) Organisms multiply only b)Organisms undergo developmental changes only c) Nothing occurs d)Both a and b are correct 28) …. is the dissemination of suspended particles in the air consisting partially or wholly of microorganism. a) Biological transmission b)Air born transmission c) Mechanical transmission
- 48. 48 d)Droplet transmission 29) Simplemultiplication of the causative organism in the vector. a) Propagative biological transmission b)Cyclo-propagative c) Cyclo-developmental d)None of the above 30) The length of incubation period depends on: a) The host resistance b)The virulence of the organism c) If the agent is an organism or toxin d)All of the above 31) All of these are true about incubation period EXCEPT a) Important to isolate contacts of communicable diseases b)It’s the time interval between exposure to an infection and appearance of first signs c) Important in identifying the source of infection d)Cannot be detected 32) Immunoglobulin account for about ………in the protein colostrums. a) 90% b)55% c) 95% d)80% 33) Concerning Natural barriers: a) It’s the specific resistance of the body b)Depends on the presence of specific antibodies c) Depend on the anatomical and physiological state of the host d)Both a and b are correct e) Both b and c are correct 34) …….. it is the immunity induced by injecting immunoglobulin. a) Active natural immunity b)Passive artificial immunity c) Passive natural immunity d)None of the above 35) Sabin is an example for a) Attenuated vaccine b)Inactivated vaccine c) Toxoid vaccine d)None of the above 36) Salk vaccine is used for…… a) Small pox b)Measles c) Diphetria d)Polio virus 37) Health education and environmental sanitation are examples for … a) Nonspecific primary prevention b)Secondary prevention c) Specific protection
- 49. 49 d)Tertiary prevention 38) ………….itis a measure to train disable individuals to reach highest level of functional ability. a) Control b)Rehabilitation c) Method of 2nd prevention d)None of the above 39) Application of disinfective measures after the patient has been removed by death a) Concurrent disinfection b)Sterilization c) Terminal disinfection d)Specific protection 40) Zonotic diseases are reported to…………. a) Sanitary authority b)Local health authority c) WHO d)Both a and b are correct 41) It is the first step in the control of a communicable disease. a) Report b)Isolation of the patient c) Case finding and early detection d)Treatment 42) …. is only applied in case of contacts of pneumonic plague only. a) Enlistment b)Isolation c) Surveillance d)None of the above 43) .. is a chemoprophylaxis for contacts of meningococcal meningitis. a) Isoniazid b)Tetracycline c) Rifampicin d)Penicillin 44) Screening tests represents …… a) Primary prevention b)Secondary prevention c) Tertiary prevention d)All of the above 45) Which one of the following is a method could be applied to the contacts a) Enlistment b)Surveillance c) Isolation d)All of the above Community Answers 1- F 2- D 3- E 4- A 5- C 6- B
- 50. 50 7- D 8- E 9-F 10- A 11- B 12- C 13- B 14- E 15- B 16- A 17- C 18- A 19- C 20- B 21- D 22- C 23- C 24- D 25- C 26- D 27- A 28- B 29- A 30- D 31- D 32- C 33- E 34- B 35- A 36- D 37- A 38- B 39- C 40- D 41- C 42- B 43- C 44- B 45- D 1) We cannot use empirical therapy till results of investigations become available a) True b)False 2) To give antimicrobial drugs , host defense mechanism should be intact a) True b)False 3) Factors for choice of the antimicrobial agent related to the drug include all of the following EXCEPT a) Antibiotic spectrum b)Possibility of developing resistance c) Drug’s pharmacokinetic parameters d)Drug allergy 4) Factors related to the host in determinant the choice of the antimicrobial agent include a) Host’s defense mechanism b)Genetic factors c) Liver and renal function d)All of the above
- 51. 51 5) Aminoglycosides andchloramphenicol cause acute haemolysis in G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency a) True b)False 6) Fever may be associated with undefined viral infection or due to other causes such as a) Hepatitis b)Metabolic disorders c) Cancer d)All of the above 7) Antibiotic chemotherapy should be individualized on bases of a) Clinical situation b)Microbial information c) Pharmacological properties of selected drug d)All of the above 8) Misuse of antibiotic is due to a) Improper dose b)Being used without proper drainage of infected necrotic tissue c) Lack of adequate bacteriological information d)All of the above 9) Causes of failure of antimicrobial treatment include a) Incorrect indication b)Ineffective antibiotic c) Inappropriate dosage d)All of the above 10) We use combinations of antimicrobial drugs in order to all of the following EXCEPT a) Treatment of severe infection of unknown etiology b)In mixed infections c) To delay emergence of resistant strains d)To increase the incidence of adverse reactions 11) Drugs that acts as inhibitors of cell wall synthesis include a) Aminoglycosides b)Microlides c) Glycopeptides d)Clindamycin 12) All of the following are inhibitors of protein synthesis EXCEPT a) Chloramphenicol b)Beta lactams c) Linezolide d)Aminoglycosides 13) Inhibitors of bacterial metabolism include a) Tetracyclines b)Streptogramines c) Betalactams d)Sulphonamides
- 52. 52 14) B-lactam antibioticsinclude all of the following EXCEPT a) Penicillins b)Cephlosporines c) Fluoroquinolones d)Monobactams 15) B-lactams share features of a) Chemistry b)Mechanism of action c) Clinical effects d)All of the above 16) infected serous membranes are more permeable to penicillin G a) True b)False 17) Disadvantages of penicillin G include a) Instability in acidic juice b)Destroyed by B-lactamase c) Possess a wide spectrum of activity d)Long duration of action e) Both a and b are correct 18) Penicillin G is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a) Rapidly destroyed by gastric acidity b)Resistant to B lactamase c) Actively secreted by renal tubules d)In meningitis , it penetrates well 19) Procaine penicillin acts for up to one month used only for prophylactic purposes a) True b)False 20) Probenecid blocks renal tubular excretion of penicillin a) True b)False 21) Acid resistant penicillin is a) Penicillin G b)Benzathine penicillin c) Penicillin V d)Procaine penicillin 22) Penicillin V is indicated only in minor infections because of a) Poor bioavailability b)Narrow spectrum c) Frequent dosing d)All of the above 23) Penicillin V is B lactamase resistant a) True b)False 24) Acid and B lactamase penicillins include all of the following EXCEPT a) Oxacillin b)Nafcillin c) Cloxacillin d)Dicloxacillin
- 53. 53 25) Extended spectrumpenicillins are effective orally to treat all of the following EXCEPT a) Urinary tract infections b)Staphylococcus , streptococcus c) Bacterial pneumonia d)All of the following 26) Therapeutic uses of penicillin include a) Syphilis b)Gonococcal infection c) Bacterial pneumonia d)All of the following 27) Aminoglycosides include all of the following EXCEPT a) Streptomycin b)Gentamycin c) Ticarcillin d)Amikacin 28) Pharmacokinetic properties of aminoglycosides include a) They are highly polar drugs b)They must be given parentally c) They are cleaned by kidney unchanged d)All of the above 29) The auditory division is mostly affected by a) Neomycin b)Gentamycin c) Tetramycin d)Streptomycin 30) Gentamycin is never used systemically a) True b)False 31) Paralysis of the diaphragm may occur following instillation of aminoglycosides into pleural or peritoneal cavities a) True b)False 32) Aminoglycosides are mostly used against a) Gram –ve bacteria b)Gram +ve bacteria c) Gram –ve enteric bacteria d)All of the above 33) Gentamycin should be used only in a) Severe infections caused by pseudomonas b)Bowel preparations for elective surgery c) Treatment of some mycobacteria d)All of the above e) None of the above 34) Neomycin is too toxic for parenteral use a) True b)False
- 54. 54 35) … isused in skin and wound infections due to staphylococci topically a) Gentamycin b)Neomycin c) Amikacin d)Tobramycin 36) Chloramphenicol is a bactericidal broad spectrum antibiotic a) True b)False 37) Chloramphenicol is active against a) Aerobic gram +ve b)Anaerobic gram +ve c) Gram –ve d)All of the above 38) Chloramphenicol is active against ricketssiae and chlamydia a) True b)False 39) Pharmacokinetic properties of chloramphenicol include all of the following EXCEPT a) It’s can be given orally b)It crosses placental barrier c) The drug is primarily inactivated in the liver by conjugation with iduronic acid d)Penetrates CSF 40) Concerning the dose of chloramphenicol a) Daily dose shouldn’t exceed 3gm b)The dose not be continued more than 7 days c) The total dose must not exceed 30 gm d)The total dose must be 30 gm 41) The adverse reactions of chloramphenicol include a) Bone marrow depression b)Toxicity of newborn c) GIT disturbance d)All of the above 42) Chloramphenicol increases hepatic microsomal enzymes that metabolize several drug so their half-life is decreased a) True b)False 43) Acyclovir is a nucleotide analogue a) True b)False 44) Acyclovir requires … phosphorylation steps for activation a) One b)Two c) Three d)It’s already active 45) Acyclovir has affinity for viral DNA polymerase about … times more than host cell DNA polymerase
- 55. 55 a) 100 b)200 c) 300 d)1000 46)Topical Acyclovir is used in treatment of a) Primary genital herpes simplex b)Herpetic keratoconjunctivitis c) Prophylactically to CMV d)Chicken pox 47) Intravenous acyclovir is used in treatment of a) Chicken pox in immunocopromised patients b)Varicella zoster in immunocopromised patients c) Varicella zoster in immunocompetent patients d)Herpetic encephalitis e) Both c and d are correct 48) Preparations of acyclovir include a) Eye ointment b)Tablets c) Syrup d)All of the above 49) Adverse effects of acyclovir include all of the following EXCEPT a) Neurotoxicity b)Bone marrow depression c) Phlebitis if extravasated d)Reversible crystalline nephropathy 50) Gancyclovir is used in treatment and prophylaxis of CMV a) True b)False Pharmacology Answers 1- B 2- A 3- D 4- D 5- B 6- D 7- D 8- D 9- D 10- D 11- C 12- B 13- D 14- C 15- D 16- A 17- E 18- B 19- B 20- A 21- C 22- D 23- D 24- B 25- B 26- D 27- C 28- D 29- A 30- A 31- A 32- C 33- A 34- A 35- B 36- B
- 56. 56 37- D 38- B 39-C 40- C 41- D 42- B 43- B 44- C 45- C 46- B 47- E 48- D 49- B 50- A